RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 01 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 01 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 01/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What is the main function of the vas deferens in the male reproductive system?
Ans A. Sperm production

B. Seminal fluid secretion

C. Transporting sperm from the epididymis to the urethra

D. Regulating body temperature

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Q.2 An atom has 11 protons, 11 electrons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of that
atom?
Ans A. 12
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B. 23
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C. 11
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D. 24

Q.3 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What will
be the image distance v?
Ans A. +15 cm

B. +30 cm

C. –15 cm
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D. –30 cm

Q.4
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Which of the following ensures genetic variation in sexually reproducing animals?
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Ans A. Offspring receive genes from both parents
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a C. Gametes are formed by mitosis

D. Only one parent is involved

Q.5 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ans A. The angle of deviation is the angle between the incident ray and emergent ray.

B. In a prism, dispersion can occur if white light is used.

C. In a prism, the incident ray and emergent ray are always parallel.
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D. In a prism, the emergent ray bends towards the base of the prism when the incident ray is coming from the base side.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Which gas is mainly responsible for the greenhouse effect and is released when fossil
fuels are burned?
Ans A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Nitrogen

Q.7 According to Bohr's Model of atom, electrons revolve around the nucleus in
___________.
Ans A. elliptical path

B. random path

C. discrete orbits

D. straight lines

Q.8 A net horizontal force of 20 N acts on a 4 kg block initially at rest for 5 s. What is the
block’s final speed?
Ans A. 30 m/s

B. 50 m/s

C. 25 m/s

D. 20 m/s

Q.9 Which of the following correctly defines the amplitude of a wave?
Ans A. The distance between two consecutive crests

B. The maximum displacement of the particle from its mean position

C. The number of vibrations per second

D. The speed with which the wave travels

Q.10 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about uniform motion?
Ans A. The acceleration is zero

B. The speed varies continuously with time

C. The body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time

D. The velocity remains unchanged

Q.11 What is the formula of formic acid?
Ans A. C₂H₆O

B. HCOOH

C. C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₄O₂

Q.12 Which of the following statements is true about magnetic field lines?
Ans A. Field lines inside a magnet move from north to south.

B. Field lines outside a magnet move from north to south.

C. Magnetic field is weaker where lines are close.

D. Field lines intersect at poles.

Q.13 Which of the following carbon compounds burns with a blue, non-sooty flame under
normal conditions?
Ans A. Diesel

B. Charcoal

C. Ethanol

D. Kerosene

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 What is the role of lysosomes in a cell?
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Ans A. To produce ATP

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D. To digest foreign material

Q.15 Which of the following is NOT considered an organic compound?
Ans A. Acetic acid (CH3COOH)

B. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)

C. Ethanol (C2H5OH)

D. Methane (CH4)
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Q.16 During the process of electrolytic refining of metals, on passing the current through the
electrolyte, the impure metal from the _____________ dissolves into the electrolyte.
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Ans A. anode
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B. salt bridge
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C. both anode and cathode

D. cathode

Q.17 An object is thrown straight up and reaches a maximum height of 20 m. If we take g = 10
m/sec2, what was the initial speed of the object when it was thrown?
Ans A. 30 m/sec

B. 20 m/sec

C. 10 m/sec
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D. 40 m/sec

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Q.18
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Which of the following observations confirms that a solution is acidic?

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Ans
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A. Methyl orange: red, Phenolphthalein: pink, Litmus: red

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B. Methyl orange: red, Phenolphthalein: colourless, Litmus: red

C. Methyl orange: yellow, Phenolphthalein: pink, Litmus: blue

D. Methyl orange: yellow, Phenolphthalein: colourless, Litmus: blue

Q.19 Two wires of the same material have equal lengths but their cross-sectional areas are in
the ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of their resistances will be:
Ans A. 4 : 1

B. 1 : 1
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C. 1 : 2
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g l a Q.20 A machine does ‘W’ joule work in time ‘t’ seconds. The power ‘P’ watt of the machine is
given correctly by which of the following relations? a
a Ans A. P = W/t

B. P = W2/t

C. P = W2t

D. P = W × t

Q.21 Based on function, which of the following combinations represent all types of animal
tissues found in humans?
Ans
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A. Epithelial tissue, Connective tissue, Muscular tissue and Nervous tissue
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B. Epithelial tissue, Connective tissue and Reproductive tissue

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C. Epithelial tissue, Connective tissue and Skeletal tissue
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D. Epithelial tissue, Muscular tissue and Gla ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.22 Which plastids contain pigments that give plants their yellow, orange or red colours?
Ans A. Chromoplasts

B. Chloroplasts

C. Amyloplasts

D. Leucoplasts

Q.23 Which of the following is a key goal of conserving forests and biodiversity?
Ans A. To promote tourism

B. To preserve inherited biodiversity

C. To expand national parks

D. To allow more industrial use of forests

Q.24 Which property of isobars is always different?
Ans A. Total number of nucleons

B. Mass number

C. Atomic number

D. Total number of electrons

Q.25 If tall (T) is dominant over short (t), and round seeds (R) are dominant over wrinkled (r),
identify the genotype of a plant that shows short height and round seeds.
Ans A. ttRR

B. Ttrr

C. TtRR

D. TtRr

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The marked price of a chair is ₹7,600, which is 25% above the cost price. It is sold at a
discount of 4% on the marked price. Find the profit percentage.
Ans A. 20%

B. 22%

C. 21%

D. 19%

Q.27 Pushpraj and Himani together invested ₹34,100 in a business. At the end of the year, out
of a total profit of ₹5,400, Pushpraj's share was ₹2,700. What was the investment of
Pushpraj?
Ans A. ₹18,870

B. ₹17,050

C. ₹15,505

D. ₹17,260

Q.28 The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 16383. Which is the smaller one?
Ans A. 123

B. 129

C. 127

D. 125

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.29 A five digit number 761xy is divisible by 90. Find (x + y).
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Ans A. 5

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D. 4

Q.30 The arithmetic mean of the observations 42, 97, 57, 62, 52, 13, 44, 23 and 69 is:
Ans A. 51

B. 44

C. 48

D. 45
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Q.31 Three numbers are in the ratio 17 : 12 : 6 and the sum of these numbers is 1820. Find
the middle number.5294
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Ans A. 623
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B. 622
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C. 624

D. 621
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Q.32 A fruit seller purchases lemons at 2 for a rupee and sells them at 5 for three rupees.
Find his profit percentage.
Ans A. 22

B. 20

C. 24
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D. 18

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Q.33
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If 20% of a number is added to 78, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same
number is:
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Ans A. 78
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B. 108

C. 88

D. 98

Q.34 Find the area of a triangle whose sides are in the ratio 28 : 23 : 35 and its perimeter is
516 cm.
Ans A.
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B.

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work in 20 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?2530
Ans A. 11

B. 10

C. 13

D. 5

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 48

Q.36 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 13.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 4 : 5, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 3°

B. 8°

C. 5°

D. 4°

Q.37 If the ratio of two numbers is 7 : 8, and their HCF is 32, then their LCM is:2612
Ans A. 1809

B. 1792

C. 1783

D. 1833

Q.38 The perimeter (in cm) of a right-angled triangle whose sides that make the right angle
are 18 cm and 24 cm, is:
Ans A. 79

B. 60

C. 72

D. 68

Q.39 6 men can complete a piece of work in 5 days while 2 women can do it in 15 days. In
how many days can 3 women and 3 men complete it?3872
Ans A. 5 days

B. 4 days

C. 14 days

D. 15 days

Q.40 If the mean and mode are equal for the given data. Find x (x<6).
Class Interval 15-25 25-35 35-45
Quantity 6 10 x
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q.41

Ans A. −2x2 −13x +10

B. 2x2 −13x +10

C. −2x2 −11x +10

D. −x2 −13x +10

Q.42 The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 83% and that of the TV decreases by 38%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 8 washing machines and 4 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 26%

B. Increase by 22.5%

C. Decrease by 19%

D. Decrease by 27%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.43 The salary of a person was decreased by 30% and subsequently increased by 30% for 2
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years. What is the percentage change in the salary?

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Ans A. Increase of 18.3%
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B. Decrease of 28.9%

C. Increase of 21.7%
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D. Decrease of 34.5%

Q.44 A train 1439 m long is running at 36 km/hr. How long will it take to clear a 1331 m long
platform completely?3712
Ans A. 281 seconds

B. 282 seconds

C. 272 seconds
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D. 277 seconds
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Q.45
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Raju walks to his office 3.5 km away from home. In the morning, he covers the distance
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in 1.5 hours, whereas, while returning home in the evening, he takes 30 more minutes to
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cover the same distance. Find his average speed (in km/hr) during the two-way journey.
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Ans A. 3.5

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 3

Q.46 The ratio of the present ages of two cousins is 3 : 2. After 6 years, the ratio will become
5 : 4. What was the sum of their ages (in years) 4 years ago?
Ans A. 11

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B. 5

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C. 9

D. 7
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Q.47
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What would the annual interest accrued on a deposit of ₹3,500 in a bank that pays a
17% per annum rate of simple interest be?
Ans A. ₹545

B. ₹595

C. ₹495

D. ₹615

Q.48 A ladder is leaning against a wall, making an angle of 60° with the ground. If the foot of
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the ladder is 5 m away from the wall, find the length of the ladder.

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Ans A. 10 m

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B. 20 m

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Q.49

Ans A. 7.5

B. 8

C. 10
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D. 5

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 48

Q.50 A dealer allowed a 73% discount on an article and was still able to manage a 56% profit.
Find the ratio of the cost price to listed price.
Ans A. 12 : 59

B. 9 : 52

C. 12 : 54

D. 6 : 57

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. L sits third to the left of I. Only one person sits between K and B when
counted from the left of B. C sits third to the right of D. C sits to the immediate right of
L. J is not an immediate neighbour of L. How many people sit between J and B when
counted from the right of J?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

Q.52 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

FOUR - ORUF - RUOF
TENS - ESNT - SNET
Ans A. RUST - RSUT - TSUR

B. CUPS - UCPS - SUPC

C. PLUG - LGUP - GULP

D. YEAR - EYAR - REAY

Q.53 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 3 5 2 7 1 9 5 1 7 8 4 2 5 7 6 6 5 3 4 7 2 1 7 7 4 9 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Six

B. Five

C. Four

D. Seven

Q.54 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(18, 15.7, 19.2)
(24, 21.7, 25.2)6785
Ans A. (28, 25.7, 28.2)

B. (37, 34.7, 39.2)

C. (31, 28.7, 32.2)

D. (9, 6.7, 11.2)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 In a row of people all facing north, Aftab is 18th from the right end. Apoorva is 28th from
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the right end. Apoorva is exactly between Aftab and Piyali. If Piyali is 12th from the left

. end of the line, how many people are there in the row?
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Ans A. 47

B. 46
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C. 48

D. 49

Q.56 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) % € € % 6 £ 3 & 1 £ 4 5 7 2 2 & & 9 & 8 8 * (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?

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Ans A. 4

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B. 5

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C. 6
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D. 3
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Q.57 ag
If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

15 – 10 ÷ 4 + 20 x 5 = ?
Ans A. 150

B. 146

C. 152

D. 148

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Q.58
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In a certain code language, ‘VAIL’ is coded as ‘6598’ and ‘OVAL’ is coded as ‘8619’. What
is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
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Ans A. 1

B. 8

C. 6
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D. 9

Q.59 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

99 87 75 63 51 ?
Ans A. 38

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B. 39

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C. 36
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g l a Q.60 Mayank starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the East. He then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 15 km. He a
a takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 8 km to the South

B. 9 km to the North

C. 9 km to the South

D. 8 km to the North

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.61 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
BLUE - LBUE - ELBU
TWIN - WTIN - NWTI
Ans A. FOUR - OFUR - ROFU

B. POST - PSOT - TSOP

C. URGE - RUGE - RGEU

D. READ - ERAD - DEAR

Q.62 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 1 9 6 4 8 8 9 8 7 7 6 5 8 3 4 3 7 5 9 1 5 2 7 1 1 5 9 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?4393
Ans A. 4

B. 7

C. 6

D. 5

Q.63 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. R
sits to the immediate left of U. B sits to the immediate left of C. C sits second to the left
of T. A sits third to the left of U. Who sits third to the right of S?
Ans A. C

B. A

C. T

D. U

Q.64 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
A sits fourth to the left of Y. W sits fourth to the right of C. Only two people sit between
Y and C when counted from the left of Y. X is not an immediate neighbour of W or Y. D is
not an immediate neighbour of X. Who sits third to the right of B?
Ans A. C

B. D

C. A

D. Y

Q.65 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. KO-IL

B. CG-AD

C. GK-EI

D. EI-CF

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8 18 30 44 ? 783817
Ans A. 50

B. 65

C. 60

D. 70

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.67 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
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position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. LO-IM
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B. JM-GL

C. NQ-KO

D. PS-MQ

Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All pathways are roads.
No pathway is a garden.
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Conclusions:
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(I): Some gardens are roads.
(II): All roads are gardens.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.69 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
GIFT - IFGT - TFIG
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LAND - ANLD - DNAL
Ans A. FISH - IFSH - HISF
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B. WEPT - EPWT - EPTW
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C. FLAG - LAFG - GALF
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D. SOLD - SLOD - DLOS

Q.70 Mr. Zzz starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 11 km, turns right and drives 17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 21 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 13 km to the east

B. 11 km to the north
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C. 12 km to the west

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D. 10 km to the south

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ag given series to make it logically complete?

MEW154, SKC131, YQI108, EWO85, ?
Ans A. KDU62

B. LCU62

C. KCU62

D. KCV62

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.72 In a certain code language,
P @ Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’,
P # Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
P & Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, and
P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

Based on the above, how is D related to E if ‘D # S @ Z & M % E’?
Ans A. Mother's father

B. Father's brother

C. Wife's father

D. Father's sister

Q.73 A group of numbers/symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below
and the conditions that follow. The correct combination of codes following the
conditions is your answer.
Note: If none of the conditions apply, then the codes for the respective number/symbol
are to be followed directly as given in the table.

Conditions:
(i) If both the second and third elements are perfect squares, the codes for these two
(the second and third elements) are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element and the third element are even numbers, these two (the first and
third elements) are to be coded as &.
(iii) If both the second and third elements are multiples of 3, the third element is to be
coded as the code for the second element.
What will be the code for the following group?
$96@7
Ans A. & U & B G

B. P U U B G

C. G U K B P

D. P K K B G

Q.74 If each of the digits in the number 243178569 is arranged in descending order from left
to right, then what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the right and
third from the left in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 10

B. 16

C. 14

D. 9

Q.75 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

QIS38, SLQ42, UOO46, ?
Ans A. XRN50

B. WSM49

C. XSN49

D. WRM50

Q.76 Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below S. Only one box is kept above Q. Only
one box is kept between Q and P. R is kept immediately above N. O is kept at some
place below M. How many boxes are kept between M and R?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.77 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
m
question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 113 − 9 ÷ 17 + 519 × 3 = ?
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se Ans A. 852

B. 869 ag l
C. 858

D. 861

Q.78 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) # € % # 6 & 4 * 9 6 @ 5 % @ # © 8 # % * £ 2 (Right)

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How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol

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and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 8

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B. 4
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C. 6
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D. 5
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Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

621 623 627 633 641 ?
Ans A. 649

B. 651

C. 647

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D. 645

Q.80
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
a
Some cars are vehicles.
All vehicles are machines.

Conclusions
(I): Some machines are cars.
(II): No cars are machines.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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C. Only conclusion (II) follows

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D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

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ag Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 According to the India BioEconomy Report 2025, how much is India's BioEconomy
valued at in 2024?
Ans A. $100.4 billion

B. $165.7 billion

C. $300.6 billion

D. $250.2 billion

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.82 In which of the following cities was the inauguration of the Recognition of Prior
Learning – Certification in Indian Sign Language Interpretation (RPL–CISLI) programme
held in August 2025?
Ans A. Lucknow

B. New Delhi

C. Ahmedabad

D. Chennai

Q.83 Which Indian state topped the 'Environment' theme in the State of States rankings of the
State of India’s Environment 2025 report released by the Centre for Science and
Environment (CSE)?
Ans A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttar Prasesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q.84 Who scored the highest individual score in a single innings during IPL 2025?
Ans A. Abhishek Sharma

B. KL Rahul

C. Mitchell Marsh

D. Rishabh Pant

Q.85 Which of the following countries hosted the largest yoga session with over 1.5 million
participants in 2025?
Ans A. UAE

B. India

C. Nepal

D. USA

Q.86 Which athlete won the Arjuna Award for boxing in January 2025?
Ans A. Saweety Boora

B. Nikhat Zareen

C. Parveen Hooda

D. Lovlina Borgohain

Q.87 In June 2025, the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance,
convened a high-level meeting co-chaired by M Nagaraju, Secretary, Department of
Financial Services and T Rabi Sankar, Deputy Governor, RBI at New Delhi, on scaling up
ULI. What is the full form of ULI?
Ans A. Unique Lending Index

B. Unified Lending Interface

C. Urban Lending Interface

D. Universal Loan Identifier

Q.88 Which of the following organised the Summer Book Writing Festival in 2025?
Ans A. Random House

B. HarperCollins

C. BriBooks

D. Penguin India

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.89 What was the name of the bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the
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French Navy held in March 2025?

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Ans A. MITRA
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B. EKUVERIN

C. VARUNA
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D. DOSTANA

Q.90 Who is the Chairperson of the 16th Finance Commission of India?
Ans A. Raghuram Rajan

B. Arvind Panagariya

C. N. K. Singh

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D. Suman Bery

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Q.91
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Which of the following novels won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction?

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Ans
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A. Every Living Thing
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l a
B. Native Nations
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C. James
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D. Feeding Ghosts

Q.92 On 20th May, 2025, the Supreme Court (SC) reinstated the requirement of how many
years of legal practice for law graduates to apply for civil judge (junior division) posts,
reversing its 2002 decision?
Ans A. 3 years

B. 4 years

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C. 2 years

D. 5 years
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Q.93
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Which party won the by-election to the Visavadar Assembly Constituency (Gujarat) in

Ans
June 2025?
A. Bhartiya Janata Party ag
B. Bahujan Samaj Party

C. Indian National Congress

D. Aam Aadmi Party

Q.94 Which among the following civic suggestions did Karnataka’s Deputy Chief Minister
give in September 2025 to improve governance quality in Bengaluru?

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Ans A. Monthly public grievance meets

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B. Citizen rating system for officials

e m
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l as
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ag
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2025, released by the World Economic Forum in May 2025?
Ans A. Germany

B. Sweden

C. Iceland

D. Norway

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Q.96 Who set the men’s 10,000 m record of 27:00.22 at TEN 2025 meet?

Ans A. Jinson Johnson

B. Shivnath Singh

C. Avinash Sable

D. Gulveer Singh

Q.97 World Environment Day was observed on 5 June 2025 with a special focus to end which
of the following?
Ans A. Plastic Pollution

B. E waste Pollution

C. Sewage Pollution

D. Mercury Pollution

Q.98 How many prototypes of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) does India plan
to develop before starting series production?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

Q.99 Who among the following was appointed as Executive Director of the Reserve Bank of
India in March 2025 to look after Department of Statistics and Information Management
and Financial Stability Department?
Ans A. Dr. Ajit Ratnakar Joshi

B. Dr. V Anantha Nageswaran

C. Dr. Urjit Patel

D. Dr. Swaminathan J

Q.100 India is drafting its first comprehensive framework, National Adaptation Plan (NAP), to
be submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) by September 2025 in compliance with the _____.
Ans A. Paris Agreement

B. Montreal Convention

C. Kyoto Protocol

D. Cartagena Protocol

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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a

Test Date 01/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 The band of seven colours obtained on a screen due to dispersion is called _________.
Ans A. Spectrum

B. Reflection pattern

C. Shadow

D. Image

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Q.2 When a hydrocarbon is burnt in excess of air, the final product is always:
Ans A. carbon dioxide and water
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B. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
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C. carbon monoxide and water
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D. carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Q.3 Which of the following is responsible for the dispersion of white light through a glass
prism?
Ans A. White light contains only one colour.

B. Different colours of light travel at different speeds in glass.

C. The prism absorbs some colours.
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D. Different colours of light travel at the same speed in glass.
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Q.4
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A swimmer pushes water backwards. The reaction force that propels the swimmer
s e m
s e forward is:

g l a
g l a Ans A. Water pushes the swimmer forward
a
a B. Water pushes the swimmer backward

C. Gravity pushes the swimmer forward

D. Air pushes the swimmer

Q.5 Which of the following statements is correct for the mass and weight of an object?
Ans A. Mass is constant and Weight is variable

B. Both Mass and Weight are constant

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C. Mass is variable and Weight is constant

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D. Both Mass and Weight are variable

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 When the velocity of a body is increased to twice its original value, its kinetic energy
becomes _________.
Ans A. twice the original value

B. the same as before

C. half the original value

D. four times the original value

Q.7 Neutralisation reaction is best described as __________.
Ans A. Acid + Base → Salt + Water

B. Acid + Salt → Water

C. Base + Oxide → Salt + Water

D. Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen

Q.8 Why is variation primarily important in a population of organisms?
Ans A. It helps organisms reproduce faster

B. It always gives instant result within the same generation.

C. It increases the chance of survival under changing environmental conditions

D. It ensures that all individuals are identical

Q.9 Nucleons are subatomic particles found inside the atom. They consist of:
Ans A. protons and neutrons

B. electrons

C. only neutrons

D. only protons

Q.10 Which of the following statements defines Formula Unit?
Ans A. Mass of one molecule

B. Mass of one mole of a compound

C. Mass of an atom

D. Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in the formula unit of an ionic compound

Q.11 What is the exact location of the kidneys in human beings?
Ans A. In the abdomen, on either side of the intestine

B. In the chest region, on either side of the lungs

C. In the chest region, just below the heart

D. In the abdomen, on either side of the back bone

Q.12 Which of the following is an example of growing two or more crops simultaneously on
the same land field in a definite pattern?
Ans A. Monocropping

B. Inter-cropping

C. Hydroponics

D. Aeroponics

Q.13 What is used as the anode during electrolytic refining?
Ans A. A rod of graphite

B. A strip of pure metal to be refined

C. A strip of impure metal to be refined

D. An inert electrode

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 Due to presence of which particle, does Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) look
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rough under a microscope?

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Ans A. Centrosome
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se B. Peroxisome

C. Ribosome ag l
D. Lysosome

Q.15 A solution is said to be stable when:
Ans A. the solute particle forms a separate layer with solvent particles

B. the solute particles settle down when left undisturbed

C. the solute particles float on the surface of solution when left undisturbed

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D. the solute particles do not settle down when left undisturbed
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Q.16 .co
The removal of which of the following weeds from agricultural land will be beneficial for
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farmers?
s e l a
Ans
l a
A. Parthenium
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ag
B. Soybean

C. Wheat

D. Sunflower

Q.17 Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of motion in an electric
motor. Which finger represents the direction of the force or motion?
Ans A. Little finger

B. Middle finger
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C. Thumb

D. Index finger
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Q.18
g
Compared to a soft sound, a louder sound wave of the same frequency is characterised
by __________.
a
Ans A. Smaller speed

B. Higher pitch

C. Smaller wavelength

D. Larger amplitude

Q.19 Roots of which of the following plants can give rise to new plants?

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Ans A. Maize

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B. Gram

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l as
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ag
ag Q.20 A person is standing in a bus that suddenly stops. The person tends to fall forward.
Which of the following laws of motion is directly responsible for this phenomenon?
Ans A. Newton's First Law of Motion.

B. The Law of Conservation of Momentum.

C. Newton's Second Law of Motion.

D. Newton's Third Law of Motion.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.21 Which of the following is in accordance with Law of constant proportions?

a. In water, the ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always 1 : 8.
b. The ration of carbon and oxygen in carbon dioxide is always 3 : 8 by mass.
c. In ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen are always present in the ratio 14 : 1 by mass.
Ans A. Only a

B. a, b and c

C. Only a and b

D. Only b and c

Q.22 Which of the following is a part of the human male reproductive system?
Ans A. Fallopian tube

B. Vagina

C. Uterus

D. Prostate gland

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a part of the structural organisation of a cell?
Ans A. Heart

B. Mitochondria

C. Cytoplasm

D. Cell wall

Q.24 An electric heater of resistance 20 Ω operates for 10 minutes when connected to a 220
V supply. The heat produced is:
Ans A. 1.45 × 10⁵ J

B. 1.45 × 10⁶ J

C. 2.9 × 10⁴ J

D. 2.9 × 10⁵ J

Q.25 Consider the unbalanced reaction:

___C2H6 + ___O2 → ___CO2 + ___H2O

Which of the following is the correct set of coefficients to balance this equation?
Ans A. 1, 3, 2, 3

B. 2, 5, 4, 6

C. 1, 5, 3, 4

D. 2, 7, 4, 6

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 If a 1533 m long train crosses a pole in 73 seconds, then find the time (in seconds)
taken by the train to cross a 420 m long platform.
Ans A. 84

B. 93

C. 86

D. 96

Q.27 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 2 and 6 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?2513
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 9

D. 6
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.28
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Ans A. 56 cm

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B. 58 cm

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a
C. 52 cm

D. 54 cm

Q.29

Ans A. 4

B. -1

C. -4

D. 1
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.co em
Q.30

e m l as
l as ag
Ans A. 330

B. 360
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C. 270

D. 134

Q.31

Ans A. 3
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B. 2
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C. 0
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D. 1
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Q.32
a
The cost price of an article is ₹10,720. It was sold for ₹9,862.40. Find the loss
percentage.
Ans A. 10%

B. 6%

C. 5%

D. 8%

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Q.33
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If mode of data 8, 7, 8, 7, 9, 10, 2, 8, 9, 7, 5, 10 and x is 7, then the value of x is:
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Ans

m .co A. 7

s e m
s e B. 5

g l a
g l a C. 9
a
a D. 8

Q.34 Pushpraj and Himani together invested ₹17,800 in a business. At the end of the year,
out of a total profit of ₹5,600, Pushpraj's share was ₹2,100. What was the investment of
Pushpraj?
Ans A. ₹6,090

B. ₹4,720

C. ₹7,690

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D. ₹6,675

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Q.35 The amount on a sum of ₹7,700 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹10,109

B. ₹9,317

C. ₹8,936

D. ₹9,494

Q.36 In a bag containing red, green and pink tokens, the ratio of red to green tokens was 14 :
8 while the ratio of pink to red tokens was 2 : 6. What was the ratio of green to pink
tokens?5288
Ans A. 7 : 12

B. 12 : 7

C. 11 : 14

D. 9 : 11

Q.37 A 24-metre-long wire is broken into three pieces. The largest piece has length thrice the
length of the smallest piece. The difference between lengths of two larger pieces is
equal to the difference between the lengths of two smaller pieces. The length of the
largest piece is ____ metres.
Ans A. 12

B. 10

C. 15

D. 18

Q.38 A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 80 min, and at a speed of 55 m/min for 60
min. Her average speed (in m/min) is:
Ans A. 39

B. 35

C. 28

D. 41

Q.39 A solid metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into smaller spherical
balls, each of radius 3.5 cm. Find the ratio of the total surface area of all the smaller
spheres to the surface area of the original sphere.
Ans A. 6 : 1

B. 12 : 1

C. 9 : 1

D. 3 : 1

Q.40 The sides of a triangle are 75 cm, 34 cm and 61 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with the length of 34 cm?
Ans A. 60 cm

B. 63 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 68 cm

Q.41

3200
Ans A. 58 m

B. 56 m

C. 57 m

D. 59 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.42 A credit card payment that will settle a bill for 250 mixers at ₹1,014 per mixer with
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successive discounts of 30% and 15%, with a further discount of 20% on card payment,

. is:
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Ans A. ₹1,20,664

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B. ₹1,20,666

C. ₹1,20,696
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D. ₹1,20,678

Q.43 The average age of 35 students of a class is 13 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 14 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 53

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B. 49

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C. 51

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D. 47

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Q.44
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If 20% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same
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number is:343
Ans A. 102

B. 92

C. 82

D. 72

Q.45 If an item marked at ₹4,000 is sold for ₹280, then what is the discount percentage?

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Ans A. 93%

B. 91%

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C. 95%
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D. 94%
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Q.46
a
The income of Raman is ₹12,000. He saves 27% of his income. If his income increases
by 20% and expenditure increases by 15%, then his savings will:4747
Ans A. decrease by ₹1,089

B. decrease by ₹1,085

C. increase by ₹1,088

D. increase by ₹1,086

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Q.47 Find the total prime numbers between 146 and 196.
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Ans A. 13

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B. 10

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a
a D. 12

Q.48

Ans A. 50%

B. 70%

C. 35%

D. 45%
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Q.49

Ans A. 54.5

B. 49.2

C. 46.3

D. 51.6

Q.50 In a family consisting of a father, mother, son, and daughter, the age difference between
the son and the daughter is 3 years, which is the same as the age difference between
the father and the mother. The total age of the family is 144 years. The father is the
eldest and the son is the youngest. The son's age is half the age of the mother. What is
the age (in years) of the daughter?
Ans A. 22

B. 20

C. 26

D. 23

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 2 3 8 1 7 9 1 7 7 5 5 3 7 8 6 9 6 9 2 5 1 9 1 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

Q.52 LW 3 is related to QV −10 in a certain way. In the same way, JU 6 is related to OT −7. To
which of the following is PU 4 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. HU −4

B. KO −5

C. YT −2

D. UT −9

Q.53 M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between X and W when counted from the right of X. Only two
people sit between W and M when counted from the right of W. Only three people sit
between X and N when counted from the right of X. P sits to the immediate left of Y.
Who sits third to the left of O?
Ans A. P

B. X

C. Y

D. M

Q.54 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ECO HFN KIM ? QOK
Ans A. MNJ

B. LPO

C. NLL

D. KLI

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.55 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one sits to the left of
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D. Only four people sit between D and C. Only three people sit to the right of Y. X sits to

. the immediate left of A. W is not an immediate neighbour of Y. Who sits third to the left
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of W?
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B. A ag l
C. C

D. Y

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

15 17 21 23 27 ?
Ans A. 29
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B. 30

C. 33

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D. 31
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Q.57 Each of the digits in the number 3241586 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

Q.58 In a certain code language,
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‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
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‘A √ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’

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Based on the above, how is C related to L if 'C = D √ E ? F @ L'?
Ans A. Sister's son
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B. Mother's brother

C. Brother's son

D. Son

Q.59 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
GRK 45, KMG 54, OHC 63, SCY 72, ?

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Ans A. WXU 81

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B. XWV 81

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a
C. VYU 83

s e g l
g l a D. VXT 83
a
a Q.60 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

JOBS - JSBO - SBOJ
OILY - OYLI - YLIO
Ans A. GAVE - AGVE - EAVG

B. EARN - ENRA - NRAE

C. IDEA - IDAE - DEAI

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D. KIDS - KDIS - SDIK

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.61 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 5 $ 5 7 $ $ @ & * € 3 # 8 # $ 5 © 7 £ 4 & * (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Zero

D. One

Q.62 Shubham starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards West. He then takes a right
turn, drives 8 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 5 km to the North

B. 4 km to the North

C. 5 km to the South

D. 4 km to the South

Q.63 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some shade are roof.
All ceiling are roof.
Conclusions:
(I): Some shade are ceiling.
(II): All roof are ceiling.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.64 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 2 4 5 7 2 9 6 7 3 4 1 6 6 9 8 4 7 6 1 7 3 4 9 7 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect
square and also immediately followed by an odd number?
(Note: 1 is also a perfect square)?
Ans A. One

B. Four

C. Three

D. Two

Q.65 Rashmi starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards west. She then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 3 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 4 km. She
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 4 km towards north

B. 6 km towards east

C. 8 km towards west

D. 8 km towards south

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.66 ZWRM is related to WRUR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, NCDG is related to KXGL. To which of the following options is ENMV

. related, following the same logic?10114
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Ans A. BAPL

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B. BIPA

C. BPLO
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D. BIAP

Q.67 In a certain code language, ‘nice large land’ is coded as ‘cd ak pi’, ‘land is fertile’ is
coded as ‘rf pc ak’, and ‘cost is high’ is coded as ‘si ig pc’. How is ‘fertile’ coded in the
given language?
Ans A. pc

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B. ak

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C. cd

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D. rf

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Q.68
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some pillows are mats.
Some mats are cushions.

Conclusions:
(I): Some pillows are cushions.
(II): All cushions are mats.

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Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

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C. Only conclusion (II) follows

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D. Only conclusion (I) follows
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Q.69 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) 2 8 1 7 3 6 6 6 1 5 5 3 4 1 5 5 3 9 7 7 7 (Right)
How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?4106
Ans A. 1

B. 4

C. 3
m
mD. 2
.co
m .co s e m
s e
Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

g l a
g l a 1211 1212 1215 1210 1219 1208 ? 1206 1227
a
a Ans A. 1223

B. 1220

C. 1225

D. 1227

Q.71 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

256 211 166 121 76 ?

m .
.co
Ans A. 31

e m
B. 32

e m l as
C. 27

l as ag

D. 33
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.72 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(39, 117, 13)
(48, 99, 1)
Ans A. (8, 42, 10)

B. (35, 138, 24)

C. (27, 117, 21)

D. (19, 106, 24)

Q.73 Sumedha ranked 9th from the top and 23rd from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 35

B. 31

C. 27

D. 37

Q.74 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

104 − 176 × 16 ÷ 9 + 192 = ?
Ans A. 11

B. 14

C. 12

D. 18

Q.75 Tanay ranked 24th from the top and 56th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 77

B. 78

C. 79

D. 80

Q.76 In a certain code language, ‘AUTO’ is coded as ‘2683’ and ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘8136’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?2227
Ans A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 1

Q.77 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

409 ÷ 2 + 416 × 8 − 76 = ?
Ans A. 843

B. 842

C. 844

D. 841

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

m
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Q.78 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
co
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. belong to that group?
e m
m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
as
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. IO – ND
ag
B. KQ – QE

C. RX – WM

D. YE – DT

Q.79 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
m
.co
position in the letter-cluster.)
m
.co m
Ans A. XYA

m s e
B. FHI

s e l a
a ag
C. MNP
l
D. EFH
ag
Q.80 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
B sits to the immediate right of C. Only three people sit between B and A when counted
from the left of B. Only three people sit between C and D when counted from the left of
C. G sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit between A and C when
counted from the right of C?
Ans A. 2

B. 1

m
.co
C. 3

m
D. 4

s e
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
g la
Q.81 a
Who was Madison Keys' opponent in the final when she won her first Grand Slam title
at the Australian Open 2025?
Ans A. Aryna Sabalenka

B. Coco Gauff

C. Elena Rybakina

D. Iga Świątek

m
.co
Q.82 The Supreme Court (Amendment) Rules, 2025 include changes to Order II, Rules 1 to 3

m
of the Supreme Court Rules, passed in the year _____.
Ans

m .co A. 1983
s e m
s e B. 2013
g l a
g l a C. 2003
a
a D. 1993

Q.83 Which two countries signed a treaty in late May 2025, transferring sovereignty over the
Chagos Archipelago?
Ans A. US and Mauritius

B. UK and India

C. UK and Mauritius

D. Mauritius and India
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.84 Which para-swimmer received the Arjuna Award (Lifetime) in 2025?
Ans A. Sharath Gayakwad

B. Murlikant Petkar

C. Prasanta Karmakar

D. Suyash Jadhav

Q.85 In February 2025, who won the men’s title at the 2025 Asian Snooker Championship
held in Doha, Qatar?
Ans A. Pankaj Advani

B. Narantuya Bayarsaikhan

C. Chang Yu Kiu

D. Amir Sarkosh

Q.86 The Chagos Archipelago Sovereignty Agreement was signed between which of the
following two countries in May 2025?
Ans A. United Kingdom and Mauritius

B. United Kingdom and India

C. United Kingdom and United States

D. United Kingdom and Australia

Q.87 The Union Minister of Communications, Mr. Jyotiraditya Scindia, during his keynote at
the World Wi-Fi Day Conference in June 2025, projected Wi-Fi to become a ₹1,83,000
crores (US$ 21.2 billion) sector in India by ______.
Ans A. 2045

B. 2035

C. 2030

D. 2040

Q.88 In March 2025, according to the Ministry of Earth Sciences, how many earthquakes
were recorded in India during November 2024 to February 2025?
Ans A. 136

B. 159

C. 213

D. 197

Q.89 Which athlete won the Arjuna Award for athletics in January 2025?
Ans A. Neeraj Chopra

B. Jyothi Yarraji

C. Tajinderpal Singh Toor

D. Avinash Sable

Q.90 Which Indian union territory assembly first adopted the National e‑Vidhan Application
(NeVA) on 9 June 2025?
Ans A. Chandigarh

B. Lakshadweep

C. Delhi

D. Puducherry

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

m
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Q.91 As per the Economic Survey, 2024–25, under which housing scheme were over 89 lakh
m
co
houses completed in urban areas as of 25 November 2024?

. e m
s
Ans A. Shelter for Urban Homeless (SUH)
m a
se B. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U)

C. Smart Cities Mission ag l
D. Indira Awas Yojana

Q.92 According to the IMF's April 2025 World Economic Outlook, what is India’s projected
GDP growth rate for the year 2025?
Ans A. 6.5%

B. 5.9%

C. 6.2%
m
m .co
.co
D. 6.0%

em
Q.93
e m
What was the urban poverty rate in India for FY24 as per SBI’s January 2025 report?
l as
Ans A. 4.6%
l as ag
B. 1.1%
ag
C. 13.7%

D. 4.09%

Q.94 Which of the following ministers conducted surprise raids on seed and fertiliser
godowns in Rajasthan in June 2025?
Ans A. Kirori Lal Meena

B. Mallikarjun Kharge
m
.co
C. Yogi Adityanath

D. Mamta Banerjee
e m
las
Q.95
g
Which state government launched India’s first jungle safari train equipped with a
Vistadome coach in May 2025?
a
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.96 Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201 microprocessors, developed for space applications, are
what type of microprocessors?
m
Ans
m
A. 8-bit microprocessors
.co
m .co B. 16-bit microprocessors
s e m
s e C. 32-bit microprocessors
g l a
g l a D. 64-bit microprocessors
a
a Q.97 Which of the following regions is included in the list of vulnerable landscapes under
the Revised Green India Mission (GIM) Plan released in 2025?
Ans A. Aravalli Mountain Range

B. Indo-Gangetic Plain

C. Thar Desert

D. Deccan Plateau

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.98 In April 2025, which of the following rules came into force?
Ans A. Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management & Trans boundary Movement) Amendment Rules

B. Bio-medical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules

C. Environment Protection (End-of-Life Vehicles) Rules

D. Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules

Q.99 What unique feature does the New Pamban Bridge (Tamil Nadu, India) include to
facilitate maritime traffic?
Ans A. Bascule mechanism

B. Swing bridge

C. Suspension cables

D. Vertical‑lift

Q.100 Where did Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurate the nation’s pioneering 3nm
chip design centres in May 2025?
Ans A. Jaipur and Delhi

B. Hyderabad and Lucknow

C. Chennai and Ahmedabad

D. Noida and Bengaluru

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 01/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 Neutralisation reaction involves the combination of _________ from the acid and
_________ from the base to form water molecules.
Ans A. OH+ ions and OH- ions, respectively

B. OH+ ions and H- ions, respectively

C. H- ions and OH+ ions, respectively

D. H+ ions and OH- ions, respectively
m
Q.2 .co
For the life processes, the transfer of a source of energy from outside the body of the
m
organism is called _______ .
s e
la
Ans A. excretion

B. respiration
ag
C. digestion

D. nutrition

Q.3 Which of the following nutrients is required in large quantities by plants?
Ans A. Zinc

B. Iron

C. Phosphorus
m
m .co
.co
D. Copper

e m
e
Q.4 mThe Golgi apparatus is associated with which of the following organelles?
l as
l as Ans A. Nucleus
ag
ag B. Mitochondria

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Plastids

Q.5 What is the primary cause of reverberation in a hall or room?
Ans A. Absorption of sound by soft materials

B. Bending of sound waves

m .
.co
C. Multiple reflections of sound from hard surfaces

e m
D. Variation in air temperature

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following is considered a major factor contributing to poor living
standards in society?
Ans A. Overuse of technology in urban areas

B. Only the level of education in society

C. Only the rapid growth of the population

D. Inequality in the distribution of resources

Q.7 Which of the following organisms multiplies by the means of multiple fission mode of
reproduction?
Ans A. Hibiscus

B. Leishmania

C. Garden pea

D. Plasmodium

Q.8 What is the chemical formula for Glucose?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.9 From the given compounds, which is used as a fuel additive?
Ans A. Ethanoic acid

B. Ethanol

C. Ethanal

D. Ethane

Q.10 In circuit diagrams, a zigzag line is used to represent which of the following?
Ans A. A resistor

B. A switch

C. A battery

D. A fuse

Q.11 A baby pulls a toy car along the ground. If the force and displacement are in the same
direction, the work done is:
Ans A. equal to the speed of the car

B. negative

C. equal to the product of force and displacement

D. equal to zero

Q.12 Which of the following life processes is NOT essential to maintain the life of an
individual organism?
Ans A. Reproduction

B. Excretion

C. Respiration

D. Nutrition

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

m
.co
Q.13 The total resistance of 10 resistors of equal resistance R arranged in series
m
co
arrangement is _____.

. e m
s
Ans A. R/10
m a
se B. 10R

C. R10 ag l
D. 10/R

Q.14 Which of the following is a general physical property of nonmetals?
Ans A. Malleability and ductility

B. High electrical conductivity

C. Dull appearance (non-lustrous)

m
.co
D. High melting and boiling points
m
Q.15 .co
Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of
m s em
the size of the object?
s e l a
Ans
l a
A. Between infinity and the principal focus of the lens
ag
ag
B. At the principal focus of the lens

C. At infinity

D. At twice the focal length

Q.16 An object moves along a straight path from point O to point A (100 m away), then
immediately reverses and stops at point B, which is 30 m away from A back towards O.
What is the total distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement,
respectively?
Ans A. 70 m, 70 m
m
B. 130 m, 30 m

m .co
C. 100 m, 70 m
s e
D. 130 m, 70 m
g la
Q.17
a
A triangular glass prism has how many rectangular lateral surfaces?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.18 A runner completes one round of a circular track of radius 175 m in 35 seconds. The
m
.co
average velocity after one round is _______.
m
.co m
Ans A. 10 m/s

m s e
s e
B. 20 m/s

g l a
g l a C. 5 m/s
a
a D. 0 m/s

Q.19 Which of the following statements is correct about 'Bohr's model of an Atom'?
Ans A. While revolving in discrete orbits, the electrons do not exist.

B. Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom.

C. While revolving in discrete orbits, the electrons radiate energy.

D. Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed outside the atom.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.20 Neurons have many short, branched parts or processes attached to cell body called
________.
Ans A. nerve endings

B. axons

C. nuclei

D. dendrites

Q.21 What is corrosion?
Ans A. Neutralisation reaction

B. Chemical change

C. Endothermic reaction

D. Physical change

Q.22 Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed paths called:
Ans A. Quarks

B. Nucleons

C. Shells or orbitals

D. Elliptical paths

Q.23 Liquids have:
Ans A. no definite shape and no fixed volume

B. no definite shape but have a fixed volume

C. a definite shape and a fixed volume

D. a definite shape and no fixed volume

Q.24 A passenger standing in a moving bus suddenly falls forward when the bus stops
abruptly. This illustrates which of the following laws?
Ans A. Law of gravitation

B. Newton’s third law

C. Newton’s second law

D. Newton’s first law

Q.25 Which of the following is/are controlled by the use of insecticides in crop protection
management?
Ans A. Virus

B. Weeds

C. Insects

D. Fungus

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The average of 4, 12, 8, 10, 16, 14, 9, 20, 18, 22, 15 and K is 14. Find the value of K.
Ans A. 20

B. 15

C. 16

D. 18

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.27 The diagonals of a quadrilateral are perpendicular bisectors of each other. If the length
m
co
of one diagonal is 8 cm and the area of the quadrilateral is 48 cm2, find the length (in

. cm) of the other diagonal.
e m
m as
se l
Ans A. 10

B. 12
ag
C. 14

D. 8

Q.28 A cylindrical water tank has a diameter of 2.8 m and a height of 3.5 m. It is to be painted
on both its outer curved surface and two circular ends. If the cost of painting is ₹25/m2,

find the total cost of painting the tank. (Use π = )

m
.co
Ans A. ₹1,290
m
.co m
B. ₹1,160

m s e
C. ₹1,220

s e l a
D. ₹1,078
l a ag
Q.29 ag
Akriti earns ₹ 54,500 monthly and saves 17% of her salary. Find her monthly
expenditure.
Ans A. ₹ 45,523

B. ₹ 45,352

C. ₹ 45,325

D. ₹ 45,235

m
.co
Q.30

e m
Ans A. 9
las
B. 27
ag
C. 1

D. 3

Q.31 The cost of 1 litre milk is equal to the selling price of 800 ml milk. The percentage of
profit is ____.
Ans A. 27.5%

B. 22.5%
m
.co
C. 25%
m
.co m
D. 20%

m s e
s e
Q.32 The arithmetic mean of the observations 79, 42, 47, 77, 49, 75, 56, 26 and 35 is:
g l a
g l a Ans A. 54 a
a B. 45

C. 64

D. 49

Q.33 The price per unit of lemon candy to strawberry candy is in the ratio 4 : 14, and a family
consumes them in the ratio 23 : 2 by quantity. Find the ratio of the expenditure on
strawberry candy to that on lemon candy.
Ans A. 7 : 24
m .
B. 10 : 24

m .co s e m
C. 8 : 26
s e l a
D. 7 : 23
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.34
The value of is:

Ans A. 0.75

B. 0.95

C. 0.99

D. 0.65

Q.35 A credit card payment that will settle a bill for 290 microwaves at ₹1,050 per microwave
with successive discounts of 4% and 25%, with a further discount of 5% on card
payment is:
Ans A. ₹2,08,290

B. ₹2,08,278

C. ₹2,08,260

D. ₹2,08,292

Q.36 For a trip of 600 km, a truck travels the first 300 km at a speed of 42 km/hr. At what
speed (in km/hr) should it cover the remaining distance, so that the average speed for
the entire journey is 63 km/hr?
Ans A. 126

B. 141

C. 101

D. 106

Q.37

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38 Three men can dig a well 39 feet deep in 4 days. How many men can dig a well 78 feet
deep in 12 days?
Ans A. 5

B. 2

C. 1

D. 3

Q.39 A 435-metre-long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 87 seconds. What is the
speed of the train (in km/hr)?
Ans A. 76

B. 68

C. 80

D. 72

Q.40

Ans A. 0

B. 63

C. 42

D. 21

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

m
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Q.41 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest for the period
m
co
from 21 February 2024 to 22 April 2024.

. e m
s
Ans A. 41
m a
se B. 38

C. 39 ag l
D. 40

Q.42 A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 81
pages?2689
Ans A. 1630

B. 1625

C. 1620
m
m .co
.co
D. 1610

em
Q.43
em
A shop that sells towels has offers going on, wherein customers can buy 2 towels and
l as
s
get 2 free. What is the percentage discount that customers get?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 60%

B. 55%

C. 50%

D. 45%

Q.44 If 20% of a number is added to 102, then the result is the same number. 60% of the
same number is:
Ans A. 106.5

m
.co
B. 96.5

C. 86.5

e m
D. 76.5

las
Q.45
ag
P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 57 cm, PB = 9 cm, and PC = 54 cm,
then the length PD (in cm) is equal to:
Ans A. 78

B. 80

C. 76

D. 83

Q.46 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 3 days. B alone can do the same
m
.co
work in 21 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
m
.co m
Ans A. 7

m s e
a
B. 10

s e g l
g l a C. 3.5
a
a D. 8

Q.47 In a fruit basket, there are twice as many oranges as apples. If there are a total of 36
fruits, how many oranges are there?
Ans A. 18

B. 30

C. 12

D. 24

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.48 In a box containing blue, yellow, and orange tokens, the ratio of blue to yellow tokens
was 13 : 19, while the ratio of orange to blue tokens was 10 : 3. What was the ratio of
orange to yellow tokens?
Ans A. 132 : 59

B. 130 : 57

C. 137 : 61

D. 134 : 62

Q.49 Diana is thrice as old as Teresa and Homi is twice as old as Diana. If Diana's age is 4
years less than the average age of all three, then Homi's age (in years) is:
Ans A. 78

B. 70

C. 68

D. 72

Q.50 At beginning of the poll, Rahul received 52% of the total votes and Leena received 48%
of the total votes. The total voting was of 3,72,000 votes. How many votes did Leena
earn above 1,00,000?
Ans A. 78,560 votes

B. 1,00,000 votes

C. 1,78,560 votes

D. 37,20,000 votes

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘−’, ‘C’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘×’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

75 B 4 D 20 A 40 C 8 = ?
Ans A. 3

B. 0

C. 4

D. 1

Q.52 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single
digit numbers only. (Counting to be done from left to right only)

(Left) 6 4 9 2 3 2 7 7 9 8 3 8 7 9 9 9 7 9 5 8 9 9 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. None

D. Three

Q.53 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
AWY−UQS
RNP−LHJ
Ans A. PLN−IFG

B. PLN−JFH

C. PKL−JFH

D. PKL−IEG

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

m
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Q.54 In a row of people all facing north, Hirani is 17th from the left end, and Tushar is 32th
m
co
from the left end. Tushar is exactly between Hirani and Kiran. If Kiran is 12th from the
. right end of the line, how many people are there in the row?
e m
m as
se l
Ans A. 59

B. 58
ag
C. 57

D. 60

Q.55 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 567 862 426 326 749 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
m
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(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

m
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If 2 is added to the second digit of every number, in how many numbers will the second
digit be exactly divisible by the third digit?

m s e
Ans A. Three
s e l a
B. Two
l a ag
C. Four ag
D. One

Q.56 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

m
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(34, 70, 1)
(21, 92, 25)
Ans A. (17, 52, 9)
e m
B. (19, 63, 13)
las
C. (2, 31, 14) ag
D. (36, 73, 1)

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

VNQ UMP TLO SKN ?
Ans A. RIN

B. RJN
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m .co
.co
C. RJM

e m
e m
D. RIM

l as
l asQ.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
ag
ag given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All lotions are creams.
All creams are soaps.
No cream is a facewash.

Conclusions:
(I) No soap is a facewash.

m .
(II) No lotion is a facewash.

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Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
s l a
l a
C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

g ag
a
D. Both conclusions (I)For
andmore Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.59 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

214 217 222 229 238 ?
Ans A. 249

B. 247

C. 241

D. 243

Q.60 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 5 2 7 5 4 7 9 8 5 3 6 2 1 5 7 4 9 7 2 5 2 4 3 7 8 4 7 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. None

B. Two

C. More than two

D. One

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

921 923 927 933 941 ?
Ans A. 951

B. 953

C. 955

D. 949

Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

161 165 173 185 201 ?
Ans A. 221

B. 207

C. 215

D. 220

Q.63 Ronak starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 5 km, turns left and drives 14 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km to the east

B. 6 km to the west

C. 7 km to the west

D. 6 km to the east

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Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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se Statements: All geysers are lights. No light is an oven.
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Conclusion (I): No geyser is an oven.
Conclusion (II): Some ovens are lights.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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Q.65
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Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
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given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

m s e
LF-OI-RT

s e l a
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NH-QK-TV

l a
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Ans A. OJ-SN-VY

B. OJ-SM-VY

C. PJ-SM-VY

D. PJ-SM-VX

Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans A. ILG

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B. LOI
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C. HKF
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D. QTO a
Q.67 A, B, C, E, F, P and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. F sits third to
the left of C. Only one person sits between C and P when counted from the left of P.
Only two people sit between B and E when counted from the right of E. A is an
immediate neighbour of B. Who sits to the immediate left and right of Q, respectively?
Ans A. F and A

B. P and C

C. C and P
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D. P and B

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Q.68m Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
l as
l as alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT
belong to that group?
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ag (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. UWR

B. QRN

C. WXT

D. STP

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.69 Each of the digits in the number 4876231 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and third from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 10

B. 8

C. 12

D. 9

Q.70 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

WEST - EWST - WSTE
TOPS - OTPS - TPSO
Ans A. EXIT - XEIT - EITX

B. LADS - ALDS - SADL

C. OPEN - POEN - PENO

D. HIRE - HRIE - ERIH

Q.71 Mr. Zzz starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn,
drives 21 km, turns left and drives 16 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 26 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 5 km to the East

B. 2 km to the South

C. 3 km to the West

D. 4 km to the North

Q.72 In a row of 50 students facing north, Neetu is 12th from the right end. If Kaden is 6th to
the left of Neetu, what is Kaden's position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 30th

B. 33rd

C. 32nd

D. 31st

Q.73 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is O related to V if ‘O @ P + T - G # V’?
Ans A. Mother's brother

B. Mother's father

C. Father

D. Brother

Q.74 In a particular coding system, 'house' is represented as '35791' and 'hose' is encoded
as '3751'. How is 'u' represented in this coding system?
Ans A. 7

B. 3

C. 1

D. 9

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Q.75 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
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are single digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

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(Left) 6 3 1 1 2 3 2 8 5 7 6 1 3 7 2 6 9 6 9 2 4 6 2 8 6 3 1 (Right)
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odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?4390 ag l
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 5

Q.76 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?
m
m .co
.co
BBO 2 ECM -4 HDK 8 KEI -16 ?

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Ans A. NFG 32

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B. MKL 22

l as ag
ag
C. MJJ 31

D. KLI 33

Q.77 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged
and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

113 ÷ 6 + 98 x 2 - 156 = ?6381
Ans A. 775

B. 785

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C. 779

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D. 798

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Q.78
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A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
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Only one person sits between S and T when counted from the left of T. R sits third to
the right of A. U sits third to the left of C. R sits to the immediate right of U. B is not an
immediate neighbour of U. How many people sit between B and T when counted from
the right of B?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

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Q.79 In a certain code language, ‘PEARL’ is coded as ‘18723’ and ‘PAYER’ is coded as
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‘82736’. What is the code for ‘Y’ in the given code language?

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Ans

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A. 8

l as
l as B. 3

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ag C. 6

D. 2

Q.80 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only two
people sit to the left of A. Only three people sit between A and G. D sits second to the
right of A. Only two people sit between D and C. E sits at some place to the right of F
but at some place to the left of B.
How many people sit to the right of C?
Ans A. 4

B. 5
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C. 3

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D. 2
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g l a ag
a
Section : General Awareness and Curren
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.81 Which film by Aamir Khan was released in June 2025?
Ans A. Fateh

B. Sky Force

C. Raid 2

D. Sitaare Zameen Par

Q.82 Which of the following Indian Constitutional Amendment Acts is also known as Nari
Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam?
Ans A. 104th Constitutional Amendment Bill

B. 106th Constitutional Amendment Bill

C. 107th Constitutional Amendment Bill

D. 105th Constitutional Amendment Bill

Q.83 Which of the following countries will be hosting the World Rowing Championships
2025?
Ans A. Sydney, Australia

B. Tokyo, Japan

C. London, UK

D. Shanghai, China

Q.84 Which award did former cyclist Sucha Singh receive in 2025?
Ans A. MAKA Trophy

B. Dronacharya Award

C. Arjuna Award (Lifetime)

D. Khel Ratna Award

Q.85 In which state did the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
successfully test its indigenous Stratospheric Airship Platform on 3 May 2025?
Ans A. Gujarat

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q.86 Which ministry released the 'Model Rules for Felling Trees in Agricultural Lands' in
2025?
Ans A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Home Affairs

C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

D. Ministry of Agriculture

Q.87 The Lokpal of India celebrated its 1st Foundation Day on which date in 2025?
Ans A. 16 January

B. 15 January

C. 30 January

D. 31 January

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Q.88 Who among the following was appointed as Deputy Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of
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SBI General Insurance in June 2025?

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Ans A. Manish Jain
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se B. Mohd. Arif Khan

C. Ashok Mittal ag l
D. Rakesh Sharma

Q.89 Who took over as the Chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
in March 2025?
Ans A. Tuhin Kanta Pandey

B. Shaktikanta Das

C. Madhabi Puri Buch
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D. Arvind Panagariya

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Q.90
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Which of the following platforms will provide training to the new recruits inducted
l as
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during the 15th edition of the Rozgar Mela in April 2025, apart from formal skill
l a ag
ag
programmes?
Ans A. e-Shram Portal

B. iGOT Karmayogi

C. National Career Service

D. SWAYAM

Q.91 In which of the following months, during the ‘Genomics Data Conclave’, was the
'GenomeIndia Data' dedicated to the researchers by Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of
India?
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Ans A. June 2025

B. March 2025
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C. January 2025
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D. April 2025
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Q.92 In which of the following months was the grand finale and prize distribution ceremony
of the Defence Innovation Challenge for Excellence (DICE-2024) organised during Aero
India 2025 in Bengaluru by the Marathwada Accelerator for Growth and Incubation
Council (MAGIC)?
Ans A. March 2025

B. April 2025

C. February 2025
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D. June 2025

Q.93
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Finland became the _____ European country to exit the Ottawa landmine treaty in June
s e m
s e 2025.
g l a
g l a Ans A. 3rd
a
a B. 4th

C. 5th

D. 6th

Q.94 As per revised Reserve Bank of India guidelines in April 2025, from what minimum age
can minors independently open and operate savings accounts?
Ans A. 15 years

B. 8 years
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C. 10 years

m .co s e m
D. 12 years
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.95 Which State Government inaugurated the Rajiv Gandhi Van Samvardhan Yojana on 2
June 2025?
Ans A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Telangana

Q.96 How many total medals did India win at the 2025 World Boxing Cup?
Ans A. 10

B. 11

C. 8

D. 9

Q.97 In January 2025, the World Economic Forum annual meeting was held in ______.
Ans A. Zurich

B. Davos

C. Geneva

D. Wengen

Q.98 Which of the following is NOT a main feature of ‘Control of Water Pollution (Grant,
Refusal or Cancellation of Consent) Guidelines', 2025?
Ans A. Stricter Location Criteria

B. Air Pollution Prevention Penalties

C. Streamlined Consent Process

D. Clear Enforcement of Rules

Q.99 Which athlete won the Arjuna Award for para-athletics in 2025?
Ans A. Avani Lekhara

B. Navdeep Singh

C. Sumit Antil

D. Yogesh Kathuniya

Q.100 Approximately how many hectares are targeted for increased forest and tree cover by
2030 as per the Revised Green India Mission (GIM) Plan released in 2025?
Ans A. 20 million

B. 24.7 million

C. 10 million

D. 15.5 million

"

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