TIFR GS 2012 Question Paper Biology M.Sc Wildlife and Conservation

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M.Sc Wildlife Biology and Conservation
National Entrance Test – GS 2012

QUESTION BOOK
This book contains Sections A to D all of which should be answered.
Questions in Sections A to C carry 1 mark each and all should be answered.
There is no negative marking. Section D would be evaluated only if the
candidate gets at least 40% in each of the sections A to C.
SECTION A.
1. Match the following Union Ministers with their portfolios:
A. P.C. Chidambaram I. Environment & Forests
B. Jayanthi Natarajan II. Rural Development
C. Pranab Mukherjee III. Finance
D. Jairam Ramesh IV. Home Affairs

a. A‐III, B‐II, C‐IV, D‐I c. A.IV, B‐I, C‐III, D‐II
b. A‐IV, B‐II, C‐III, D‐I d. A‐III, B‐IV, C‐II, D‐I

2. The 2G scam which has recently been in the news is about:
a. The issue of licenses for manufacturing 2G computer chips to telecom companies
b. The issue of 2G spectrum licenses to telecom companies
c. The issue of licenses for mining iron ore in Orissa in 2008.
d. The MoU between India and the US on 2G nuclear reactors

3. ‘Dope test’ in sports and athletics refers to:
a. Test done to detect the use of performance enhancing drugs
b. Test done to detect the use of narcotics by coach and managers
c. Slang term for a chemical test used to detect leaking pipes in sports equipment
d. Test done to ensure physical fitness

4. Which countries have recently seen the fall of rulers who have been in power for
several years?
a. Syria, Afghanistan, Egypt c. Libya, Tunisia, Egypt
b. Tunisia, Syria, Egypt d. Egypt, Tunisia, Yemen

5. The next Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity is to be
held in the year 2012 in:
a. Kathmandu c. Hyderabad
b. Colombo d. New Delhi

6. From the two sentences below choose the sentence that has the better English style.
a. Rajat was there, Mukund was there, Lalitha was there.
b. Rajat, Mukund and Lalitha were all there.

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7. From the two sentences below choose the sentence that has the better English style.
a. Study for two hours every day for the exam, it is the best way to prepare.
b. The best way to prepare for the exam is to study for two hours every day.

8. Only one of the options below is a completely correct sentence, in terms of English
grammar or word choice. Pick the correct option.
a. Gave two clothes to the man from the drycleaners.
b. The speaker emphasised on the importance of proper nutrition.
c. He likes using long words for effects.
d. The price of apples has doubled in the last decade.

9. Only one of the options below is a completely correct sentence, in terms of English
grammar or word choice. Pick the correct option.
a. The party was a big fun.
b. She is very rich, she is having two cars.
c. Rohan could not possibly have seen the movie, because he were already gone.
d. The tiger, which is found in many parts of India, is the country's national animal.

10. Only one of the options below is a completely correct sentence, in terms of English
grammar or word choice. Pick the correct option.
a. The husband removed all the items that reminded him of his wife.
b. In Andhra, people prefer hot‐hot curries.
c. There are only a few hundreds of such words in English.
d. These mangoes are inferior than those we had last week.

11. Organize the statements below into the following sequence:

Observation – Hypothesis – Prediction, by labeling O, H and P, respectively.

I. In the fossil record scientists might find evidence of whale‐like animals with small
hind legs.
II. Whales have small, undeveloped leg‐bones located internally at the back of their
body.
III. The evolutionary ancestors of whales were land‐dwelling animals that had fully‐
formed legs.

I II III
a. H O P
b. O P H
c. P H O
d. P O H

Study the following statement carefully and answer questions 12 & 13: “Of all the
people in the coffee shop when the cell phone was stolen, Ajay was the only one who
was rich. Therefore, he could not be the one who stole it.”
12. What assumption is made in the argument above?
a. Ajay already has a cell phone. d. Cell phones are the most
b. Coffee shops attract thieves. frequently stolen item.
c. Rich people never steal things.

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13. The argument above would be strengthened the most if it could be shown that:
a. Ajay never watches movies about criminals.
b. The coffee shop owner is a good friend of Ajay.
c. No‐one saw Ajay go near the table from which the phone was stolen.
d. Ajay always uses a Nokia cell phone and the stolen phone was a Motorola.

14. “It is healthy to eat dirt because it provides the body with many essential minerals.”
Which of the statements below would be most suitable as a counter‐argument to the
opinion expressed above?
a. One should only eat food. c. Dirt does not contain any vitamins.
b. Disease‐causing bacteria are d. The body is the temple of the soul.
sometimes found in dirt.

15. Which of the sentences below presents a logically valid argument?
a. Given that the sun is so much farther away than the moon, it must have less
influence on the Earth.
b. If it is true that wearing a turban makes you a little more intelligent each day, then
traditional Sikh men must get more intelligent as they age.
c. If fifty percent of car accidents involve a driver who is drunk, then there is a fifty
percent chance of having an accident if you drink and drive.

16. Two men, starting at the same point, walk in opposite directions for 3 metres and
stop. One man turns to his left and walks another 4 metres and stops, at which time the
second man turns to his right and keeps walking until he is 10 metres away from the
first man. What distance did the second man walk?
a. 22 metres c. 10 metres
b. 12 metres d. 15.25 metres

17. Match the following antonyms:
A. Abundant I. Unsure
B. Permeable II. Scarce
C. Confident III. Impenetrable
a. A‐I, B‐III, C‐II c. A‐II, B‐I, C‐III
b. A‐III, B‐I, C‐II d. A‐II, B‐III, C‐I

18. In a contest, four fruits (an apple, a banana, an orange and a pear) have been placed in
four closed boxes (one fruit per box). People may guess which fruit is in which box. 57
people participate in the contest. When the boxes are opened, it turns out that 21 people
have guessed none of the fruits correctly, 17 people have guessed one fruit correctly, and 14
people have guessed two fruits correctly.

Of the following combinations, which one is most likely to show (in order): the number
of people who guessed three fruits correctly, and the number of people who guessed
four fruits correctly?
a. 11, 7 c. 5, 5
b. 4, 1 d. 3, 7

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19. Identify the two statements necessary to make the statement below true:

Sumita is happy.

I. Sumita just ate a lemon.
II. Sumita's father just gave her a car.
III. Eating sour food always makes Sumita happy.
IV. Sumita has just passed her exam.
a. I, IV c. II, IV
b. I, III d. III, IV

20. In a new species of rat, it is found that 80% of the rats have red eyes and 50% have
white feet. What percentage of the rats has both red eyes and white feet?
a. All of them c. Between 30% and 50%
b. 30% d. Between 50% and 80%

SECTION B.
Selection to a post‐graduate course consists of a written test and those who pass this
test have to appear for an interview based on which the final selection is made. Given
below are the results from four states. Answer questions 1 to 4 using information
provided in the table.
State Number of Number of Number of
candidates who candidates selected candidates who
appeared for for interview were finally
written test selected
Uttar Pradesh 4400 1320 462
Kerala 1252 439 132
Goa 550 204 82
Assam 225 90 32

1. Which state had the highest success rate from written test to the interview?
a. Uttar Pradesh c. Goa
b. Kerala d. Assam

2. Which state had the highest success from interview to the final selection?
a. Uttar Pradesh c. Goa
b. Kerala d. Assam

3. Which state had the highest success rate from written test to final selection?
a. Goa c. Kerala
b. Uttar Pradesh d. Assam

4. What was the overall success rate from written test to final selection for all the
candidates together?
a. 0.11% c. 11.01%
b. 1.10% d. 110.1%

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5. Imagine that you have to find your food from one of two kinds of forests and that you
need a net energy return of at least x joules/hour, otherwise you starve. You know that
both the forests would give you the same mean net energy return (of say, y joules/ hour),
but forest B has a higher variance than forest A. When would you go to forest B to look for
food?
a. Never c. When x > y
b. Always d. When x < y

The number of accidents in a city for one year involving different types of 2‐wheelers
with single riders and the number fatalities are given below. Answer questions 6 & 7
based on this data.
Type of 2‐wheeler Number of accidents No. of fatal accidents
Cycle 150 15
Scooter 130 46
Motor bike 160 48

6. Which of the three types of 2‐wheelers is more accident prone?
a. Cycle d. Cannot say with the information
b. Scooter provided
c. Motor bike

7. Accident on which type of 2‐wheeler is more likely to be fatal?
a. Cycle d. Cannot say with the information
b. Scooter provided
c. Motor bike

8. Suppose you walk through a straight trail in a forest and record all the birds that you see,
and the perpendicular distance of every bird from the trail. If you see a total of 128 birds
and make a frequency distribution graph of the number of birds in different class intervals
of distance from the trail, which one of the following graphs are you most likely to get?
a. b.

c. d.

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9. What aspect of a population does the Standard Deviation describe?
a. Its variability c. Its central tendency
b. Its average d. Its skewness

10. To assess whether two populations have different means, what information is
required from each population?
a. The sample means, sample sizes and sample times
b. The sample means, sample variation and sample locations
c. The sample means, sample variation and sample size
d. The sample means, sample times and sample locations
11. The 25th percentile is the score below which 25% of all scores lie. Similarly the 75th
percentile is the score below which 75% of all scores lie. Look at the frequency
distributions A and B below, and judge the difference between their 75th percentiles.

Which of the following statements is true?
a. 75th percentile of A is about the same as that of B
b. 75th percentile of A is greater than that of B
c. 75th percentile of A is less than that of B
d. Not enough information is given to compare the two

12. The graphs below show three possible relationships between the total number of
crimes and the population size of cities across India. What inferences can you draw
about the slope of this relationship, i.e. the change in number of crimes for a unit
increase in population size?

a. Slope is constant in A, B and C
b. Slope is constant in A, but increases in B and C
c. Slope is constant in A, increasing in B and decreasing in C
d. Slope is increasing in A, and C

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13. A wildlife researcher surveys grasslands in different parts of the country and finds
the pattern below. Keeping in mind the distinction between correlation and causation,
what is the most reasonable conclusion from these results?

a. Grass biomass is affected by soil Nitrogen
b. Soil Nitrogen is affected by grass biomass
c. This is a spurious relationship, and grass biomass is affected by something else
d. There is a relationship between the two, but grass biomass may or may not be
affected by soil nitrogen

14. Lantana is an invasive shrub. I want to look at whether high Lantana density results in a
reduction in chital numbers in dry deciduous forests. What should I do in order to maximize
my ability to draw causal conclusions from my work?
a. Choose an area in which to measure Lantana and chital density over time, and look for
a relationship
b. Compare chital density in two areas: one with low Lantana and one with high Lantana
density
c. Remove Lantana from one of two areas with high Lantana density and then compare
chital densities
d. It's not necessary to do a study because it is logical that Lantana should reduce chital
density

15. I want to colour band Greenish Warblers for a study of winter territoriality. I can put one
colour band on each leg, and each band can be of any colour from among those that I have in
my banding box. I have to decide whether to carry 3 different colours or 4 different colours
in my banding box. How many more warblers can I mark with a unique code if I carry 4
versus 3 different colours?
a. One c. Six
b. Two d. Seven

16. Suppose you take two series of samples of chital body mass. In the first series, A, you
take samples of 10, 10, 10, 10, and 10 chital, and calculate the means of each of these 5
samples. In the second series, B, you take samples of 20, 20, 20, 20 and 20 chital, and
calculate the means of each of those 5 samples. So there are 5 means in A and 5 means in B.
In which series do you expect the means to show the most variation?
a. Variation in means of A > variation in means of B
b. Variation in means of A < variation in means of B
c. Variation in means of A= variation in means of B
d. There is not enough information to answer the question

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17. You are interested in the characteristics of hornbill nest sites, and one of the
measures you take is the compass direction (bearing) of the nest hole. For a sample of 6
nests, the bearings you record are: 8, 10, 15, 20, 345 and 355 degrees. What, roughly, is
the mean bearing of nest holes in your sample?
a. A little over 20 degrees c. Between 15 and 20 degrees
b. Roughly 180 degrees d. Around 0 degrees

One sq.km each of rainforest, dry forest and semiarid grassland was searched thoroughly for
amphibians, reptiles and mammals. The numbebr of species obtained in these three taxa are
given in the bar chart below. Use this chart to answer questions 18 to 20.

18. Which forest type has the highest overall species richness?
a. Arid grassland d. Cannot tell from the information
b. Rainforest provided
c. Dry forest

19. In which forest type are mammals relatively the most species rich? (i.e. they form the
largest group among all the species present in the community)
a. Arid grassland d. Cannot tell from the information
b. Rainforest provided
c. Dry forest

20. As the forest becomes more dry (from rainforest to arid grassland), which group becomes
relatively more species rich?
a. Mammals
b. Amphibians
c. Retptiles
d. Mammals and reptiles

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21. If the volume of a cube is 8, what is the total surface area of the cube?
a. 64 c. 16
b. 24 d. 4

22. What are all the values of x for which │x + 2│< 3?
a. x<1 c. -5<x<1
b. -1<x<1 d. -1<x<5

23.What is the derivative of f(x) = (ln x)5 ? (The symbol ln means loge.)
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a. (1/x)
4
b. 5(ln x)
c. 5(ln x)/x
4
d. 5(ln x) /x

24. A block is hanging on a spring. The length of the
spring is a linear function of the mass of the block. The
table shown to the right lists the length of the spring
resulting from suspending each of three blocks. What is
the length of the spring in centimetres when an 11 gram
block is suspended from it?
a. 31 c. 39
b. 36 d. 41

25. The graphs of the functions y = f (x) and y = g (x) are shown
in the figure to the right. What are all values of x for
which f (x)  g (x) ?
a. -1  x  1
b. -2  x  2
c. -3  x  3
d. -3  x  1 or 1  x  3

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SECTION C.
1. Which of the following Indian birds has been classified as 'Critically Endangered' in
the 2011 IUCN Red List of the threatened flora and fauna?
a. Great Pied Hornbill c. Great Indian Bustard
b. Sarus Crane d. Western Tragopan

2. 'Jhum cultivation' refers to the practice of:
a. slash‐and‐burn agriculture in forested hill‐slopes of north‐eastern India
b. terrace farming along the contours of mountain valleys in the Central Himalayas of
Nepal
c. raising tobacco and chilli as hedge plants to prevent wild elephants from raiding
food crops in Meghalaya
d. raising artificial phumdis (floating soil‐vegetation biomass) for aquaculture in the
Loktak Lake in Manipur

3. Who is the Chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life, the highest advisory body
for wildlife conservation in the country?
a. The President d. The Union Minister of
b. The Vice‐President Environment and Forests
c. The Prime Minister

4. The elongated and exquisitely ornamented train feathers of the peacock are believed
to be an outcome of:
a. Natural selection c. Disruptive selection
b. Sexual selection d. Environmental mutagenesis

5. Carnivory in plants is thought to have evolved in response to:
a. deficiency of nitrogen in soil d. reduction in chlorophyll content
b. excess of humic acid in soil due to poor sunlight
c. hyper‐salinity in soil and water

6. The biodiversity hotspots in India include:
a. Western Ghats, Gir forests, Thar desert and Western Himalaya
b. Western Ghats, Himalaya, northeast India and Nicobar Islands
c. Western Ghats, Himalaya and Andaman Islands
d. Eastern Himalaya, Western Himalaya, Sunderbans and Andaman Islands

7. Match the following animals with the protected area in which they occur.
A. One‐horned rhinoceros I. Gir Forests
B. Asiatic lion II. Kaziranga National Park
C. Great Indian Bustard III. National Chambal Sanctuary
D. Gharial IV. Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary

a. A‐III, B‐I, C‐II, D‐IV
b. A‐II, B‐I, C‐III, D‐IV
c. A‐II, B‐IV, C‐III, D‐I
d. A‐II, B‐I, C‐IV, D‐III

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8. Which among the following are arranged in increasing order of forest cover, as a
percentage of the geographical area?
a. Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Orissa
b. Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh
c. Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Orissa, Arunachal Pradesh
d. Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Orissa, Arunachal Pradesh

9. Which protected area in India has granted community rights to local people?
a. Namdapha National Park c. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
b. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple d. Periyar Tiger Reserve
Wildlife Sanctuary

10. The Tiger Task Force was set up in 2005 following the disappearance of tigers from
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐, and was chaired by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
a. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve, Prime Minister
b. Panna Tiger Reserve, Prime Minister
c. Sariska Tiger Reserve, Jairam Ramesh
d. Sariska Tiger Reserve, Sunita Narain

11. Match the following books with their authors:
A. George Schaller I. India’s Wildlife History
B. Ullas Karanth II. Secret Life of Tigers
C. Valmik Thapar III. The Deer and the Tiger
D. Mahesh Rangarajan IV. The Way of the Tiger

a. A‐III, B‐I, C‐IV, D‐II
b. A‐IV, B‐II, C‐I, D‐III
c. A‐II, B‐IV, C‐III, D‐I
d. A‐III, B‐IV, C‐II, D‐I

12. Which of the following is NOT competed for by plants?
a. Water c. Light
b. Warmth d. Nutrients

13. A major concern in modern times is the levels of pesticides used in food production.
Many pesticides get stored in body fat of animals. If a pesticide got into a lake, which of
the following would have the highest levels of pesticide?
a. Microscopic plants c. Predatory fish
b. Herbivorous fish d. Fishing eagle

14. Fertilizers used in agricultural fields often find their way into lakes. This causes a
phenomenon called:
a. Bioaccumulation c. Phosphorylation
b. Eutrophication d. Nitrification

15. Greenhouse gases warm earth by absorbing a fraction of outgoing infrared
radiation. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
a.CH4 c.CO
b.CO2 d.N2O

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16. Which of the following animals are likely to be found along the border between India
and Pakistan?
a. Tiger, Great Indian Hornbill and Indian one‐horned rhinoceros
b. Cheetah, Lesser florican and barking deer
c. Great Indian bustard, Indian wild ass and markhor
d. Asiatic lion, Tibetan antelope and Jerdon’s courser

17. The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of wild animals (CMS or
Bonn Convention) aims to conserve terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species
throughout their range. Which of the following species are covered by this convention?
a. Siberian crane, bar‐headed goose, sperm whale and olive ridley turtle
b. Sarus crane, Great Indian hornbill, humpback whale and Indian flap‐shell turtle
c. Median egret, Pink‐headed duck, Gangetic dolphin and cane turtle
d. Cattle egret, Wreathed hornbill, Irrawaddy dolphin and soft‐shell turtle

18. Which of the following methods were used in estimating tiger population in India,
during 2010 tiger count conducted by National Tiger Conservation Authority and
Wildlife Institute of India?
a. Pug marks and DNA c. Camera traps and DNA
b. Pug marks and camera traps d. Camera traps and block counts

19. What are the three largest global sources of human‐induced greenhouse gas
emissions, in order of size, largest first?
a. Energy supply, forestry, industry c. Energy supply, industry, forestry
b. Forestry, energy supply, industry d. Industry, energy supply, forestry

20. Match the following scientists with the field to which they made major
contributions:
A. Charles Darwin I. Molecular biology
B. Konrad Lorenz II. Genetics
C. Gregor Mendel III. Ethology
D. James Watson IV. Evolution

a. A‐IV, B‐I, C‐III, D‐II c. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐II, D‐I
b. A‐II, B‐III, C‐IV, D‐I d. A‐III, B‐IV, C‐II, D‐I

21. According to IUCN Red List criteria, a species would be classified as Endangered, if it
meets one or more of the following criteria: (1) a 50‐80% decline in population, inferred
or estimated, during the past 10 years; (2) it occurs in an area of less than 20,000 sq.
km; or (3) a total adult population of less than 2500 animals. Which among the
following species would best qualify as an Endangered species under these criteria?
a. Red‐wattled lapwing c. White‐backed vulture
b. House sparrow d. Lesser florican

22. Within Indian waters, coral reef occurs:
a. Only in Lakshadweep Islands
b. Only in (a) and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c. In (b) and Gulf of Mannar
d. In (c) and Gulf of Kutch

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23. Mass extinctions provide conditions that promote:
a. Gene flow c. Adaptive radiation
b. Genetic drift d. Microevolution

24. The number of animals that a given area will support without damage to the habitat
or to the animals is called its:

a. Breeding stock c. Carrying capacity
b. Biological surplus d. Harvesting level

25. Plants of which of the following families are well known as nitrogen fixers?
a. Fabaceae c. Anacardiaceae
b. Ebenaceae d. Euphorbiaceae

26. Which of the following mammalian Orders have the largest recorded number of
species in India?
a. Rodentia c. Primates
b. Chiroptera d. Carnivora

27. Coral bleaching is due to:
a. The death of coral polyps from high concentration of chlorides in the sea water
b. The expulsion of photosynthetic micro‐algae by coral polyps caused by high
temperature
c. The death of coral polyps due to sedimentation and wave action
d. All of the above

28. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the most common mating system in birds, while ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the most
common mating system in mammals.
a. Monogamy, polygyny c. Monogamy, polyandry
b. Polygyny, monogamy d. Polyandry, polygyny

29. Several new species of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ were recently described from the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a. Reptiles, northeast India
b. Reptiles, Western Ghats
c. Amphibians, Western Ghats
d. Bats, Central India
30. To the right are given the gastro‐intestinal tracts (GIT)
of three mammals. One is an herbivore requiring lot of
processing of leaves that they eat; another is a carnivore I.
which eats other animals which do not need much
processing in the GIT; the third one is an omnivore which
eats fruits and insects needing medium processing in the II.
GIT. Identify which GIT belongs to which mammal.
a. I‐Omnivore, II‐Herbivore, III‐Carnivore
b. I‐Herbivore, II‐Carnivore, III‐Omnivore
c. I‐Omnivore, II‐Carnivore, III‐Herbivore
d. I‐Carnivore, II‐Omnivore, III‐Herbivore III.

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SECTION D.
Write an essay (in English) of not more than 700 words on one of the following.
The essay would be evaluated only on the first 700 words. No additional sheets
would be given for writing this essay.

1. Based on the Recognition of Forest Rights Act (2006), the Sholiga people in
Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary in Karnataka have been given
the rights to collect and use minor forest produce, graze their livestock and own
products from water bodies, such as fish, within the Sanctuary. The above rights
exclude traditional rights of hunting, and they have the duty to protect wildlife,
forest and biodiversity. Would you argue that this Act would imperil
conservation of wildlife within the Sanctuary?

2. A noted wildlife conservation organization has set up rescue centres in many
wildlife sanctuaries across the country where the old, injured and sick animals
are collected, treated and rehabilitated back into the respective sanctuaries. Do
you think such activities contribute significantly to wildlife conservation and
should be encouraged widely?