RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 02 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 02 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 02/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT an example of a tissue of an organism?
Ans A. Bone

B. Neuron

C. Blood

D. Muscle

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Q.2 Oxidation is defined as:
Ans A. loss of electrons

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B. loss of protons

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C. gain of electrons

D. gain of neutrons ag
Q.3 A car moving at a speed of 720 km/hr comes to a stop in 4 seconds after the brakes are
applied. If the total mass of the car and passengers is 80 kg, what is the force applied
by the brakes?
Ans A. – 14,400 N

B. – 2000 N

C. 4000 N
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D. – 4000 N

Q.4
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Which of the following statements about a spherical lens is NOT correct?
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Ans A. A concave lens also possesses two centres of curvature.
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a C. Every spherical lens has two centres of curvature.

D. The line joining the two centres of curvature is called the principal axis.

Q.5 The speed of sound in air is approximately 340 m/s. If a reflecting surface is 17 m away,
how long does it take for an echo to return to the source?
Ans A. 1 s

B. 0.05 s

C. 0.5 s
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D. 0.1 s
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Q.6 Which of the following is related to human females in the same manner as vasectomy is
related to human males?
Ans A. Coitus interruptus

B. Copper-T

C. Tubectomy

D. Cervical caps

Q.7 What are the primary functions of xylem and phloem tissues in a plant?
Ans A. Both xylem and phloem transport water and minerals.

B. Xylem transports food, phloem transports water and minerals.

C. Xylem transports water and minerals, phloem transports food.

D. Both xylem and phloem transport food.

Q.8 What happens to the pH of a solution when the concentration of H+ ions increases?
Ans A. It decreases.

B. It cannot be determined.

C. It increases.

D. It remains the same.

Q.9 Which of the following statements is correct about acceleration due to gravity?
Ans A. It increases as we go inside the Earth

B. It remains constant with depth

C. It is the same everywhere on Earth

D. It decreases with altitude

Q.10 Which of the following is the chemical formula of fullerene carbon allotropes?
Ans A. C60

B. C0

C. C

D. C6

Q.11 In which of the following states of matter do particles possess the highest speed of
rapid random motion?
Ans A. Solid only

B. Liquid and solid both

C. Liquid only

D. Gas

Q.12 A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a speed of 3 m/s. Its kinetic energy is _________.
Ans A. 9 J

B. 3 J

C. 6 J

D. 18 J

Q.13 A solenoid behaves like a magnet because:
Ans A. Current in its turns produces a magnetic field

B. It stores electricity

C. It contains iron inside

D. It has a high resistance

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following muscular structures is/are responsible for modifying the
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curvature and thus changing the focal length of the fibrous, jelly-like eye lens?

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Ans A. Retina
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B. Pupil

C. Iris
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D. Ciliary muscles

Q.15 Which equation correctly represents the reaction of aluminum with hydrochloric acid?
Ans A. Al + HCl → AlCl + H₂

B. 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂

C. Al + HCl → AlCl₃ + H₂

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D. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂

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Q.16
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Which of the following methods of reproduction ensures rapid increase in population?

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A. Asexual reproduction

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B. Self pollination
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C. Internal fertilisation

D. Cross poliination

Q.17 Which of the following is a diatomic molecule formed by a non-metallic element?
Ans A. Na

B. O₂

C. Mg

D. He
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Q.18 A force that changes the state of motion of an object is called:
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Ans A. Frictional force

B. Balanced force
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C. Unbalanced force

D. Gravitational force

Q.19 Which of the following functional groups is represented by -OH in carbon compounds?
Ans A. Aldehyde

B. Carboxylic acid

C. Ketone
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D. Alcohol
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Q.20
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Where is the embryo implanted after fertilisation in the human female body under
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a B. Oviduct

C. Uterus lining

D. Ovary

Q.21 On which of the following does resistivity of a material depend?
Ans A. Length and area of the conductor

B. Current passing through it

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C. Nature of the material

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D. Shape of the conductor

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Q.22 Which of the following statement is true regarding big dams and flood control?
Ans A. Big dams can help in flood control by regulating river flow.

B. Big dams are never used for flood control.

C. Big dams completely eliminate the possibility of floods.

D. Big dams do not increase the risk of floods.

Q.23 Which of the following organs is present in chest cavity?
Ans A. Pancreas

B. Pharynx

C. Lungs

D. Liver

Q.24 The main thinking part of the human brain is located in the:
Ans A. Mid-brain

B. Fore-brain

C. Medulla

D. Spinal cord

Q.25 Which of the following statements best explains why isotopes of an element have
identical chemical properties but different physical properties?
Ans A. Isotopes have the same atomic number but differ in their number of neutrons, which affects physical properties like mass.

B. Isotopes have the same number of protons and neutrons but different numbers of electrons.

C. Isotopes differ in the number of protons, leading to different behaviours in chemical reactions.

D. Isotopes have completely different atomic structures, affecting both their physical and chemical properties.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The sum of the first 16 prime numbers is:
Ans A. 381

B. 382

C. 377

D. 383

Q.27 The median of the data 4, 23, 11, 7, 6, 9, (K + 5), 15, 20 and 16 is 12. Find the value of K.
Ans A. 7

B. 8

C. 5

D. 6

Q.28

Ans A. 4620

B. 7200

C. 3800

D. 6880

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.29 An article was bought for ₹2,600. Its price was marked up by 20%. Thereafter, it was
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sold at a discount of 10% on the marked price. What was the profit percentage on the

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C. 7%

D. 8%

Q.30 The sum of three numbers is 8784. If the ratio between the first and second numbers is
20 :18 and that of between second and third is 21 : 12, then find the difference between
the first and the third number.
Ans A. 1687

B. 1768
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C. 1678
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D. 1786

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Q.31 After selling an article at a discount of 20%, the profit percentage obtained is 32%. What
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is the markup percentage?
Ans A. 61%

B. 69%

C. 71%

D. 65%

Q.32 The ratio of the present age of Sunil and Shyam is 3 : 4. The ratio of their age after 25
years from now, will be 8 : 9. What is the present age of Sunil?

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Ans A. 18 years

B. 16 years

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C. 15 years
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D. 14 years
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Q.33
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19 men and 13 women can complete a piece of work in 12 days, while 17 men and 9
women can complete the same work in 14 days. The work of how many women is
equivalent to that of one man?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

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Q.34
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Simplify the following.
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6 × 6 + 6 × (8 − 5) ² ÷ 3 × 9
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Ans A. 138
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D. 198

Q.35

Ans A.

B.

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C.

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D.

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Q.36 A train passes two tunnels of length 2708 m and 2195 m in 88 seconds and 76 seconds,
respectively. What is the length of the train?
Ans A. 1063 m

B. 1054 m

C. 1064 m

D. 1048 m

Q.37 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Nirmal
borrowed an amount of ₹2,40,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Nirmal after 3 years.
Ans A. 29,800

B. 30,300

C. 28,300

D. 28,800

Q.38 Ravi spends ₹80 more than Raj. If together they spend ₹380, how much does Raj
spend?
Ans A. ₹110

B. ₹140

C. ₹150

D. ₹120

Q.39

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.40 The insect population in a building was 9580 in 2015. It increased by 12% in 2016,
decreased by 8% in 2017, and again increased by 8% in 2018. Find the insect population
in 2018, rounded off to the nearest integer.
Ans A. 10,665

B. 10,661

C. 11,661

D. 11,665

Q.41 The sides of a triangle are 41 cm, 21 cm, and 50 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with a length of 21 cm?
Ans A. 22 cm

B. 40 cm

C. 54 cm

D. 85 cm

Q.42 A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹12,000 and sells it for ₹13,500. Find his profit
percentage.
Ans A. 20%

B. 12.5%

C. 10.5%

D. 15%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.43 A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 3, 9 and 18 days, respectively. How long (in
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days) will they take to complete thrice the same work, working together?2522

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Ans A. 12
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B. 7

C. 18
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D. 6

Q.44 The average age of 25 students of a class is 33 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 34 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 55

B. 56

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C. 59

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D. 61

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Q.45
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A solid metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into smaller spherical
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balls of radius 1.5 cm each. If the surface area of the original sphere is S, what is the
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total surface area of all the small balls combined?
Ans A. 7S

B. 8S

C. 6S

D. 5S

Q.46 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 41?
Ans A. 7575438

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B. 7397665

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C. 7132975

D. 7497194
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Q.47
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In an election between two candidates, 80% of the total voters cast their votes. Out of
the total votes cast, 10% were declared invalid. If Candidate A secured 70% of the valid
votes and Candidate B received the rest, and the total number of eligible voters was
50,000. How many votes did candidate A receive?4351
Ans A. 26,200

B. 26,500

C. 25,500

D. 25,200

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Q.48
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A jeep travels 80 km at the speed of 40 km/hr and the next 32 km at the speed of 16
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km/hr. What is its average speed (in km/hr)?3318
Ans
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C. 22

D. 28

Q.49

Ans A. 11 m

B. 10 m

C. 15 m
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D. 12 m

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Q.50 If the third proportional of 8 and 56 is x, then what is the value of x?
Ans A. 390

B. 394

C. 392

D. 393

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below I. Only one box is kept above J. Only
one box is kept between J and K. B is kept immediately above C. D is kept at some
place below A.
How many boxes are kept between A and B?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Q.52 KP 15 is related to NL 7 in a certain way. In the same way, BL 5 is related to EH −3. To
which of the given options is RP 18 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. VK 10

B. VL 8

C. UK 8

D. UL 10

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

532 530 526 520 512 ?3901
Ans A. 502

B. 499

C. 501

D. 498

Q.54 PO 8 is related to SM -5 in a certain way. In the same way, QW 12 is related to TU -1. To
which of the following is CJ 18 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. EG 5

B. FH 5

C. FG 7

D. EH 7

Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GD−EB

B. CZ−ZZ

C. CZ−AX

D. DA−BY

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.56 Naveen starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the south. He then takes a left
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turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km.

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and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
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are 90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 5 km towards the east
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B. 5 km towards the north

C. 11 km towards the west

D. 11 km towards the south

Q.57 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) 1 1 9 6 4 1 5 3 1 1 8 2 3 2 1 4 5 9 3 9 5 5 4 6 9 3 1 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
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odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?

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Ans A. 8

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B. 9

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C. 10

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D. 11

Q.58 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

8 D 14 A 2 C 3 B 9 = ?
Ans A. 26

B. 27

C. 25

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D. 28

Q.59
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
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Ans
UXZ 79, QTV 77, MPR 75, ILN 73, ?
A. FGJ 71
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B. FHJ 71

C. EGJ 71

D. EHJ 71

Q.60 M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between P and O when counted from the left of O. W sits third to the
left of N. Y sits to the immediate right of N. Y sits second to the left of P. X is not an
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immediate neighbour of W. Who sits third to the right of M?
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Ans A. N

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B. Y

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Q.61 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 1 3 8 4 5 1 6 3 7 1 9 2 5 9 4 8 5 5 3 1 2 2 1 6 2 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?15356
Ans A. 7

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B. 5

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C. 6

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D. 4

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Q.62 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ ÷ ‘ are
interchanged and ‘ - ’ and ‘ x ’ are interchanged?

312 + 6 x 5 - 32 ÷ 300 = ?
Ans A. 179

B. 192

C. 180

D. 186

Q.63 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

12 C 16 B 15 A 8 D 14 = ?3842
Ans A. 23

B. 27

C. 29

D. 28

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some teachers are writers.
All writers are professionals.

Conclusions:
(I) Some professionals are teachers.
(II) All teachers are professionals.12100
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.65 Roshan ranked 54th from the top and 18th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 70

B. 73

C. 71

D. 72

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
5 7 11 19 ? 67
Ans A. 20

B. 34

C. 35

D. 44

Q.67 Rahul starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 4 km to the east

B. 3 km to the west

C. 3 km to the east

D. 4 km to the west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
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information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
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se Statements:
All fruits are candies. ag l
All fruits are sprouts.

Conclusions:
(I): Some candies are sprouts.
(II): All sprouts are fruits.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

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C. Only conclusion (II) follows

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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

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Q.69
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In a certain code language, ‘ROUT’ is coded as ‘1625’ and ‘AUTO’ is coded as ‘1546’.
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What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
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Ans A. 5

B. 4

C. 6

D. 1

Q.70 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) $ 9 $ 6 7 8 £ 5 1 8 2 £ 9 3 4 6 9 # 8 8 7 7 (Right)

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How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?

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Ans A. 2

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B. 1

C. 3 a
D. 0

Q.71 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the husband of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
Based on the above, how is T related to J if ‘T + K ÷ S × U - J’?

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Ans A. Mother’s sister

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B. Father’s sister

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people sit between F and B when counted from the right of F. Only two people sit
between B and A when counted from the right of B. Only three people sit between F and
E when counted from the right of F. D sits to the immediate left of C. How many people
sit between F and G when counted from the left of F?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One
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Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘queen area add’ is coded as ' mk ng uk' and ‘game queen
ant’ is coded as ‘ng oz ie’. How is ‘queen’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. mk

B. uk

C. oz

D. ng

Q.74 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
113 99 85 71 57 ?
Ans A. 39

B. 45

C. 47

D. 43

Q.75 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.

PPR NQO LRL ? HTF
Ans A. JSI

B. KJU

C. LKJ

D. IJG

Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. DFL

B. FHM

C. ACI

D. LNT

Q.77 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

16, 29
25, 47
Ans A. 95, 186

B. 84, 79

C. 78, 152

D. 62, 121

Q.78 SG 11 is related to VH −6 in a certain way. In the same way, NM 19 is related to QN 2. To
which of the given options is ON 2 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. RO −15

B. SP −18

C. SO −18

D. QP −15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.79 Five people, A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits third from the left
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end of the line. E sits fifth from the left end of the line. B sits between A and D. Who sits

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C. B

D. E

Q.80 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 458 569 248 671 349 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
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If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit
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be exactly divisible by the second digit?
Ans A. Four
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B. Two
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C. One

D. Three

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 As of April 2025, which Ministry/Department approved 10 Plastic Parks in different
states under the Scheme for Setting up of Plastic Parks in India?
Ans A. Department of Pharmaceuticals

B. Department of Chemicals and Petro-Chemicals
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C. Ministry of Power

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D. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Q.82
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How many indigenously developed weapon systems were released by Defence
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Research and Development Organization (DRDO) in June 2024 to Indian armed forces
under the emergency procurement clause?
Ans A. 38

B. 18

C. 28

D. 48

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Q.83 Which Pakistani female cricketer was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in June 2025?

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Ans A. Diana Baig
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a Q.84 Which of the following services have been integrated into the newly revamped Mission
Vatsalya Portal launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in July
2025?
Ans A. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and Childline 1098

B. TrackChild and Khoya-Paya Services

C. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana and Sakhi

D. Poshan Abhiyaan and Ujjawala Scheme

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Q.85 Who was named the Men's Player of the Year at the AIFF Awards 2025?
Ans A. Khalid Jamil

B. Subhasish Bose

C. Brison Fernandes

D. Vishal Kaith

Q.86 Who among the following was appointed as a Whole-time Member (Life) at the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in March 2025?
Ans A. Ramesh B Iyer

B. Ajay Kumar Bhalla

C. Swaminathan S Iyer

D. Dinesh Khara

Q.87 Which of the following female runners won the women’s race in the Paris Marathon
2025?
Ans A. Letesenbet Gidey

B. Angela Tanui

C. Dera Dida

D. Bedatu Hirpa

Q.88 How much carbon sink does the Revised Green India Mission (GIM) Plan released in
2025 aim to create by 2030?
Ans A. 2.5 billion tonnes

B. 1 billion tonnes

C. 3.39 billion tonnes

D. 4 billion tonnes

Q.89 What is the name of Google’s largest campus in India, unveiled in February 2025, that
marks a milestone in the ongoing seismic shift in technology?
Ans A. Mahakaya

B. Ananta

C. Vishaal

D. Kshitij

Q.90 Who inaugurated the newly established Hedging Desk in Pune in 2025?
Ans A. Sharad Pawar

B. Eknath Shinde

C. Devendra Fadnavis

D. Uddhav Thackeray

Q.91 Which of the following labs under the Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO), successfully conducted high-altitude trials of the Indigenous On-Board Oxygen
Generating System (OBOGS)-based Integrated Life Support System (ILSS) for the LCA
Tejas aircraft, on March 04, 2025?
Ans A. Defence Laboratory Jodhpur (DLJ)

B. Defence Bio-Engineering & Electro Medical Laboratory (DEBEL)

C. Aerial Delivery Research and Development Establishment (ADRDE)

D. Defence Electronics Research Laboratory (DLRL)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.92 Who joined as the Mission Director of Atal Innovation Mission under NITI Aayog in
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2025?

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Ans A. Poonam Gupta
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B. B S Subrahmanyam

C. V. K. Paul
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D. Deepak Bagla

Q.93 Which of the following is the goal of the India AI Safety Institute set up in January 2025?
Ans A. Ensuring safe and ethical AI

B. Developing quantum computers

C. Promoting online gaming

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D. Regulating social media ads

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Q.94
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In 2025, which Union Minister inaugurated the Khelo India multipurpose hall in Kamle

m
district, Arunachal Pradesh?
s em
s e l a
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Ans A. Anurag Thakur

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B. Kiren Rijiju

C. Dharmendra Pradhan

D. Mansukh Mandaviya

Q.95 As per Union Budget 2025–26, for how many years has the Cotton Mission been
planned to enhance cotton productivity, especially in extra-long staple varieties?
Ans A. 10 years

B. 2 years

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C. 5 years

D. 12 years

e m
Q.96
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In June 2025, the Government of India launched which of the following new disaster

Ans
management tech platforms?
A. Indian Control Room for Emergency Responseag
B. Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response

C. Integrated Common Response for Emergency Response

D. Integrated Centre Room for Emergency Response

Q.97 Where was India’s first wooden Gurdwara, Sri Nanak Niwas, constructed in Punjab in
July 2025?
Ans A. Fazilka
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m
B. Khanna
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m.co C. Abohar
s e m
s e D. Moga
g l a
g l a a
a Q.98 In July 2025, which investigative authority unearthed over ₹24 crore in unaccounted
assets in Karnataka?
Ans A. Karnataka Lokayukta

B. Central Bureau of Investigation

C. Enforcement Directorate

D. Income Tax Department

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.99 World Ocean Day 2025, observed on 8 June, emphasised which of the following
themes?
Ans A. Sustain the Sea

B. Blue Future, Green Planet

C. Revive Ocean Life

D. Wonder: Sustaining what sustains us

Q.100 In June 2025, the Bonn Climate Change Conference 2025 was held in:
Ans A. Germany

B. Switzerland

C. Paris

D. France

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 02/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
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Section : General Science

Q.1 The work required by an external force to bring a moving body to rest is equal to:
Ans A. its weight

B. its kinetic energy

C. its momentum

D. its potential energy

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Q.2 Which of the following helps in maintaining reproductive health?
Ans A. Junk food
e m
B. Health education and medical care
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C. Early marriage
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D. Ignoring hygiene

Q.3 The working principle of a stethoscope is based on the _______.
Ans A. conversion of sound into electric signals only

B. conversion of sound into light for observation

C. absorption of high-frequency sound

D. reflection of sound
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.co m
Q.4 Which of the following statements is true for a concave lens?

m s e
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Ans
e
A. Image is always virtual, erect, and on the same side as the object

g l a
g l a B. Image is much larger than object
a
a C. Image is always virtual and on the opposite side

D. Image is always real

Q.5 Which of the following alcohols is commonly used as a fuel or fuel additive?
Ans A. Methanol

B. Butanol

C. Ethanol

D. Propanol
m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following statements correctly describes a typical physical property of
metals?
Ans A. Metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.

B. Metals have low melting and boiling points.

C. Metals are generally brittle and break easily when hammered.

D. Metals are sonorous and produce sound when struck.

Q.7 When lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide, a yellow precipitate of compound ‘X’ is
formed. Identify compound X.
Ans A. Lead(II) nitrite [Pb(NO2)2]

B. Lead(II) nitrate [Pb(NO3)2]

C. Lead(II) iodide (PbI2)

D. Potassium nitrate (KNO3)

Q.8 Ethanol is miscible with water due to presence of which functional group?
Ans A. Hydroxyl group

B. Carbon chain

C. Carboxyl group

D. Double bond

Q.9 Which of the following statements about adrenaline is INCORRECT?
Ans A. It reduces blood supply to the digestive system and directs it toward the skeletal muscles.

B. It helps the body respond to stress or emergency by triggering the ‘fight or flight’ response.

C. It increases heart rate and breathing rate to supply more oxygen to the muscles.

D. It promotes digestion by increasing blood flow to the stomach.

Q.10 How does fumigation help in the safe storage of food grains?
Ans A. It kills pests and insects that could otherwise damage stored grains.

B. It increases the weight of the grains.

C. It adds nutrients to the grains.

D. It prevents moisture loss from grains.

Q.11 Which functional group present in aldehyde?
Ans A. -COOH

B. -CHO

C. -OH

D. -CO

Q.12 Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus and the cytoplasm?
Ans A. Axon

B. Dendrites

C. Cell body

D. Nerve endings

Q.13 A man undergoes a minor surgical procedure that prevents sperm from mixing with
semen. Which structure was most likely altered?
Ans A. Penis

B. Testis

C. Vas deferens

D. Urethra

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following is a function of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)?
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Ans A. Manufacture of lipids

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B. Modification of sugars

g l a
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C. Synthesis of proteins

D. Assembly of ribosomes

Q.15 A body moves along a straight line with varying speed. Its displacement in 10 s is 50 m.
What is the average velocity?
Ans A. 5 m/s

B. 50 m/s

C. 10 m/s

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D. 25 m/s
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Q.16 .co
For concave mirror, the height of an image above the principal axis _______.
m s em
Ans
s e
A. depends on object position
l a
l a ag
ag
B. is considered positive

C. is considered negative

D. is considered zero

Q.17 Which of the following correctly identifies a solution where the solute and solvent are
both elements, and the solution is homogeneous?
Ans A. Carbon dissolved in water

B. Sugar dissolved in water

C. Iron filings mixed with Sulphur
m
D. Oxygen mixed with Nitrogen in air
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s e
Q.18
la
Which of the following is true about heterogeneous mixtures?

g
Ans A. The composition is the same throughout

B. It behaves like a compound
a
C. The components cannot be separated

D. The individual substances retain their properties

Q.19 The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for the making of which of the
following substances?
Ans A. Fructose
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B. Lipid
m
m .co C. Protein

s e m
s e D. Glucose

g l a
g l a Q.20 Which of the following statements about electric field lines is correct? a
a Ans A. They can form closed loops

B. They start on negative charges and end on positive charges

C. They are always straight lines

D. They never intersect

Q.21 Which of the following quantities does NOT affect the buoyant force acting on a body
immersed in a fluid?

m .
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Ans A. Density of fluid

e m
B. Volume of displaced fluid

e m l as
as
C. Gravitational acceleration

l ag

g
D. Density of object
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.22 A car starts to move from rest and attains a velocity of 20 m/s in 4 seconds. What is the
acceleration of the car?
Ans A. 100 m/s2

B. 80 m/s2

C. 4 m/s2

D. 5 m/s2

Q.23 Which of the following is a biological method of crop protection?
Ans A. Spraying DDT

B. Introducing pest predators

C. Ploughing

D. Burning crop residues

Q.24 Electric current is expressed as:
Ans A. energy consumed per unit time

B. amount of charge per unit length

C. amount of charge per unit area

D. rate of flow of electric charge

Q.25 What happens to the density of a substance when the temperature of a substance
increases?
Ans A. Density increases

B. Density decreases

C. Density has no effect

D. Density doubles

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The curved surface area of a cylinder is 528 m2 and its volume is 1848 m3. Find the total
surface area (in m2) of the cylinder.

Ans A. 836

B. 832

C. 840

D. 842

Q.27 Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 14 cm at a speed of 15 km/hr into a
rectangular tank 50 m long and 44 m wide. How long will it take for the water level in the
tank to rise by 21 cm?
Ans A. 3 hours

B. 2 hours

C. 1.5 hours

D. 2.5 hours

Q.28 The value of 999.99 + 99.99 + 9.99 is:4
Ans A. 1109.97

B. 1119.99

C. 1109.99

D. 1999.9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.29 The LCM of two numbers is four times their HCF. The sum of their LCM and HCF is 140.
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If one of the numbers is 112, find the other number.

. e m
s
Ans A. 25
m a
se B. 27

C. 28 ag l
D. 26

Q.30 Aakash, Suman and Raj invest ₹1,720, ₹1,690 and ₹1,240, respectively, to start a
business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,440, then what is the share of Raj in
the profit?
Ans A. ₹384

B. ₹382
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C. ₹385
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D. ₹381

e m l as
Q.31
s
If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 65% of the same
number is:
l a ag
Ans A. 78.25
ag
B. 98.25

C. 68.25

D. 88.25

Q.32 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 24°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
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Ans A. 11°

B. 15°
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C. 12°
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D. 17°
ag
Q.33 X people were given a contract for doing a piece of work in 28 days. 5 people did not
turn up to work due to sickness, and the rest of the people completed the work in 30
days. What is the value of X?
Ans A. 74

B. 82

C. 75

D. 65
m
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Q.34

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In a group of 150 players consisting of males and females, 58% are males. The average
weight of the male players is 82 kg, while that of the female players is 72 kg. Find the
s e m
s e average weight (in kg) of all the players in the group.
g l a
g l a Ans A. 76.4
a
a B. 77.2

C. 77.8

D. 75.9

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.35

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.36

Ans A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 100%

D. 65%

Q.37 In an examination, the percentage of students who qualified from school X to the
number of students who appeared from that school is 80%. In school Y, the number of
students who appeared is 15% more than those from school X, and the number of
students who qualified is 30% more than the number of students qualified from school
X. What is the percentage of students qualified to the number of students who
appeared from school Y (rounded off to one decimal place)?
Ans A. 88.8%

B. 84.6%

C. 80.4%

D. 90.4%

Q.38 The average age of 40 students of a class is 33 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 34 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 73

B. 76

C. 74

D. 77

Q.39 If a X m long train running at a speed of 59 m/sec crosses a railway platform in 9 sec.
Find the value of X, if the length of the railway platform is 279 m.
Ans A. 252

B. 256

C. 262

D. 253

Q.40 Ravi’s father is 4 times as old as Ravi. After 5 years, the father’s age will be 3 times
Ravi’s age. What is Ravi’s present age?
Ans A. 15 years

B. 18 years

C. 10 years

D. 12 years

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.41 A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at ₹5,360. Find the cost price if after allowing
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a discount of 8% he still gains 34% on the cost price.

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Ans A. ₹3,680
m a
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C. ₹3,622 ag l
D. ₹3,557

Q.42 Thomas is 38 years old. His nephew is 26 years younger than him. In how many years
will Thomas’s age be 14 years less than three times his nephew’s age?
Ans A. 5

B. 2

C. 8
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D. 3

em
Q.43
em l as
Ans A. 215
l as ag
B. 212
ag
C. 210

D. 27

Q.44 A car travels from City A to City B, a distance of 150 km, at a speed of 60 km/hr. On the
way back, due to heavy traffic, the car's speed decreases. If the total time for the round
trip is 7 hours 30 min, what is the speed during the return trip?3003
Ans A. 36 km/hr

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B. 30 km/hr

C. 45 km/hr
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D. 42 km/hr
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Q.45 ag
One pipe can fill a tank in 3 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 12 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

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Q.46
m
m .co s e m
s
Ans
e
A. 144

g l a
g l a B. 140
a
a C. 138

D. 142

Q.47 A sum of money was invested at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been
invested at a 3% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched ₹960 more. Find the
principal.
Ans A. ₹7,500

B. ₹7,800

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C. ₹8,300

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D. ₹8,000

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.48 Prakhar and Riya together invested ₹33,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹6,700, Prakhar's share was ₹2,000. What was Prakhar's investment?
Ans A. ₹10,370

B. ₹11,210

C. ₹8,540

D. ₹10,000

Q.49 A manufacturer sells a transistor for ₹840 at a gain of 20% to a shopkeeper. The
shopkeeper then sells it to a customer at a profit of 10%. What is the difference
between the cost price to the manufacturer and the cost price to the customer (in ₹)?
Ans A. 200

B. 250

C. 345

D. 224

Q.50 Arrange the following schemes in the ascending order of their discounts.

A. Buy 5 get 6 free.
B. A single discount of 82%.
C. Two successive discounts of 11% and 24%.
Ans A. C, A, B

B. C, B, A

C. B, C, A

D. A, B, C

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
MANY - YMNA - MYAN
WING - GWNI - WGIN
Ans A. DUSK - KDUS - USKD

B. ROSE - ORSE - EOSR

C. UNIT - TUIN - UTNI

D. LADY - YLDA - LAYD

Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All denims are trousers.
All trousers are shoes.

Conclusions:
(I): Some shoes are trousers.
(II): All denims are shoes.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.53 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. belong to that group?
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
as
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position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. JM-HL
ag
B. FI-DH

C. HK-FJ

D. DG-BE

Q.54 Shantanu starts from Point A and drives 4 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 5 km, then turns right and drives 7 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
10 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km, and then stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point
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A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified).
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Ans A. 5 km towards north

m s e
B. 4 km towards west

s e l a
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C. 5 km towards east
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D. 9 km towards south

Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 8 2 7 3 9 8 5 3 9 4 1 4 8 9 8 3 8 5 6 4 8 4 5 8 4 6 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Two

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B. Five

C. Three
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D. Four
las
Q.56 ag
If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

10 B 2 C 7 D 8 A 2 = ?
Ans A. 24

B. 23

C. 22

D. 21
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Q.57 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
e m
e m known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

l as
s
statements.

l a Statements:
ag
ag All chalan are tax.
All chalan are rebate.
Conclusions:
(I): Some tax are rebate.
(II): All rebate are chalan.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.58 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
KM 17, NP 20, QS 23, TV 26, ?
Ans A. WY 29

B. XY 30

C. XY 29

D. WY 30

Q.59 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

BEST - TSBE - BSET
COWS - SWCO - CWOS
Ans A. SALT - SLAT - TLAS

B. PAGE - EGPA - AGPE

C. MADE - EDMA - MDAE

D. URIC - RIUC - RICU

Q.60 Each of the digits in the number 5628743 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans A. One

B. None

C. Two

D. Three

Q.61 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ILL LKN OJP RIR ?
Ans A. OLI

B. UHT

C. MKP

D. JMK

Q.62 Riddhima ranked 18th from the top and 43rd from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 60

B. 61

C. 43

D. 50

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

310 320 321 331 332 342 ?3526
Ans A. 341

B. 342

C. 344

D. 343

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.64 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 548 658 254 369 714 (Right)

s e m
m a
se l
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
ag
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is multiplied
with the the third digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 17

B. 18

C. 20

D. 19

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Q.65 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged
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and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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428 ÷ 2 + 183 x 3 - 127 = ?

l as
Ans A. 922

l as ag
ag
B. 821

C. 811

D. 942

Q.66 In a certain code language, ‘CLAW’ is coded as ‘3948’ and ‘FLAW’ is coded as ‘9748’.
What is the code for ‘F’ in that language?
Ans A. 7

B. 8

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C. 9

m
D. 4

s e
Q.67
la
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
g
a
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(46, 56, 10)
(22, 33, 11)
Ans A. (4, 17, 10)

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B. (35, 63, 25)

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C. (12, 29, 14)
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m .co D. (15, 20, 5)
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.68 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 15 km, turns right and drives 24 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 29 km. a
a He takes a final right turn, drives 19 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 14 km to the east

B. 14 km to the west

C. 10 km to the south

D. 10 km to the north

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.69 D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line facing north.
No one sits to the left of D. Only four people sit between D and G. Only three people sit
to the right of M. L sits to the immediate left of E. N is not an immediate neighbour of M.
Who sits at the rightmost end of the line?
Ans A. N

B. D

C. G

D. F

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

312 310 306 300 292 282 ?4226
Ans A. 272

B. 270

C. 274

D. 276

Q.71 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

23 40 57 74 91 ?
Ans A. 107

B. 106

C. 105

D. 108

Q.72 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P – Q * R + S ÷ T’?
Ans A. Mother’s sister

B. Sister

C. Father’s mother

D. Mother’s mother

Q.73 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits to the
immediate left of F. C sits second to the right of F. E sits third to the left of B. D sits to
the immediate right of A.
How many people sit between G and D when counted from the left of G?
Ans A. Five

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four

Q.74 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
Only two people sit to the right of X. Only two people sit between X and C. Only two
people sit between A and D. D sits to the immediate left of X. B sits to the immediate
right of Y.
Who sits at the third position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. W

B. C

C. A

D. D

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘2739’ and ‘RISE’ is coded as ‘3978’. What
m
co
is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language? 8996

. e m
s
Ans A. 8
m a
se B. 9

C. 7 ag l
D. 3

Q.76 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

NG-LE-JL
KD-IB-GI
Ans A. QJ-OH-MO
m
m .co
B. RJ-OH-MP

C. RJ-OG-MP

m .co s em
D. QJ-OH-MP
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.77 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 7 4 5 5 4 7 9 8 4 3 9 2 1 5 7 9 7 8 3 3 8 2 1 9 6 9 7 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. Two

B. More than three

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C. Three

m
D. One

s e
Q.78
la
Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
g
a
same order. Only I is kept above C. Only L is kept between C and J. Only K is kept
below D. How many boxes are kept between B and I?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Q.79 This question is based on the following words.

m
.co
(Left) TOK, THE, HAS, ALL, COW (Right)
m
m .co
If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the letter immediately following it in
the English alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no vowel?6295
s e m
s e
Ans
g l a
a
A. One

g l B. Two a
a C. Four

D. Three

Q.80 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. FBZ
m .
B. CZW
m .co s e m
C. XTR
s e l a
D. MIG
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What was the theme of National Doctor’s Day in 2025?
Ans A. Behind the Mask: Who Heals the Healers?

B. Celebrating Resilience and Healing Hands

C. Family Doctors on the Front Line

D. Healing Hands, Caring Hearts

Q.82 What was the name of the military operation launched by the Indian Armed Forces in
response to the Pahalgam terror attack in 2025?
Ans A. Operation MANGALSUTRA

B. Operation SINDOOR

C. Operation SUHAGAN

D. Operation SAUBHAGYA

Q.83 With which defense organisation has the Indian Navy jointly conducted successful
combat trials of the indigenously developed Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM) in May
2025?
Ans A. Bharat Dynamics

B. Defense Research and Development Organisation

C. Hindustan Aeronautics

D. Armed Forces Tribunal

Q.84 In May 2025, which of the following two companies received Reserve Bank of India’s
(RBI) in-principle approval for cross-border payment aggregation?
Ans A. Amazon Pay and Instamojo

B. PayPal and Worldline

C. PhonePe and Razorpay

D. Google Pay and Stripe

Q.85 Up to what depth will India's first manned deep ocean mission 'Samudrayaan' be
launched, using the manned submersible vehicle 'Matsya,' by the end of 2026?
Ans A. 4,500 metres

B. 6,000 metres

C. 8,000 metres

D. 9,500 metres

Q.86 As announced by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in February 2025, what is
the weight of the world's largest vertical propellant mixer for solid rocket motors?
Ans A. 5 tonnes

B. 10 tonnes

C. 7 tonnes

D. 13 tonnes

Q.87 In a landmark judgment on 8 April 2025, the Supreme Court deemed which state
governor's refusal to assent to 10 state bills as illegal and unconstitutional?
Ans A. Maharashtra

B. Telangana

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.88 How many Kirti Chakras were conferred during the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025
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(Phase-I)?

. e m
s
Ans A. 6
m a
se B. 4

C. 5 ag l
D. 7

Q.89 In which country was the FIG Apparatus World Cup 2025, where Pranati Nayak won
bronze, held?
Ans A. Japan

B. India

C. Turkey
m
m .co
.co
D. Germany

em
Q.90
e m
Who among the following won the International Booker Prize in 2025 for 'Heart Lamp'?
l as
Ans
l as
A. Salman Rushdie
ag
ag
B. Banu Mushtaq

C. Arundhati Roy

D. Kiran Desai

Q.91 What was the distance Krishna Jayasankar achieved in her record-breaking indoor shot
put performance in 2025?
Ans A. 14.2 m

B. 16.03 m
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C. 17.5 m

D. 12.7 m
e m
las
Q.92
Ans A. Nick Olesen ag
Which IIHF goaltender was named MVP of the 2025 World Championship?

B. Leonardo Genoni

C. Zach Werenski

D. David Pastrňák

Q.93 In 2025, which Indian female athlete set a new national record in the 3000 m
steeplechase event?

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Ans A. Parul Chaudhary

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B. Hima Das

e m
e m C. Annu Rani

l as
l as D. Jyothi Yarraji
ag
ag Q.94 According to the Reserve Bank of India’s announcement in May 2025, which
denomination of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series banknote, carrying the signature of
the new RBI Governor, Sanjay Malhotra, is set to be released?
Ans A. ₹5

B. ₹20

C. ₹100

D. ₹200

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.95 According to the Finland-based Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA),
which region was identified as the most polluted zone in India in October 2025?
Ans A. Indo-Gangetic Plain

B. Western Ghats

C. Eastern Himalayas

D. Deccan Plateau

Q.96 What was the theme of the 9th International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC)
organised by the Republic of Singapore in May 2025?
Ans A. Navigating New Horizons in Maritime Innovation

B. Safe and Secure Seas

C. Maritime Connectivity and Economic Growth

D. Emerging Challenges in Undersea Technologies

Q.97 Who among the following was elected as the President of South Korea in June 2025?
Ans A. Kim Moon‑soo

B. Lee Jun‑seok

C. Yoon Suk Yeol

D. Lee Jae‑myung

Q.98 Which Indian state leads in mangrove afforestation under MISHTI scheme as of
February 2025?
Ans A. Odisha

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Gujarat

D. West Bengal

Q.99 Vaidya Tara Chand Sharma, Vaidya Maya Ram Uniyal and Vaidya Sameer Govind
Jamadagni were the recipients of which of the following awards in 2025?
Ans A. National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Awards

B. Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion

C. National Florence Nightingale Awards

D. National Award to Teachers

Q.100 In May 2025, what change did the Supreme Court make regarding environmental
clearances (EC)?
Ans A. Allowed clearances without public hearings

B. Made ECs optional

C. Rejected retrospective ECs as illegal

D. Approved retrospective clearances

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 02/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Which statement is INCORRECT about fragmentation (asexual reproduction)?
Ans A. Occurs in multicellular organisms

B. Spore formation is a type of fragmentation process

C. Produces genetically identical offspring

D. Involves maturation before splitting

m
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Q.2 What is the motion of an object called when it travels along a circular path at a constant
speed?
Ans A. Non-linear motion
e m
B. Uniform circular motion
las
C. Non-uniform circular motion
ag
D. Linear motion

Q.3 Over-secretion of growth hormone in adults results in which of the following?
Ans A. Dwarfism

B. Addison’s disease

C. Graves’ disease

m
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D. Acromegaly

m
Q.4
.co
Which of the following will NOT show Tyndal effect?

m s e m
s e
Ans A. Milk

g l a
g l a B. Starch
a
a C. Copper sulphate solution

D. Emulsion

Q.5 Which of the following properties makes ethanol a better alternative fuel compared to
petrol?
Ans A. Ethanol is a solid fuel

B. Ethanol burns with a clean, smokeless flame

C. Ethanol has a higher boiling point than petrol
m .
.co m
D. Ethanol produces harmful smoke when burned

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 A cube of side a is made of a material of resistivity ρ. What will be the resistance
between two opposite faces of the cube?
Ans A. ρ/a

B. ρ/a2

C. ρa

D. 2ρa

Q.7 What is the molecular mass of glucose? (C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u)
Ans A. 180 u

B. 120 u

C. 150 u

D. 160 u

Q.8 The _______ ores are converted to their respective oxides by the process of roasting.
Ans A. sulphite

B. sulphide

C. chloride

D. carbonate

Q.9 A white solid reacts with dilute HCl, producing a gas that turns lime water milky. What
can be definitely concluded?
Ans A. The gas is carbon dioxide; the solid is either a carbonate or bicarbonate.

B. The gas is hydrogen, indicating a reactive metal.

C. The solid is calcium carbonate.

D. The solid is a metal carbonate, releasing carbon dioxide.

Q.10 Which of the following is a chemical property?
Ans A. Boiling point

B. Melting point

C. Burning in air

D. Fluidity

Q.11 If a device is rated 90 W at 120 V, the current drawn is ________.
Ans A. 1.50 A

B. 1.33 A

C. 0.25 A

D. 0.75 A

Q.12 Which of the following groups is most at risk of HIV infections?
Ans A. People who maintain personal hygiene

B. People who exercise regularly

C. Individuals who have multiple unprotected sexual partners

D. People who do not exercise regularly

Q.13 Apiaries help us in the production of which of the following food materials?
Ans A. Fish

B. Milk

C. Poultry egg

D. Honey

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.14 The following vehicles are all moving at a velocity of 50 km/hr. All the vehicles need to
m
be stopped at the same point. Which vehicle has to apply more force in breaks to stop

. co the vehicle?

s e m
m Ans A. Scooter
a
se B. Bus
ag l
C. Car

D. Bicycle

Q.15 Which of the following is formed by each step of the food chain?
Ans A. Ozone layer

B. Trophic level

C. Troposphere level
m
D. Stratosphere level
m .co
Q.16
m .co
How does the sound of a patient’s heartbeat reach the doctor’s ears through a
s e m
stethoscope?
s e l a
Ans
l a
A. The sound is carried by moving air from the chest to the doctor’s ears.
ag
ag
B. In stethoscopes, the sound of the patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple reflection of sound.

C. The stethoscope uses electricity to amplify the heartbeat sound.

D. The sound travels directly through the stethoscope without any reflection.

Q.17 The covalent bonding behaviour of the carbon compounds corresponds to which of the
following characteristics of these compounds?
Ans A. Low boiling point

B. High conductance
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C. Low melting point

D. Both low melting and boiling point
e m
las
Q.18
Ans A. Contract and make the lens thinner ag
When a person looks at a nearby object, the ciliary muscles:

B. Relax and make the lens thinner

C. Contract and make the lens thicker

D. Relax and make the lens thicker

Q.19 Which of the following statements is correct about the image formed by a convex
mirror?
Ans A. Real and inverted image
m
m
B. Magnified image
.co
m.co C. Real and erect image
s e m
s e D. Virtual and erect image
g l a
g l a a
a Q.20 If the mass of the moon is doubled while keeping the distance between Earth and the
moon constant, the gravitational force between Earth and the moon would:
Ans A. Double

B. Become zero

C. Half

D. Remain the same

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.21 The kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with a velocity v m/s is ‘X’ J. If the
velocity of the body changes to 4v m/s, what will be the value of kinetic energy?
Ans A. 16X J

B. 4X J

C. 2X J

D. 8X J

Q.22 Which of the following is the most common simple permanent tissue in plants?
Ans A. Aerenchyma

B. Parenchyma

C. Chlorenchyma

D. Sclerenchyma

Q.23 What is the chemical formula of baking soda?
Ans A. NaHCO₃

B. NaOH

C. NaCl

D. Na₂CO₃

Q.24 In which of the following forms of reproduction, both sexes, males and females are
needed to produce new generations?
Ans A. Sexual reproduction

B. Fragmentation

C. Spore formation

D. Budding

Q.25 Which of the following statements about movement is INCORRECT?
Ans A. Living organisms show internal or molecular movement, even when external movement is not visible.

B. Movement is a characteristic of living organisms.

C. Growth-related movement in plants, like bending toward light, is a form of movement.

D. Molecular movement is only found in animals, not plants.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The sum of the first 10 prime numbers is:
Ans A. 133

B. 129

C. 130

D. 131

Q.27

Ans A. 30%

B. 20%

C. 25%

D. 10%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.28 The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 6 : 5 : 3. If the volume of the
m
cuboid is 720 m3, find its surface area (in m2).

. co
Ans A. 504
s e m
m a
se B. 424

C. 360 ag l
D. 458

Q.29 A skilled worker earns ₹100 per day and an unskilled worker earns ₹50. If 5 workers
earn ₹400 together in one day, how many skilled workers were there?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 1
m
D. 4
m .co
m .co s em
Q.30 The sides of a triangle are 120 cm, 174 cm, and 126 cm. What is its area (in cm2)?

s e l a
a ag
Ans A. 7552
l
B. 7561

C. 7560
ag
D. 7570

Q.31

Ans
A.

m
B.

m .co
s e
la
C.

ag
D.

Q.32 What is the average speed of a truck that covers half the distance at the speed of 20
km/hr and the other half at the speed of 80 km/hr?
Ans A. 41 km/hr

B. 40 km/hr

C. 37 km/hr
m
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D. 32 km/hr
m
Q.33
m.co
Two trains having lengths of 410 m and 440 m are running at speeds of 130 km/hr and
s e m
s e 140 km/hr, respectively, in the same direction. The time taken (in minutes) by the faster

g l a
a
train, coming from behind, to completely cross the other train is:3385

g l Ans A. 5.1 a
a B. 6

C. 14.7

D. 8.1

Q.34

Ans A. 48

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.co m
B. 54

C. 42
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. 45

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.35 A dealer marks his goods at 30% above the cost price and allows a discount of 38% on
the marked price. What is his loss percentage?
Ans A. 21.3%

B. 18.6%

C. 22.9%

D. 19.4%

Q.36 A manufacturer sells an article to a wholesaler at a profit of 20%. The wholesaler then
sells it to a retailer at a profit of 25%, and the retailer sells it to a customer at a profit of
24%. If the retailer’s selling price is ₹372, what was the manufacturing cost of the
article?
Ans A. ₹100

B. ₹172

C. ₹120

D. ₹200

Q.37 Subtracting 1% of X from X is the same as multiplying X by:
Ans A. 0.99

B. 0.01

C. 0.001

D. 0.5

Q.38 By selling an article for ₹528, a trader incurs a loss of 12%. At what price should he sell
the article to gain 12%?
Ans A. ₹666

B. ₹672

C. ₹628

D. ₹678

Q.39 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 5 days. B alone can do the same
work in 55 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
Ans A. 12

B. 11

C. 14

D. 5.5

Q.40 The sum of the present ages of father and son is 96. 20 years ago, the father was three
times as old as his son. What is the ratio of the present ages of the father and his son?
Ans A. 31 : 17

B. 31 : 16

C. 32 : 17

D. 32 : 15

Q.41 The sum of the first 5 prime numbers is:2635
Ans A. 26

B. 28

C. 32

D. 27

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.42 A store is offering 'Buy 47, get 9 free' on household items. What is the net percentage
m
discount (approximately) being offered by the store?

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Ans A. 16.07%
s e m
m a
se l
B. 17.75%

C. 13.81%
ag
D. 19.02%

Q.43

Ans A. 13250

B. 12250

C. 11250

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D. 10250

m
Q.44
.co
Three pipes, X, Y, and Z, can fill a tanker in 360 minutes, 540 minutes, and 720 minutes,

m s em
respectively. Y and Z are opened for 30 minutes, then X is also opened. The time taken

s e l a
ag
by the three pipes together to fill the remaining part of the tank is:
Ans
l
A. 150 minutes a
ag
B. 155 minutes

C. 152 minutes

D. 158 minutes

Q.45 In a bag containing teal, maroon, and lime tokens, the ratio of teal to maroon tokens
was 15 : 10, while the ratio of lime to teal tokens was 19 : 11. What was the ratio of lime
to maroon tokens?
Ans A. 57 : 22

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B. 63 : 29

C. 49 : 16
e m
D. 64 : 23
las
Q.46 ag
The average age of 26 students of a class is 37 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 38 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 62

B. 65

C. 64

D. 61

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Q.47 Vinod, Kajal and Arpit invest ₹1,040, ₹1,390 and ₹1,890, respectively, to start a business.
m
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If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,440, then what is the share of Arpit in the profit?
6077
e m
Ans
e m A. ₹627
l as
l as B. ₹630
ag
ag C. ₹632

D. ₹629

Q.48 The average of 6.5, 10.6, 19.7 and a is 13. The value of a is:
Ans A. 15.2

B. 17.2

C. 14.2

D. 16.2
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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.49 What is the difference between the simple interest on a principal of ₹5,000 being
calculated at 5% per annum for 3 years and 4% per annum for 4 years?
Ans A. ₹50

B. ₹45

C. ₹40

D. ₹55

Q.50 Which of the following sets of numbers can form the sides of a triangle?
Ans A. {10 cm, 8 cm, 2 cm}

B. {5 cm, 6 cm, 11 cm}

C. {9 cm, 12 cm, 22 cm}

D. {8 cm, 9 cm, 4 cm}

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 5 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 16 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 11 km to the south

B. 7 km to the east

C. 11 km to the north

D. 7 km to the north

Q.52 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 2 4 5 7 2 9 6 7 3 4 1 6 6 9 8 4 7 6 1 7 3 4 9 7 (Right)

How many such digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect
square and also immediately followed by an odd number?
(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square)
Ans A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.53 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

44 B 30 A 10 D 46 C 3 = ?3841
Ans A. 90

B. 89

C. 85

D. 97

Q.54 DFRU is related to JLUX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, BDDG is related to HJGJ. To which of the given options is TVMP related,
following the same logic?9948
Ans A. ZXSW

B. ZAWE

C. ZBLO

D. ZBPS

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.55 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ ÷ ‘ are
m
interchanged and ‘ - ’ and ‘ x ’ are interchanged?

. co 423 + 9 x 19 - 6 ÷ 775 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. 236

B. 220 ag l
C. 708

D. 214

Q.56 Seven boxes, M, N,O, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only three boxes are kept above S. Only one box is kept between R and
S. Only three boxes are kept between R and Q. Q is kept at some place above S. N is
kept immediately below Q. M is kept at one of the places above O. P is not kept
immediately above or below R. Which box is kept at the lowermost position?
m
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Ans A. O
m
.co m
B. N

m s e
C. S

s e l a
D. M
l a ag
Q.57 ag
Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only three boxes are kept above G. Only one box is kept between B and G. Only three
boxes are kept between B and C. C is kept at some place above G. F is kept immediately
below C. E is kept at one of the places above D. A is not kept immediately above or
below B.
How many boxes are kept below E?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

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C. 2

D. 1
e m
las
g
Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘8571’ and ‘DOUT’ is coded as ‘5478’.

Ans A. 5
a
What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?2226

B. 7

C. 4

D. 8

Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
m
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statements.
m
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Statements:
s e m
s e
Some keyboards are mouses.
All inverters are mouses.
g l a
g l a Conclusions: a
a (I) Some keyboards are inverters.
(II) All mouses are inverters.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.60 Which number should come in place of the question mark (?) in the same sequence to
make the series logically complete?

2, 8, 3, 27,4, 64, 5, 125, 6, 216, 7, ?
Ans A. 441

B. 343

C. 349

D. 243

Q.61 Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. Only three people sit between D and L when counted from the right of L.
Only three people sit between K and I when counted from the left of K. B sits to the
immediate right of D. J is an immediate neighbour of L as well as I. Who sits second to
the left of C?
Ans A. L

B. K

C. J

D. I

Q.62 Harshit starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 6 km to the North

B. 5 km to the South

C. 6 km to the South

D. 5 km to the North

Q.63 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
No one sits to the left of D. Only four people sit between D and C. Only three people sit
to the right of Y. X sits to the immediate left of A. W is not an immediate neighbour of Y.
Who sits third to the left of W?
Ans A. C

B. A

C. Y

D. X

Q.64 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 4 1 1 7 2 4 1 2 7 4 4 9 6 3 9 1 6 1 9 2 2 8 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.65 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. VYU

B. MQL

C. ORN

D. DGC

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

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.co
Q.66 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
m
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

. co (Left) 4 6 5 8 2 2 1 8 2 9 8 4 7 4 8 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 7 2 6 (Right)
s e m
m a
se How many such digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect
square and also immediately followed by a perfect square?
ag l
(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square)
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

D. Four

Q.67 In a certain code language, ‘kit son pit’ is coded as ' ai lm go' and ‘boss pit poem’ is
m
.co
coded as ‘lm jn yt’. How is ‘pit’ coded in the given language?

m
.co
Ans A. lm

em
B. ai

e m l as
C. jn

l as ag
ag
D. go

Q.68 PL 13 is related to SQ 16 in a certain way. In the same way, IE 18 is related to LJ 21. To
which of the following is OK 26 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. TP 29

B. TM 28

C. RM 28

D. RP 29

m
.co
Q.69 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will

m
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

s e
la
24 A 4 B 6 C 2 D 10 = ?
Ans A. 27

B. 26 ag
C. 28

D. 29

Q.70 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
m
.co
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
m
m.co
(26, 46, 20)
(12, 16, 4)
s e m
s e
Ans A. (7, 23, 13)
g l a
g l a B. (17, 43, 23) a
a C. (20, 31, 8)

D. (9, 32, 23)

Q.71 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only A sits to the
left of D. Only four people sit between A and C. Only B sits between G and F and G is
not an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit to the right of G?7928
Ans A. 4

B. 1
m .
C. 3

m .co s e m
D. 2
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.72 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

OH-QK-TV
LE-NH-QS
Ans A. SK-TN-WZ

B. SK-TM-WZ

C. RK-TN-WY

D. RK-TN-WZ

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
33 49 65 81 97 ?
Ans A. 112

B. 111

C. 110

D. 113

Q.74 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

GEL OMT WUB ECJ ?
Ans A. MKI

B. MKR

C. MIK

D. MRK

Q.75 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
PDG 12, RFI 16, THK 20, VJM 24, ?
Ans A. YKP 28

B. XLP 26

C. XLO 28

D. YLO 26

Q.76 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 826, 117, 681, 964, 529 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 11

B. 5

C. 7

D. 13

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

m
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Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All schools are colleges. ag l
No college is a radio.

Conclusions:
(I) Some colleges are schools.
(II) No school is a radio.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows
m
m .co
D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.78
m .co
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
s em
s e l a
a ag
501 500 497 492 485 ?3900
l
ag
Ans A. 477

B. 475

C. 476

D. 474

Q.79 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
m
Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D ÷ F x G – H + J’?
m .co
Ans A. Son's wife's brother
s e
B. Wife's mother
g la
C. Son's wife's father a
D. Wife's father

Q.80 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. BZW
m
m .co
B. AYV

m.co C. DBY

s e m
s e D. QPL

g l a
g l a a
a Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What is the name of the first private-sector reinsurer to be licensed under the new
framework of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India in March
2025?
Ans A. Paytm Reinsurance

B. Arko Pay Reinsurance

C. Phone Pe Reinsurance

D. Valueattics Reinsurance
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.82 In June 2025, which of the following announced to introduce 'Validated UPI Handles'
effective from 1 October 2025 for secured payments by investors to enhance investor
protection and combat fraud?
Ans A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

B. State Bank of India (SBI)

C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

D. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)

Q.83 In April 2025, Rapido signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Ministry of
Labour and Employment to provide jobs through which of the following government
portals?
Ans A. National Career Service Portal

B. Digital India Portal

C. Skill India Portal

D. Startup India Portal

Q.84 Which prominent world leader joined Truth Social (a social media platform owned by US
President Donald Trump) in March 2025?
Ans A. Narendra Modi

B. Rishi Sunak

C. Olaf Scholz

D. Emmanuel Macron

Q.85 The Indus Water Treaty, which was suspended by India following the Pahalgam terror
attack in April 2025, was signed between India and Pakistan in _______.
Ans A. 1965

B. 1950

C. 1960

D. 1955

Q.86 Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually launched a cooperative society in Bihar to
provide easy access to funds at affordable interest rates to community members in
September 2025, named ______.
Ans A. Bihar Rajya Gramin Nidhi Saakh Sahkari Sangh Limited

B. Bihar Rajya Mahila Nidhi Saakh Sahkari Sangh Limited

C. Bihar Rajya Jeevika Nidhi Saakh Sahkari Sangh Limited

D. Bihar Rajya Krishi Nidhi Saakh Sahkari Sangh Limited

Q.87 Which of the following departments released the 2025 Economic Survey of India?
Ans A. Department of Economic Affairs

B. Ministry of Labour

C. Central Statistical Organisation

D. Department of Commerce

Q.88 In 2025, in which country was the Yala Glacier declared 'dead' due to the effects of
climate change?
Ans A. China

B. India

C. Nepal

D. Bhutan

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.89 What was Neeraj Chopra’s final position at the 2025 Doha Diamond League javelin
m
event?

. co
Ans A. Third
s e m
m a
se l
B. First

C. Second
ag
D. Fourth

Q.90 In 2025, how much monthly out-of-pocket allowance was approved for hockey players
in the national camp by the Sports Ministry?
Ans A. ₹50,000

B. ₹25,000

C. ₹15,000
m
D. ₹20,000
m .co
Q.91
m .co
Which athlete received the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award in 2025?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. A’ja Wilson

l a
ag
B. Simone Biles

C. Iga Świątek

D. Naomi Osaka

Q.92 Who did Jannik Sinner defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2025?
Ans A. Rafael Nadal

B. Alexander Zverev

C. Stefanos Tsitsipas
m
.co
D. Daniil Medvedev

e m
Q.93
s
On 29 April 2025, the Union Minister of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) Pralhad

la
Joshi launched the GHCI scheme to empower MSMEs and promote green hydrogen

Ans
economy. What is the full form of GHCI?
A. Green Hydrogen Channel Scheme of India ag
B. Green Hydrogen Cultivation Scheme of India

C. Green Hydrogen Conservation Scheme of India

D. Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India

Q.94 Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide relief to which
country?
Ans A. Sri Lanka
m
m
B. Nepal
.co
m.co C. Myanmar
s e m
s e D. Bangladesh
g l a
g l a a
a Q.95 What was the new motto of Lokpal of India adopted by the full bench of Lokpal in June
2025?
Ans A. Prevent Corruption, Promote Growth

B. Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption

C. Empowering Youth against Corruption

D. Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.96 In May 2025, which Indian minister announced the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft
(AMCA) development plans at the CII Business Summit?
Ans A. Rajnath Singh

B. Amit Shah

C. Nirmala Sitharaman

D. S Jaishankar

Q.97 Which summit in 2025 focused on 'securing our future' for Ukraine?
Ans A. Paris Peace Forum

B. Warsaw NATO Ministers’ Summit

C. London Summit on Ukraine

D. Kiev Peace Conference

Q.98 What is the purpose of the Bharat Forecasting System launched in May 2025?
Ans A. Providing detailed weather forecasts

B. Monitoring wildlife habitats

C. Enhancing railway timetables

D. Improving school attendance

Q.99 How many positions did India drop in the 2025 Energy Transition Index compared to the
previous year?
Ans A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Q.100 Which of the following countries was hosted the 2025 NATO Summit held in June 2025?
Ans A. Germany

B. Netherlands

C. Brazil

D. Turkey

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48