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JOINT ADMISSION TEST FOR MASTERS
2024
IIT
JAM
2024
Question Papers | Answer Key
The Joint Admission Test for Masters is a
common admission test conducted every
year for admission into Master of Science
and other post-graduate science
programs at Indian Institutes of
Technology
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following is a simple tissue system in plants?
(A) Epidermis
(B) Parenchyma
(C) Phloem
(D) Xylem
Q.2 In DNA replication, the Okazaki fragments are joined by
(A) DNA helicase
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) DNA primase
BT 1/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.3 The most abundant type of RNA in a metabolically active mammalian cell is
(A) mRNA
(B) rRNA
(C) snoRNA
(D) tRNA
Q.4 Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is the site of electron transport chain?
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Mitochondrion
(D) Peroxisome
BT 2/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.5 RNA is a polymer of
(A) glycosides
(B) ribonucleosides
(C) ribonucleotides
(D) riboses
Q.6 Which one of the following is present in a bacterial cell?
(A) 28S rRNA
(B) 70S ribosome
(C) Chitinous cell wall
(D) Histones
BT 3/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.7 Which color of light excites a natural GFP to emit green fluorescence?
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Infrared
(D) Red
Q.8 Which one of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening?
(A) Abscisic acid
(B) Auxin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Gibberellin
BT 4/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.9 Which one of the following has a catalytic RNA?
(A) Ribonuclease H
(B) Ribozyme
(C) RNA polymerase I
(D) RNA polymerase II
Q.10 The number of significant figures in a reported measurement of 0.00361 is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
BT 5/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.11 Match the terminology in Group I with the stimulus in Group II that generates
growth response of plants
Group I Group II
P. Gravitropism 1. Light
Q. Phototropism 2. Touch
R. Thigmotropism 3. Chemical
S. Chemotropism 4. Gravity
(A) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1
(B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
(C) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
(D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3
BT 6/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.12 The correct hierarchy of taxa in the Linnaean classification of eukaryotes is
(A) kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus
(B) kingdom, order, class, phylum, family, genus
(C) kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus
(D) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus
Q.13 Which one of the following statements about polyploidy is correct?
(A) Autopolyploids are derived from a single species
(B) Autopolyploids are derived from two different species
(C) Allopolyploids are derived from a single species
(D) Allopolyploids are not fertile when mated with each other
BT 7/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.14 Which one of the following hormones is a tyrosine derivative?
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Estradiol
(C) Progesterone
(D) Testosterone
Q.15 Which one of the following immunoglobulins crosses the human placenta?
(A) IgA
(B) IgE
(C) IgG
(D) IgM
BT 8/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.16 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is
higher than that of the light microscope.
Reason [r]: The wavelength of electrons is shorter than that of visible light.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
BT 9/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.17 Match the morphology in Group I with the corresponding microorganism
in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Coccus 1. Treponema
Q. Rod 2. Bacillus
R. Comma 3. Neisseria
S. Spiral 4. Vibrio
(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
(B) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2
(C) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
(D) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
BT 10/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.18 Which one of the following genetic crosses and their results indicates
cytoplasmic inheritance?
(A) Wild-type male mutant female → 100% progeny are mutant
(B) Wild-type male mutant female → 25% progeny are wild-type
(C) Mutant male wild-type female → 50% progeny are mutant
(D) Mutant male wild-type female → 75% progeny are wild-type
Q.19 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic morphological feature of
apoptotic cells?
(A) Disassembly of nuclear envelope
(B) DNA fragmentation
(C) Increased cell size
(D) Membrane blebbing
BT 11/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.20 Competition between two populations in an ecosystem is
(A) beneficial (+) to both the populations
(B) deleterious (˗) to both the populations
(C) beneficial (+) to one population, but deleterious (˗) to the other population
(D) beneficial (+) to one population, but no effect (0) on the other population
Q.21 Adenine constitutes 0.16 mole fraction in a given single-stranded DNA. What is
the mole fraction of uracil in the resultant RNA, if this entire DNA fragment is
transcribed?
(A) 0.16
(B) 0.32
(C) 0.34
(D) 0.68
BT 12/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.22 Which one of the following is NOT used as a component in subunit vaccines?
(A) Capsular polysaccharide
(B) Inactivated exotoxin
(C) Inactivated virus
(D) Viral glycoprotein
Q.23 Metabolic acidosis is associated with decreased plasma level of
(A) bicarbonate
(B) lactate
(C) oxygen
(D) urea
BT 13/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.24 Genes in two species that are derived from the same ancestral gene in their most
recent common ancestor are called
(A) analogs
(B) heterologs
(C) orthologs
(D) paralogs
Q.25 An object is placed 15 𝑐𝑚 in front of a convex mirror, which has a radius of
curvature 30 𝑐𝑚. Which one of the following is true of the image formed?
(A) Real and inverted
(B) Real and upright
(C) Virtual and inverted
(D) Virtual and upright
BT 14/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.26 If a variable 𝑧 shows a standard normal distribution, then the percent
probability that
0 ≤ 𝑧2 ≤ 1
is ___________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
(A) 34
(B) 68
(C) 95
(D) 99
Q.27 In chick embryo, the ectoderm generates
(A) alveolar cells
(B) germ cells
(C) neurons
(D) red blood cells
BT 15/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.28 The boiling points of Iodomethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane,
Chloromethane follow the order
(A) Bromomethane Dibromomethane Iodomethane Chloromethane
(B) Bromomethane Iodomethane Chloromethane Dibromomethane
(C) Dibromomethane Iodomethane Bromomethane Chloromethane
(D) Iodomethane Bromomethane Chloromethane Dibromomethane
Q.29 Chromosome duplication during the cell cycle occurs in
(A) G1 phase
(B) G2 phase
(C) M phase
(D) S phase
BT 16/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.30 Ionic character of the covalent bonds in the compounds Cl2, HCl, NaCl, NaF
follows the order
(A) Cl2 NaCl HCl NaF
(B) HCl Cl2 NaF NaCl
(C) HCl NaCl NaF Cl2
(D) NaF NaCl HCl Cl2
BT 17/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.31 Which of the following is/are lateral meristems?
(A) Cork cambium
(B) Procambium
(C) Protoderm
(D) Vascular cambium
Q.32 Which of the following statement(s) about Golden Rice is/are correct?
(A) Consumption of it increases vitamin A levels
(B) Consumption of it increases vitamin D levels
(C) Consumption of it increases vitamin K levels
(D) It is a transgenic crop containing -carotene
BT 18/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.33 Which of the following statement(s) about eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase
is/are correct?
(A) Topoisomerase I creates transient single-strand breaks
(B) Topoisomerase I creates transient double-strand breaks
(C) Topoisomerase II creates transient single-strand breaks
(D) Topoisomerase II creates transient double-strand breaks
Q.34 Which of the following method(s) is/are used to estimate protein concentration?
(A) Anthrone
(B) Biuret
(C) Bradford
(D) Lowry
BT 19/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.35 Which of the following is/are example(s) of a lotic ecosystem?
(A) Lake
(B) Pond
(C) River
(D) Stream
Q.36 Which of the following statement(s) about the effect of genetic drift is/are
correct?
(A) It can cause changes in the frequency of alleles at random
(B) It is a mechanism of evolution
(C) It can lead to loss of genetic variation within small populations
(D) It is significant in large populations
BT 20/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.37 Which of the following technique(s) can be used to determine the three-
dimensional structure of an organic compound?
(A) Mass spectrometry
(B) NMR spectroscopy
(C) UV-visible spectroscopy
(D) X-ray crystallography
Q.38 Which of the following entity(ies) is/are found inside the intact nucleus of
eukaryotic cells?
(A) Centrosome
(B) Lysosome
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Nucleosome
BT 21/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.39 Which of the following is/are trace element(s)?
(A) Mn
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Zn
Q.40 Which of the following is/are true about Retrovirus?
(A) It contains double-stranded RNA genome
(B) It can cause cancer
(C) It contains reverse transcriptase
(D) It contains double-stranded DNA genome
BT 22/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Section C: Q.41 – Q.50 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.41 A wooden plant accumulates 10 𝑚𝑔 𝑘𝑔−1 of 14C during its life span. A fossil of
this plant was discovered and contains 2.5 𝑚𝑔 𝑘𝑔−1 of 14C. The age of this
fossil at the time of discovery is __________ years (rounded off to the nearest
integer).
(Use 5730 years as half-life of 14C)
Q.42 A cylinder contains 50 𝐿 of an ideal gas at a pressure of 50 𝑎𝑡𝑚. Assuming that
the temperature remains unchanged, the volume of the gas at 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚
is __________ 𝐿 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.43 One molecule of the protein myoglobin contains one atom of iron. A myoglobin
sample was found to contain 0.34% iron. The molecular weight of myoglobin
is __________ 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
(Use 55.9 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 as atomic mass of iron)
BT 23/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.44 The wavelength of visible light for the green color is 600 𝑛𝑚. The energy of
photons of this color is __________ 𝑒𝑉 (rounded off to one decimal place).
(Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠, 1 𝑒𝑉 = 1.6 × 10−19 𝐽,
speed of light = 3 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1 )
Q.45 A ball dropped from a bridge hits the surface of the water in 3 𝑠. The height of
the bridge, ignoring air resistance, is __________ 𝑚 (rounded off to one
decimal place).
(Use 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚𝑠 −2 )
Q.46 For a given square, if the area of its incircle is 100 𝑐𝑚2, then the area of its
circumcircle is __________ 𝑐𝑚2 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
BT 24/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.47 The number of peaks in the 1H NMR spectrum of methoxymethane
(𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶𝐻3 ) is __________.
Q.48 The amount of agarose required to prepare 250 𝑚𝐿 of 0.8% agarose gel
is __________ 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.49 Three genes x, y, and z are located on a chromosome in a linear order. If the
recombination frequencies between x and y is 0.15, and between y and z is 0.10,
then the expected frequency of double crossovers is __________ (rounded off to
three decimal places).
Q.50 A bacterial cell suspension contains 2 105 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 𝑚𝐿−1 . The volume of this
suspension required to obtain 1.4 106 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 is __________ 𝑚𝐿 (rounded off
to the nearest integer).
BT 25/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Section C: Q.51 – Q.60 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.51 The data provided in the table were obtained from the following reaction,
carried out at 273 𝐾.
𝐴+𝐵 →𝐶
Initial concentration Initial concentration Initial rate of formation
of [𝐴] 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 of [𝐵] 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 of [𝐶] 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 𝑠 −1
0.2 0.2 0.3
0.4 0.2 0.6
0.4 0.4 2.4
The order of the reaction with respect to 𝐴 is __________.
Q.52 Ammonia is synthesized in the Haber process in the following reaction.
𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) → 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔)
The temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous
is __________ 𝐾 (rounded off to one decimal place).
(𝐻 0 = −92.2 𝑘𝐽, 𝑆 0 = −199 𝐽𝐾 −1 )
BT 26/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.53 In the given molecule,
the number of chiral centers is __________.
Q.54 Two resistors 2 and 4 are combined in parallel. If this combination is
connected to a battery of 16 𝑉, the maximum current that can be drawn from
the battery is __________ 𝐴 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
BT 27/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.55 A box of mass 20 𝑘𝑔 is pulled at constant speed across a floor by a rope.
The rope makes an angle of 450 with the horizontal. Assuming that friction is
negligible, the work done in pulling the box by a distance of 20 𝑚
is __________ 𝐽 (rounded off to the nearest integer).
(Use 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚𝑠 −2 )
Q.56 Consider an enzyme that follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics, and has a
𝐾𝑀 of 5 µ𝑀. The initial velocity of the reaction will be 10% of the maximum
velocity at a substrate concentration of __________ µ𝑀 (rounded off to two
decimal places).
Q.57 𝑥 2 −9
The value of lim is __________(rounded off to the nearest integer).
𝑥→3 𝑥 2 −4𝑥+3
BT 28/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.58 A population of 1000 plants are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Two alleles R
and r determine a particular trait in this population. If the number of plants with
RR genotype is 640, Rr genotype is 320 and rr genotype is 40, the frequency
of r allele (in percentage) in this population is __________ (rounded off to the
nearest integer).
Q.59 If a fair coin is tossed two times, the probability that the first or the second toss
will be heads is __________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
BT 29/30
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JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT)
Q.60 The restriction map of a circular plasmid is shown below, along with the
indicated distances between the restriction sites.
XhoI
EcoRI
2 kb
2 kb
EcoRI
5 kb
3 kb
XhoI
The plasmid was completely digested with EcoRI, and XhoI. The products were
analysed by agarose gel electrophoresis followed by ethidium bromide staining.
The number of bands that will be visible in the gel when exposed to UV light
is __________.
BT 30/30
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