Mizoram Board Class 10 Question Paper 2025 All Subjects

Total number of printed pages – 7 HS/021

2025
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :

(i) This question paper is divided into four sections - A, B, C and D.

(ii) All the sections are compulsory. Answer all the questions.

(iii) Write the number of the question before attempting it.

(iv) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

SECTION – A (25 marks)

GRAMMAR AND COMPOSITION

1. Choose the correct answer from the options given within brackets : 5×1=5

(a) By this time next year, she _____ her degree. (completes/ will have completed)

(b) He said that he _____ to the market. (was going/ will be gone)

(c) The project _____ by the manager last week. (was approved/ will have been approved)

(d) The letters _____ by the end of the day. (have been sending/ will be sent)

(e) By the time we arrived, the movie _____. (had started/ is starting)

2. Choose the correct spelling of the missing word in each sentence : 4×1=4

(a) He cooked _____ for a healthy dinner. (brocolli/ broccoli/ broccolli)

(b) John’s _____ was inspiring to everyone in the team. (achievement/ acheivement/
acheivment)

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(c) They showed great _____ in completing the task. (committment/ comitment/
commitment)

(d) We need to _____ the details before the meeting. (discuss/ disscuss/ discuse)

3. Make sentences using the following idioms and phrases to bring out their meanings : 5×1=5

(a) burn the midnight oil

(b) when pigs fly

(c) hit the sack

(d) let the cat out of the bag

(e) put the cart before the horse

4. Write an essay on any one of the topics in about 120–150 words : 6

(a) The Influence of Social Media on Teenagers

OR

(b) The Value of Discipline in Students’ Life

5. Write a precis of the following passage. Give a suitable title. 5

Exam stress is a common challenge for students, but with effective strategies, it can be
managed and overcome. First, it is essential to create a study schedule. Breaking down study
material into manageable sections and allocating specific times for each subject helps in
avoiding last-minute cramming and reduces anxiety. Second, practise relaxation techniques
such as deep breathing, meditation or yoga. These methods can calm the mind and help focus
better during exams. Regular physical exercise also plays a crucial role in reducing stress
and boosting overall well-being. Third, ensure a balanced diet and adequate sleep. A well-
nourished body and a rested mind are vital for optimal performance. Avoid excessive caffeine
and opt for nutritious snacks that enhance concentration and energy levels. Finally, maintain
a positive mindset. Replace negative thoughts with affirmations and remind yourself of past
successes. Seek suppport from friends, family or teachers if needed, as talking about your
worries can provide relief. By organizing study time, practising relaxation, maintaining health
and staying positive, students can effectively manage and overcome exam stress.

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SECTION – B (20 marks)
POETRY
6. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3
“ O! Father and mother, if buds are nipped
And blossoms blown away;
And if the tender plants are stripped
Of their joy in the springing day,
By sorrow and care’s dismay.”
(a) The poet is –
(i) William Blake (ii) Rabindranath Tagore
(iii) Lord Alfred Tennyson (iv) PB Shelley
(b) The poet attributes human qualities and emotions to the buds, blossoms and tender
plants. The poetic device in this is –
(i) hyperbole (ii) simile
(iii) personification (iv) alliteration
(c) What is the main idea behind the given lines ?
(i) The natural process of plants growing and withering.
(ii) The lack of opportunities for children to enjoy their youth.
(iii) The harsh treatment of plants by gardeners.
(iv) The struggles and hardships of life.
7. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
“Give thy thoughts no tongue,
Nor any unproportioned thought his act.
Be thou familiar, but by no means vulgar.
Those friends thou hast, and their adoption tried,
Grapple them unto thy soul with hoops of steel.”
(a) Name the poem and the poet. 1+1=2
(b) What does the metaphor ‘hoops of steel’ suggest about the effort needed to maintain
friendships ? 3
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8. Write the substance of the following : 4

“His sullen children have often refused to share

Jokes and secrets with him. He will now go to sleep.

Listening to the static in the radio, dreaming

Of his ancestors and grandchildren, thinking

Of nomads entering a subcontinent through a narrow pass.”

9. Answer any four of the following questions : 4×2=8

(a) According to the villagers, what could have been the reason the mother was stung by the
scorpion ?

(b) What power is the poet referring to when he says “we lay waste our powers” in the
poem ‘The World is too Much With Us’ ?

(c) Write a short note on the use of symbolism in the poem ‘The Splendour Falls’ by Lord
Alfred Tennyson.

(d) In the poem ‘Life’ by Charlotte Bronte, in what way does the speaker contradict the
teachings of the old sages ?

(e) Explain the significance of the line “O Wind, If winter comes, can spring be far

behind ?” in the context of the poem.

SECTION – C (25 marks)

PROSE

10. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow : 4×1=4

“ There is a danger of the world getting liberty drunk in these days... and it is just as well
to remind ourselves of what the rule of the road means. It means that in order that the liberties
of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed.”

(a) The extract is taken from the essay written by –

(i) Chimamanda Adichie (ii) A.G. Gardiner

(iii) Mark Twain (iv) Anton Chekhov
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(b) What does the writer mean by ‘the rule of the road’?

(i) A guideline for driving

(ii) A principle for balancing liberties
(iii) A traffic regulation

(iv) A legal restriction

(c) Why does the writer argue that liberties should be curtailed ?
(i) To ensure the safety of individual property.

(ii) To preserve the liberties of everyone in society.

(iii) To allow for more personal freedom.
(iv) To reduce government intervention.

(d) What does word ‘curtailed’ mean in the extract ?

(i) expanded (ii) reduced or limited
(iii) ignored (iv) destroyed

11. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow : 4×1=4

“He wanted to go out in the open country and fill his lungs and breathe freely. But there
was no open country to go to. Surrounded on all sides by Calcutta houses and walls, he would
dream night after night of his village home, and long to be back there.”
(a) Who is ‘he’ referred to in the extract ?

(i) Phatik (ii) Robert Quick

(iii) Bishamber (iv) Makhan
(b) What can we infer about his feelings towards his present environment ?

(i) He feels at home.

(ii) He feels trapped and restricted.
(iii) He is excited about the city’s houses and walls.

(iv) He feels lost in the city.
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(c) What does he want to do in the open country ?

(i) Play with friends (ii) Fly his kite

(iii) Fill his lungs and breathe freely (iv) Engage in urban activities

(d) What word best describes his current state of mind ?

(i) Excitement (ii) Anger

(iii) Contentment (iv) Nostalgia

12. Answer any one of the following in about 100–120 words : 6

(a) Can ‘If War is to End’ be called an anti-war story ? Discuss.

OR

(b) Analyse the importance of the theme of forgiveness in Tolstoy’s ‘God sees the Truth,
but Waits.’

13. Answer the following questions in about 50–75 words :

(a) What is the narrator’s attitude against the Indians in ‘The Californian’s Tale’ ? 3

(b) Why did Natalya implore her father to call Lomov back ? 3

14. (a) Why did Adichie decide to decline the prize which the feminist organisation wanted to
confer upon her ? 2

(b) Do you think Gillian’s final decision in ‘One Thousand Dollars’ was driven more by
love for Miss Hayden or a sense of justice ? Support your answer. 3

SECTION – D (10 Marks)

RAPID READER

15. Answer any three of the following in about 20–30 words : 3×2=6
(a) Why didn’t Queequeg want to go back to his own country ?

(b) Why was it necessary to cut up or flense the dead whale ?

(c) Who are the Yankees ? What is special about them ?

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(d) What is the significance of the story of Jonah and the Whale in relation to Captain
Ahab’s quest in ‘Moby Dick’ ?

16. Write a brief character sketch of Queequeg in about 40–50 words. 4

_____________

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Total number of printed pages – 4 HS/007

2025
BENGALI
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) Answer all the questions as directed both parts of the question paper are compulsory.
(ii) Write the number of the question before attempting it.
(iii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
(iv) Write the answers neatly and legibly.

–

LVM–3

Luner Rover

NASA

Luner Rover

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–

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Contd.

Total number of printed pages – 4 HS/017

2025
CIVICS & ECONOMICS
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) There are two sections, A and B carrying 40 marks each.

(iii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.

(iv) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

SECTION – A (CIVICS – 40 marks)

1. Choose the correct answer from the options given : 5×1=5

(a) The Directive principles are issued by –

(i) Central Government (ii) Constitution

(iii) Supreme Court (iv) None of these

(b) The Prime Minister is appointed by –

(i) Finance Minister (ii) Governor

(iii) The President (iv) Council of Ministers

(c) A member of the State Legislature must not be less than –

(i) 25 years of age (ii) 30 years of age

(iii) 32 years of age (iv) 35 years of age

(d) The highest Revenue Court in the State is –

(i) The Board of Revenue (ii) Commissioners’ Court

(iii) Tehsildar Court (iv) Deputy Collectors’ Court

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(e) The Election Commissioner hold office for a period of –

(i) 3 years (ii) 6 years (iii) 5 years (iv) 8 years

2. Fill in the blanks with correct answers : 7×1=7

(a) ________ is considered superior than Directive Principles. (Preamble/Fundamental
Rights)

(b) No Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of the State except on
________ recommendation. (Governor’s/Chief Minister’s)

(c) ________ is considered the Guardian of Fundamental Rights. (High Court/Supreme
Court)

(d) ________acts as the real head of the Government of Union Territory. (Chief Minister/
The President of India)

(e) The Union of India consists of ________ states. (28/29)

(f) In India, adults ________ of age or more have been entitled to vote. (20 years/18
years)

(g) ________ can play very effective role in exposing the evil consequences of
communalism. (Political parties/Mass media)

3. What is the composition of a High Court ? 2

4. How is the Chief Minister of a State appointed ? 2

5. What is Lok Adalat ? 2

6. If you are one of the authorities of the Government of a State, how would you eradicate
social evil ? 2

7. If you are a member of State Legislative Assembly, how can your seat fall vacant ? 3

8. ‘The Supreme Court is portrayed as the saviour of the Indian Consitution’. Comment. 3

9. Write any three provisions made regarding Union Territories in Indian Consitution. 3

10. What measures will you suggest to uplift women ? 3

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11. ‘The Prime Minister of India is the real head of the Government’. Do you agree ? Give reasons
to support your answer. 4

12. Describe any four advantages of Democracy. 4

SECTION – B (ECONOMICS – 40 marks)

13. Choose the correct answer from the options given : 5×1=5

(a) During the ninth Five-Year Plan (1997–2002), the actual growth rate was estimated at –

(i) 5.2 percent (ii) 5.4 percent

(iii) 6.4 percent (iv) 6.5 percent

(b) Quality of life means sense of well being among the people, includes not only the
availability of material well being but also includes quality of air, water, atmosphere and –

(i) rich food (ii) costly clothing

(iii) sanitation (iv) big houses

(c) The first Civil Aviation Department was set up in –

(i) 1927 (ii) 1928 (iii) 1930 (iv) 1932

(d) The Sector that consists of those production units which are owned and controlled by
the government is –

(i) Private Sectors (ii) Cooperative Sector

(iii) Joint Sector (iv) Public Sector

(e) A series of reforms have been introduced in new Industrial Policy announced on 24th
July –

(i) 1989 (ii) 1990 (iii) 1991 (iv) 1992

14. Fill in the blanks correctly : 7×1=7

(a) ________ is defined as the total value of final goods and services produced by normal
residents of a country during a financial year. (Net National Income/Green Net National
Income)

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(b) The number of literate people expressed in terms of percentage is ________. (life
expectancy rate/literacy rate)

(c) EAI stands for ________. (Economic Attainment Index/Educational Attainment Index)

(d) The impact of high yielding varieties (HYV) has been quite good in ________. (rice/
maize)

(e) Agriculture provides source of livelihood to nearly ________ of the people. (68 %/78%)

(f) Purchases and sales of foreign exchange (currencies) are done by ________.
(Reserve Bank of India/State Bank of India)

(g) ________ is the cheapest means of transport. (Road transport/Water transport)

15. What does quality of life mean ? 2

16. What is meant by Green Revolution ? 2

17. Define “Economic Infrastructure”. 2

18. How can public distribution system in India be made more effective ? 2

19. What role does human capital play in economic development of a country ? 3

20. Suggest three remedies to improve industrial productivity. 3

21. Do you agree that ‘Exports has great importance for Indian economy’ ? Give reasons
to support your answer. 3

22. Define Fiscal Policy. Mention its important tools. 3

23. Suggest measures to increase agricultural production in our country. 4

24. ‘Economic infrastructure can negatively impact our environment’. Elucidate. 4

_____________

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Total number of printed pages – 4 HS/014
2025
COMMERCIAL STUDIES
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.

(iii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 7×1=7

(a) The Copyright Act was passed in –

(i) 1956 (ii) 1957

(iii) 1958 (iv) 1959

(b) The process that the identity of the product is made distinctively to others is called –

(i) Branding (ii) Packaging

(iii) Labelling (iv) Pricing

(c) The core of promotion in marketing is –

(i) Transportation (ii) Communication

(iii) Production (iv) Advertisement

(d) To maintain systematic records of financial transactions is the basic objective of –

(i) Accounting (ii) Accountancy

(iii) Book Keeping (iv) Recording

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(e) The process of identifying the sources for prospective candidates and encouraging them
to apply for a particular job or jobs in an organisation is –

(i) Selection (ii) Training

(iii) Performance Appraisal (iv) Recruitment

(f) What starts where book keeping ends ?

(i) Balance Sheet (ii) Ledger

(iii) Trial Balance (iv) Accounting

(g) The factors affecting the wage/work equation is the definition of –

(i) Personal Relation (ii) Labour Relation

(iii) Public Relation (iv) Industrial Relation

2. Fill in the blanks : 7×1=7

(a) If a person has a stake (i.e. Interest) in the organisation, he/she is said to be a ________.

(b) Consumer Protection Act is mainly for the protection of ________.

(c) ________ is not possible without customers or buyers.

(d) The individual record of a person or thing or an item of income or an expense is called
________.

(e) When an employee is provided training and development programmes philosophically,
conceptually and theoretically for long term development of personnel, it is called
________.

(f) The business of accepting deposits and lending money is referred as ________.

(g) Discipline means ________.

3. Answer the following : 10×1=10

(a) Define the meaning of Human Rights.

(b) Which act would provide a duly pregnant woman a maternity leave prior and after the
delivery of the child with full wages/salary ?

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(c) State any one point to differentiate publicity and advertisement.

(d) What did sales promotion techniques do ?

(e) State the usefulness of communicating activity in accounting.

(f) What is the name of Central Bank in India ?

(g) What is meant by the term ‘job evaluation’ ?

(h) What is the full form of ILO ?

(i) When was the Indian Trade Union Act passed ?

(j) Which function of Trade Union promotes the welfare of members ?

4. How would you differentiate stakeholders and customers ? 3

5. State the role/objectives of Personal selling. 3

6. Write any three qualities of a good Trademark. 3

7. Explain the advantages of advertising to the consumer. 3

8. Give three traditional functions of Reserve Bank of India. 3

9. Write any three types of bank deposits accepted and their purposes. 3

10. State the three objectives of Human Resource Planning. 3

11. Suggest any three measures to secure better Industrial Relations. 3

12. Define Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). How would you examine that
the accounting practice meets GAAP. 1+3=4

13. Evaluate the activities covered by accountant besides the activities covered by
Bookkeeper . 4

14. (a) Explain the purpose of regulation. 8

OR

(b) Explain the Civil and Political Rights. 8

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15. You have opened a new shoe store and need to attract customers through advertising, which
type of advertising media would you choose to promote your store ? Justify your choice
with six reasons. 2+6=8

16. (a) Discuss the aims of Industrial Relation. 8

OR

(b) Discuss the major objectives of Trade Union. 8

_______________

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Total number of printed pages – 8 HS/001

2025
ENGLISH
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) This question paper is divided into four sections - A, B, C and D.
(ii) All the sections are compulsory. Answer all the questions.
(iii) Write the number of the question before attempting it.
(iv) Marks for each question are indicated against it.

SECTION – A : READING (10 marks)

1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

You can readily see that even though you possessed all of the qualities thus far outlined,
you would nevertheless be very apt to fail in your lifework if you did not also attract people to you
through a pleasing personality.
Personality cannot be defined in one word because it is the sum total of those qualities that
distinguish you from every other person on earth. The clothes you wear form a part of your per-
sonality- a very important part at that. Your facial expression, as shown by the lines on your face or
the lack of these, forms a part of your personality, and mark you instantly, once you have spoken,
as a person of refinement or the opposite. Your voice also constitutes an important part of your
personality, a part which, to be pleasing, must be cultivated, trained, and developed so it is harmo-
nious, rich, and expressed with rhythm. The manner in which you shake hands forms an important
part of your personality; therefore, make your handshake firm and vibrant. If you merely permit
the other person to shake your limp, cold, lifeless hand, you are displaying what constitutes a
negative personality.
An attractive personality may be described as one that draws people to you and causes them

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to find companionship and harmony in your company, while an unattractive personality is one that
causes people to want to get as far away from you as possible.
You undoubtedly can analyze yourself and determine whether or not people are attracted to
you, and if they are not, you surely can find the reason why. Also, it may be of interest to you to
know that the class of people you attract to yourself clearly indicates your own character and
personality, because you will attract only those who are in harmony with you and whose characters
and nature correspond to that of your own.
An attractive personality usually may be found in the person who speaks gently and kindly,
selecting words that do not offend, the person who is unselfish and willing to serve others, a friend
of all humanity who manages to converse without being drawn into an argument, a patient listener,
one who forgives acts of unkindness, and one who loves children and nature.

1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following questions
briefly : 3×2=6
(a) Write two qualities that form one’s personality .
(b) What is the difference between an attractive personality and an unattractive personality ?
(c) Why does the writer state that a person who speaks gently and kindly has an
attractive personality?
1.2 Choose the most suitable antonym from the options given below : 2×1=2
(a) vibrant (para 2)
(i) lively (ii) dynamic
(iii) vivid (iv) lifeless
(b) gently (para 5)
(i) curtly (ii) weakly
(iii) softly (iv) feebly
1.3 Find out the words from the passage that mean the same as : 2×1=2
(a) interest/draw/captivate (para 1)
(b) unity/peace/balance (para 3)

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SECTION – B : WRITING (15 marks)
2. (a) Imagine you are Zosanga. You have moved into a new house at 18-A, Vengthar, Khawsang.
Write an informal invitation to your friend inviting him/her to your house-warming
party, giving details of date, time and any other relevant information.
(Word limit : 50 words) 5
OR
(b) You are Mary. While your mother is away, your father called giving information about
your mother’s appointment with the doctor. As you are leaving soon, write a message
based on your note for your mother to read as soon as she gets home.
rang at 11:00 a.m. - made the doctor’s appointment for 5:30 p.m. - driver to pick
mom at 4:30 p.m. - to bring old medical records - daddy will wait at doctor’s
clinic at 47/C, Vanapa Street.
(Word limit : 50 words) 5
3. Imagine you have been to a concert for the first time in your life with your friends. You were
very excited. Write a diary entry on your experience.
- your preparation, your journey to the venue, your reaction to the concert and your journey
back home. 10
(Word limit : 150 – 200 words)
SECTION – C : GRAMMAR (15 marks)
4. Choose the correct option as directed within the brackets : 4×1=4
(a) Is the class captain aware _________ his duties ? (preposition)
(i) in (ii) by
(iii) of (iv) for
(b) When the thief entered the house, the boys ________ in their room. (suitable form of
the verb)
(i) slept (ii) had slept
(iii) had been sleeping (iv) were sleeping
(c) Murray Halberg is not a man of _________ build. (adjectival form of noun)
(i) athlete (ii) athletic
(iii) athleticism (iv) athletically

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(d) I will visit you after _______ days. (determiner)
(i) few (ii) a few
(iii) little (iv) a little

5. Identify and label each sentence as declarative, interrogative, imperative or exclamatory.4×1=4

(a) Never talk to strangers.
(b) Could you tell me where the library is ?
(c) The wind is blowing from the west.
(d) Oh dear! Those are wonderful decorations !

6. Choose the correct option to change the narration. 4×1=4
(a) John asked Mark if he might use his pen.
(i) John said to Mark, “Might I use your pen ?”
(ii) John said, “May I use your pen, Mark ?”
(iii) John said to Mark, “May I use his pen ?”
(iv) John said, “May I used your pen, Mark?”

(b) The father said, “My son was limping.”
(i) The father said that his son has been limping.
(ii) The father said that his son was limping.
(iii) The father said that his son had been limping.
(iv) The father said that his son is limping.

(c) Sawmi said to me, “Let us go for a walk.”
(i) Sawmi asked me to go for a walk.
(ii) Sawmi requested me to go for a walk.
(iii) Sawmi ordered me that we should go for a walk.
(iv) Sawmi proposed to me that we should go for a walk.

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(d) The teacher said that some students were late that day.
(i) The teacher said, “Some students are late that day.”
(ii) The teacher said, “Some students had been late yesterday.”
(iii) The teacher said, “Some students were late this day.”
(iv) The teacher said, “Some students are late today.”
7. Change the voice : 3×1=3
(a) Everyone loves the sweet girl.
(b) Which book was being bought by them ?
(c) Julie will have done this work.
SECTION – D : TEXT BOOK (40 marks)
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
“ The waiting - room of the Earth Herald was crowded. A careful lookout was being kept for
Francis Bennett to return for the daily audience he gave to his petitioners.”
(a) Who is Francis Bennett ? 2
(b) Why are his petitioners eagerly waiting for his return ? 2
9. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
“We couldn’t wait to surf the Web for more information. We found that we would traverse
the world’s most violent seas and skim past yet unnamed islands to reach the mysterious
continent of Antarctica.”
(a) Why were they excited to surf the Web ? 2
(b) Here, the Drake Passage was referred to as the World’s most violent seas . Why ? 2
10. (a) Describe how Nicola and Jacopo sacrificed themselves to look after their sister Lucia
in the story, ‘Two Gentlemen of Verona’. (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4
OR

(b) In the story ‘Don’t Die, Graham! Don’t Die !’, why does the author compare the
struggle between Graham and the crocodile to a ‘tug of war’? 4
(Word limit : 50-75 words)

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11. After winning the Olympic gold medal, Murray Halberg had discovered that victory was not
so important. Do you think that there are more important things in life than victory ? Support
your answer in about 50–75 words. 4
12. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write your answer in one
or two sentences only :
“They wave their sticks and toss their mops of hair.
Each with a red hibiscus in his ear.”
(a) Name the poem and the poet. 1
(b) Who are the persons described here ? 1
(c) What weapons were they holding ? 1
(i) sabres (ii) hibiscus
(iii) sticks (iv) shields
13. Read the lines from the poem and answer the questions that follow. Write your answer in
one or two sentences only :
“ ’Tis a sight to engage me, if anything can,
To muse on the perishing pleasures of man,
Short-lived as we are, our enjoyments I see,
Have a still shorter date, and die sooner than we.”
(a) How does the sight engage the poet ? 2
(b) Perishing means – 1
(i) a person running away from somewhere
(ii) a sweet song
(iii) a quiet private place
(iv) being destroyed
14. (a) In the poem ‘Written in the Fields’, why does the poet compare and contrast city life
and country life ? (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4
OR

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(b) Why does the poet fear the cruel power of money on people in the poem ‘Money
Madness’ ? (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4

15. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :

(a) “What a charming, old-fashioned room ! I see nothing on the floor though. What about
this curtain ? .... You hang your clothes behind it. If anyone were forced to conceal
himself in this room he must do it there, since the bed is too low and the wardrobe
too shallow.”

(i) Who is the speaker ? What room is he referring to ? 2

(ii) Why does the speaker examine the room ? 2

OR

(b) “I know you are a good friend of city people. You have made a lot of wonderful things
for them. Telephones, cars, aeroplanes, railways and so on. But for villagers like me....
you have done nothing!”

(i) Name the speaker. To whom is he speaking ? 2
(ii) Why is the speaker making the statement ? 2

16. (a) Where in the market was the effect of the plague most prominent in the story ‘The
Paper Plague’ ? Why ? (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4

OR

(b) Based on the story ‘The Corner Shop’, explain why Miss Wilson’s father wanted to
soothe his conscience. (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4

17. (a) It was the turning point in Eshley’s artistic life. ‘It’ refers to – 1

(i) the ox entering the garden.

(ii) the painting of the ox having lunch in the morning -room.

(iii) the ox entering the morning room at Adela’s house.

(iv) the ox leaving the garden.

HS/001 7 P.T.O.

HS/001
(b) What was inside the silver casket in the story ‘The Merchant of Venice’ ? 1
(i) a fool’s head
(ii) death
(iii) a ring
(iv) Portia’s portrait

18. (a) In the story ‘The Merchant of Venice’, Shylock was destroyed in the end because he
wanted to take revenge on Antonio. Based on your own ideas, make suggestions on how
you think Shylock could avoid his downfall. (Word limit : 50–75 words) 4
OR
(b) Helen Keller’s story illustrates the importance of perseverance, adaptability and
resilience and inspires many people. As a student, how can you be an inspiration to
your friends to follow the right path ? Write your opinion in about 50–75 words. 4

_________

HS/001 8

Total number of printed pages – 6 HS/009

2025
HINDI
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
(iii) Write your answers neatly and legibly.
(iv) While attempting a question, write the question number as given in the question paper.

1.

1

P.T.O.

HS/009
1
1
1
1
1
2.

2
2

3.
6

6
4. 100 6

HS/009 2 Contd.

HS/009

5. 1
1

6. 2×1=2

7. 2×1=2
+ +
2×1=2

8. 2×1=2

2×1=2

9. 4×1=4

HS/009 3 P.T.O.

HS/009

10. 4

11. 6×2=12

12.

1
1

HS/009 4 Contd.

HS/009
1
1
1

160

105

1
1
1
1
1
13. 3×2=6

14. 5

HS/009 5 P.T.O.

HS/009
15. 1
16. 2

17. 3

18. 4

––––––––

HS/009 6

Total number of printed pages – 4 HS/015

2025
HOME SCIENCE
(Theory)
Full Marks – 70
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.

(iii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 5×1=5

(a) Change in the ability to think, solve and decide is –

(i) Social development (ii) Cognitive development

(iii) Moral development (iv) Emotional development

(b) Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of –

(i) Vitamin A (ii) Vitamin B

(iii) Vitamin C (iv) Iodine

(c) Preparing for an examination is –

(i) Individual goal (ii) Family goal

(iii) Short term goal (iv) Long term goal

(d) Food that have all nutrients is –

(i) Meat (ii) Butter

(iii) Pulse (iv) Egg

P.T.O.

HS/015
(e) Detailed information about the product is given in the –

(i) Cash memo (ii) Catalogue

(iii) Label (iv) Standardization

2. Fill in the blanks : 6×1=6

(a) All the things that we want to achieve are our ________.

(b) The ability to know and speak two languages is known as ________.

(c) ________ mark is put on all fruit products.

(d) ________ refers to both the quantitative and qualitative change.

(e) Decrease in size of fabric is called ________.

(f) ________ is a resource which is available to us in unequal amount.

3. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences : 10×1=10

(a) Define growth.

(b) What is meant by the term ‘Heredity’ ?

(c) Defne the word ‘Peers’ ?

(d) During which stage is physical development fastest ?

(e) How many chromosomes are there in body cells of human beings ?

(f) What is meant by storage of food ?

(g) What is a balanced diet ?

(h) What is the percentage of water in our body by weight ?

(i) What is the full form of ISI ?

(j) What provides consumer protection to all individuals ?

HS/015 2 Contd.

HS/015
4. Answer the following questions : 10×2=20

(a) Mention two factors which affect growth and development in children.

(b) How does play help a child to develop socially ?

(c) What are the functions of carbohydrates in our body ?

(d) “Meal planning is an Art as well as Science.” Justify this statement.

(e) “One gets tired and fatigued because of inadequate iron intake.” Why ?

(f) Why should we never use polythene packets to store food items ?

(g) Write any two points on why we save money.

(h) What is a stain ?

(i) What is meant by ‘laundering’ ?

(j) Why is light pressure used for washing silk ?

5. Answer the following questions : 5×3=15

(a) What points will you keep in mind while selecting toys for children ?

(b) What are the guidelines to use resources ? Write any three points.

(c) Name three areas of personal hygiene a food handler must always attend to.

(d) Make a simple spending plan for a family of five - parents and three children.The father
has an income of Rs. 30,000. They have their own house and have rented one room
to a young man for Rs. 6,000. The mother is very skilled in stitching clothes.

(e) (i) List three solutions of consumer problems faced by customers ?

OR

(ii) What are the advantages of Consumer education ?

HS/015 3 P.T.O.

HS/015
6. What is the role (influences) of games in the life of a child up to 3 years of age? 4

7. What precautions should you take while laundering woollen clothes ? 5

8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of tailor made garments ? 5

_________

HS/015 4

Total number of printed pages – 2 HS/016

2025
INTRODUCTORY INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
(Theory)
Full Marks – 30
Time – 1½ Hours
General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.

(iii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.

1. Fill in the blanks : 5×1=5

(a) A _______ is a collection of multiple webpages.

(b) A _______ in a table is defined as the smallest unit in a database.

(c) The concept of linking text is called _______.

(d) Instructions in HTML documents are made up of _______.

(e) The _______ element in HTML is used to create hyperlink.

2. What is a homepage ? 1

3. What is the purpose of Web browser ? 1

4. Where do you place the <TITLE> element in an HTML document ? 1

5. What is the purpose of <STRIKE> element ? 1

6. What is an IP Address ? 2

7. Name any two open source Web browsers. 2

8. Distinguish between the Allow Zero length and Required field properties. 2

P.T.O.

HS/016
9. Write the steps to delete a record. 2

10. Write an HTML Code for the following formula. 2

C3H8 + 5O2  3CO2+ 4H2O

11. Explain any two style tags/elements. 2

12. Describe in detail any three popular ways of finding information over the Internet. 3

13. Define DBMS and RDBMS. Name any two popular DBMS softwares. 2+1=3

14. What is the purpose of <HR> element ? Explain any two of its attributes. 1+2=3

_____________

HS/016 2

Total number of printed pages – 7 HS/011

2025

MANIPURI
Full Marks – 80

Time – 3 Hours
Figures in the margin indicate marks.

× =

P.T.O.

HS/011

× =

HS/011 2 Contd.

HS/011

J«

J«

HS/011 3 P.T.O.

HS/011

J«

J«

HS/011 4 Contd.

HS/011

J«

HS/011 5 P.T.O.

HS/011

HS/011 6 Contd.

HS/011

HS/011 7

Total number of printed pages – 7 HS/002

2025
MATHEMATICS
Full Marks - 80
Time - 3 Hours
General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

(iii) In question on construction, the drawing should be neat and exactly as per the given
measurements.

(iv) Use of calculator is not allowed.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 24×1=24

(a) A speed of 72 km/h equals –

(i) 5 m/s (ii) 10 m/s (iii) 20 m/s (iv) 25 m/s

(b) A can do a piece of work in 6 days, B can do it in 3 days and C can do it in 2 days. If they
all work together, the time taken to finish the work is –

(i) 4 days (ii) 3 days (iii) 2 days (iv) 1 day

(c) A tap ‘A’ can fill a cistern in 8 hours and another tap ‘B’ can empty the full cistern in 12
hours. If both the taps are opened together when the cistern is empty, the time taken to
fill the cistern is –
(i) 8 hours (ii) 24 hours (iii) 16 hours (iv) 12 hours

x 5
(d) The additive inverse of is –
x3

 ( x  5) x3 x 5 x5
(i) (ii) x5 (iii) (iv)
x3 x 3 x 3

P.T.O.

HS/002
(e) A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are  3 and 4 is –

(i) x 2  x  12 (ii) x2  x 12

(iii) x 2  x  12 (iv) 2 x 2  2 x  24

(f) The system of equations x  2 y  7  0 and  3x  6 y  4  0 has –

(i) a unique solution (ii) exactly two solutions

(iii) infinitely many solutions (iv) no solution

(g) Which term of the AP 4, 9, 14, 19 ... is 124 ?

(i) 24th term (ii) 26th term (iii) 25th term (iv) 27th term

AD 3
(h) In the given figure, DE | | BC, = and AC = 4.8 cm, then the value of AE is –
DB 5
A

(i) 1.8 cm (ii) 20 cm
D E
(iii) 24 cm (iv) 28 cm
B C

(i) The perimeter of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 45 cm and 30 cm respectively.
If PQ = 12 cm, then AB is equal to –
(i) 28 cm (ii) 20 cm (iii) 24 cm (iv) 18 cm
(j) In the given figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD at P, Q, R
and S. If AB = 6 cm, BC = 7cm and CD = 4 cm. Then AD is –
B
(i) 7 cm (ii) 6 cm P
A
(iii) 3 cm (iv) 4 cm

S
Q

D
C R

HS/002 2 Contd.

HS/002
(k) The midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (–1,7) and B (5,–3) lies in the
quadrant of –

(i) I (ii) II (iii) III (iv) IV

(l) If the point P (2, 1) lies on the line segment joining the points A (–4, –2) and B (8, 4)
then –

1 1 1 1
(i) AP = PB (ii) AP = AB (iii) AP = AB (iv) PB = AB
4 2 3 3

(m) If the point A (2, 3), B (5, k) and C (6, 7) are collinear, then the value of k is –

(i) 4 (ii) 5 (iii) 6 (iv) 7

(n) Cosecθ tanθ is equal to –

(i) Sin θ (ii) Cos θ (iii) Cot θ (iv) Sec θ

(o) The value of Sec 2 62o  Cosec 2 28o is –

(i) 0 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 1

(p) The area of a circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 28 cm is –

(i) 313 cm2 (ii) 616 cm2 (iii) 1024 cm2 (iv) 2464 cm2

(q) The number of solid spheres, each of diameter 6 cm that could be moulded to form a
solid metal cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm is –

(i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii) 5 (iv) 6

(r) The formula for finding the total surface area of a right circular cone of base radius ‘r’
and slant height ‘l’ is –

(i)  rl (ii)  r (l  r ) (iii) 2 rl (iv) 2 r 2l

(s) A solid right circular cone is cut out from a right circular cylinder of the same height
and base radius. The volume of the remaining solid is –

2 2 1 2 4 2
(i) r h (ii) r h (iii)  r 2 h (iv) r h
3 3 3
HS/002 3 P.T.O.

HS/002
(t) The radii of the top and bottom of a bucket of slant height 45 cm are 28 cm and 7 cm
respectively. The curve surface area of the bucket is –

(i) 4951 cm2 (ii) 4950 cm2 (iii) 3950 cm2 (iv) 3940 cm2

(u) When a die is thrown, the probability of getting a number greater than 5 is –

1 1 5 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
6 3 6 3

(v) If A = { 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12} and B = { 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10} , then B  A is –

(i) {3, 5, 7, 10} (ii) {2, 12}

(iii) {4, 6, 8, 10} (iv) {3, 5, 7}

(w) In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10 like both cricket and tennis. The number of
people who like cricket only is –

(i) 40 (ii) 35 (iii) 30 (iv) 55

(x) From the following Venn diagram (A  B) ' is –

U A B
1 6
4
2 3 5
7

(i) {1, 2, 3} (ii) {4, 5, 6, 7}

(iii) {6, 7} (iv) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}

2. Answer the following questions : 10×2 = 20

(a) A boy starts from his house for the school at a certain fixed time. If he cycles at the rate
of 8 km/hr, he is late by 9 minutes. However, if he cycles at the rate of 10 km/hr, he
reaches his school 6 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. Find the distance between
his house and the school.

HS/002 4 Contd.

HS/002

x2  x  6
(b) Reduce 2 in its lowest terms.
x  4x  4

1
Determine the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation, 3 x  2 x   0 . If the real
2
(c)
3
roots exist, find them.

(d) Find the sum : 34 + 32 + 30 + ........ + 10.

(e) In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle and AD is its altitude. Prove that
3AB2 = 4AD2. A

B C
D

(f) Prove that the angles in the same segment of a circle are equal.

(g) Find the area of a  ABC whose vertices are A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4).
(h) If sec4  = Cos ec (  20o ), where 4 is an acute angle, find the value of  .

(i) The radii of two circles are 40 cm and 9 cm respectively. Find the diameter of the
circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles.

(j) The given pie-chart shows the monthly expenditure of a family. If the monthly
expenditure of a family on food is 1700, answer the following questions –

(i) What is the monthly expenditure of the family ?
Food
(ii) How much more amount is spent on cloth than on rent ? 170O
80 O 40O Rent
Cloth 50O 20O
Fuel Education

3. A water filter is available for 12000 cash or 4740 cash down payment along with two
equal annual instalments. If the dealer charges an interest of 20 % per annum compounded
annually under instalment plan, find the value of each instalment. 3

HS/002 5 P.T.O.

HS/002
4. Find the HCF and LCM of x  9 x  20 and 2 x  128.
2 3
3

5. Prove that if a line touches a circle and from the point of contact a chord is drawn, the angles
which this chord makes with the given tangent are equal respectively to the angles formed in
the corresponding alternate segments. 3

6. (a) Point P divides the line segment joining the points A (2, 1) and B (5, –8) such that
AP 1
= . If P lies on the line 2x  y  k  0 , find the value of k. 3
AB 3

OR

(b) If A (5, 2), B (2, –2) and C (–2, k) are the vertices of a  ABC right angled at B, then
find the value of k. 3

7. (a) Prove that : Sin A (1 + tan A) + Cos A (1 + cot A) = Sec A + Cosec A 3

OR

SecA + Tan A  1 Cos
(b) Prove that :  3
Tan A  SecA  1 1  Sin 

8. A boy standing on a horinzontal plane finds a bird flying at a distance of 100m from him at an
elevation of 30o. A girl standing on the roof of a 20 m high building, finds the same bird at an
angle of elevation of 45o. Boy and girl are on the opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance
of the bird from the girl. 3

9. A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its
ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find
the surface area. 3

10. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically : 5

x  2y = 0, 3x + 4y = 20

Also, find the points where the line x  2y = 0 intersects the Y- axis.

HS/002 6 Contd.

HS/002
11. (a) Using ruler and compass only, construct a triangle ABC with sides BC = 6 cm,
AB = 4cm and AC = 5.5 cm and a triangle similar to triangle ABC with its sides equal
5
to of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC. Write the steps of construction.
3
5
OR

(b) Using ruler and compass only, construct a triangle ABC in which base BC = 5.5 cm,
o
 A = 60 , and the median through A is 4.2 cm long. Also, write the steps of construction.
5

12. Find the median and mode of the following data : 3+2=5

Class Interval 0-10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70

Frequency 3 8 10 15 7 4 3

______________

HS/002 7 –C

Total number of printed pages – 5 HS/005

2025
MIZO
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
Hriat turte:
(i) Zawhna zawng zawng hi chhan ngei ngei tur a ni.
(ii) Zawhna tin mark put z^t chu a zawnah tarlan z>l a ni.
(iii) Chhan dawnin zawhna nambar ziak z>l tur a ni.
|HEN KHATNA – HLA (18 Marks)
1. A dik ber hmangin dah khat rawh : 4×1=4
(a) Thangv^n _____ >ng ruai hnuaiah maw ni ? (arsi/ si^r/chhawrthla)
(b) I thlir za ang aw, _____ ram ngaia l>ng kan ni. (vanram/ chatuan/nun hlui)
(c) ‘Ar hmai tiat’ tih awmzia chu _____ sawina a ni. (tlem t>/ zim t>/ tam lo tak)
(d) Zo bawmtu chhawkhlei p^r phuahtu chu _____ a ni. (C. Chhuanvawra/ Zothanga/
H. Lalringa)
2. (a) A hnuaia hla thu hi Mizo \awng tluang pangngaiin dah rawh : 2
A sakhm>la, d^r z^m nge, a z<n z^m zawlaidi nge,
Thinlaia hrualhrui ang min phuartu hi ?
(b) ‘Kum sul liam hnu’tih hla phuahtuin krismas a ngaih tizualtu a sawi kha eng nge ni ?
‘Rem lal piang chuan thinlai hn>m rawh’ a tih chhan kha sawi bawk rawh . 1+1=2
(c) C. Durthanga hla ‘Chhul khat k<al’ in zirlai behchhanin Zofa hmun hrang hranga awmten
kan hnam kan humhalh theihna tura pawimawh i tih te han sawi teh. 2
3. A hnuaia hla thu hi a \obula chhuiin hrilh fiah rawh : 3
=ha ta n^ chu tlei dang pawh i leng z<nah,
Lam s<l ang an hawi ma bil lo’ng ti rawh P^rte.

P.T.O.

HS/005
4. Selet Thanga’n ‘K^wltu chawi nun iang’ a tih hi tute nge ? K^wltu chawi chu tute nge an nih
sawi la, he mite pahnih nun inanna hla thu behchhanin han sawi teh. 1+1+3=5

|HEN HNIHNA – THU (18 marks)

5. Kualkhung chhunga zawhna ang zel hian chhang rawh : 4×1=4

(a) Tual laiah zu an rui ngai lo, ________ an keuh duh. (Mizo thufing in zir angin dah khat
rawh)

(b) B^hzar. (Hrilh fiah rawh)

(c) Mizo hnahthl^k zawng zawng hi khawchhak lam chuan Kuki/Chin tiin tun hma chuan
an sawi \hin. (A dik zawk thlang rawh)

(d) Thil tih peih leh peih loh hi mihring nihna /nunphung/mizia nena kal kawp tlat a ni.

(A dik ber thlang rawh).

6. ‘Nihna’ tih ziaktuin ‘thihna luipui kan hleuhkai pui dawn bawk lo’ a tih kha sawi la.‘Mahni phu
t^wk leh hmuh tur ang pawh chang pha lo’ a tih kha eng ang mite nge ni ? 1+2=3

7. ‘Ral a lian e’ tih ziaktuin ruihhlo ngaihna laka invenna \ha leh him ber a tih kha sawi la, ruihhlo
ngaite rilru lam a khawih chhiat dan kha han sawi teh. 1+2=3

8. Mizoram siam \ha tura Mizo \halaiten kan tih ve theih ni a i hriat ‘=halaite khawvel’ in zirlai
behchhanin han sawi teh. 3

9. ‘Nun Kawng’ tih ziaktuin ‘hlawhchhamna rah bâk lo pha lo tur’ a tihte chu eng ang mite nge?
Malsawmna eng emaw dawng thei turin engtin nge kan tih ang? He thu ziaktuin malsawmna lo
thlen dan a sawi kha han sawi ve teh. 1+1+3=5

|HEN THUMNA – GRAMMAR (12 marks)

10. Kualkhung chhunga zawhna ang zel hian chhang rawh : 2×1=2

(a) Zorema chu an \hian zingah a _____ . (Superlative Degree hmangin dah khat rawh)

(b) Ka _____ kal rawh. (Postposition hmangin dah khat rawh)

11. (a) CHHIA tih thumal hi Adjective leh Adverb-a hmangin thu phuah nan hmang rawh. 1+1=2

(b) Auxiliary Verb hrilh fiah la, a tichiang turin thu phuah rawh. 1+1=2

HS/005 2 Contd.

HS/005
12. A dik ber thlang rawh : 2×1=2

(a) Khawvar lam arsi ang tih hi _____ sawina a ni. (tel ve ziah/arsi eng tak/ khat pharh)

(b) Inchen \hap hi \awng upain _____ a ni. (Arpui mei ang/kawi kawm thin ang/
tho thil ang)

13. A kar awlte hi \awngkam dik zawkin dah khat rawh : 2×1=2

(a) Rulin Lala a _____ a, damdawi in an panpui. (chu/ chuk)

(b) Isuan van ram _____ nan an\am chi a hmang. (tehkhin/ entir)

14. Mizo \awng ziak dan dik zawk thlang rawh : 2×1=2

(a) Kan _____ thil thlengin min tibuai \hin. (chheh v>l/ chhehv>l)

(b) Kan hmelmate hi tu nge va ____ang ? (en thla/ enthla)

|HEN LINA – LEMCHAN (6 marks)

15. Kualkhung chhunga a dik ber hmangin a kar ^wlte hi dah khat rawh : 3×1=3

(a) I mi hriat angin i _____ nih chu ka duh ber zawng a nih hi. (hmangaih/ thlir / ngaih)

(b) Lemchan thawnthua politician chu _____ a ni. (Liandawla/ Lalliana/ Lungliana)

(c) A _____ an thah mai ai chuan ka inseng deuh mai ang. (kidnaptuten/ mantuten/ hmututen)

16. Hrilmawii kha a engti lai nge ruk bo an tum ?Rothangliana leh a \hianten an ruk bo tak dan
kha han sawi teh. 1+2=3

|HEN NGANA – THAWNTHU TAWI (5 marks)

17. A kar ^wlte hi kualkhung chhunga a dik ber hmangin dah khat rawh : 2×1=2

(a) Hr^ngkunga chuan Sakei a hnuaichhiahzia entir nan _____ sakei lu-ah a vua a.
(tarpiluin/ keptuamin/ hmuithlurin)

(b) Ramhuai leh Tuihuai hnena inthawina hi _____ an ti. (Daib^wl/ Kel kh^l/ Mubuzial)

18. Engvangin nge =hakimi kha a ngaizawngtu nazawngin an rim ngam loh ? =hakimi pian
hmang leh lan dan kha sawi rawh. 1+2=3

HS/005 3 P.T.O.

HS/005
|HEN RUKNA – CHHIAR (5 marks)

19. A hnuaia thu hi ngun takin chhiar la, a thu behchhanin a tawpa zawhnate hi chhang ang che :

Harsatna su tlang peihlo chu mi engmah lo, engmah lo ai pawha tlaktlai lo zawk chu a ni.
Harsatna kan tawh hian, thlemna a tl<k bo hlen sam tak a ni r>ng a; mawhphurhna pumpelh
a, kawng awlsam lama dawihzep taka relhruk hi thil chakawm lo zawk zawk a ni lo.

Harsatna chhawr thei tur chuan mahni inthunun thei mi nih a ngai a. Mahni inthunun hi
kan dam chhunga thil hl< ber pakhat a ni ve ng>i mai. Mahni inthunun lo chu mi beidawng
leh mi hlawhcham an ni fo thin. Mi hlawhtling ni tur chuan mahni inhriat thiamna leh mahni
inthlir thiamna neih a ngai a ni.

Harsatna sutkian dan \ha tak chu tawrh hi a ni. Miin engpawh ti sela, tuar a huam loh
chuan hlawhtlin harsa a ti hle ang. Thil tiha hlawhtling zel thei tur chuan tuar a ngai a, dawhtheih
pawh a ngai a ni. Harsatna tuar hr^m hr^m a, vawi hnih khat hlawhchham hnu pawh a huaisen
taka bei nawn leh tute chu mi hlawhtling an lo ni a, lawmna an hmu zawk \hin. Mi tam tak chu
vanduaina a fiaha an awmin an tling zo \hin lova, an tlu leh mai thin. Hei hi dawihzep vang leh
zuau v^ng chauh a ni. Hetiang mite hian hlawhtlinna kawnga mi lo kal turte chu an d^l a, tih
\haihtute an lo ni \hin. Cho^kte’n hnang var kual an hmuha an thlawk bo thin ang hian, harsatna
su tlang ngam lova vanneihna kawnga mi lo mute an hmuh chuan bei hr^m hr^m tute pawh an
hnungtawlh mai thin. Nimahsela, harsatna su tlanga, hnehtu ropui rawn nite chu mi dangte tan
lawm tl^k, thîk tl^k, entawn tl^k leh zui tl^k an lo ni \hin.

Harsatna hi siamtu thil thlawn pek a nih avangin kan lawm tur a ni. Harsatna chhawr
thiamtute leh huai taka tawntute chu mi hlawhtling an ni fova, malsawmna an dawng bik \hin.
Nimahsela dawihzep vanga pumpelhna zawngtute chu mi hlawhchham an ni fo. Mihring zinga
chhiar tel tlak pawh an ni hek lo.

Zawhnate :

(a) Kan dam chhunga thil hlu ber pakhat chu _____ a ni. 1

(b) He thu ziaktuin, ‘Mihring zinga chhiar tel tlak pawh an ni lo’ a tih chu _____ te an ni. 1

(c) Thil tiha hlawhling zel thei tura thil pawimawh chu _____ a ni. 1

(d) Harsatna su tlang a, hnehtu ropui rawn nite chu eng ang mi nge an nih ? 2

HS/005 4 Contd.

HS/005
|HEN SARIHNA – ZIAK (8 marks)

20. A hnuaia thupui i duh zawk zawk hmang hian thumal 200-250 vel hmangin Essay han ziak teh : 5
(a) Khawtlang nun siam\hat.

(b) Hlawhtlinna.

21. Zoram chanchinbu January 15, 2025 chhuakah, School Education Department hnuaiah High
School zirtirtu Casual Teacher 20 lakna tur advertisement a chhuak a. He hna dilna hi
application ziak dan dik takin han ziak teh.

(I hming leh veng - Lalchhuansanga, Mualveng, Aizawl) 3

|HEN RIATNA – RAPID READER (8 marks)

22. Mihring hian eng hun lai hi nge titi tui ber leh sawi nin theih lohah kan hman \hin sawi la, Chala’n
Thangi a mutpui theih loh hnuah eng vangin nge a ngaihsan phah sauh zawk ? 1+1=2

23. Thlantlang an luh dawn khan rammuhote an hlawhtling a ni tih khuaa mite an hriattir dan sawi
la, Thlantlang khuaten an khaw tlangvalhote leh salte an lo hmuah dan kha sawi bawk rawh.
1+2=3

24. ‘Khawnglung run’ in zirlai behchhanin hmangaihna hlutzia leh rinawmna ropuizia han sawi
teh. 3

____________

HS/005 5

Total number of printed pages – 4 HS/012

2025
NEPALI
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
Figures in the margin indicate marks.
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Write your answers neatly and legibly.
(iii) While attempting a question, write the question number as given in the question paper.

1.

________ 1
________ 1
________ 1
________ 1
________ 1
1
2

P.T.O.

HS/012

2. 3×1=3

3. 3×1=3
________
________
________
4. 3

5. 2

6. 2

7. 2

HS/012 2 Contd.

HS/012
8.
6
10
10
5 15
9. 200 6

10. 6×1=6

11. 2×1=2
________
________
12. 2
13. 4

HS/012 3 P.T.O.

HS/012
4
14. 6
15. 3×1=3

16. 1
17. 2
18. 3
19. 4

20. 4
21. 4
22. 4

––––––––

HS/012 4 Contd.

Total number of printed pages – 5 HS/003
2025
SCIENCE
(Theory)
Full Marks - 70
Time - 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) All diagrams should be drawn neatly.
(iii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.
(iv) Figures in the margin indicate marks.

SECTION – A (PHYSICS) 24 Marks
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 5×1=5

(a) The unit of magnification is –

(i) metre (ii) metre–1

(iii) diopter (iv) None of these

(b) A person who suffers from both myopia and hypermetropia often requires –

(i) concave lens (ii) convex lens

(iii) bifocal lens (iv) None of these

(c) An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated at 110 V, the power
consumed will be –

(i) 100 W (ii) 75 W (iii) 50 W (iv) 25 W

(d) A safety device used for protecting the circuits due to short circuiting or overloading
of the circuits is a –

(i) Fuse (ii) Switch (iii) Solenoid (iv) Bulb

P.T.O.

HS/003
(e) Tidal energy can be harnessed by using –
(i) bridges (ii) roads (iii) pipes (iv) dams
2. What are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends ? 1
3. Name the type of energy possessed by the water stored in a dam. 1
4. Why is the normal eye unable to focus an object within the range of 10 cm from the eye ? 2
5. Define non-conventional sources of energy. Give two examples. 1+1=2
6. With the help of a ray diagram, determine the nature, size and position of the image formed
by a concave mirror when an object is placed between P and F. 1½+½+½+½=3
7. (a) A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the
lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens ? Also, find the
magnification produced by the lens. 3
OR
(b) Two lens of power – 3D and +2.5 D are placed in contact. Find the total power of
combination of lens. Calculate the focal length of this combination. 3
8. (a) (i) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its cross-sectional area ? 1
(ii) Why is tungsten used as a filament in electric bulb ? 2
OR
(b) Describe an experiment to show that the current carrying wire placed in a magnetic
field experiences a force. 3
9. (a) With the help of a circuit diagram, establish the relationship for the equivalent
resistance of three resistors connected in parallel. 1+3=4
OR
(b) What is magnetic field ? Write the important properties of the magnetic field lines.
1+3=4
SECTION – B (CHEMISTRY) 23 Marks
10. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 5×1=5
(a) Which of the following is not a halogen ?
(i) Cl (ii) Br (iii) F (iv) H

HS/003 2 Contd.

HS/003
(b) Oxidation is defined as –
(i) loss of electron (ii) gain of electron
(iii) loss of proton (iv) gain of proton
(c) Which one will not displace copper from copper sulphate ?
(i) Iron (ii) Zinc (iii) Aluminium (iv) Silver
(d) A student tests a sample of drinking water and reports its pH value as 6 at room
temperature. Which one of the following might have been added in water ?
(i) Washing soda (ii) Common salt
(iii) Baking soda (iv) Bleaching powder
(e) Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series ?
(i) CH4 (ii) C2H6 (iii) C3H8 (iv) C4H8
11. Sodium and Potassium are not found in free state in nature. Give one reason. 1
12. Hard water produces scum with soap. Why ? 1
13. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of
reaction.
Ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form solid ammonium chloride.
1+1=2
14. What is Isomerism ? Give example. 2
15. Write any two uses of Ethanoic acid. 2
16. (a) How can we observe redox reactions in our everyday life ? 1+1+1=3
OR
(b) State Mendeleev Periodic Law. What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating
his periodic table ? 1+2=3
17. (a) What is blue vitriol ? What happens when blue-vitriol is heated to dryness ? 1+2=3
OR

(b) What is aqua regia ? Give examples of metals that are dissolved in aqua regia. 2+1=3

HS/003 3 P.T.O.

HS/003
18. (a) Write four points of differences between an acid and a base. 4

OR

(b) What is chemical bond ? What are the two types of chemical bond ? 1+3=4

SECTION – C (BIOLOGY) 23 Marks

19. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 4×1=4

(a) The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic wastes in case of kidney failure
is called –

(i) artificial kidney (ii) dialysis

(iii) transplantation (iv) filtration

(b) The neurons that carry nerve impulse from spinal cord to effectors are called –

(i) sensory neurons (ii) motor neurons

(iii) interneurons (iv) spinal neurons

(c) What is the function of adrenal gland in the endocrine system ?

(i) to produce thyroxine (ii) to produce insulin

(iii) to produce adrenaline (iv) to produce estrogen

(d) Deforestation causes –

(i) soil erosion (ii) acid rain

(iii) pollution (iv) water logging

20. Where does fertilization occur in human females ? 1

21. How many chromosomes are present in human beings ? 1

22. What is the term given to describe an organism which produces only one type of gamete ? 1

HS/003 4 Contd.

HS/003
23. State two vital functions of human kidney. 2

24. What are vestigial organs ? Give an example. 1+1=2

25. Mention any two effects of UV radiation on humans. 2

26. (a) Describe the structure and function of larynx. 3

OR

(b) What is blood ? How is oxygen transported by blood from lungs to the tissue ? 1+2=3

27. (a) What is water harvesting ? Mention two benefits of water harvesting. 1+2=3

OR

(b) Mention any three outcomes of global warming. 3

28. (a) Describe the human female reproductive system with the help of a labelled diagram. 4

OR

(b) Explain the structure of neuron with the help of a labelled diagram. 4

____________

HS/003 5

Total number of printed pages – 6 HS/004

2025
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :
(i) Answer all the questions.
(ii) Write the number and sub-number of the question before attempting it.
(iii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
INDIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD – II
(24 marks)
1. Answer the following questions : 4×1=4
(a) Which Latin word is liberalism derived from ?
(b) What does Proto-Industrialisation mean ?
(c) Who were the leaders of the Khilafat Movement ?
(d) What is the full form of GATT ?
2. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 4×1=4
(a) Who were the forefront of Italy’s unification ?
(i) Tsar Alexander I and Tsar Nicholas I
(ii) Nepoleon and Mihaly Karolyi
(iii) Mazzini, Garibaldi and Cavour
(iv) Leopold, Otto von Bismarck and Adamantios Korais.
(b) Consider the following statements about the Civil Disobedience Movement –

A. The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the famous Dandi March.

B. Gandhiji had given an eleven point ultimatum to Irwin.

P.T.O.

HS/004
C. In Dharasana in Gujarat, Sarojini Naidu led the Salt Satyagraha.
D. On 5th March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was concluded.

Which of the following statements are true ?

(i) A and B (ii) B and C

(iii) B, C and D (iv) All of these

(c) Who created the first cotton spinning jenny ?

(i) Samuel Luke Fildes (ii) Bhai Bhosle

(iii) James Watt (iv) Richard Arkwright

(d) A common market is an extension of –

(i) Preferential tariff system

(ii) Free trade association

(iii) Globalisation

(iv) Custom union

3. Write any two benefits of globalisation. 2

4. Why did growth in the textile industry slow down in India between 1880 and 1905 ? 2

5. The Great Depression has severely affected the Indian trade. Do you agree ? Justify by

citing any two impacts on Indian trade. 2

6. Analyse the role of Bismarck in the history of Germany. 3

7. Write any three factors for the growth of nationalism in India. 3

8. (a) “Print revolution has played crucial role in transforming the lives of people.” Do you
agree with the statement ? Justify. 4

OR

(b) Elucidate how newspapers serve as the voice of people in your own words. 4

HS/004 2 Contd.

HS/004
INDIA – RESOURCES AND THEIR DEVELOPMENT (27 marks)

9. Answer the following questions : 5×1=5

(a) What are resources ?

(b) Define biodiversity.

(c) What is surface water ?

(d) Give one example of Agro-based industry.

(e) Mention one port along the west coast of India.

10. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 4×1=4

(a) ‘There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed.’ Who is related
with the above statement ?

(i) Jawaharlal Nehru (ii) Mahatma Gandhi

(iii) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (iv) Sunderlal Bahuguna

(b) How many nuclear power plants are there in India ?

(i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii) 5 (iv) 6

(c) The first cotton textile mill was started in Mumbai in the year –

(i) 1851 (ii) 1856 (iii) 1858 (iv) 1860

(d) Identify the correct statement –

(i) Metalled road is not suitable during the rainy season.

(ii) The first railway line in India was built between Bombay and Calcutta.

(iii) Roadways are most suitable for medium and short distances.

(iv) Airways is the cheapest means of travel.

11. How do developmental projects like laying new railway tracks or construction of roads deplete
the environment ? 2

12. Distinguish between Hydel power and Thermal power. 2

HS/004 3 P.T.O.

HS/004
13. What according to you is the most important mode of transportation ? Give reasons to support
your answer. 2

14. What is a multipurpose project ? State its two objectives. 1+2=3

15. (a) You wish to be a cultivator in Mizoram. Which crop would you choose to cultivate and
why ? Provide reasons to support your answer. 4

OR

(b) Distinguish between intensive and extensive Commercial farming. 4

16. Draw an outline map of India and insert the following : 2+½+½+½+½+½+½=5

(a) Nilgiri Hills (b) River Mahanadi

(c) Bengaluru (d) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport

(e) Sambhar Lake (f) Murlen National Park

DEMOCRATIC POLITICS – II (12 marks)

17. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 3×1=3

(a) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(i) Northern Ireland is divided into two major sects of Christianity.

(ii) In many places in India, girls are preferred over boys, and such preference leads
to killing the baby boy even before he was born.

(iii) People in Belgium speak both French and Dutch languages.

(iv) There was a fear that Belgium might split up.

(b) Democratic states emphasise :

(i) Economic equality (ii) Social equality

(iii) Political equality (iv) Citizen equality

HS/004 4 Contd.

HS/004
(c) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(i) Poverty in India stands as a major obstacle to the development of the country and
its people.

(ii) Democracy does not promote equality amongst citizens.
(iii) Dictatorship is a form of government in which absolute power is concentrated in
the hands of the people.
(iv) Democracy does not enhance the dignity and self respect of the people.
18. What is a political party ? 2
19. Examine the reasons why chronic poverty still persists in India. 3
20. (a) Why is decentralisation important for a country like India ? Justify your reasons to
support your answer. 4
OR
(b) Discuss the changes introduced by the Constitutional Amendment of 1993 to promote
decentralisation in India. 4
UNDERSTANDING ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT – II (12 marks)
21. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 3×1=3
(a) Which of the following sectors has emerged as the largest and fastest growing sector
over the years ?
(i) Primary (ii) Secondary
(iii) Tertiary (iv) Information technology
(b) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(i) Financial institutions accept deposits and provide credit.
(ii) Formal sector institutions are the financial institutions which exist in the
unorganised sector.
(iii) Money is used to measure the value of all goods and services.

(iv) The most important stage in the evolution of money is the paper money.

HS/004 5 P.T.O.

HS/004
(c) The MNCs have bought huge amount of –
(i) Foreign investment (ii) Foreign trade
(iii) Foreign demand (iv) Foreign supply
22. State two limitations of per capita income as an index of development. 2
23. Analyse the role of financial institutions in an economy. 3
24. (a) How are consumers exploited in the market ? Explain with any four points. 4

OR

(b) ‘Consumer awareness is essential to avoid exploitation in the market place’. Justify the
statement. 4

DISASTER MANAGEMENT (5 marks)

25. State one practical use of satellites in times of disaster. 1

26. State any two roles of Community in disaster management. 2

27. When you rescue a person from a damaged building, what two precautions should you take
when entering the building ? 2

______________

HS/004 6