RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 05 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 05 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 05/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 A force (F) of 10 N is applied on a body, causing it to move 5 m in the direction of the
force. The work done (W) is _____.
Ans A. 15 J

B. 2 J

C. 5 J

D. 50 J

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Q.2
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A car starts from rest and reaches a speed of 72 km/hr in 20 seconds. What is the
acceleration of the car?
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Ans A. 4 m/s²

B. 3 m/s²

C. 2 m/s²
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D. 1 m/s²

Q.3 Which of the following is a component of phloem tissue?
Ans A. Sieve tubes

B. Tracheids

C. Xylem fibres
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D. Vessels

Q.4
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Which of the following is/are true about the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?
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s e (i) The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the
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(ii) No two magnetic field lines can intersect each other. a
a Ans A. Neither (i) nor (ii)

B. Only (ii)

C. Both (i) and (ii)

D. Only (i)

Q.5 Where does fertilisation usually occur in the female reproductive system?
Ans A. Uterus

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B. Oviduct

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C. Cervix

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D. Vagina

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 The relationships of food chain, which can be shown as a series of branching lines is
called:
Ans A. World wide web

B. Food web

C. Spider web

D. Trophic level

Q.7 Seed dispersal is important for plants because it:
Ans A. prevents pollination

B. increases the size of seeds

C. prevents overcrowding and competition

D. ensures seed death after fertilisation

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT an example of action and reaction forces?
Ans A. The swimmer pushes the water backward with her hands

B. Foot pushes the ground backward and ground pushes the foot forward

C. A rocket moving upward due to gases expelled downward

D. When the bus stops suddenly, people fall forward

Q.9 According to Thomson’s model of an atom, which of the following statements best
describes the structure of the atom?
Ans A. The atom consists of a dense nucleus surrounded by electrons.

B. Electrons are embedded in a positively charged sphere.

C. Electrons revolve around a central nucleus in fixed orbits.

D. The atom contains only neutrons and electrons.

Q.10 A ball is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity (u). After time (t), its velocity (v)
becomes __________.
Ans A. v = gt−uv

B. v = u⋅gtv

C. v = u−gt

D. v = u+gt

Q.11 Which of the following statements best describes allotropes of carbon?
Ans A. They are different isotopes of carbon with varying numbers of neutrons.

B. They are different structural forms of carbon with different physical properties but similar chemical properties.

C. They are isomers of carbon, having the same molecular formula but different structures.

D. They are compounds formed by carbon with different elements.

Q.12 The pH of four different solutions are given in the options. Which of them will turn red
litmus blue?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 11

D. 6

Q.13 Which of the following industries uses sodium hydroxide for processing wood pulp?
Ans A. Textile Industry

B. Paper Industry

C. Food Industry

D. Soap Industry

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Q.14 In animals, sensitivity or responsiveness is mainly controlled by the:
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Ans A. digestive system

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D. respiratory system

Q.15 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air.

B. Sound waves are transverse and need a medium.

C. Sound can travel in vacuum because it is longitudinal.

D. Sound requires a medium to travel and is longitudinal.
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Q.16 Which statement DOES NOT relate to the versatile nature of carbon?.

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Ans A. It can have single, double, and triple bonds.

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B. It can bond ionically.

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C. It has catenation.

D. It is tetravalent.

Q.17 The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray of a prism is called:
Ans A. Angle of emergence

B. Angle of refraction

C. Angle of incidence

D. Angle of deviation

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Q.18
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What is the mass number of a neutral atom with 11 electrons, 11 protons and 12
neutrons?
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Ans A. 12

B. 22
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C. 11

D. 23

Q.19 What is the purpose of cross-breeding exotic and local cattle breeds?
Ans A. To reduce food requirements

B. To make animals smaller in size

C. To combine long lactation with disease resistance
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D. To make the animals more aggressive
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Q.20
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Which of the following functions is NOT associated with Golgi Complex?
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Ans A. It forms lysosomes that help in intracellular digestion.
g l a
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a C. It transports and secretes materials outside the cell.

D. It modifies and packages proteins received from the endoplasmic reticulum.

Q.21 The crystalline lens of the eye mainly helps in:
Ans A. Detecting colour of objects

B. Controlling the amount of light entering the eye

C. Sending signals to the brain
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D. Providing fine adjustment of focal length

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Q.22 What is the role of nitrogen gas in chip packets?
Ans A. It absorbs moisture

B. It prevents oxidation

C. It adds flavour

D. It adds crispiness

Q.23 Which of the following experimental observations provides the strongest evidence for
the existence of particles in matter?
Ans A. A drop of ink spreads evenly in water without stirring

B. Salt dissolves faster in warm water than in cold water

C. Water boils and produces steam

D. Ice melts into water when heated

Q.24 If a conductor has a resistance of 10 Ω and a potential difference of 5 V is applied
across it, what is the current flowing through it?
Ans A. 0.5 A

B. 2 A

C. 0.2 A

D. 5 A

Q.25 Which of the following is a safe sex method to help prevent the transmission of HIV
(human immunodeficiency virus)?
Ans A. Using condoms during sexual intercourse

B. Taking multivitamins regularly

C. Sharing needles carefully

D. Taking antibiotics after sex

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A. 222

B. 220

C. 225

D. 224

Q.27 If p : q : r = 13 : 5 : 14 and r : s = 42 : 3, then what is the value of p : q : r : s?5291
Ans A. 40:19:48:9

B. 39:15:42:3

C. 36:19:45:4

D. 41:22:45:8

Q.28 A vendor bought 100 dozens of bananas for ₹4,800 and sold them at 4 bananas for ₹20.
Find his gain percentage.
Ans A. 35%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 25%

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Q.29
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Ans A. 2
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B. 0.5

C. 4 ag
D. 1

Q.30 If 2a + b + c = 0 and 8a3 + b3 + c3 = kabc, then find the value of k2.
Ans A. 81

B. 49

C. 16

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D. 36
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Q.31
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A purse has ₹1 and ₹2 coins in the ratio 3 : 2. If the total amount of money is ₹70, how
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many coins are there in total?

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Ans A. 35
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B. 45

C. 40
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D. 50

Q.32 The average age of 20 students of a class is 29 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 30 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 52

B. 53
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C. 50

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D. 49
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Q.33
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A rectangular box without a lid is made of thin sheet metal. The box has a length of 60
cm, a breadth of 40 cm, and a height of 30 cm. Find the total area of the sheet metal
used to make the box and the cost of the sheet if 1 m² costs ₹50.
Ans A. ₹56

B. ₹42

C. ₹44

D. ₹60

Q.34 A motorist travels a total distance of 30 km in 50 minutes. He drives at a speed of x
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km/hr for the first 11 minutes, then at 2x km/hr for the next 25 minutes, and finally at x
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km/hr for the remaining part of the journey. Find the value of x.
Ans
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A. 24

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D. 27

Q.35 A number is increased by 15% and the resulting number is again increased by 10%.
What is the overall percentage increase in the number?
Ans A. 26.5%

B. 15%

C. 12.5%

D. 10%
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Q.36 Rahul is 5 years younger than his sister. After 3 years, the sum of their ages will be 35
years. Find Rahul's present age.
Ans A. 12 years

B. 18 years

C. 15 years

D. 14 years

Q.37 An amount of ₹4328 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A
and B, B and C, and C and D are in the ratios of 4 : 5, 4 : 5 and 6 : 7, respectively. The
share of A (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 804

B. 700

C. 724

D. 768

Q.38 A hemisphere has radius 3.5 cm. If total surface area of hemisphere is equal to the
surface area of a sphere, then what is the volume of the sphere?

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 If 20% of a number is added to 96, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 92

B. 102

C. 72

D. 82

Q.40 The marked price of an item is set at 49% above its cost price. If the merchant sells the
item at 16% below the marked price, his profit percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal
place) is:
Ans A. 25.2%

B. 28.8%

C. 26.3%

D. 29.1%

Q.41 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 6 and 10 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 5

B. 6

C. 15

D. 10

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Q.42 The income of Raman is ₹50,400. He saves 7.5% of his income. If his income increases
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by 26% and expenditure increases by 45%, then his savings will:

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Ans A. increase by ₹7,878
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B. decrease by ₹7,880

C. decrease by ₹7,875
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D. increase by ₹7,872

Q.43 Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 and 12 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 6
gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 30 minutes.
Find the capacity of the tank.7001
Ans A. 45 gallons

B. 25 gallons

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C. 30 gallons

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D. 40 gallons

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Q.44
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In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
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quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 40°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the
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difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 17°

B. 21°

C. 24°

D. 20°

Q.45 Which of the following numbers is the largest number between 4000 and 5000 that is
completely divisible by 42?
Ans A. 4446
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B. 4956

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C. 4032
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D. 4998
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Q.46
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If the ratio of two numbers is 8 : 7, and their HCF is 30, then their LCM is:2610
Ans A. 1687

B. 1662

C. 1717

D. 1680

Q.47 Smart Bazaar is offering 'Buy 14, Get 11 free' on household items. What is the net
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percentage discount being offered by the Smart Bazaar?
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Ans A. 45%

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Q.48 Two trains 285 metres and 235 metres long are running in the opposite direction with
speeds of 61 km/hr and 83 km/hr, resepectively. In how much time will the first train
cross the second?3631
Ans A. 13 seconds

B. 3 seconds

C. 16 seconds

D. 5 seconds
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Q.49

Ans A. 74.25 m

B. 77.75 m

C. 72.75 m

D. 79.25 m

Q.50 To buy furniture for a new apartment, Chang borrowed ₹50,000 at 16% per annum
simple interest for 18 months. How much interest will she pay?
Ans A. ₹11,000

B. ₹11,500

C. ₹12,000

D. ₹10,500

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(50, 1200, 12)
(4, 120, 15)
Ans A. (43, 2071, 24)

B. (39, 858, 11)

C. (12, 535, 22)

D. (36, 1087, 15)

Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. FL – IJ

B. MQ – PN

C. PJ – SH

D. LD – OB

Q.53 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 3 & 6 © 3 6 © € % 6 & 4 9 5 4 % € £ $ % 9 1 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

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Q.54 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-
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digit numbers only. (Counting to be done from left to right only)

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digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
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Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Q.55 Five people, L, M, N, O and P, are sitting in a row facing north. N is sitting at the third
position from the extreme right end of the row. M is not an immediate neighbour of N. P
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is sitting to the immediate left of N. P is sitting to the immediate right of O. Who is
sitting between N and M?
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Ans A. L

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B. P
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C. O
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D. N
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Q.56 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

KJL−NMO
LKM−ONP6445
Ans A. VTU−YXZ

B. VUW−XXY

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C. VTU−XWY

D. VUW−YXZ
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Q.57 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

28 + 11 − 3 ÷ 45 × 9 = ?
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Ans A. 9

B. 4

C. 14

D. 0

Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Some nut are bolt.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some nut are rivet.
(II) All rivet are bolt.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

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Q.59 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only one
person sits to the right of E. Only three people sit between G and E. Only three people
sit between A and D, neither of whom sits on the left end. F sits immediately to the right
of C. Only one person sits between A and B. Who sits second to the left of C?
Ans A. G

B. E

C. D

D. A

Q.60 GKPY is related to JFST in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, SQBE is related to VLEZ. To which of the following options is BBKP related,
following the same logic?10109
Ans A. EWKM

B. EKMI

C. EWNK

D. EKIO

Q.61 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 6 4 5 6 6 4 7 4 4 2 4 7 4 3 1 9 2 4 3 6 9 7 8 2 7 1 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Seven

Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

55 14 58 14 61 14 ?4432
Ans A. 65

B. 14

C. 62

D. 64

Q.63 Mohini starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards south. She then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 7 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 3 km.
She takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 8 km towards north

B. 4 km towards east

C. 4 km towards west

D. 7 km towards south

Q.64 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

KGD−AWT
FBY−VRO6443
Ans A. XSO−MIF

B. XSO−NJG

C. XTQ−NJG

D. XTQ−MJF

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Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘4139’ and ‘BRUT’ is coded as ‘4318’.
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What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?

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Ans A. 1
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B. 8

C. 3
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D. 4

Q.66 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

11 D 30 C 42 A 3 B 4 = ?
Ans A. 35

B. 38
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C. 37
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D. 39

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Q.67 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

6 B 44 A 3 D 21 C 44 = ?
Ans A. 111

B. 110

C. 113

D. 112

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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612 610 620 617 627 623 ?
Ans A. 637
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B. 633
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C. 631
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D. 635

Q.69 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

66 81 98 117 138 ?
Ans A. 151

B. 152

C. 161
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D. 159

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Q.70
mM, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
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l as O sits to the immediate right of P. Only three people sit between O and Y when counted
from the left of O. Only three people sit between P and N when counted from the left of
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ag P. W sits to the immediate right of M. How many people sit between X and M when
counted from the left of M?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four

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Q.71 Saurav starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 5 km to the north

B. 5 km to the south

C. 6 km to the south

D. 6 km to the north

Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All forks are kettles. Some forks are cups.

Conclusion (I): Some kettles are cups.
Conclusion (II): All cups are forks.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.73 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done
from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 7 9 1 8 4 2 5 6 3 8 7 1 9 (Right)

How many odd numbers are there (from left to right) which are immediately followed by
even numbers?
Ans A. Three

B. More than three

C. One

D. Two

Q.74 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only three boxes are kept below D. Only two boxes are kept between D and E. Only C is
kept immediately above A. F is kept at some place below B and at some place above G.
How many boxes are kept below G?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘1637’ and ‘DEMO’ is coded as ‘4176’.
What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 1

B. 4

C. 6

D. 7

Q.76 In a row of 32 people facing north, Anita is 8th from the left end. If Savita sits 9th to the
right of Anita, then what is Savita's position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 16th

B. 12th

C. 15th

D. 18th
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Q.77 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that

. co DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
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position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. RV – OX
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B. NR – PT

C. MQ – JS

D. UY – RA

Q.78 In a certain code language,

‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
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‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and

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‘A √ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.

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How is C related to L if ‘C ? D @ E = F √ L’?
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Ans A. Daughter
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B. Sister
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C. Mother's sister

D. Sister's daughter

Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
NSE MRD LQC KPB ?
Ans A. HOX

B. HNW

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C. IOW

D. JOA
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Q.80 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

IGP 3 KIO -10 MKN -23 OMM -36 ?
a
Ans A. QOL -49

B. OPL -45

C. POI -47

D. PLO -44

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81 Which Indian environmental activist was in the news for leading a youth movement in

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2025?
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Ans A. Medha Patkar
g l a
g l a B. Disha Ravi a
a C. Ridhima Pandey

D. Licypriya Kangujam

Q.82 Which shooter won the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025?
Ans A. Sarabjot Singh

B. Anish Bhanwala

C. Swapnil Kusale

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D. Manu Bhaker

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Q.83 Where was the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag (Indian Languages Section) launched by
Union Home Minister Amit Shah on 6 June 2025?
Ans A. Chennai

B. New Delhi

C. Hyderabad

D. Mumbai

Q.84 In the Asian Athletics Championships 2025, how many gold medals did India
secure?
Ans A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

Q.85 Which wildlife area has been recently recognised as India’s 107th national park?
Ans A. Buxa

B. Palamau

C. Similipal

D. Nagarhole

Q.86 As per the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India, from 1 August 2025, the trading
hours of market repo and Tri-Party Repo (TREP) were extended till what time?
Ans A. 4:00 PM

B. 7:00 PM

C. 6:00 PM

D. 5:00 PM

Q.87 Who became the first Indian boxer to win a gold medal at the World Boxing Cup in
2025?
Ans A. Amit Panghal

B. Hitesh Gulia

C. Abhinash Jamwal

D. Shiva Thapa

Q.88 Which of the following institutes was chosen by the Indian Council of Medical Research
(ICMR) in January 2025 to establish South India’s first Infectious Disease Research and
Diagnostic Laboratory (IRDL)?
Ans A. Kamineni Academy of Medical Sciences And Research Centre, Hyderabad

B. Sri Ramachandra Medical College and Research Institute, Chennai

C. Christian Medical College (CMC), Vellore

D. Bangalore Medical College and Research Institute (BMCRI)

Q.89 In which of the following places was the Indian Conservation Conference (ICCON) 2025,
India’s flagship biodiversity event, held in June 2025?
Ans A. Dehradun

B. Shimla

C. Raipur

D. Madurai

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.90 Which edition of International Conference on 'Arbitrating Indo-UK Commercial Disputes'
m
was organised by the Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA)during the London International

. co Disputes Week (LIDW) in June 2025?

s e m
m Ans A. 3rd
a
se B. 4th
ag l
C. 2nd

D. 5th

Q.91 In the 56th meeting of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) held from 4 to 6 August 2025,
real GDP growth for Q1 2026-27 was projected at:
Ans A. 6.8%

B. 6.6%

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C. 6.5%
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D. 6.3%

m s e
Q.92
s e
What major international goal does the High Seas Treaty aim to advance once in force?
l a
Ans
l a
A. Restrict commercial shipping lanes
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B. Establish a global fisheries quota

C. Create marine protected areas

D. Ban deep‑sea mining

Q.93 Anurag Kashyap's upcoming bilingual action-thriller Dacoit features which actor
alongside Mrunal Thakur?
Ans A. Dulquer Salmaan

m
B. Adivi Sesh

C. Prithviraj Sukumaran

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D. Fahadh Faasil
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g la
a
Q.94 Who among the following won the 2025 Pritzker Architecture Prize awarded in May
2025?
Ans A. Shigeru Ban

B. Liu Jiakun

C. Jeanne Gang

D. David Chipperfield

Q.95 What is the name of the new digital platform being developed by the Election
Commission of India (ECI) in 2025?
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Ans A. ElectionLink

m.co B. ECINET

s e m
s e C. VoterHub

g l a
g l a D. ECI Connect
a
a Q.96 What is the purpose of the new Global Innovation Hub 'District I' launched in Bengaluru
Airport City?
Ans A. Military Drone Development

B. Space mission and control Centre

C. Retail and e-commerce incubation

D. Deep-tech entrepreneurship and AI innovation

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 49

Q.97 Which of the following portals was launched in Punjab in June 2025 that has helped
digitise land records and curb corruption in registry services?
Ans A. Easy Jamabandi Portal

B. Punjab Land Records System

C. Punjab Bhulekh Portal

D. Digital Registry Punjab

Q.98 Which of the following institutes that was launched in May 2025 developed the Bharat
Forecast System to give sharper rain alerts?
Ans A. National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting

B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology

C. Indian Institute of Science

D. India Meteorological Department

Q.99 Which legend won the Laureus Lifetime Achievement Award 2025?
Ans A. Usain Bolt

B. Rafael Nadal

C. Serena Williams

D. Kelly Slater

Q.100 What is the total plantation budget for afforestation schemes in the financial year 2025?
Ans A. ₹756 Crores

B. ₹300 Crores

C. ₹684 Crores

D. ₹910 Crores

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 05/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 The wavering of objects seen through a turbulent hot air stream is an example of:
Ans A. dispersion of light

B. internal reflection in air layers

C. diffraction in air

D. small-scale atmospheric refraction

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Q.2 Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction are correct?

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I. A substance is said to be oxidised if it gains oxygen or loses hydrogen.

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II. A substance is reduced if it loses oxygen or gains hydrogen.
III. In every redox reaction, both oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously.
Ans A. II and III only
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B. I and III only

C. I and II only

D. I, II, and III

Q.3 If 0.2 A current flows through a wire when the potential difference across it is 2 V, what
is the resistance of the wire?

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Ans A. 4 Ω

mB. 10 Ω
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m.co C. 0.1 Ω
s e m
s e D. 1 Ω
g l a
g l a a
a Q.4
Ans
Which of the following statements about nervous tissue is correct?
A. Nervous tissue is made up of muscle fibres responsible for movement.

B. Nervous tissue is composed of epithelial cells that form protective layers.

C. Nervous tissue consists of neurons and is found in the brain, spinal cord and nerves

D. Nervous tissue is responsible for voluntary movement and is attached to bones.

Q.5 What happens when an unbalanced force acts on an object?
Ans
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A. The object always moves in a circular path
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B. The object remains at rest permanently

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C. The object moves without any acceleration
s l a
l a
D. There is a change in the object’s speed or direction of motion
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.6 Which of the following does NOT involve oxidation reaction?
Ans A. Dissolution of salt in water

B. Burning of wood

C. Electrolysis of water

D. Rusting of iron

Q.7 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The formula unit mass of CaCl2 is 111 u.
B) The formula unit mass is calculated in the same manner as we calculate the
molecular mass.
C) The formula unit mass is calculated in a manner that is different to how we calculate
the molecular mass.
Ans A. Only A and B

B. Only A

C. Only C

D. Only B and C

Q.8 In a concave mirror, a ray of light directed towards the principal focus after reflection:
Ans A. Becomes parallel to the principal axis

B. Passes through the center of curvature

C. Retraces its path

D. Diverges away from the axis

Q.9 Which of the following statements is correct about reproduction in plants?
Ans A. Spores need fusion with another spore to produce new offspring.

B. Spores are produced only during sexual reproduction.

C. Spores can alone produce new offspring.

D. Gametes can alone produce new offspring.

Q.10 Which of the following is the fluid content inside the plasma membrane?
Ans A. Cell wall

B. Cytoplasm

C. Nuclear membrane

D. Ribosomes

Q.11 A compass needle placed near a current-carrying conductor shows deflection because:
Ans A. Current produces heat

B. Current produces sound

C. Current produces magnetic field

D. Current produces electric field

Q.12 Through the phenomenon of biological magnification, which of the following has the
maximum concentration of pesticides in them?
Ans A. Grass

B. Frog

C. Snake

D. Grasshopper

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.13 Which of the following is an example of natural ecosystem?
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Ans A. Fish aquarium

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B. Forests

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C. Kitchen garden

D. Hydroponics

Q.14 Which of the following is a psychological change associated with sexual maturity?
Ans A. Increased physical activity

B. Hair growth on skin

C. Desire of independence and mood swings

D. Development of brain
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m .co
.co m
Q.15 Which of the following statements is true about mass?

m s e
a
Ans A. Mass and weight are exactly the same

s e l
a ag
B. Mass depends on the location of the body
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C. Mass is a measure of inertia of a body

D. Mass is a measure of the force acting on a body

Q.16 If a constant force of 10 N moves an object 5 m in the same direction as the force, the
work done is:
Ans A. 5 J

B. 50 J

C. 2 J
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D. 15 J

e m
Q.17 Select the correct example of a crystalline solid.

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g
Ans A. All salt, sugar and sand

B. Only salt a
C. Only sand

D. Both sugar and salt

Q.18 Why is the gravitational force considered a weak force in everyday terrestrial
interactions, such as between you and a friend sitting nearby?
Ans A. Because the force is only experienced when the objects are in free fall.

B. Because the distance between the objects is negligibly small.
m
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C. Because the mass of human objects is much greater than the Earth's mass.

e m
e m l as
D. Because the force is only significant when large masses (like planets or celestial bodies) are involved.

l asQ.19 What happens to the inter-particle space when a solid melts into a liquid?
ag
ag Ans A. It remains the same

B. It increases

C. It becomes zero

D. It decreases

Q.20 What is the primary function of epithelial tissue?
Ans A. Protection

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B. Control

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C. Support

e m l as
D. Movement

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 49

Q.21 What is the minimum time gap needed between the original sound and its echo for us
to hear a clear echo?
Ans A. 0.01 seconds

B. 1 second

C. 0.1 seconds

D. 10 seconds

Q.22 The anion formed by which of the following non-metals reacts with Ca2+ ion to form a
stable ionic compound?
Ans A. Boron

B. Carbon

C. Oxygen

D. Nitrogen

Q.23 Which of the following is a T-shaped intra-uterine contraceptive device that offers long-
term (multi-year) birth control?
Ans A. Copper-T

B. Male condom

C. Birth control pill

D. Diaphragm

Q.24 (CH₃)₃-C-CH₃ represents the structural formula of which of the following organic
compounds?
Ans A. 3-methyl butane

B. 2,2-dimethyl propane

C. 2,3-dimethyl propane

D. methyl butane

Q.25 Which of the following products is formed on complete combustion of hydrocarbons?
Ans A. CO₂ and water

B. CO and water

C. Methane and hydrogen

D. Methane and oxygen

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Isha buys a gold ring for her mother. The gold ring is marked at ₹50,000, and two
successive discounts of 30% and R%, respectively, are given. After getting the two
successive discounts, she paid ₹14,000. Find the value of R.
Ans A. 62

B. 58

C. 59

D. 60

Q.27 The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 66% and that of the TV decreases by 57%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 7 washing machines and 5 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 8%

B. Decrease by 1%

C. Decrease by 7%

D. Increase by 6%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.28
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6777

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Ans A. 28
s e m
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B. 24

C. 22
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D. 26

Q.29 The sum of three numbers is 2316. If the ratio between the first and second numbers is
16 : 10 and that of between second and third is 6 : 18, then find the difference between
the first and the third number.
Ans A. 547

B. 597

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C. 579
m
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D. 574

m s e
s e l a
ag
Q.30 What is the average speed of a bike, which covers half the distance with a speed of 42

l a
km/hr and the other half with a speed of 84 km/hr?
Ans A. 56 km/hr

B. 57 km/hr
ag
C. 47 km/hr

D. 63 km/hr

Q.31 DMART is offering 'Buy 30, get 21 free' on grocery items. What is the net percentage
discount being offered by the DMART? (Corrected up to two decimal places)
Ans A. 44.15%
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B. 39.7%

C. 41.18%
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D. 42.01%
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Q.32 ag
Two numbers add up to 98. If twice the smaller number minus the bigger number equals
28, find the smaller number.
Ans A. 48

B. 42

C. 36

D. 56

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Q.33 The sides of a triangle are 45 cm, 28 cm, and 53 cm. What is its area (in cm2)?

m
.co m
Ans A. 603

m B. 624
s e
s e g l a
g l a C. 630
a
a D. 623

Q.34 Ajay and Shanu together have ₹1,050. If ₹350 is taken from Ajay, he will have the same
amount that Shanu had initially. Find the initial ratio of the amounts with Ajay and
Shanu.
Ans A. 3 : 2

B. 4 : 3

C. 5 : 4

D. 2 : 1
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 49

Q.35

3173
Ans A. 13 minutes

B. 5 minutes

C. 12 minutes

D. 15 minutes

Q.36 The sum of ages of three brothers is 52 years. The eldest is 4 years older than the
middle brother, and the middle brother is 6 years older than the youngest. Find the age
of the eldest brother.
Ans A. 24 years

B. 22 years

C. 18 years

D. 14 years

Q.37 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 36°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 2 : 7, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 45°

B. 39°

C. 43°

D. 40°

Q.38 A product was sold for ₹980, resulting in a loss of ₹150. To earn a profit of ₹270 instead,
what should be its revised selling price?
Ans A. ₹1,430

B. ₹1,400

C. ₹1,100

D. ₹1,130

Q.39 A regular hexagonal tile has a side length of 6 cm. The tile is divided into 6 equilateral
triangles by drawing lines from the centre to each vertex. If 3 alternate triangles are
painted blue, what is the total blue painted area (rounded off to two decimal places)?
Ans A. 47.27 cm2

B. 46.77 cm2

C. 45.27 cm2

D. 44.77 cm2

Q.40 A sum of money was invested at simple interest at a certain rate for 10 years. Had it
been invested at a 6% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched ₹5,700 more. Find
the principal.
Ans A. ₹8,500

B. ₹9,500

C. ₹9,000

D. ₹10,000

Q.41 Find the value of sin2 45° + cos2 45°.
Ans A.

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 2
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.42 If a + b = 8 and ab = 12, calculate the value of a2 + b2.
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Ans A. 35

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B. 40

C. 30
ag
D. 45

Q.43 The population of a village increased by 5% in 2023 and was expected to increase again
by 6% in 2024. Find the overall percentage increase in the population of the village over
the two years.
Ans A. 11.3%

B. 11.13%

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C. 12.2%

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D. 14.22%

m s e
Q.44
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Nick, Kevin, and Joe can finish a certain piece of work in 10, 47, and 24 days,
l a
a ag
respectively. All three of them started the work together. Nick left the work after 2 days
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and Kevin left just 5 days before the work was completed. Find the total number of days
taken for the work to be completed.
Ans A. 19.8

B. 14.4

C. 18.9

D. 12.5

Q.45 If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same
number is:
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Ans A. 84

B. 114
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C. 94
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D. 104
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Q.46 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 105?
Ans A. 4515

B. 4525

C. 4675

D. 4845

m
m .co
Q.47 One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled

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tank in 18 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
e m
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Ans m A. 18
l as
l as B. 19
ag
ag C. 10

D. 9

Q.48 The arithmetic mean of the observations 39, 91, 32, 73, 84, 18, 83, 83 and 28 is:
Ans A. 51

B. 50

C. 59

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D. 62

e m
e m l as
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 49

Q.49 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 6?
Ans A. 7993043

B. 6348681

C. 7699504

D. 7132950

Q.50 If 5u+v = 625 and 625u-v = 5, then the value of u is:
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
7P25 10Q20 ? 16S10 19T5
Ans A. 14R15

B. 15R13

C. 13R15

D. 16R15

Q.52 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

131 − 7 ÷ 32 + 362 × 2 = ?
Ans A. 766

B. 768

C. 767

D. 765

Q.53 In a certain code language, ‘desk round mom’ is coded as 'md ei wx' and ‘mom wheat
bell’ is coded as ‘um ac ei’. How is ‘mom’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. md

B. ei

C. wx

D. um

Q.54 Six cadets, Ram, Shyam, Ravi, John, Noel and Rohan, are standing around a round
flag-hoisting pole, facing towards the centre. Noel is the immediate neighbour of Ram
and Rohan. John is third to the left of Ram. Ravi and Shyam are sitting next to each
other. John is a neighbour of both Shyam and Rohan. Who amongst the following is
sitting between Ram and Shyam, when counted from the left of Shyam?
Ans A. Rohan

B. Ravi

C. Ram

D. Noel

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.55 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
m
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to be done from left to right only.

. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
e m
m as
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(Left) 4 1 8 7 1 5 3 4 2 9 7 3 9 1 9 4 4 4 9 2 9 2 9 8 1 4 9 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an ag
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

Q.56 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
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(Left) 582 128 563 183 592 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
em
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NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

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as
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
l ag
ag
digit of the lowest number?2432
Ans A. 7

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q.57 Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K, and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only I is kept above L. Only three boxes are kept between I and B. Only K is
kept below C. D is kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between J and
m
.co
K?
Ans A. Four

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B. Three

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C. Two

D. One ag
Q.58 Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept between J and B. Only K is kept above I. Only two
boxes are kept between K and J. C is kept at some place below L but at some place
above D. How many boxes are kept between C and L?7083
Ans A. Two

B. Four

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C. One

m
.co m
D. Three

m s e
s e
Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
g l a
g l a alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels a
a Ans
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A. KNP

B. DHI

C. UXZ

D. EHJ

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 1 2 6 24 120 ?
Ans A. 720

B. 160

C. 300

D. 520

Q.61 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) 5 7 9 4 2 1 4 7 9 3 2 6 8 5 4 1 9 5 4 3 2 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?4105
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q.62 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All ostriches are eagles. No ostrich is a peacock.

Conclusion (I): No eagle is a peacock.
Conclusion (II): Some peacocks are ostriches.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

CMN KUV SCD AKL ?
Ans A. IST

B. ISD

C. IDE

D. STI

Q.64 Each of the digits in the number 2365987 is arranged in descending order from right to
left. Calculate the sum of the digits whose position(s) remain(s) unchanged as
compared to that in the original number.
Ans A. 9

B. 13

C. 14

D. 12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.65 In a certain code language,
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P # Q means ‘P is the father of Q’,

. P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’,
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P @ Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’ and
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P & Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.

Ans
Based on the above, how is G related to J if ‘G @ D # B @ K # J’?
A. Husband's sister ag
B. Father's mother

C. Father's sister

D. Mother's mother

Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
m
Statements:
All figs are bananas.
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All cups are bananas.
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l a ag
ag
Conclusions:
(I) Some figs are cups.
(II) All cups are figs.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.67
m
DI 2 is related to UZ 8 in a certain way. In the same way, MR 4 is related to DI 64. To

.co
which of the given options is OT 3 related, following the same logic?

m
Ans A. NW 21

s e
la
B. GK 16

C. LE 18

D. FK 27
ag
Q.68 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 3 1 6 9 6 2 1 5 8 5 3 3 8 2 6 1 7 3 7 8 7 4 9 1 5 7 4 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
m
Ans
mA. One
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m .co B. More than three
s e m
s e C. Three
g l a
g l a D. Two
a
a Q.69 TP 16 is related to LH 8 in a certain way. In the same way, PL 18 is related to HD 9. To
which of the given options is LH 12 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. DZ 6

B. EL 8

C. PW 6

D. LS 6

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.70 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. WZA

B. TWX

C. KOO

D. ILM

Q.71 Juhi starts from point A and drives 57 km towards the North. She then takes a right
turn, drives 58 km, turns right and drives 61 km. She then takes a right turn and drives
60 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 2 km to the east

B. 3 km to the west

C. 1 km to the east

D. 4 km to the west

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

87 75 63 51 39 ?
Ans A. 27

B. 25

C. 26

D. 24

Q.73 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second
to the right of D. C is the immediate neighbour of A and B. E sits to the immediate right
of G. How many people sit between F and B when counted from the left of F?
Ans A. Two

B. Five

C. Four

D. Three

Q.74 RBUL is related to VXYH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, ZTCD is related to DPGZ. To which of the given options is HLKV related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. KGPS

B. LHOR

C. MINQ

D. LIPS

Q.75 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(13, 39, 3)
(15, 75, 5)548
Ans A. (12 , 36 , 3)

B. (10, 35, 3)

C. (64, 8, 4)

D. (5, 25, 15)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.76 In a certain code language, ‘soup hat honey’ is coded as ‘vc iw dp’ and ‘honey wall yak’
m
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is coded as ‘ar hw iw’. How is ‘honey’ coded in the given language?17254

. e m
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Ans A. dp
m a
se B. vc

C. ar ag l
D. iw

Q.77 If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘-’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

96 H 12 G 2 E 15 F 9 = ?
Ans A. 26

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B. 24

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C. 20

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D. 22

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Q.78
l as
A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. A
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sits third to the left of R. B sits second to the left of C. R is the immediate neighbour of
both U and B. T is not an immediate neighbour of A. How many people sit between S
and B when counted from the right of S?
Ans A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
1 9 25 ? 81
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Ans A. 30
s e
B. 49
g la
C. 36 a
D. 64

Q.80 Sahana starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards west. She then takes a left
turn, drives 8 km, turns left and drives 2 km. She then takes a left turn and drives
4 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach
Point A again?
m
m
(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
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Ans

m .co A. 4 km towards south
s e m
s e B. 6 km towards west

g l a
g l a C. 4 km towards north
a
a D. 7 km towards north

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which Indian state released a draft child protection policy on 1 April 2025 inviting
public feedback on implementation across institutions?
Ans A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

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C. Rajasthan

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D. Kerala
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.82 The 2025 World Judo Championships, held in June 2025, took place at which location?
Ans A. Baku, Azerbaijan

B. Budapest, Hungary

C. Tokyo, Japan

D. Doha, Qatar

Q.83 As per the Govt. of India's report in July 2025, which of the following states processed
the highest quantity of e-waste during 2024-25?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Gujarat

Q.84 Which Indian cricketer was among the recipients of the Padma Shri in 2025?
Ans A. Ravichandran Ashwin

B. Virat Kohli

C. KL Rahul

D. Rohit Sharma

Q.85 How many years had Narendra Modi completed as Prime Minister of India by May 2025?
Ans A. Eight

B. Fifteen

C. Eleven

D. Ten

Q.86 The Indian who won the United Nations Sasakawa Award 2025 for Disaster Risk
Reduction is popularly known as?
Ans A. Storm Tracker

B. Rain Man of India

C. Cyclone Man of India

D. Climate Champion

Q.87 Which city in India hosted the inaugural ASEAN–India Cruise Dialogue on 1 July 2025?
Ans A. Mumbai

B. Visakhapatnam

C. Pondicherry

D. Chennai

Q.88 Which of the following insurance companies launched the ‘SheTARA’ health campaign
on International Women’s Day, 2025?
Ans A. United India Insurance Company

B. ICICI Lombard General Insurance

C. Star Health and Allied Insurance

D. HDFC ERGO General Insurance

Q.89 Who won the Men’s Singles title at the 2025 Australian Open?
Ans A. Carlos Alcaraz

B. Jannik Sinner

C. Daniil Medvedev

D. Novak Djokovic

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.90 In July 2025, who inaugurated the 'Mahila Aarogyam Kaksh' to promote women’s health
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at Shastri Bhawan?

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Ans A. Arjun Ram Meghwal
m a
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C. Rajeev Chandrasekhar ag l
D. Nirmala Sitharaman

Q.91 Which of the following institutions launched WhatsApp Channel for verified financial
updates in April 2025?
Ans A. Indian Bank

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. Punjab National Bank
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m .co
.co
D. State Bank of India

em
Q.92
e m
In May 2025, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) released the Human
l as
s
Development Index (HDI), 2024, report. What was India's rank in the HDI list?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 130th

B. 132nd

C. 143rd

D. 134th

Q.93 What was India’s position in the 2025 Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?
Ans A. 11th

B. 13th
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C. 10th

D. 7th
e m
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Q.94
g
Which technology was used in 2025 to create the latest lab-grown human lung
microtissues?
a
Ans A. Quantum protein folding simulation

B. CRISPR editing

C. AI-driven organoid modeling

D. 3D bioprinting with stem cells

Q.95 The Indian Prime Minister launched a scheme with a budgetary allocation of ₹11,440
crore for the period 2025–26 to 2030–31 on 11 October 2025, named ______.
m
Ans
m
A. PM Fasal Bima Yojana
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m .co B. PM Krishi Sinchai Yojana
s e m
s e C. Mission for Cotton Productivity
g l a
g l a D. Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses
a
a Q.96 Which agency launched Bharatpol in January 2025, to streamline real-time Interpol
communication for Indian agencies?
Ans A. NITI Ayog

B. Central Vigilance Commission

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Central Bureau of Investigation

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.97 Which Indian gymnast made history at the FIG Apparatus World Cup 2025 by winning a
bronze medal?
Ans A. Dipa Karmakar

B. Pranati Nayak

C. Aruna Reddy

D. Meghna Reddy

Q.98 Which country was elected the President of the African‑Asian Rural Development
Organization (AARDO) for 2025–27?
Ans A. Ghana

B. India

C. Singapore

D. Malaysia

Q.99 Which country hosted the G20 Foreign Ministers' Meeting in March 2025?
Ans A. Germany

B. India

C. Italy

D. South Africa

Q.100 The IRIS chip developed by Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras and ISRO is
based on which indigenous microprocessor architecture?
Ans A. ARM Cortex

B. MIPS

C. Intel x86

D. SHAKTI

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 05/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Detergents can work in which of the following?
Ans A. Only hot water

B. Only soft water

C. Only distilled water

D. Both hard and soft water

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Q.2 A concave mirror forms an image at a distance of 20 cm when an object is placed 10 cm
in front of it. What is the focal length of this mirror?

e m
Ans A. 20 cm

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B. 40 cm

C. 10 cm ag
D. 30 cm

Q.3 Which of the following reproductive method will generate greater diversity in
population?
Ans A. Binary fission

B. Sexual reproduction

C. Fragmentation
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D. Budding

e m
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Q.4 mWhy is the plasma membrane called selectively permeable?
l as
l as Ans A. It blocks all substances from entering.
ag
ag B. It dissolves unwanted materials.

C. It allows only certain substances to pass in or out.

D. It allows all substances to pass freely.

Q.5 When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate, which of the
following observations is correct?
Ans A. Formation of hydrogen gas with a pop sound

B. Formation of brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide
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C. Formation of a salt and water only

m s e m
e
D. Rapid evolution of a colourless gas that turns lime water milky
s l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Q.6 Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and select the correct option.

(A): Mendel chose pea plants for his experiments because they were easy to grow and
showed distinct contrasting traits.
(R): Pea plants reproduce asexually, allowing Mendel to control crosses easily.
Ans A. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q.7 Which of the following methods is an example of asexual reproduction in plants?
Ans A. Fertilisation

B. Vegetative propagation

C. Pollination

D. Germination

Q.8 Suspensions are different from solutions because:
Ans A. Their solute is fully dissolved

B. Their particles do not settle on standing

C. They can be seen by naked eyes

D. They are transparent

Q.9 Providing water to crops at optimal times during their growth cycle directly contributes
to what outcome?
Ans A. Decreased nutrient uptake

B. Higher expected yields

C. Increased vulnerability to pests

D. Delayed maturation

Q.10 If the direction of current in a conductor is reversed, the direction of force on it will:
Ans A. reverse

B. remain the same

C. double

D. become zero

Q.11 Which of the following observations could NOT be explained by Rutherford’s model of
the atom?
Ans A. The stability of the atom despite the presence of accelerating electrons

B. The deflection of alpha particles at large angles

C. The distribution of electrons around the nucleus

D. The presence of a positively charged nucleus in the atom

Q.12 If the speed of a wave is 300 m/s and its wavelength is 0.75 m, the frequency of the
wave is _________.
Ans A. 75 Hz

B. 225 Hz

C. 300 Hz

D. 400 Hz

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a method of irrigation?
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Ans A. River lift systems

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m a
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B. Wells

g l
C. Canals

D. Check dams
a
Q.14 An electric bulb is rated 110 Watt – 220 Volt. The current drawn by the bulb is:
Ans A. 2 A

B. 24,200 A

C. 20 A

D. 0.5 A
m
m .co
.co em
Q.15 If an object moves from point A to point B (50 m east) and returns to point A in 10

e m
seconds, its average velocity is:

l as
Ans A. 10 m/s

l as ag
ag
B. 5 m/s

C. –10 m/s

D. 0 m/s

Q.16 The gas released on the reaction of metal carbonate with hydrochloric acid turns lime
water milky. The released gas is:
Ans A. Carbon monoxide

B. Carbon dioxide

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C. Chlorine

D. Hydrogen

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Q.17
las
What is the IUPAC name for an organic compound with two carbon atoms and a

Ans
hydroxyl (−OH) functional group?
A. Ethanoic acid ag
B. Propanone

C. Methanal

D. Ethanol

Q.18 Which of the following expressions is representing the correct lens formula?
Ans A. 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
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m
B. 1/v + 1/u = f
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m .co C. 1/v – 1/u = f
s e m
s e D. 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
g l a
g l a a
a Q.19 Which of the following statements are correct about molecular mass?

Statement 1: The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all
the atoms in a molecule of the substance.
Statement 2: It is also known as the relative mass of a molecule.
Statement 3: It is expressed in atomic mass units (u).
Ans A. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

B. Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

C. Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

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D. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.20 Why do we experience muscle cramps after heavy exercise?
Ans A. Because blood flow completely stops during exercise

B. Due to a decrease in body temperature

C. Because muscles stop contracting

D. Due to accumulation of lactic acid

Q.21 Which statement correctly represents the location of the meristematic tissue in a plant
body?
Ans A. All over the plant body

B. At the base of the stem

C. At the tips of the leaves

D. At some specific regions

Q.22 A 1000 kg car moving at 10 m/s is brought to rest by a constant braking force in 5 s.
What is the magnitude of the force?
Ans A. 1500 N

B. 2500 N

C. 2000 N

D. 3000N

Q.23 A man lifts a stone of mass 22 kg through a vertical height of 4 m. Calculate the work
done. (Take g = 10 m/s²)
Ans A. 400 J

B. 880 J

C. 55 J

D. 220 J

Q.24 When an empty plastic bottle with an airtight stopper is pushed deeper into a bucket of
water, the increasing upward force that resists the downward push is known as
___________.
Ans A. surface tension

B. buoyant force (or upthrust)

C. gravitational force

D. atmospheric pressure

Q.25 The nature of the bond formed in aliphatic carbon compounds is:
Ans A. hydrogen

B. coordinate

C. ionic

D. covalent

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The perimeter of a rectangle is 54 cm. Its length is 3 cm more than twice the breadth.
Find the breadth.
Ans A. 6 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 9 cm

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.27 Divide ₹8,118 between Ravina and Sarita in the ratio 3 : 15, then find the share of
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Sarita.5293

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Ans A. ₹6,763
m a
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C. ₹6,768 ag l
D. ₹6,767

Q.28 A garrison of 1200 men has provisions for 12 days. How long (in days) will the
provisions last if the garrison be increased by 600 men?
Ans A. 8

B. 18

C. 3
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D. 28

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Q.29
e m
A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 87
l as
pages?2688

l as ag
ag
Ans A. 1730

B. 1740

C. 1750

D. 1745

Q.30 The sides of a triangle are 85 cm, 13 cm, and 84 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with a length of 13 cm?
Ans A. 84 cm

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B. 55 cm

C. 126 cm

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D. 101 cm

las
Q.31
ag
If a 2622 m long train crosses a pole in 57 seconds, then find the time (in seconds)
taken by the train to cross a 736 m long platform.
Ans A. 63

B. 73

C. 74

D. 83

Q.32 After selling an article at a discount of 44%, the profit percentage obtained is 12%. What
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is the markup percentage?
m
.co m
Ans A. 97%

m s e
a
B. 102%

s e g l
g l a C. 101%
a
a D. 100%

Q.33

Ans A. 39 cm

B. 45 cm

C. 53 cm

D. 40 cm

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.34 A can complete a piece of work in 90 days. B is 75% less efficient than A. C is 80% more
efficient than B. If B and C work together for 30 days, A alone will complete the
remaining work in:
Ans A. 68 days

B. 69 days

C. 73 days

D. 71 days

Q.35 Akshat and Neha together invested ₹57,000 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹8,000, Akshat's share was ₹2,200. How much was Akshat's investment?
Ans A. ₹15,675

B. ₹17,445

C. ₹15,355

D. ₹16,645

Q.36 One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 36 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 12

B. 7

C. 6

D. 13

Q.37 Bharat buys a gold ring for his mother. The ring is marked at ₹96,000 and is offered with
two successive discounts of 25% and Q%, respectively. After receiving both discounts,
he pays ₹18,000. Find the value of Q.
Ans A. 77

B. 76

C. 75

D. 74

Q.38 The arithmetic mean of the observations 53, 63, 79, 40, 34, 88, 34, 25 and 25 is:
Ans A. 42

B. 44

C. 50

D. 49

Q.39 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Chetan
borrowed an amount of ₹2,00,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Chetan after 3 years.
Ans A. 25,500

B. 25,000

C. 24,000

D. 23,500

Q.40 A solid metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast into smaller spherical balls,
each of radius 3 cm. Find the number of such small balls formed.
Ans A. 24

B. 27

C. 21

D. 32

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.41 The cost of a washing machine is 16% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
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washing machine increases by 80% and that of the TV decreases by 44%, then what is

. the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. Increase by 40%

g l
B. Increase by 43%

C. Decrease by 37%
a
D. Decrease by 38%

Q.42 Find the median of the given data, if the cumulative frequency is 45.
Class Interval 1-11 11-21 21-31 31-41
Frequency 10 11 X 11
Ans

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A.

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B.

m.co s em
s e l a
C.
l a ag
D.
ag
Q.43 If 20% of a number is added to 96, then the result is the same number. 70% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 104

B. 94

m
C. 114

D. 84

m .co
s e
la
Q.44 A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first person walks at

g
10.8 km/hr, and the second person walks at 21.6 km/hr. The train takes 15 seconds and

a
20 seconds, respectively, to completely pass them. What is the speed of the train if both
persons are walking in the same direction as the train?
Ans A. 54 km/hr

B. 50 km/hr

C. 45 km/hr

D. 64 km/hr

Q.45 The present age of Mohan is three times the age of his son Rakesh. Four years ago
m
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from now, Mohan’s age was four times his son’s age at that time. What will be Rakesh’s

m
age (in years) after 7 years from now?
Ans

m .co A. 36

s e m
s e B. 20

g l a
g l a C. 12
a
a D. 19

Q.46 If a – b = 6 and ab = 135, then find a possible value of (a + b).
Ans A. 23

B. 24

C. 26

D. 27

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.47

Ans A. 81

B. 121

C. 144

D. 48

Q.48

Ans A. 235%

B. 240%

C. 225%

D. 450%

Q.49 By selling 20 pens for the cost price of 25 pens, what is the profit percentage?
Ans A. 28%

B. 35%

C. 25%

D. 20%

Q.50 A 20-metre-tall building has an observer at the top looking at a point on the
ground. If the line of sight to that point makes a downward-facing angle of
45°, what is the horizontal distance from the building’s base to that point?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A - B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
Based on the above, how is X related to Q if ‘X ÷ Y + Z * P - Q’?
Ans A. Sister

B. Father’s mother

C. Mother

D. Mother’s mother

Q.52 YPMW is related to CLPT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, GHSQ is related to KDVN. To which of the given options is OZYK related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. UWCH

B. SVBH

C. RWAI

D. TVAG

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it
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logically complete?

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11 14 19 26 ?
as
se Ans A. 32

B. 35 ag l
C. 31

D. 30

Q.54 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and D. Only two people sit
between D and G. A sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F.
How many people sit to the right of B?

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Ans A. 2

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B. 3

C. 1
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s e l a
a ag
D. 4
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Q.55 ag
Sarita starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the west. She then takes a left turn,
drives 5 km, turns left and drives 5 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. She
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 11 km towards the north

B. 16 km towards the west

C. 5 km towards the east

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D. 8 km towards the south

Q.56
e m
A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

las
A sits third to the left of X. Only one person sits between X and C when counted from
the left of C. Only two people sit between B and W when counted from the right of W. D

Ans ag
is an immediate neighbour of B. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A. D

B. C

C. A

D. W

Q.57 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) * + 9 \ / ? > @ 5 5 / ? / 9 * 1 ? # + 6 # (Right)
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m .co
How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
s e m
s e
Ans
g l a
a
A. Two

g l B. Three a
a C. None

D. One

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m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.58 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 1 2 8 4 6 9 5 8 8 7 9 2 6 6 5 8 6 3 1 1 4 4 6 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q.59 GKNE is related to KHRB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, OEVY is related to SBZV. To which of the given options is WYDS related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. BVIO

B. BUGQ

C. AVHP

D. ZWIQ

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

4 6 12 14 28 ?
Ans A. 29

B. 30

C. 31

D. 32

Q.61 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only two
people sit between F and B when counted from the right of F. Only two people sit
between B and A when counted from the right of B. Only three people sit between F and
E when counted from the right of F. D sits to the immediate left of C. How many people
sit between F and G when counted from the left of F?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. ILO

B. CGI

C. JMP

D. XAD

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.63 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statement(s).
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se Statements:
All cats are mammals. ag l
No mammals are pets.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pets are cats.
(II) No cat is pet.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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Q.64 In a certain code language, ‘bring hot food’ is coded as ‘cf tk rg’ and ‘food is good’ is

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coded as ‘ml do cf’. How is ‘food’ coded in that language?

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Ans A. tk

B. do

C. ml

D. cf

Q.65 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) 6 2 5 4 7 3 9 1 6 7 4 2 1 8 6 4 9 8 3 9 2 7 1 5 1 7 2 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
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Ans A. One

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B. More than three
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C. Two
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D. Three
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Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

GLO NSV UZC BGJ ?
Ans A. IQW

B. IOP

C. INQ
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D. INO
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Q.67 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
g l a
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a How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. Zero

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

CUM150, MEW136, WOG122, GYQ108, ?
Ans A. QIA94

B. QCA94

C. QIB94

D. OIA94

Q.69 Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. No box is kept above X. Only two boxes are kept between W and V.
Only U is kept below E. Only three boxes are kept between E and W. D is not kept
immediately above V. How many boxes are kept between F and U?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.70 In a certain code language, ‘STAR’ is coded as ‘3451’ and ‘RATE’ is coded as ‘4375’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language? 8992
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 7

Q.71 NHRX is related to RFVV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, VDZT is related to ZBDR. To which of the following is DZHP related,
following the same logic?6415
Ans A. HXLN

B. GYMO

C. IYLO

D. GWKM

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
27 51 77 105 135 ?
Ans A. 167

B. 170

C. 162

D. 163

Q.73 If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘−’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

72 H 8 G 2 E 10 F 5 = ?
Ans A. 23

B. 27

C. 21

D. 25

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.74 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ ÷ ‘ are
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interchanged and ‘ - ’ and ‘ x ’ are interchanged?

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168 + 42 x 14 - 9 ÷ 207 = ?
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B. 81 ag l
C. 85

D. 72

Q.75 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

50 C 30 B 4 A 12 D 27 = ?3843

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Ans A. 36

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B. 34

C. 33
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D. 35
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Q.76 ag
Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 2 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 12 km, turns right and drives 21 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 19 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 7 km to the east

B. 11 km to the north

C. 7 km to the west

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D. 11 km to the west

Q.77
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All kiwis are bananas.
All bananas are mangoes.

Conclusions:
(I): All kiwis are mangoes.
(II): Some mangoes are bananas.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows
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C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

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D. Only conclusion (II) follows

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ag the same order.
No box is kept above D. Only three boxes are kept between D and F. Only one box is
kept between G and E. E is kept immediately above F. Only four boxes are kept between
G and A. C is kept at some place above B.
How many boxes are kept above C?11686
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

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Q.79 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(17, 34, 2)
(13, 39, 3)
Ans A. (15, 25, 2)

B. (12 , 60 , 5)

C. (14, 42, 4)

D. (11, 55, 3)

Q.80 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. MI-NL

B. OK-PM

C. IE-JG

D. KG-LI

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Where was the 7th Khelo India Youth Games held in May 2025?
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Bihar

C. Maharashtra

D. New Delhi

Q.82 With which country did India sign a major defence agreement worth ₹63,000 crore on 28
April 2025, for the acquisition of 26 Rafale-Marine fighter jets?
Ans A. France

B. Brazil

C. Denmark

D. Russia

Q.83 Where was the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board inaugurated by Union
Home Minister Amit Shah in June 2025?
Ans A. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

B. Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh

C. Mysuru, Karnataka

D. Nizamabad, Telangana

Q.84 Where was the 58th edition of the World Table Tennis Championships held in May 2025?
Ans A. Berlin, Germany

B. Doha, Qatar

C. Tokyo, Japan

D. Paris, France

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.85 In March 2025, the central bank of which country signed a Memorandum of
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Understanding (MoU) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enable cross-border

. transactions in local currencies?
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Ans A. Mauritius

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B. Singapore

C. United Arab Emirates
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D. Sri Lanka

Q.86 Who among the following was awarded the Women's Player of the Year at the AIFF
Awards 2025?
Ans A. Sujata Kar

B. Toijam Thoibisana Chanu
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C. Panthoi Chanu
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D. Soumya Guguloth

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Q.87
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The 28th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) was held in _______________
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during June 2025.
Ans A. Chennai

B. Visakhapatnam

C. Kolkata

D. Bengaluru

Q.88 In April 2025, which of the following cities was hit by a sandstorm causing major flight
disruptions?
Ans A. Beijing, China
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B. Dubai, UAE

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C. Basra, Iraq
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D. New Delhi, India
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Q.89
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In February 2025, the Technology Development Board signed an agreement with which
company to produce purified pyrolysis oil to make circular plastics and sustainable
chemicals?
Ans A. Adani Chemicals Ltd, Ahmedabad

B. APChemi Pvt. Ltd, Navi Mumbai

C. Jaypee Chemicals, Jaipur

D. Tata Chemicals Ltd, Mumbai
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Q.90 With which country did India sign a significant defence Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) (through the JCBL Group) in April 2025 which is aimed at bolstering India’s
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l asAns A. Slovakia
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ag B. Qatar

C. Japan

D. Egypt

Q.91 Which of the following states launched Surakshit Shanivar (Safe Saturday), a disaster
preparedness initiative for students in June 2025?
Ans A. Bihar

B. Assam

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C. Jharkhand

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D. Uttar Pradesh

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.92 In January 2025, who clinched the men’s singles title at the India Open 2025 badminton
tournament in New Delhi?
Ans A. Viktor Axelsen

B. Kento Momota

C. Lee Cheuk Yiu

D. Chen Long

Q.93 In 2025, Shubhanshu Shukla conducted an International Space Station (ISS) experiment
with moong and methi seeds to study:
Ans A. Seed germination under microgravity conditions

B. Resistance of legumes to common pesticides

C. High-yield oilseed production on Earth

D. Soil nutrient cycling under space conditions

Q.94 As of 2023, how many wildlife sanctuaries are there in India?
Ans A. 623

B. 573

C. 585

D. 655

Q.95 What is the main aim of the Youth Spiritual Summit held in Varanasi on the banks of
River Ganga in July 2025?
Ans A. Promote awareness about river conservation

B. Foster a national resolve against drug abuse

C. Support local youth in rural entrepreneurship

D. Encourage use of digital tools for literacy

Q.96 In May 2025, which among the following institutions formally announced the creation of
the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB), a six-member panel responsible for overseeing
the country’s payment systems?
Ans A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Small Industries Development Bank of India

C. Securities and Exchange Board of India

D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Q.97 Which of the following folk artists became the first dhaki to win a Padma Shri in 2025?
Ans A. Leander Paes

B. Gokul Chandra Das

C. Mary Kom

D. Anant Nag

Q.98 In May 2025, Sudan’s army appointed whom among the following as a new Prime
Minister after two years of civil war?
Ans A. Abdalla Hamdok

B. Dafallah al‑Haj Ali

C. Kamil al‑Taib Idris

D. Osman Hussein

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.99 Who is the author of the book ‘Wild Fictions: Essays’ published in January 2025?
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Ans A. Nandini Purandare

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B. Santanu Bhattacharya

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C. Aria Aber

D. Amitav Ghosh

Q.100 Where was the 2nd Global Cervical Cancer Elimination Forum held?
Ans A. Cartagena, Colombia

B. Bali, Indonesia

C. Kigali, Rwanda

D. Jakarta, Indonesia
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49