JAM 2024 Question Paper Geology (GG)

JOINT ADMISSION TEST FOR MASTERS

2024

IIT

JAM
2024
Question Papers | Answer Key

The Joint Admission Test for Masters is a
common admission test conducted every
year for admission into Master of Science
and other post-graduate science
programs at Indian Institutes of
Technology

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 The plate tectonic setting of Benioff-Wadati zone is

(A) continental rift

(B) subduction zone

(C) passive margin

(D) mid-oceanic ridge

Q.2 Neutron-rich unstable nuclides undergo

(A) β– (negatron) decay

(B) β+ (positron) decay

(C) α-decay

(D) electron capture

GG 1/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.3 Which one of the following textures is found in alkali olivine basalt?

(A) Rapakivi

(B) Graphic

(C) Blastoporphyritic

(D) Intergranular

Q.4 The mineral assemblage found in a granulite facies metabasalt is

(A) glaucophane + lawsonite + chlorite

(B) orthopyroxene + garnet + plagioclase + clinopyroxene + quartz

(C) actinolite + albite + chlorite + epidote

(D) omphacite + garnet + quartz

GG 2/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.5 Glossopteris is found in which of the following formations?

(A) Raniganj

(B) Bagra

(C) Lameta

(D) Nimar Sandstone

Q.6 In a sequence of undeformed sedimentary rocks, younger rocks overlie older
rocks. This conforms to the principle of

(A) superposition

(B) uniformitarianism

(C) faunal succession

(D) original horizontality

GG 3/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.7 Dropstones are found in

(A) Barakar Formation

(B) Talchir Formation

(C) Raniganj Formation

(D) Bijori Formation

Q.8 The sedimentary structure formed by unidirectional current is

(A) trough cross-bedding

(B) oscillation ripple

(C) concretion

(D) hummocky cross-stratification

GG 4/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.9 Which of the following is the precursor of petroleum?

(A) Sporinite

(B) Clarain

(C) Kerogen

(D) Vitrain

Q.10 Which of the following is an amorphous variety of SiO2?

(A)
(a) Quartz

(B) Citrine

(C) Agate

(D) Opal

GG 5/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.11 The name of an igneous rock having a modal composition of 55% olivine, 40%
orthopyroxene and 5% plagioclase, as per the IUGS classification scheme, is

(A) gabbro

(B) troctolite

(C) lherzolite

(D) harzburgite

Q.12 Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of abundance of elements in
our solar system?

(A) O > H > Fe > He

(B) O > Fe > H > He

(C) H > O > Fe > He

(D) H > He > O > Fe

GG 6/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.13 The suture of a cephalopod having smooth saddles and crenulated lobes is called

(A) orthoceratitic

(B) goniatitic

(C) ceratitic

(D) ammonitic

Q.14 Which of the following is a body fossil?

(A) Coprolite

(B) Footprint

(C) Cast

(D) Stromatolite

GG 7/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.15 Match the morphological features in Group I with the corresponding taxa in Group
II.

Group I Group II

P. Dissepiment 1. Echinodermata

Q. Delthyrium 2. Trilobita

R. Pygidium 3. Brachiopoda

S. Ambulacrum 4. Anthozoa

(A) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2

(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1

(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1

GG 8/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.16 Match the sedimentary features/structures in Group I with the corresponding
processes in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Stylolite 1. Liquefaction

Q. Pseudonodule 2. Diagenesis

R. Current crescent 3. Organo-sedimentary binding

S. Stromatolite 4. Scouring

(A) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3

(B) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1

(C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

(D) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3

GG 9/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.17 Match the geomorphic features in Group I with the corresponding environments in
Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Dreikanter 1. Glacial

Q. Cirque 2. Beach

R. Natural levee 3. Eolian

S. Berm 4. Fluvial

(A) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2

(B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3

(C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2

(D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

GG 10/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.18 The correct hierarchy of the given stratigraphic units is

(A) Group > Member > Formation > Bed

(B) Eon > Era > Epoch > Period

(C) Group > Formation > Member > Bed

(D) Eon > Era > Series > Systems

GG 11/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.19 Match the minerals in Group I with their highest order of interference color in
Group II (for 0.03 mm mineral thickness).

Group I Group II

P. Sillimanite 1. First order

Q. Quartz 2. Second order

R. Muscovite 3. Greater than third order

S. Calcite 4. Third order variegated

(A) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3

(B) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4

(C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3

(D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1

GG 12/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.20 The saturated thickness of an unconfined aquifer is defined by the distance between

(A)
(a) the ground surface and the water table

(B) the water table and the underlying confining layer

(C) the water table and the mean sea level

(D) the ground surface and the underlying confining layer

Q.21 Darcy’s law quantifies the volume of groundwater flow

(A)
(a) per unit surface area of the aquifer

(B) per unit time

(C) per unit cross-sectional area of the aquifer

(D) per unit cross-sectional area of the aquifer per unit time

GG 13/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.22 According to Strahler’s stream ordering system, what is the highest order of stream
in the given diagram?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

GG 14/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.23 A tunnel with vertical walls and arched crown is constructed through a set of
sedimentary beds. The thickness of individual beds is significantly less than the
wall-height of the tunnel. For which of the following conditions, one of the tunnel
walls becomes unstable?

(A)
(a) The tunnel axis is horizontal and the beds are horizontal

(B) The tunnel axis is parallel to the strike of beds and the beds dip 45⁰ – 60⁰

(C) The tunnel axis is parallel to the strike of beds and the beds are vertical

(D) The tunnel axis is perpendicular to the strike of beds and the beds are vertical

Q.24 A plunging fold will NOT show a V-shaped outcrop pattern on a planar ground
surface if the plunge of the fold axis is

(A)
(a) equal to the dip of the ground surface in the same direction

(B) steeper than the dip of the ground surface in the same direction

(C) equal to the dip of the ground surface in the opposite direction

(D) steeper than the dip of the ground surface in the opposite direction

GG 15/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.25 The given map shows the outcrop patterns of beds (1 – 4) across a fault plane, F –
F’, on a flat ground. X and Y refer to the two blocks across F – F’. Which one of
the following options is the correct interpretation of the structure depicted on the
map?

(A)
(a) A south-easterly plunging synform that was subsequently faulted with block X
upthrown

(B) A north-westerly plunging antiform that was subsequently faulted with block Y
upthrown

(C)
(b) A south-easterly plunging antiform that was subsequently faulted with block X
downthrown

(D) A north-westerly plunging synform that was subsequently faulted with block Y
downthrown

GG 16/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.26 The crystal form ‘dome’ contains

(A) two parallel faces related by a 2-fold axis of symmetry

(B) two non-parallel faces related by a 2-fold axis of symmetry

(C) two parallel faces related by a mirror plane

(D) two non-parallel faces related by a mirror plane

Q.27 The symbols [100], {100} and (100) in a crystal represent the sequence

(A)
(a) form, line and face

(B) form, face and line

(C) line, face and form

(D) line, form and face

GG 17/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.28 Match the stratigraphic units in Group I with the corresponding Archean cratons in
Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Bababudan Group 1. Eastern Dharwar

Q. Banded Gneissic Complex-I 2. Western Dharwar

R. Bonai Granite 3. Aravalli

S. Kolar Group 4. Singhbhum

(A) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1

(B) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 4

(C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3

(D) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1

GG 18/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.29 Which one of the metamorphic facies sequence in order of increasing metamorphic
grade defines thermal metamorphism ?

(A) Sanidinite → pyroxene hornfels → hornblende hornfels → albite-epidote hornfels

(B) Albite-epidote hornfels → hornblende hornfels → sanidinite → pyroxene hornfels

(C) Hornblende hornfels → albite-epidote hornfels → pyroxene hornfels → sanidinite

(D) Albite-epidote hornfels → hornblende hornfels → pyroxene hornfels → sanidinite

GG 19/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.30 Nickel ores are NOT associated with

(A) ultramafic igneous rocks

(B) laterites

(C) sea-floor polymetallic nodules

(D) skarns

Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.31 Which of the following statements on mantle partial melting are correct?

(A) Shallow melting produces tholeiitic basalts.

(B) Low-degree melting produces alkaline basalts.

(C) Presence of CO2-rich volatiles favors the formation of tholeiitic basalts.

(D) Presence of H2O-rich volatiles favors the formation of alkaline basalts.

GG 20/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.32 Which of the following fossil groups are from the Siwalik Group?

(A) Proboscidea

(B) Giraffidae

(C) Dinosauria

(D) Equidae

Q.33 The correct stratigraphic successions arranged from the oldest to the youngest are

(A) Uttatur → Trichinopoly → Ariyalur → Niniyur

(B) Chari → Patcham → Umia → Katrol

(C) Chinji → Nagri → Dhok Pathan → Tatrot

(D) Semri → Rewa → Kaimur → Bhander

GG 21/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.34 Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

(A) Photic zone – biogenic carbonate rocks

(B) Delta – progradational coarsening-up succession

(C) Sabkha – shelf storm deposit

(D) Shelf break – submarine fans

Q.35 High drainage density is representative of a terrain with

(A)
(a) high relief

(B) arid climate

(C) impermeable surface layer

(D) permeable surface layer

GG 22/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.36 Mass-wasting processes are

(A) landslides

(B) lahars

(C) avalanches

(D)
(a) sand storms

Q.37 Which ones of the following correspond to the Pyroxene group?

(A)
(a) CaMgSi2O6

(B) CaAl2SiO6

(C) Ca2Si2O6

(D) NaFeSi2O6

GG 23/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.38 Which of the following processes are correctly matched with corresponding
deformation structures?

(A) Pressure solution – rock cleavage

(B) Jointing – plumose markings

(C) Layer parallel compression – buckle folds

(D) Cohesion loss – slickensides

GG 24/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.39 For the given Barrovian metamorphic sequence, which of the following
statements are correct?

A) Grade of metamorphism increases from left to right.

(B) ‘P’ isograd is the Garnet isograd.

(C) Zone ‘Q’ is the Garnet zone.

(D) ‘R’ isograd is the Kyanite isograd.

GG 25/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.40 Which ones of the following are formed by brittle deformation?

(A)
(a) Cataclasite

(B) Breccia

(C) Mylonite

(D) Gouge

Section C: Q.41 – Q.50 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.41 The value of φ (phi) of a sediment grain having a diameter of 0.125 mm is
________. (In integer)

Q.42 The vertical separation of a displaced horizontal stratum along a dip-slip reverse
fault is 10 m when measured on a section perpendicular to the fault-strike. If the
dip of the fault is 30⁰, the net slip of the fault will be ________ m. (In integer)

GG 26/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.43 The dips of the normal and overturned limbs of a horizontal-overturned antiform
are 30⁰ and 70⁰, respectively. The interlimb angle of this fold is ________
degrees. (In integer)

Q.44 In a mineral with formula KAl3Si3O10(F0.5OHx), the value of ‘x’ is ________.
(Round off to one decimal place)

Q.45 The atom percent of Fe in pyrrhotite of composition Fe0.77S is _______. (Round
off to two decimal places)

Q.46 Consider the univariant metamorphic reaction Albite = Jadeite + Quartz. The
minimum number of chemical components required to describe the composition
of all the phases is _______. (In integer)

GG 27/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.47 The mean flow velocity of water in an open channel having an average depth of
0.2 m, and with Froude Number 4, is _______m/s. (Round off to one decimal
place) (Use g = 9.8 ms-2)

Q.48 An aquifer has a cross-sectional area of 10 m2 and a hydraulic conductivity of
0.25 cm/s. The volume of water that will flow per second through the aquifer for
a hydraulic gradient of 0.04 is _______ cm3. (Round off to three decimal places)

Q.49 The geothermal gradient in the continental crust is 0.02 ⁰C/m. If the surface
temperature is 25 ⁰C, the temperature at a depth of 18 km from the surface is
______ ⁰C. (In integer)

Q.50 The area of a triangular block of a massive orebody is 1500 m2. If the thickness
of the orebody is 5 m, 6 m and 7 m at the three corners of the triangular block,
and the ore density is 2.5 tons/m3, the estimated ore reserve of the block is
_______ tons. (In integer)

GG 28/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Section C: Q.51 – Q.60 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.51 Clinopyroxene crystallizing from a basaltic magma has Sm concentration of 24
ppm. If the clinopyroxene-melt partition coefficient for Sm is 1.2, the
concentration of Sm in the basaltic magma will be _______ ppm. (In integer)

Q.52 The lithostatic pressure at a depth of 36.5 km in the continental crust having an
average density of 2800 kg/m3, is _______GPa. (Round off to the nearest integer)
(Use g = 9.8 m/s2)

Q.53 The fraction of 24
11𝑁𝑎 atoms remaining after a decay interval of 5.0 hours will be

_______. (Round off to three decimal places) (Use t1/2 = 15.0 hours)

Q.54 The thickness of a dipping coal bed measured along a vertical drill hole is 15 m.
If the dip of the coal bed is 30⁰, the orthogonal thickness of the coal bed is
_______ m. (Round off to the nearest integer)

GG 29/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.55 The mole fraction of forsterite in olivine with MgO = 29.17 weight %, FeO =
34.65 weight % and SiO2 = 36.18 weight % is _______. (Round off to two decimal
places) (Use molecular weight, in g/mol, of MgO = 40.31, FeO = 71.85 and SiO2
= 60.00)

Q.56 A partially saturated soil sample has a volume of 1200 cc. The volume of water
present in the sample is 300 cc. The mass of solid in the sample is 1908 g and the
particle density is 2.65 g/cc. The porosity (n) of the soil sample is _____ %. (In
integer)

Q.57 A rock element during deformation, experienced a pressure change of 5×104
N/m2, due to which its volume changed from 4 cm3 to 3.9 cm3. The bulk modulus
of the rock is _______ ×106 N/m2. (In integer)

Q.58 For an anisotropic crystal of thickness 0.04 mm and refractive indices of 1.636
and 1.486 along the slow and fast directions, respectively, the retardation
produced is _______ nm. (In integer)

GG 30/31

JAM 2024 GEOLOGY (GG)

Q.59 An orebody contains pyrite and chalcopyrite in the same molar proportions. The
percentage concentration of Cu in the ore will be _______. (Round off to the
nearest integer)

(Use atomic weight, in g/mol, of Cu = 63.55, Fe = 55.85, S = 32.06)

Q.60 In the given isobaric binary temperature-composition (T-X) phase diagram
involving solids A and B, the fraction of melt remaining at point Q for a magma
having initial composition P will be _______. (Round off to one decimal place)

GG 31/31

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