RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 03 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 03 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 03/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements about magnetic field lines is correct?
Ans A. They show the path of charged particles

B. They originate only from the centre of the magnet

C. They always intersect

D. They form closed loops inside and outside the magnet

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Q.2 A sound wave has a frequency of 4 kHz and a wavelength of 15 cm. How much time will
it take to cover a distance of 1.8 km?

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Ans A. 0.003 seconds

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B. 0.03 seconds

C. 3 seconds ag
D. 4 seconds

Q.3 Which of the following is responsible for positive geotropism movement in plants?
Ans A. Chemical

B. Gravity

C. Light
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D. Water
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Q.4
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What does the potential energy of an object depend on?
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Ans A. Its position or arrangement
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D. Its colour and shape

Q.5 Read the given statements with regards to importance of variation produced by sexual
reproduction in plants and select the most appropriate option.

Statement A: Reproduction is linked to the stability of populations of species.
Statement B: Variation is thus not useful for the survival of species over time.
Ans
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A. Both Statement A and statement B is incorrect
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B. Both Statement A and statement B is correct
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C. Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

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D. Statement A is incorrect but statement B i
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Which Rutherford's experiment led to the discovery of the atoimc nucleus?
Ans A. Photoelectric effect

B. Cathode Ray experiment

C. Alpha-particle scattering

D. Beta-particle scattering

Q.7 A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. A force of 4 N is applied for 5
s. The final velocity is:
Ans A. 20 m/s

B. 35 m/s

C. 25 m/s

D. 15 m/s

Q.8 What is prevented when the fallopian tubes in females are blocked?
Ans A. Childbirth

B. Menstrual cycle

C. Egg production

D. Fertilisation

Q.9 Which of the following pair is a correct example, which shows number of Valency as 2?
Ans A. Sodium and sulphate

B. Sulphate and sulphite

C. Ammonium and sulphate

D. Phosphate and nitride

Q.10 The process used for removing gangue from the ore works on the basis of difference of
their chemical or physical properties and is called ______ of ores.
Ans A. weighing

B. enrichment

C. colouring

D. polishing

Q.11 When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate, which gas is typically produced?
Ans A. Hydrogen gas

B. Carbon dioxide gas

C. Nitrogen gas

D. Oxygen gas

Q.12 What is the type of bonding that usually exists in most of the carbon compounds?
Ans A. Ionic bonding

B. Hydrogen bonding

C. Covalent bonding

D. Coordinate bonding

Q.13 What is the direction of velocity in uniform circular motion?
Ans A. Along the radius of the circle

B. Along the tangent to the circle

C. Towards the centre of the circle

D. Away from the circle

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 Washing soda is obtained from baking soda by which of the following processes?
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Ans A. Heating baking soda followed by crystallisation from water

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B. Adding hydrochloric acid to baking soda

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C. Evaporation of baking soda in sunlight

D. Mixing baking soda with lime water

Q.15 When solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed, the reaction leads to
the formation of which of the following?
Ans A. An orange precipitate of lead iodide is formed.

B. A yellow precipitate of lead sulphate is formed.

C. A yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed.

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D. An orange precipitate of lead iodate is formed.
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Q.16 .co
A cell divides to form two identical daughter cells, each having the same chromosome
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number as the parent cell. What type of cell division is this called?
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Ans A. Budding
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B. Cytokinesis

C. Mitosis

D. Meiosis

Q.17 An electric iron operating at 220 V consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when the
heating is at its maximum. What is the resistance of the coil used in the iron?
Ans A. 57.6 Ω

B. 55.6 Ω
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C. 50.6 Ω

D. 47.6 Ω
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Q.18
Ans A. Refraction ag
What is the term for the process in which white light breaks up into different colours?

B. Scattering

C. Dispersion

D. Reflection

Q.19 In eukaryotic cells, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is mainly responsible for:
Ans A. Sugar breakdown
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B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
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a plant cells?
Ans A. Cell wall

B. Cytoplasm

C. Nuclear membrane

D. Centriole

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.21 Waste generated by developing human embryo is removed with the help of which of the
following organs?
Ans A. Fallopian tube

B. Scrotum

C. Ovaries

D. Placenta

Q.22 Approximately what percentage of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the
next in an ecosystem?
Ans A. 90%

B. 50%

C. 10%

D. 1%

Q.23 If an object weighs 60 N when measured on the surface of the Earth, what would be its
approximate weight when measured on the surface of the Moon?
Ans A. 15 N

B. 10 N

C. 360 N

D. 60 N

Q.24 Which of the following statements is responsible for the atmospheric refraction?
Ans A. Absorption of light by air molecules

B. Scattering of light in atmosphere

C. Reflection of light by atmosphere

D. Bending of light due to change in air density

Q.25 Which of the following best describes Thomson's model of an atom?
Ans A. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.

B. An atom has a positively charged nucleus and electrons outside.

C. An atom is a sphere of positive charge with electrons embedded in it like seeds in a watermelon.

D. An atom is mostly empty space with a dense nucleus.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Eight years ago, A was thrice as old as B. Eight years hence, A will be twice as old as B.
Find A's present age.
Ans A. 52 years

B. 60 years

C. 64 years

D. 56 years

Q.27

Ans A. 45%

B. 55%

C. 90%

D. 60%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.28 The amount on a sum of ₹2,600 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually, in 2 years will be:

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Ans A. ₹2,950
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C. ₹4,363 ag l
D. ₹3,744

Q.29 A number is split into two parts so that one part exceeds the other by 10. If the ratio of
the two parts is 7 : 5, write the equation representing this situation by assuming the
smaller part to be x.
Ans A. 7(x + 10) = 5x

B. 5(x + 10) = 7x
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C. 5(10x + 1) = 7x
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D. 35(x + 10) = x

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Q.30
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Ans A. 47

B. 41
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C. 45

D. 43

Q.31 Aman and Yogita together invested ₹52,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹5,800, Aman's share was ₹1,700. What was the investment of Aman?
Ans A. ₹13,695
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B. ₹15,300

C. ₹16,620
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D. ₹15,490
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Q.32 ag
The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. If the total surface
area of the cuboid is 992 m2, find its volume.
Ans A. 1,980 m3

B. 1,920 m3

C. 2,040 m3

D. 2,070 m3

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Q.33 The sides of a triangle are 30 cm, 63 cm, and 51 cm. What is the length of its altitude
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corresponding to the side with a length of 63 cm?
Ans

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Q.34 The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm. Find the length of
its perimeter (in cm).
Ans A. 34

B. 26

C. 13

D. 52
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Q.35 Amit sells two articles for ₹360 each. On one, he gains 20%, and on the other, he loses
10%. Find the gain or loss percent in the entire transaction. [Answer correct to two
places after decimal.]
Ans A. 5.56% loss

B. 2.86% profit

C. 4.56% loss

D. 5.56% profit

Q.36 The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 62% and that of the TV decreases by 33%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 27%

B. Decrease by 31%

C. Increase by 24%

D. Increase by 19%

Q.37 The product of two numbers is 63 and their difference is 7. The sum of squares of the
two numbers is
Ans A. 220

B. 130

C. 112

D. 175

Q.38 If the mean proportional of X and 250 is 50, then find the value of X.
Ans A. 10

B. 13

C. 12

D. 8

Q.39 The marked price of a chair is ₹2,700, which is 35% above the cost price. It is sold at a
discount of 20% on the marked price. Find the profit percentage.
Ans A. 10%

B. 8%

C. 7%

D. 9%

Q.40 If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 63

B. 73

C. 83

D. 93

Q.41 Manoj got a new curtain at 50% discount. If Manoj did not get any discount, Manoj
would have to pay ₹251 extra. So how much did Manoj pay for the curtain?657
Ans A. ₹253

B. ₹250

C. ₹251

D. ₹252

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.42 One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
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tank in 90 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how

. many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
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Ans A. 11

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B. 6

C. 5
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D. 10

Q.43 Provisions meant for 100 men for 13 weeks are shared when 30 more men join them.
For how many weeks will the provisions now last?
Ans A. 14

B. 12
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C. 8
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D. 10

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Q.44

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Ans A. 18 minutes

B. 10 minutes

C. 28 minutes

D. 26 minutes

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Q.45 An Uber auto covers a distance of 639 km in 71 hours. What is its speed in km/hr?

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Ans A. 9

B. 13
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C. 19
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D. 4
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Q.46
Find the value of 4168

Ans A. 0.0006

B. 0.6

C. 0.006

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D. 0.06

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Q.47
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The average age of 36 students of a class is 12 years. If the age of the teacher is also
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the teacher is:
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a B. 55

C. 50

D. 52

Q.48 The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point 63 m distance away from its
foot is 30°. Find the height (in m) of the tower.
Ans
A.

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B.

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C.
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D.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 48

Q.49 X people were given a contract for doing a piece of work in 34 days. 3 people did not
turn up to work due to sickness, and the rest of the people completed the work in 35
days. What is the value of X?
Ans A. 104

B. 115

C. 103

D. 105

Q.50

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) © $ £ 7 3 @ £ 7 8 6 8 % 6 © 3 4 & € 9 @ 8 5 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1021 1023 1027 1033 1041 ?
Ans A. 1051

B. 1049

C. 1053

D. 1055

Q.53 In a certain code language, ‘OMER’ is coded as ‘1834’ and ‘DEMO’ is coded as ‘5148’.
What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 8

B. 4

C. 1

D. 5

Q.54 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

17 B 17 C 324 A 9 D 22 = ?
Ans A. 307

B. 318

C. 310

D. 303

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

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(Left) 6 7 8 9 & 5 £ & $ £ $ 1 * * # * € 8 % 8 © 7 (Right)
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Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q.56 IN 5 is related to KJ −2 in a certain way. In the same way, GL 9 is related to IH 2. To
which of the given options is RW 11 related, following the same logic?
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Ans A. HY 4
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B. MK 7

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C. YT 6
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D. TS 4

Q.57 F, G, H, I, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between I and O when counted from the left of O. G sits third to the
left of N. H sits to the immediate right of N. H sits second to the left of I. F is not an
immediate neighbour of G. Who sits third to the right of M?
Ans A. N

B. O

C. H

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D. F

Q.58
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If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

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50 A 10 C 2 B 7 D 6 = ?
A. 14 ag
B. 13

C. 11

D. 12

Q.59 Aruna starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the north. She then takes a right
turn, drives 10 km, turns right and drives 21 km. She then takes a right turn and drives
5 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
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distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again?
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(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)

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Ans

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A. 5 km towards the west

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D. 6 km towards the north

Q.60 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D – F ÷ G × H + J’?
Ans A. Son's wife's mother's brother

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B. Son's wife's mother's father

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C. Son's wife's father's father

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D. Son's wife's father's brother

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(33, 495, 15)
(27, 648, 24)
Ans A. (25, 575, 23)

B. (8, 179, 22)

C. (38, 41, 1)

D. (30, 573, 19)

Q.62 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

IIM 2 JKL −11 KMK −24 ? MQI −50
Ans A. LLP −22

B. KLO −33

C. RTD −21

D. LOJ −37

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TPL

B. PMH

C. OKG

D. SOK

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All fans are lights. Some lights are heaters. Some heaters are geysers.

Conclusion (I): Some fans are heaters.
Conclusion (II): Some lights are geysers.11659
Ans A. Only Conclusion II follows.

B. Neither Conclusion I or II follows.

C. Only Conclusion I follows.

D. Both Conclusion I or II follow.

Q.65 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

JC-LE-NP
MF-OH-QS
Ans A. PI-RK-TU

B. OI-RK-TU

C. OI-RL-TU

D. PI-RK-TV

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.66 FAEG is related to MHLN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, IDHJ is related to PKOQ. To which of the given options is LGKM related,

. following the same logic?
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Ans A. SNTR

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B. SNRT

C. NSRT
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D. NSTR

Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

510 509 506 501 494 ?
Ans A. 485

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B. 486

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C. 487

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D. 484

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Q.68
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Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. NP - KM

B. RT - OQ

C. PR - ML

D. JL - GI

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Q.69 Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below W. Only two boxes are kept between W

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and U. Only one box is kept between U and E. X is kept immediately above V. F is kept
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at some place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and X?

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Ans A. Three

B. Two ag
C. Four

D. One

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
UMQ TLP SKO RJN ?

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Ans A. QIN

mB. QIM
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turn, drives 21 km, then turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 23 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point
A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 2 km to the west

B. 5 km to the east

C. 4 km to the south

D. 3 km to the east
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.72 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the
right of C. Only three people sit between C and D. Only two people sit between D and G.
A sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit to the
right of B?7931
Ans A. 1

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘drinking is dangerous’ is coded as ‘cd pk os’, ‘avoid
dangerous habit’ is coded as ‘os mp ls’, and ‘please avoid drinking’ is coded as ‘rk pk
mp’. How is ‘dangerous’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. rk

B. ls

C. mp

D. os

Q.74 Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept above L. Only one box is kept above J. Only one
box is kept between J and C. B is kept immediately above D. K is kept at some place
below I. How many boxes are kept between I and B?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.75 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 6 9 7 7 9 4 3 3 3 1 5 8 7 6 6 8 6 7 7 9 6 2 7 8 2 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

Q.76 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

13 B 32 C 130 A 26 D 41 = ?
Ans A. 385

B. 380

C. 369

D. 377

Q.77 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done
from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 6 4 3 2 7 6 4 9 9 6 5 4 9 7 6 8 3 5 1 5 1 2 4 8 9 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.78 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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All pencils are crayons. ag l
Some crayons are batteries.

Conclusions:
(I): Some pencils are batteries.
(II): Some crayons are pencils.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Only conclusion (I) follows
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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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Q.79 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

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Only two people sit between U and S when counted from the right of U. Only three

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people sit between R and C when counted from the right of C. S sits to the immediate

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right of C. T sits to the immediate right of A. Who sits fourth to the right of B?
Ans A. A

B. T

C. C

D. S

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
313 304 295 286 277 ?

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Ans A. 267

B. 273

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C. 268

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D. 271
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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which cinema was India's official Oscar entry but did NOT get nominated, yet swept 10
IIFA awards in March 2025?
Ans A. Darlings

B. Laapataa Ladies

C. The Kerala Story
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D. Ram Setu

Q.82
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Praveen Kumar, awarded the Khel Ratna, in January 2025, is associated with which
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s e discipline?
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a
a B. Shooting

C. Boxing

D. Archery

Q.83 Which among the following authorities invoked Stage-I of the Graded Response Action
Plan (GRAP) in May 2025 due to poor air quality in Delhi NCR?
Ans A. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)

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B. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
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C. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM)

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D. Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC), National Capital Territory of Delhi
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.84 In July 2025, the Kerala Health Department stepped up vigil against which zoonotic
disease after a few cases were detected in its two districts?
Ans A. Filariasis

B. Tuberculosis

C. Nipah

D. Malaria

Q.85 In July 2025, the Ministry of Rural Development entered into an important partnership
with the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to realise the Government of India’s
‘Insurance for All by _____'.
Ans A. 2047

B. 2035

C. 2045

D. 2040

Q.86 Which of the following themes was observed for World Health Day 2025 on April 7?
Ans A. Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures

B. Our Planet, Our Health

C. Equity in Healthcare

D. Health for All

Q.87 In 2025, which schemes provide retired athletes career transition support, financial aid,
and medical benefits?
Ans A. National Awards and TOPS

B. Khelo India and PYKKA

C. RESET and Pandit Deendayal Fund

D. NSFs and SAI

Q.88 The deforestation drive in Kancha Gachibowli involved clearing land near which major
educational institution in April 2025?
Ans A. Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad

B. Central University of Hyderabad

C. National Institute of Technology, Warangal

D. Osmania University

Q.89 Which English fast bowler was awarded a knighthood in April 2025 after retiring with a
record 704 Test wickets, making him England’s all-time leading wicket-taker in Test
cricket?
Ans A. Andrew Flintoff

B. Stuart Broad

C. Darren Gough

D. James Anderson

Q.90 On June 14, 2025, in which of the following cities of India did Kamlesh Paswan
inaugurate Garuda Aerospace's new Agri-Drone Indigenization Facility?
Ans A. Vijayawada

B. Hubbali

C. Pune

D. Chennai

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.91 Which of the following cricketers clinched the record for the fastest century by an
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Indian woman cricketer in ODIs, as of January 2025?

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s
Ans A. Pratika Rawal
m a
se B. Deepti Sharma

C. Smriti Mandhana ag l
D. Harmanpreet Kaur

Q.92 What is the main purpose of the e-Jagriti platform, launched by the Department of
Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution,
Government of India on 1 January 2025?
Ans A. To provide a single interface for consumer grievance redressal

B. To manage real estate and government accommodation services
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C. To promote digital payments under the Digital India programme
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.co em
D. To expand India’s space exploration and satellite launches

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Q.93
s
As per the Sustainable Development Report (SDR)-2025 published by the UN

l a
Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), what is the rank of India among
ag
ag
193 UN member countries?
Ans A. 99

B. 89

C. 109

D. 79

Q.94 The Indian Navy along with the navy of which other country held a joint PASSEX
exercise near Mumbai on 10 July 2025, in the Arabian Sea?

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Ans A. Indonesia

B. Greece
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C. Malaysia
las
D. Japan
ag
Q.95 The earlier Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) between India and Kyrgyzstan, which was
replaced in 2025, was originally enforced in which year?
Ans A. 2021

B. 2019

C. 2010

D. 2000

m
Q.96
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Who arrived in Varanasi to chair the 25th Central Zonal Council meet in June 2025?
.co
Ans
m .co A. Yogi Adityanath
s e m
s e B. Rajnath Singh
g l a
g l a C. Narendra Modi a
a D. Amit Shah

Q.97 Which of the following was the 17th flight of India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch
Vehicle (GSLV), launched in January 2025?
Ans A. GSLV-F14

B. GSLV-F15

C. GSLV-F16

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D. GSLV-F13

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.98 How many critical highway segments are outlined in the report on India’s Priority
Corridors for Zero-Emission Trucking for the adoption of zero-emission trucks?
Ans A. Twelve

B. Ten

C. Eight

D. Five

Q.99 In which of the following cities did the traffic police create awareness on noise
pollution for motorists at traffic signals in July 2025?
Ans A. Lucknow

B. Jaipur

C. Warangal

D. Chennai

Q.100 On 12 June 2025, which bank of India took a progressive step to streamline the Know
Your Customer (KYC) updating process by allowing video-based identification and
empowering Business Correspondents to handle KYC updates?
Ans A. State Bank of India

B. Bank of India

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Indian Bank

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 03/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 How do plant cells respond immediately to a stimulus without specialized proteins like
animal muscle cells?
Ans A. By secreting enzymes only

B. By changing water content to cause swelling or shrinking

C. By producing immune responses

D. By breaking down food to release energy instantly
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Q.2 .co
Among the following materials, which one has the highest electrical resistivity at room
m
temperature?
s e
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Ans A. Iron

B. Chromium
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C. Mercury

D. Manganese

Q.3 Which of the following statements is correct for uniform motion?
Ans A. The slope of the distance–time graph is constant.

B. The slope of the distance–time graph is increasing.

C. The slope of the distance–time graph is decreasing.
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D. The slope of the distance–time graph is zero.

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Q.4 mWhich of the following best defines an ion?
l as
l as Ans A. An atom or group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge
ag
ag B. A molecule with more neutrons than protons

C. An atom with equal number of protons and electrons

D. A neutral particle formed by the combination of atoms

Q.5 Why are sound waves classified as mechanical waves?
Ans A. They do not require a medium to travel

B. They cause light oscillations

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C. They oscillate perpendicular to wave propagation

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D. They are characterised by the motion of particles in a medium

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l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following statements is correct for the magnetic field inside a long,
straight, current-carrying solenoid?
Ans A. It increases as we move towards its end.

B. It decreases as we move towards its end.

C. It is the same at all points.

D. It is zero.

Q.7 Which of the following conditions will NOT favour evaporation?
Ans A. High Wind Speed

B. High Humidity

C. Low Humidity

D. High Temperature

Q.8 When gypsum is heated at 373 K, it loses water of crystallisation and forms _________.
Ans A. calcium chloride pentahydrate

B. calcium chloride hemihydrate

C. calcium sulphate pentahydrate

D. calcium sulphate hemihydrate

Q.9 Which of the following factors does NOT increase the rate of evaporation?
Ans A. Increase in surface area

B. Increase in humidity

C. Increase of temperature

D. Increase in wind speed

Q.10 Which of the following statements best explains kinetic energy?
Ans A. It is the energy stored in an object due to its shape.

B. It is the energy an object has because of its motion, and it increases as the object's speed increases.

C. It is the energy an object has because it is at rest.

D. It is the energy that decreases as the object's speed increases.

Q.11 Which of the following statements is correct about the nature of the image formed by a
concave mirror when the object is placed between the principal focus and the pole?
Ans A. Real, inverted, same size

B. Virtual, erect, magnified

C. Real, inverted, highly diminished (point image)

D. Real, inverted, diminished

Q.12 What is the formula to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g), where G is the
universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the radius of the
Earth?
Ans A. g=GR/M2

B. g=GM/R2

C. g=GM/R

D. g=GM2/R

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.13 Structural formula of branched chain organic compound 'Neopentane' may be
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represented by:

. e m
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Ans A. CH₃-CH(CH₃)-CH₃
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se B. CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3

C. CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CH3 ag l
D.

Q.14 Cells of the meristematic tissue lack vacuoles because:
Ans A. Meristematic cells are actively dividing and need a dense cytoplasm

B. Vacuoles cause cell death

C. Meristematic cells are dead and do not need vacuoles

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D. Vacuoles block respiratory enzymes
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Q.15 .co
Baking soda is prepared using which of the following processes?
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Ans
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A. Deacon's process
l a
l a ag
ag
B. Haber process

C. Solvay process

D. Chlor-alkali process

Q.16 What is the main function of leucoplasts in plant cells?
Ans A. Breaking down waste materials

B. Absorbing sunlight

C. Storing materials like starch, oils, and proteins
m
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D. Giving colour to flowers

e m
Q.17
s
A concave lens has a focal length of 15 cm. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm

la
from the lens. What is the magnification produced by the lens?
Ans A. +0.33
ag
B. -0.33

C. +0.66

D. -0.66

Q.18 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about DNA copies produced during
the process of reproduction?
Ans A. DNA copies are single stranded.
m
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B. DNA copies generated are similar but not identical.

m .co C. Copying of DNA is a pre-requisite for reproduction.

s e m
s e D. DNA copying is a completely error-free process.

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.19 Which of the following was the scientist who blended his knowledge of science and
mathematics to arrive at the laws of inheritance?
Ans A. E Rutherford

B. John Dalton

C. Gregor Johann Mendel

D. Camillo Golgi

Q.20 Which of the following organs is involved in the function of reflex action?

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Ans A. Middle ear

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B. Spleen

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C. Spinal cord
l as ag

D. Kidney
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.21 Which of the following correctly explains the importance of pH in everyday life?
Ans A. Acid rain has pH greater than 7, which harms aquatic life.

B. Our stomach secretes hydrochloric acid to maintain a pH around 2, aiding digestion.

C. A bee sting injects a basic liquid, so it is treated with a weak acid like vinegar.

D. Tooth enamel dissolves when the pH of the mouth rises above 7.5 due to bacterial activity.

Q.22 Which of the following organs in human females can produce hormones?
Ans A. Salivary glands

B. Cervix

C. Fallopian tubes

D. Ovaries

Q.23 Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events leading to muscle
movement?
Ans A. Blood flow → Protein activation → Nerve impulse → Movement

B. Digestion → Blood circulation → Movement

C. Nerve impulse → Muscle protein response → Muscle contraction

D. DNA replication → Protein synthesis → Muscle movement

Q.24 What unique property of carbon atoms enables them to form long and stable chains
with other carbon atoms?
Ans A. Allotropy

B. Catenation

C. Isomerism

D. Tetravalency

Q.25
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A vendor offers her customers a discount of 24% on her beauty products and she still
makes a profit of 22%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of a beauty product marked at ₹854?
Ans A. 532

B. 573

C. 586

D. 576

Q.27

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.28 8 men or 9 women can do a job in 2 days. 8 men work for 1 day and leave. The number
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of women required to complete the remaining work in 9 days is:

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s
Ans A. 3
m a
se B. 2

C. 1 ag l
D. 4

Q.29 A shopkeeper buys 20 pens for ₹600 and sells them for ₹900. Find his profit percentage.
Ans A. 40%

B. 15%

C. 33.33%

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D. 50%
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Q.30 .co
Srikar spends 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the rest on household
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expenditure and 25% of the rest on food and saves the rest. He finally saves ₹78,300.
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Find his monthly income.7083

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ag
Ans A. ₹1,78,300

B. ₹1,45,000

C. ₹1,00,000

D. ₹1,50,000

Q.31
6515
Ans

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A.

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e
B.

las
C.
ag
D.

Q.32 A 140-metre-long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 56 seconds. What is the
speed of the train in km/hr?
Ans A. 33

B. 40
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C. 26
m
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s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.33 Dev and Tej started a business, investing amounts of ₹1,800 and ₹1,620, respectively. If

g l Dev's share in the profit earned by them is ₹930, what is the total profit (in ₹) earned by
a
a Ans
them together?
A. 1,869

B. 1,767

C. 1,788

D. 1,753

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.34

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.35 If 20% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 65% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 58.5

B. 68.5

C. 88.5

D. 78.5

Q.36
Ans A. 2(6x − 17)

B. 2(3x + 17)

C. 2(3x − 17)

D. 2(6x + 17)

Q.37

3172
Ans A. 57 minutes

B. 42 minutes

C. 56 minutes

D. 48 minutes

Q.38 2 men can do a piece of work in 2 days. How many men will do it in 1 day?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q.39 The volume (in m3) of a cuboidal tank with dimensions 2 m × 11 m × 49 m is:
Ans A. 1078

B. 1049

C. 1061

D. 1102

Q.40 The total number of colour blocks is 4641. If the ratio of red blocks to blue blocks is 6 :
10 and the ratio of blue blocks to yellow blocks is 2 : 7, then how many yellow blocks
are there?
Ans A. 3155

B. 3148

C. 3185

D. 3149
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.41 P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 46 cm, PB = 16 cm and PC = 88 cm,
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then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:

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Ans A. 100
m a
se B. 94

C. 96 ag l
D. 98

Q.42 If Anirudh is as much elder than Praveen as he is younger than Suman and the sum of
the ages of Praveen and Suman is 36 years, then find the age of Anirudh.
Ans A. 18 years

B. 24 years

C. 9 years
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D. 12 years

em
Q.43
e m
The average age of 31 students of a class is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is also
l as
the teacher is:
l as
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 15 years. The age (in years) of
ag
Ans A. 49
ag
B. 45

C. 46

D. 47

Q.44 If the listed price of a bag is 93% more than its cost price and a discount of 59% is
announced on it, then find the loss percentage.

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Ans A. 20.87%

B. 24.87%

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C. 23.12%
s e
D. 20.89%
g la
Q.45
a
A number is 18 more than its three-fourth. Find the number.
Ans A. 42

B. 36

C. 72

D. 54

Q.46 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 20 and 5 days respectively. How long (in days)
m
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will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
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Ans A. 8

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a
B. 12

s e g l
g l a C. 4
a
a D. 5

Q.47 To buy a new apartment, Shweta borrowed ₹9,95,500 at 4% per annum simple interest
for 39 months. How much interest will she pay?
Ans A. ₹1,29,665

B. ₹1,15,995

C. ₹1,29,415

D. ₹1,39,545

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.48 The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 62% and that of the TV decreases by 51%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 16.8%

B. Decrease by 19%

C. Increase by 17%

D. Decrease by 21%

Q.49 In a class test, the average score of 35 students was 44. Later, it was found that 25 was
incorrectly recorded as 33 in two instances, and 36 was incorrectly recorded as 34 in
one instance. What is the actual average score of the class?
Ans A. 43.6

B. 44.6

C. 41.6

D. 42.6

Q.50 When the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 7 cm. Find the
surface area.
Ans A. 4896 cm2

B. 5088 cm2

C. 5274 cm2

D. 5544 cm2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 A, B, C, E, F, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only four
people sit between C and E, when counted from the right of C. C sits third to the left of
P. B sits third to the left of F. Q is an immediate neighbour of both E and P. How many
people sit between A and Q, when counted from the right of A?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

893 895 899 905 913 ?
Ans A. 922

B. 924

C. 923

D. 921

Q.53 Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the south. He then takes a right
turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 6 km to the west

B. 5 km to the east

C. 5 km to the west

D. 6 km to the east

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
e m
m
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
as
se l
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(12, 240, 20)
(10, 150, 15)
Ans A. (15, 225, 16)

B. (9, 180, 20)

C. (8, 100, 15)

D. (8, 90, 15)

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
11 13 16 21 ? 39

m .co s em
Ans A. 28

s e l a
B. 29
l a ag
C. 22

D. 25
ag
Q.56 Seven boxes, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below S. Only one box is kept above Q. Only
one box is kept between Q and P. R is kept immediately above N. O is kept at some
place below M. How many boxes are kept between M and R?
Ans A. Four

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B. Three

C. One

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D. Two
s e
g la
a
Q.57 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

MOS−QSW
RTX−VXB6446
Ans A. KMQ−NQT

B. KMQ−OQU

C. KLO−OQU

D. KLO−NPT
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.co
Q.58 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only) Counting to be done from left to right only.
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s
(Left) 4 3 5 2 9 7 2 8 7 2 1 8 7 4 5 5 2 3 5 5 6 9 6 3 3 (Right)

l a ag
ag How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. One

D. Three

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.59 A group of numbers/symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below
and the conditions that follow. The correct combination of codes following the
conditions is your answer.
Note: If none of the conditions apply, then the codes for the respective number/symbol
are to be followed directly as given in the table.

Conditions:
(i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element a perfect square, the codes for
these two (the first and last elements) are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the second and third elements are symbols, the third element is to be coded
as the code for the second element.
(iii) If the first element is a symbol and the fourth element is an odd number, the first
and fourth elements are to be coded as ©.
What will be the code for the following group?
%5*&9
Ans A. T Y F F B

B. T Y G F B

C. © Y G © B

D. B Y G F T

Q.60 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

TIU 20 VKW 21 XMY 22 ZOA 23 ?
Ans A. DQB 24

B. BQC 24

C. CQC 24

D. BRC 24

Q.61 Arman starts from point A and drives 44 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 42 km, turns left and drives 51 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 56 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 7 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 13 km to the east

B. 11 km to the west

C. 14 km to the east

D. 12 km to the west

Q.62 Naksh ranked 45th from the top and 27th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 71

B. 70

C. 73

D. 72

Q.63 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 4 6 9 3 7 1 1 1 9 2 9 5 4 5 3 2 4 6 1 9 9 1 9 5 2 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?15225
Ans A. 8

B. 11

C. 10

D. 9
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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27 51 75 99 123 ?

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Ans A. 148
m a
se B. 145

C. 147 ag l
D. 146

Q.65 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 5 2 4 8 8 7 2 3 3 3 6 7 5 6 6 8 9 4 1 5 1 7 7 3 3 7 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
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even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
m
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Ans A. 1

m s e
B. 2

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C. 4
l
D. 3
ag
Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. OS – WY

B. TX – AC

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C. EI – LN

m
D. AE – HJ

s e
Q.67
la
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
g
a
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HJ - DL

B. NO - JK

C. LM - HI

D. QR - MN

Q.68 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
m
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3674185, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
m
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Ans A. Three

m s e
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B. Two

g l a
g l a C. One
a
a D. None

Q.69 Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit
between A and B. B sits between D and E. E sits second to the left of A. Who sits at the
extreme left end of the row?
Ans A. E

B. C

C. B

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D. D

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All goats are lions.
All lions are dogs

Conclusion (I): All dogs are goats.
Conclusion (II): Some lions are goats.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.71 Each of the digits in the number 9612345 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 6

B. 8

C. 7

D. 9

Q.72 In a code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A - B means ‘A is the father of B’
A x B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’
Based on the above, how is P related to E if ‘P - Q + C x D ÷ E’?
Ans A. Mother’s father

B. Father’s father

C. Mother’s brother

D. Father’s brother

Q.73 Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
CCP FDN IEL ? OGH
Ans A. HJY

B. UUY

C. LFJ

D. PLO

Q.74 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

GHI−FGH
KLM−JKL
Ans A. BBB−ZAB

B. BBB−ABC

C. BCD−ZBB

D. BCD−ABC

Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘MOVE’ is coded as ‘7481’ and ‘OVER’ is coded as ‘8314’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in that language?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 8
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.76 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
m
statements.
as
se Statements: Some hair are nails. All nails are teeth.
ag l
Conclusions (I): Some hair are teeth.
Conclusions (II): All teeth are nails.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

m
Q.77
m
Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
.co
.co m
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

m s e
WP-SL-OR

s e l a
ag
TM-PI-LO

l a
ag
Ans A. QJ-MF-IK

B. QJ-MF-IL

C. RJ-MF-IK

D. RJ-ME-IK

Q.78 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6437585, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. Two

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B. Three

C. One

e m
D. None

las
Q.79
ag
A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
C sits fourth to the right of X. Only two people sit between Y and W when counted from
the left of Y. D sits third to the left of B. A is an immediate neighbour of B and W. How
many people between C and A when counted from the left of A?
Ans A. One

B. Four

C. Two

D. Three

m
Q.80
m
Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
.co
.co m
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers only.

m s e
s e (Left) © @ 7 € $ 5 $ & * & 7 5 2 $ 8 $ © 7 © 4 6 £ (Right)

g l a
g l a How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
a
a Ans
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

D. Five

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.81 How many new Khelo India Centres are planned by the Delhi Government in 2025?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 10

Q.82 As per Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress
Report, 2025, the percentage of population using an improved drinking water source in
rural areas increased from 94.57% in 2015-16 to what percentage in 2024-25, indicating
significant progress toward universal safe water access in rural India?
Ans A. 99.62%

B. 96%

C. 95.32%

D. 98%

Q.83 Which Indian broke the 200 m national record at Asian Athletics Championships 2025?
Ans A. Amlan Borgohain

B. Gurindervir Singh

C. Manikanta Hoblidhar

D. Animesh Kujur

Q.84 As per the Economic Survey, 2024–25, which mission is part of India’s Space Vision,
2047, for human spaceflight?
Ans A. Mangalyaan

B. Gaganyaan

C. Vikram

D. Samudrayaan

Q.85 On which date was the International Day of Families 2025 observed globally, focusing
on the role of digital technology in family life?
Ans A. May 10

B. May 12

C. May 18

D. May 15

Q.86 Which of the following trophies was renamed the Anderson‑Tendulkar Trophy in June
2025?
Ans A. IPL Trophy

B. Test series trophy

C. T20 Trophy

D. ODI Trophy

Q.87 On 29 June 2025, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued
Model Rules to streamline regulations for _______________.
Ans A. interest rates of loans for farmers

B. usage of pesticides and insecticides

C. tree felling in agricultural lands

D. electricity supply for farmlands

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.88 In which of the following states of India was the foundation stone laid in August 2025
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for the Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub, expected to reduce unemployment and

. empower local youth?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

g l
B. Bihar

C. Gujarat
a
D. Madhya Pradesh

Q.89 Which Kannada short-story collection became the first-ever to win the International
Booker Prize in 2025?
Ans A. The Many Lives of Syeda X

B. Once Elephants Lived Here
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C. Theory & Practice
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D. Heart Lamp: Selected Stories

em l as
Q.90
s
What percentage of India's areas are earthquake-prone as of March 2025?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 73%

B. 39%

C. 59%

D. 47%

Q.91 Which spacecraft will be used for Axiom‑4?
Ans A. Orion

B. Soyuz MS-24
m
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C. Crew Dragon C213

D. Starliner
e m
las
Q.92
g
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Bills was passed by the 17th Lok
Sabha of India on 17 December 2024? a
Ans A. 78th

B. 129th

C. 126th

D. 88th

Q.93 Which of the following countries hosted the 6th BIMSTEC Summit in April 2025?
m
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Ans A. Nepal
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B. Thailand

m s e
s e
C. Bangladesh

g l a
g l a D. Sri Lanka
a
a Q.94 Which edition of SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise) was held in
Singapore in July 2025?
Ans A. 52nd

B. 32nd

C. 22nd

D. 42nd

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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.95 When was the 48th edition of the Paris Marathon held?
Ans A. March 30

B. May 1

C. April 1

D. April 13

Q.96 Which two co-operative banks merged as per Reserve Bank of India's January 2025
notification?
Ans A. National Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank

B. PMC Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank

C. Maratha Sahakari Bank and Janata Co-operative Bank

D. Saraswat Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank

Q.97 Which NFL player won the BET Sportsman of the Year Award 2025?
Ans A. Josh Allen

B. Patrick Mahomes

C. Lamar Jackson

D. Jalen Hurts

Q.98 As of 30 April 2025, the ‘GenomeIndiaA’ project has completed whole genome
sequencing (WGS) database of approximately how many individuals?
Ans A. 8000

B. 6600

C. 10,000

D. 11,000

Q.99 Which among the community-focused transparency initiatives did the Ghaziabad, Uttar
Pradesh police introduce in September 2025?
Ans A. 'Vadi Samvad Diwas' allowing citizens to engage directly with investigators

B. 'Police Outreach Day' to resolve neighborhood safety concerns

C. 'Jan Sunwai Sabha' for direct citizen-police dialogue

D. 'Public Accountability Meet' releasing monthly action reports

Q.100 What was the name of the initiative launched by the Indian Prime Minister on World
Environment Day in 2025?
Ans A. Green Earth Project 3.0

B. Save Water Mission

C. Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0

D. Clean India Campaign 7.0

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 03/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Which gas is used by animals to live under water?
Ans A. Nitrogen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Dry carbon dioxide

D. Dissolved oxygen

m
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Q.2 During indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid, that may be neutralised by
which of the following?

e m
Ans A. Magnesium carbonate (Milk of magnesia)

las
B. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of magnesia)

C. Magnesium sulphate (Milk of magnesia) ag
D. Magnesium oxide (Milk of magnesia)

Q.3 An object is said to be in uniform motion if:
Ans A. it covers equal distances in equal time intervals

B. it covers unequal distances in unequal time intervals

C. it covers unequal distances in equal time intervals
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D. it covers equal distances in unequal time intervals
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Q.4
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Which of the following statements about the magnetic field due to a circular loop is
s e m
s e true?

g l a
g l a Ans A. The field depends on current and radius.
a
a B. The field lines are parallel to the plane of the loop.

C. The field is uniform everywhere around the loop.

D. The field lines at the centre are circular.

Q.5 In the following reaction, Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu, iron:
Ans A. is oxidised

B. is reduced

m .
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C. acts a catalyst

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D. is unchanged

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 The energy possessed by a moving object due to its motion is called:
Ans A. thermal energy

B. potential energy

C. chemical energy

D. kinetic energy

Q.7 Which of the following life processes leads to the breakdown of glucose in the absence
of oxygen?
Ans A. Fermentation

B. Digestion

C. Excretion

D. Aerobic respiration

Q.8 Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
Ans A. Air

B. Oil and water

C. Soil

D. Sand and iron filings

Q.9 The IUPAC name of following compound is _________.

CH3CHBrCH2CH2CH3.

Ans A. 1-Bromopentane

B. 2-Bromopentane

C. 3-Bromopentane

D. 2-Bromopentene

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a biotic loss during the storage of grains?
Ans A. Loss by rodents

B. Loss by inappropriate moisture

C. Loss by insects

D. Loss by mites

Q.11 Which of the following statements is correct about reproduction?

1. Bulls alone can produce a calf.
2. Hens alone can not produce new chicks.
Ans A. Both statements are correct.

B. Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is false.

C. Both statements are false.

D. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is false.

Q.12 When a ray of light passes through the optical centre of a spherical lens, it _______.
Ans A. Gets deviated away from the normal

B. Bends toward the focus

C. Always reflects back

D. Emerges undeviated

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.13 Which of the following is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?
m
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Ans A. It is zero.

m . s e
se
B. It is non-uniform.

g l a
a
C. It forms random patterns.

D. It is uniform and in the form of parallel straight lines.

Q.14 Which meristematic tissue has the highest levels of Auxin?
Ans A. Intercalary Meristematic tissue

B. Lateral Meristematic tissue

C. Xylem

D. Apical Meristematic tissue
m
m .co
.co m
Q.15 Which of the following compounds is classified as a saturated hydrocarbon?

m s e
a
Ans A. Ethene

s e l
a ag
B. Benzene
l
C. Ethyne

D. Ethane
ag
Q.16 In Spirogyra, each fragment develops into a complete individual. What can be the
possible reason for this?
Ans A. Each cell is capable of independent growth.

B. Fragmentation happens only under laboratory conditions.

C. Each fragment has roots.
m
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D. Each fragment has complex organs.

e m
Q.17
s
Which of the following conditions will NOT increase the rate of evaporation?

la
g
Ans A. Increased Temperature

B. Decreased Humidity a
C. Increased Surface Area

D. Decreased Wind Speed

Q.18 An object has a weight of 24 N on Earth. What will be its weight on the Moon’s surface?
Ans A. 144 N

B. 240 N

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C. 6 N
m
.co m
D. 4 N

m s e
s e
Q.19 Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating which of the following?
g l a
g l a Ans A. Baking soda a
a B. Slaked lime

C. Gypsum

D. Limestone

Q.20 Which of the following quantities represents the slope in a displacement–time graph?
Ans A. Distance

B. Speed
m .
.co m
C. Acceleration

m s e
D. Linear velocity

s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.21 What makes the brain suitable for thinking activities?

Ans A. Its complex arrangement of many neurons

B. Its location near the ears

C. Its connection to the heart

D. Its smooth surface

Q.22 Which of the following eye defects is mainly due to the weakening of the power of
accommodation with age?
Ans A. Presbyopia

B. Myopia

C. Astigmatism

D. Hypermetropia

Q.23 The effect of multiple reflections of sound in large halls or auditoriums is, ________.
Ans A. it helps in uniform distribution of sound

B. it blocks sound propagation

C. it eliminates all echoes

D. it converts sound into heat

Q.24 In a genetic lab, a fertilised human embryo is found to have XX chromosomes. Which of
the following is true?
Ans A. The embryo has an extra Y chromosome.

B. The embryo will become a human female.

C. The embryo lacks sex chromosomes.

D. The embryo will become a human male.

Q.25 Which of the following tissues is very elastic and used to connect two bones in our
body?
Ans A. Ligament

B. Adipocyte

C. Macrophage

D. Mast cell

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A cylindrical pipe, open at both ends, has an external diameter of 20 cm and an internal
diameter of 16 cm. If the length of the pipe is 35 cm, find the volume of the metal used
in making the pipe. (Use π = 22/7)
Ans A. 3520 cm³

B. 3360 cm³

C. 3080 cm³

D. 3960 cm³

Q.27 The arithmetic mean of the observations 65, 41, 96, 44, 38, 30, 79, 90 and 21 is:
Ans A. 59

B. 64

C. 62

D. 56

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.28 The length of the shadow of a vertical tower is equal to its height. Find the angle of
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elevation.

. e m
s
Ans A. 60°
m a
se B. 75°

C. 45° ag l
D. 30°

Q.29

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Ans
A.
m
m .co s em
B.
s e l a
l a ag
C.
ag
D.

Q.30 The number of prime numbers lying between 480 and 489 is:
Ans A. 3

B. 0

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C. 2

D. 1

e m
Q.31 If A : B = 4 : 6 and B : C = 7 : 12, then A : B : C is:
las
Ans A. 11 : 23 : 4
ag
B. 4 : 7 : 9

C. 4 : 31 : 21

D. 14 : 21 : 36

Q.32 A vendor offers her customers a discount of 29% on her beauty products and she still
makes a profit of 12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of a beauty product marked at ₹896?
Ans A. 622
m
mB. 568
.co
m .co C. 574
s e m
s e D. 721
g l a
g l a a
a Q.33 Two-fifth of Vijay’s marks in Hindi are more than one-third of his marks in Sanskrit by 5,
while five times his marks in Hindi and five times his marks in Sanskrit together are
equal to 310. Find his marks in Sanskrit.
Ans A. 27

B. 25

C. 31

D. 35

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.34 The sides of a triangle are 148 cm, 57 cm, and 175 cm. What is the length (in cm) of its
altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 57 cm?
Ans A. 177

B. 121

C. 188

D. 140

Q.35 A class of 91 students took a Physics test. 12 students had an average score of 64. The
other students had an average score of 77. What is the average score (rounded up to
one decimal place) of the whole class?
Ans A. 73.6

B. 79.4

C. 79.7

D. 75.3

Q.36 A train passes two tunnels of length 2091 m and 1259 m in 89 seconds and 63 seconds,
respectively. What is the length of the train?
Ans A. 748 m

B. 759 m

C. 747 m

D. 757 m

Q.37 A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹600, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 1,360

B. 1,500

C. 1,540

D. 1,240

Q.38 A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C and D in the ratio 6 : 7 : 17 : 19. If C
gets ₹250 more than B, then how much did A receive?
Ans A. ₹148

B. ₹150

C. ₹147

D. ₹149

Q.39 A car travels for 180 km at a speed of 60 km/hr and then returns along the same route at
a speed of 45 km/hr. By how many minutes is the return journey longer than the onward
journey?
Ans A. 15 min

B. 120 min

C. 80 min

D. 60 min

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.40 5494
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Ans
s e m
m
A.

se g l a
B. a
C.

D.

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Q.41 Sachin got a new curtain at 12% discount. If Sachin did not get any discount, Sachin
would have to pay ₹747 extra. So how much did Sachin pay for the curtain?
em
Ans A. ₹5,480
em l as
B. ₹5,478
l as ag
C. ₹5,479
ag
D. ₹5,476

Q.42 What is the difference between the simple interest on a principal of ₹3,600 being
calculated at 15% per annum for 3 years and 14% per annum for 4 years?
Ans A. ₹416

B. ₹386

C. ₹396
m
D. ₹406

m .co
s e
la
Q.43 Navya and Bhavya can paint a house in 50 days and 75 days, respectively. If they work

g
on alternate days, starting with Bhavya, in how many days can the duo complete

Ans
painting that house?
A. 60 days
a
B. 55 days

C. 59 days

D. 63 days

Q.44 A person's income and expenditure are in the ratio 9 ∶ 5. His income rises by 60% while
his expenditure falls by 10%. If his initial expenditure was ₹15,500, then what will be his
m
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final saving (in ₹)?

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Ans A. 30,960

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B. 39,600

l as
l as C. 36,900
ag
ag D. 30,690

Q.45
Ans A. 3 : 4

B. 2 : 3

C. 4 : 5

D. 1 : 5

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.46 One pipe can fill a tank in 4 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 8 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
Ans A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Q.47

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 The ratio of the present ages of P and Q is 4 : 3. Six years later, the ratio will be 5 : 4.
Find the difference between their present ages.
Ans A. 4 years

B. 6 years

C. 8 years

D. 10 years

Q.49 The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 34% and that of the TV decreases by 21%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 4 washing machines and 2 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 9%

B. Decrease by 16%

C. Increase by 12%

D. Increase by 19%

Q.50 After selling 88 phones, a store owner incurred a loss which is equal to the selling price
of 8 phones. Find his loss percentage.
Ans
A.

B. 10%

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 GB 15 is related to LF 12 in a certain way. In the same way, MH 20 is related to RL 17. To
which of the following is PK 26 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. UO 23

B. WQ 24

C. VN 23

D. UN 24

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.52 Gaurav ranked 13th from the top and 33th from the bottom in his class. How many
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students are there in the class?

. e m
m
Ans A. 35

as
se B. 45

C. 33 ag l
D. 43

Q.53 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
GLO163, RWZ145, CHK127, NSV109, ?
Ans A. ZDG91

B. YDH91
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C. YDG91

D. YUG91

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.54 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
l
ag
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. QV-SO

B. OT-QM

C. MR-OK

D. KP-MJ

m
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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the

m
English alphabetical order?

s e
la
TGA, UID, VKG, WMJ, ?
Ans A. YON

B. ZPN ag
C. ZLM

D. XOM

Q.56 D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line facing north.
Only three people sit between L and N. E sits to the immediate left of N. No one sits to
the right of F. Only two people sit between F and E. M sits to the immediate right of D.
How many people sit between G and M?
m
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Ans A. Two
m
.co m
B. Four

m s e
s e
C. Three

g l a
g l a D. One
a
a Q.57 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) 2 6 & 2 9 5 5 € 1 $ 1 6 @ & € # 3 @ £ % 4 9 (Right)
How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

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D. One

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All blinders are curtains.
All curtains are dividers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some dividers are curtains.
(II) All blinders are dividers.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.59 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

28 − 19 ÷ 23 + 96 × 3 = ?
Ans A. 517

B. 523

C. 508

D. 541

Q.60 In a certain code language, 'cloud is dark' is coded as 'dm ht ez' and 'the blue cloud' is
coded as 'tz dm cm'. How is 'cloud' coded in that language?
Ans A. dm

B. ez

C. cm

D. tz

Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(14, 98, 7)
(6, 36, 6)
Ans A. (5, 25, 7)

B. (12, 72, 6)

C. (8, 48, 7)

D. (7, 49, 8)

Q.62 In a certain code language,
‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A √ B’ means ‘ A is the sister of B’
Based on the above, how is C related to L if 'C @ D = E √ F ? L'?
Ans A. Sister's husband

B. Daughter's husband

C. Husband

D. Father

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Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. that group?
e m
m as
se l
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans
position in the letter-cluster.)
A. VQP ag
B. NIG

C. SNM

D. RML

Q.64 In a certain code language, ‘SKATE’ is coded as ‘51324’ and ‘ASKEW’ is coded as
‘47315’. What is the code for ‘W’ in the given code language? 3475

m
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Ans A. 7

m
.co m
B. 5

C. 4
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. 3
l
Q.65 ag
L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Q sits second to
the right of O. L sits second to the left of N. M is on the immediate left of Q. Who is
sitting on the immediate right of P?
Ans A. Q

B. N

C. M

D. L

m
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Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

19 36 53 70 87 ?
e m
Ans A. 104
las
B. 101
ag
C. 102

D. 103

Q.67 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) 3 3 9 5 9 1 5 5 4 2 6 9 5 5 8 5 3 2 8 6 7 6 3 6 4 9 1 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?

m
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Ans A. 4

m
.co m
B. 2

m s e
a
C. 5

s e g l
g l a D. 6
a
a Q.68 Each of the digits in the number 5236789 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. Six

D. Five

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.69 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only B is kept above I. Only C is kept between I and J. Only A is kept below K.
How many boxes are kept between D and A?
Ans A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.70 PM 3 is related to KP 17 in a certain way. In the same way, NK 6 is related to IN 20. To
which of the given options is TK 4 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. UY 14

B. GY 13

C. NJ 12

D. ON 18

Q.71 Gautam starts from Point Y and drives 34 km towards the east. He then takes a right
turn, drives 68 km, turns right and drives 55 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11
km. He takes a right turn, drives 81 km. He then turns left, drives 57 km and stops at
Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in
order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 61 km towards the east

B. 63 km towards the west

C. 59 km towards the east

D. 60 km towards the west

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

842 844 848 854 862 ?4222
Ans A. 876

B. 874

C. 872

D. 878

Q.73 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
KIND - NKID - DNIK
COST - SCOT - TSOC
Ans A. FROM - OFRM - MORF

B. SIGN - SGIN - NGIS

C. LAST - SLAT - ASTL

D. ZONE - OZNE - EONZ

Q.74 Atul starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards west. He then takes a left turn, drives
8 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 16 km. He takes a
final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90
degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 8 km to the north

B. 7 km to the south

C. 7 km to the north

D. 8 km to the south

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m
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Q.75 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit
m
co
numbers only). Counting to be done from Left to Right only.

. e m
m
(Left) 7 6 1 8 4 3 9 2 7 5 8 3 4 1 6 (Right)
as
se How many such prime numbers are there, which are immediately followed by a prime
number? ag l
Ans A. More than three

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

Q.76 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
m
.co
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
m
.co
statements.

em
Statements:
e m l as
as
All ostriches are crows.
Some ostriches are pigeons.
l ag
ag
Some pigeons are sparrows.

Conclusions:
(I) Some crows are pigeons.
(II) Some ostriches are sparrows.
Ans A. Only II follows

B. Neither I nor II follows

C. Only I follows

D. Both I and II follow

m
Q.77 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.

m .co
Only three people sit to the left of D. Only A sits to the right of C. Only three people sit

s e
between C and B. X sits at some place to the left of Y but at some place to the right of
W.
How many people sit between W and Y?
g la
Ans A. Two a
B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Q.78 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

m
.co
43 C 80 A 8 D 6 B 5 = ?
m
.co m
Ans A. 22

m s e
a
B. 21

s e g l
g l a C. 23
a
a D. 24

Q.79 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) 6 8 5 2 4 9 1 6 3 2 7 1 6 9 3 8 5 4 2 1 7 8 6 5 9 7 2 (Right)
How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. More than three

B. Two

m .
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C. One

e m
D. Three

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 12 10 13 11 ? 12
Ans A. 9

B. 10

C. 14

D. 15

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which tennis player broke the record for the most Grand Slam titles in 2025?
Ans A. Carlos Alcaraz

B. Novak Djokovic

C. Rafael Nadal

D. Jannik Sinner

Q.82 What is the rank of India in Climate Change Performance Index 2025?
Ans A. 10th

B. 8th

C. 12th

D. 14th

Q.83 Which of the following cities hosted the 84th Annual General Meeting of the Governing
Body of the Dattopant Thengadi National Board for Workers Education and
Development in March 2025?
Ans A. New Delhi

B. Pune

C. Mumbai

D. Bengaluru

Q.84 Which of the following indicators is included in the GoIStats app developed by the
government of India in 2025?
Ans A. Space Mission Launches and Satellite Deployment Data

B. International Film Awards and Music Industry Data

C. National Accounts Statistics and Consumer Price Index

D. Global Sports Rankings and Olympic Medal Tally

Q.85 Which celebrated author released his/her debut crime novel As Dark As Blood in
January 2025?
Ans A. Shariq Us Sabah

B. Yasser Usman

C. Banu Mushtaq

D. Neha Dixit

Q.86 Which IAS officer, known for his 57 transfers in his service retired in April 2025?
Ans A. Durga Shakti Nagpal

B. Ashok Khemka

C. KPS Gill

D. Priyam Saroj

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.87 Who among the following handed over the first production lots of the 32-bit
m
co
microprocessor developed for space applications KALPANA3201, to Dr. V. Narayanan,

. Secretary, DOS /Chairman, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in March 2025?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of India

g l
B. Droupadi Murmu, President of India
a
C. S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

D. Jitin Prasada, Minister of State, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

Q.88 Which edition of the India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT, was
held from 31 May to 13 June 2025 in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia?
Ans A. 15th

B. 17th
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C. 13th
m
.co em
D. 19th

e m l as
Q.89
s
Which Indian cricketer was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in June 2025?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. Rohit Sharma

B. Virat Kholi

C. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

D. Shikhar Dhawan

Q.90 Which of the following global cities was officially declared the World Book Capital 2025
by UNESCO in 2025?
Ans A. Accra

m
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B. Madrid

C. Lisbon

e m
D. Rio de Janeiro

las
Q.91
ag
What is the estimated total foodgrain production in India for 2024–25, as per the Third
Advance Estimates by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare?
Ans A. 3499.00 LMT

B. 3539.59 LMT

C. 3600.20 LMT

D. 3450.75 LMT

Q.92 According to the Union Budget, 2025–26, presented in February 2025, approximately
m
.co
how much fund was allocated for pollution control in India?
m
.co m
Ans A. ₹572 crore

m s e
a
B. ₹745 crore

s e g l
g l a C. ₹854 crore
a
a D. ₹958 crore

Q.93 The Reserve Bank of India (Project Finance) Directions, 2025 have/shall come into force
with effect from _______.
Ans A. 1 October 2025

B. 1 August 2025

C. 1 September 2025

D. 1 November 2025

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.94 According to the OECD Economic Outlook (Volume 2025 Issue 1), what is the projected
OECD-wide inflation rate for 2025?
Ans A. 3.2%

B. 3.7%

C. 4.2%

D. 4.8%

Q.95 Which city in India has achieved a notable milestone by ranking 6th worldwide in under-
construction data centre capacity, according to Cushman & Wakefield’s 2025 report?
Ans A. Hyderabad

B. Mumbai

C. Bengaluru

D. Delhi

Q.96 Who was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025 for
chess?
Ans A. Vidit Gujrathi

B. D Gukesh

C. Viswanathan Anand

D. Arjun Erigaisi

Q.97 As per Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress
Report, 2025, what was the percentage of waste processed in 2024-25, from 17.97% in
2015-16, indicating significant progress in waste management efficiency in India?
Ans A. 45%

B. 60%

C. 55.65%

D. 80.7%

Q.98 Which tunnel was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Jammu and Kashmir
in January 2025?
Ans A. Porbandar tunnel

B. Sonamarg tunnel

C. Munnar tunnel

D. Howrah tunnel

Q.99 In January 2025, which two banks signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
the Assam government to provide zero-premium insurance coverage to employees?
Ans A. Axis Bank and HDFC Bank

B. Bank of Baroda and Bank of India

C. State Bank of India and Union Bank of India

D. Indian Bank and Central Bank of India

Q.100 Which hockey legend received a Padma Award in 2025?
Ans A. PR Sreejesh

B. Dhanraj Pillay

C. Dhanraj Pillay

D. Sandeep Singh

"

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