RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 09 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 09 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 09/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 The phenomenon of change of a liquid into vapour at any temperature below its boiling
point is called:
Ans A. solidification

B. evaporation

C. condensation

D. sublimation
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Q.2 If the net force on a 10 kg object is zero, its acceleration will be:
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Ans A. 0 m/s²
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B. 9.8 m/s²
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C. 10 m/s² a
D. Depends on its velocity

Q.3 The key difference between rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic
reticulum is the presence of:
Ans A. centrosomes

B. cytosol

C. mitochondria
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D. ribosomes

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Q.4 mIf the mass of two objects is halved and the distance between them is also halved, the
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B. becomes half as much

C. becomes double

D. remains same as before

Q.5 Which of the following cell organelles stores starch, oil and protein granules?
Ans A. All plastids

B. Chromoplast
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C. Leucoplast

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D. Chloroplast
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 The number of neutrons in an oxygen atom is:
Ans A. 32

B. 16

C. 7

D. 8

Q.7 A convex lens is thicker at the middle compared to the edges. Due to this
shape, how does it affect parallel light rays passing through it?
Ans A. It causes the rays to reflect back along the same path

B. It causes the rays to scatter randomly

C. It causes the rays to meet at a point, performing a converging action

D. It causes the rays to spread out, performing a diverging action

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a trait Mendel studied in pea plants?
Ans A. Flower position

B. Seed shape

C. Leaf size

D. Plant height

Q.9 What does the area under a velocity-time graph give?
Ans A. Displacement

B. Acceleration

C. Force

D. Work done

Q.10 The speed of sound in air is about 343 m/s at room temperature. What happens to its
speed when it travels through water?
Ans A. It becomes zero

B. It remains the same

C. It decreases

D. It increases

Q.11 Which of the following shows the strongest force of attraction between particles?
Ans A. Alcohol

B. Oxygen gas

C. Iron rod

D. Water

Q.12 The poultry birds grown for the purpose of meat production are called _________.
Ans A. Fowls

B. Layers.

C. Broilers.

D. Cocks.

Q.13 Which of the following statements about ethanol is correct?
Ans A. Ethanol reacts with sodium to form carbon dioxide.

B. Ethanol does not dissolve in water.

C. Ethanol is a liquid with a pleasant smell and is miscible with water.

D. Ethanol is a non-volatile solid.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following wires will have the least resistance if all are made of the same
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material?

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Ans A. Short and thin wire
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D. Short and thick wire

Q.15 When the same current flows through two wires of equal length but different
resistances, the wire with higher resistance will:
Ans A. Produce more heat

B. Produce less heat

C. Produce no heat
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D. Produce the same heat

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Q.16
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Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.
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Assertion (A): Decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat, light, or
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electricity.
Reason (R): Energy is absorbed to break down reactant molecules into simpler
products.
Ans A. A is true, but R is false.

B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Q.17
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If a porter carrying a load on his head moves on a horizontal road with uniform speed,

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the work done by the gravitational force on the load:
Ans A. is zero
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B. cannot be determined
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C. is minimum
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D. is maximum

Q.18 An organic compound always contains which of the following?
Ans A. Halogens and noble gases

B. At least one carbon atom

C. Silicon and phosphorus atoms

D. Hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
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Q.19 Why do recessive traits like 't' for dwarfness in pea plants only show up when both

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alleles are recessive?
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Ans A. Recessive alleles cannot be passed on.
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a C. Dominant alleles mask recessive alleles.

D. Recessive alleles are never expressed.

Q.20 Which of the following is the irrigation method in which water is tap from deeper strata
by pumps?
Ans A. Canals

B. Tube wells

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C. River life system

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D. Rain-fed

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Q.21 Which of the following terms is used to describe the ability of a plant to recover its lost
parts by growth?
Ans A. Budding

B. Binary fission

C. Regeneration

D. Fertilisation

Q.22 When ester is treated with sodium hydroxide, alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic
acid is formed. What is the process called?
Ans A. Esterification

B. Saponification

C. Hydrogenation

D. Acidification

Q.23 A ray of light passing through the principal focus of a convex lens emerges:
Ans A. towards the optical centre

B. parallel to the principal axis

C. without deviation

D. back to the source

Q.24 Which of the following characteristics correctly describes skeletal (striated) muscles?
Ans A. Spindle-shaped, uninucleate cells, involuntary control

B. Branched, uninucleate cells, involuntary control

C. Long, cylindrical, unbranched, multinucleate cells, voluntary control

D. Short, cylindrical, branched cells with intercalated discs

Q.25 Which of the following elements has atomic number 11?
Ans A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Magnesium

D. Nitrogen

Section : Mathematics

Q.26
871
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.27 If A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 4 : 3 and C : D = 5 : 7, then A : B : C : D is:
Ans A. 20 : 60 : 43 : 63

B. 20 : 58 : 45 : 63

C. 18 : 60 : 45 : 63

D. 20 : 60 : 45 : 63

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.28
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C. 437/125

D. 417/125

Q.29 A rectangular garden is 50 m long and 40 m wide. A path of uniform width is laid inside
the garden along its boundary. If the area of the path is 344 m², find the perimeter of the
inner rectangle.
Ans A. 140 m

B. 148 m
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C. 136 m
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D. 164 m
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Q.30
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A number is first decreased by 35% and then further decreased by 25%. By what
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percentage has the original number been decreased altogether?
Ans A. 50%

B. 53.25%

C. 55%

D. 51.25%

Q.31 A vendor offers her customers a discount of 15% on her beauty products and she still
makes a profit of 5%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of a beauty product marked at ₹273?

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Ans A. 247

B. 221

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C. 219

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D. 166
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Q.32 To buy a car, Taniya borrowed ₹75,000 at 8% per annum simple interest for 27 months.
How much interest will she pay?
Ans A. ₹13,000

B. ₹12,500

C. ₹14,000

D. ₹13,500

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Q.33
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Ans A.

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D.

Q.34 A class of 95 students took a Physics test. 47 students had an average score of 93. The
other students had an average score of 54. What is the average score (rounded off to
one decimal place) of the whole class?
Ans A. 83.7

B. 73.3
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C. 79.7

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D. 65.6
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Q.35 A number when doubled and increased by 7 becomes 29. Find the number.
Ans A. 12

B. 14

C. 11

D. 15

Q.36 Determine the largest number that divides both 1058 and 1550, leaving remainders of 5
and 11, respectively.4374
Ans A. 88

B. 81

C. 86

D. 83

Q.37

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38

3837
Ans A. 51.4

B. 47.5

C. 45.3

D. 41.9

Q.39 If the third proportional of 50 and 30 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans A. 15

B. 21

C. 20

D. 18

Q.40 The cost of a washing machine is 10% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 55% and that of the TV decreases by 71%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 3 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 13%

B. Decrease by 11%

C. Increase by 12%

D. Increase by 10%

Q.41 One pipe can fill a tank in 6 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 24 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
Ans A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.42 What is the average speed of a car that covers half the distance at the speed of 84
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km/hr and the other half at the speed of 63 km/hr?

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Ans A. 79 km/hr
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D. 72 km/hr

Q.43

11136
Ans A. 54 minutes

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B. 38 minutes

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C. 45 minutes

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D. 43 minutes

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Q.44 A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹480, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 2880

B. 1200

C. 1240

D. 1920

Q.45 Simplify: 3 × 2 + 12 ÷ (6 − 2) × 2
Ans A. 18

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B. 12

C. 21
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D. 15
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Q.46 ag
The points scored by a basket-ball team in a series of matches are as follows:
17, 2, 7, 27, 25, 5, 14, 18, 10, 24, 10, 8, 7, 10.
The value of mode is:6537
Ans A. 17

B. 10

C. 4

D. 7

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Q.47 Rohit bought a bicycle for ₹3,200 and sold it for ₹3,840. What is his profit percentage?
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Ans A. 20%

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Q.48 A dealer marks his goods at 80% above the cost price and allows a discount of 5% on
the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
Ans A. 71.3% gain

B. 71% gain

C. 72% loss

D. 74.2% loss
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Q.49 The sides of a triangle are 146 cm, 96 cm, and 110 cm. What is its area (in cm2)?
Ans A. 5290

B. 5275

C. 5296

D. 5280

Q.50 Aaron is 5 years younger than Ron. Four years later from now, Ron will be twice as old
as Aaron. Find Ron’s present age.
Ans A. 8 years

B. 5 years

C. 7 years

D. 6 years

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
O sits to the immediate right of P. Only three people sit between O and Y when counted
from the left of O. Only three people sit between P and N when counted from the left of
P. W sits to the immediate right of M. How many people sit between X and M when
counted from the left of M?
Ans A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.52 C, D, E, G, H, I and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between E and G when counted from the left of G. C sits third to the
left of J. D sits to the immediate right of J. D sits second to the left of E. I is not an
immediate neighbor of C. Who sits third to the right of H?
Ans A. G

B. I

C. J

D. D

Q.53 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 % * 2 @ & 5 1 @ 6 7 1 6 # # £ 8 8 # $ £ € (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q.54 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

ELN 55, HPK 62, KTH 69, NXE 76, ?
Ans A. QCA 81

B. QBB 83

C. RAB 81

D. PBC 83

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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All cakes are samosa.

Conclusions:
(I): Some samosas are cake.
(II): All patties are samosa.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows
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D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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Q.56 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following

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a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

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INFO - NFIO - OFNI
OATH - ATOH - HTAO
Ans A. PLAY - LPAY - YLAP

B. REST - ESRT - TSER

C. TINS - INTS - INST

D. ALSO - ASLO - OSLA

Q.57 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
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(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as

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adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
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and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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(24 , 12, 2)
(70, 5, 14)
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Ans A. (13, 39, 3)

B. (19, 5, 45)

C. (60 , 6, 12)

D. (32 , 16 , 2)

Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘morning sun rises’ is coded as ‘at bp kj’ and ‘rises every
day’ is coded as ‘lm at wv’. How is ‘rises’ coded in that language?
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Ans
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A. lm
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a Q.59 Town M is to the east of Town N. Town O is to the south of Town M. Town P is to the
west of Town O. Town Q is to the north of Town P. Town N is to the north-west of Town
Q. What is the location of Town M with respect to Town Q?
Ans A. North-east

B. East

C. North

D. North-west

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Q.60 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

67 – 13 ÷ 104 × 26 + 93 = ?
Ans A. 27

B. 26

C. 29

D. 25

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2001 2010 2018 2025 2031 ?3525
Ans A. 2035

B. 2034

C. 2037

D. 2036

Q.62 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 3 6 9 9 4 4 1 7 5 6 2 1 6 6 6 6 8 8 2 9 1 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. XUV

B. LIJ

C. TQR

D. OMM

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All hotels are restaurants.
All restaurants are cafes.
Some restaurants are kitchens.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cafes are kitchens.
(II) Some hotels are kitchens.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.65 Pritika ranked 12th from the top and 26th from the bottom in his class. How many
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students are there in the class?

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Ans A. 37

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C. 45 ag l
D. 35

Q.66 In a certain language, 'basket is green' is coded as 'ns tu nm' and 'the green planet' is
coded as 'ti ns fd'. How is 'green' coded in that language?
Ans A. ti

B. fd

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C. ns

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D. nm

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Q.67
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Dhanya starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards south. She then takes a left
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turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 2 km. She then takes a left turn and drives
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4 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 7 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach
Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 8 km towards east

B. 7 km towards west

C. 9 km towards south

D. 7 km towards north
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Q.68
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Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single

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digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right.e
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(Left) 3 2 5 4 6 2 5 3 9 7 4 5 1 1 1 5 2 3 3 8 8 4 4 6 3 1 6 (Right)
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How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

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Q.69 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’

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are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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141 ÷ 8 + 384 × 2 − 43 = ?
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Ans A. 953
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a C. 982

D. 979

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Q.70 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is O related to V if ‘O + P @ T # G - V’?
Ans A. Wife's father's sister

B. Wife's father's mother

C. Wife's mother

D. Wife's sister

Q.71 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. LG-JN

B. OJ-MQ

C. RM-PT

D. ID-GL

Q.72 Six people, L, M, N, O, P and Q, are sitting in a straight line facing towards north. N is
sitting at the leftmost end of the row. Only 3 people are sitting between N and Q. L is
sitting second right to P. M is sitting second right to L. Based on the given arrangement
three of the following four are alike, find the odd one out?
Ans A. OP

B. LM

C. PL

D. NO

Q.73 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 8 2 9 7 6 2 4 8 3 4 6 1 9 4 2 7 4 3 5 9 8 3 5 2 4 8 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. One

B. More than three

C. Three

D. Two

Q.74 Ayush ranked 28th from the top and 46th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 72

B. 74

C. 73

D. 71

Q.75 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

VMN SNP POR MPT ?
Ans A. JQU

B. IQV

C. IQU

D. JQV
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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Ans A. 176

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B. 179

C. 178
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D. 177

Q.77 SDVT is related to WIAX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, IXPJ is related to MCUN. To which of the given options is UMEV related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. YRJZ

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B. TZXS

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C. YRZS

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D. YUIO

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Q.78
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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1001 1000 997 992 985 ?
Ans A. 977

B. 978

C. 976

D. 975

Q.79 VQLG is related to ZUPK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

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the same way, UPKF is related to YTOJ. To which of the given options is RMHC related,

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following the same logic?
Ans A. VPLF
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B. VQLG
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C. UQKG
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D. UPKF

Q.80 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

221 − 5 ÷ 47 + 842 × 2 = ?
Ans A. 731

B. 711
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C. 741

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
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a Q.81
Ans
What does the term 'Blue Washing' refer to as per the News reports in 2025?
A. A new method for water purification

B. Cleaning rivers to make them blue

C. The practice of portraying polluting industries as environmentally-friendly

D. Using blue-coloured chemicals in industries

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Q.82 In February 2025, who broke the world indoor 800 m American record with a time of
1:43.90 at Millrose?
Ans A. Cooper Lutkenhaus

B. Will Sumner

C. Josh Hoey

D. Bryce Hoppel

Q.83 In April 2025, under which campaign did the Reserve Bank of India launch its official
WhatsApp channel to promote digital safety and literacy?
Ans A. RBI Secure

B. RBI Kehta Hai

C. RBI for All

D. RBI Cares

Q.84 Which of the following initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) specifically announced that India’s 'common compute capacity' has
crossed 34,000 GPUs to boost indigenous AI foundation-model development?
Ans A. IndiaAI Mission

B. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan

C. Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme

D. Digital India AI Programme

Q.85 Who received the Sporting Icon Award at the 2025 Laureus ceremony?
Ans A. Rafael Nadal

B. Serena Williams

C. Usain Bolt

D. Novak Djokovic

Q.86 The Indian Armed Forces participated in the multilateral Exercise ZAPAD 2025 in which
country?
Ans A. Russia

B. United Kingdom

C. United States

D. China

Q.87 What does the letter ‘G’ stand for in the term ‘G20’, as referred to in the second G20
Digital Economy Working Group meeting held in 2025 in South Africa?
Ans A. Group

B. Global

C. Government

D. Growth

Q.88 On 2 November 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) deployed the
advanced naval communication satellite GSAT‑7R (CMS-03) into orbit from which
launch site?
Ans A. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota

B. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram

C. UR Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru

D. Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station, Thumba

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.89 What is the primary function of Rajasthan’s MadhuNetr DR‑AI system launched by the
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state health department in 2025?

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s
Ans A. An AI tool for monitoring heart health remotely
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se B. A blockchain system for managing patient records

C. An AI system for diabetic retinopathy screening ag l
D. A telemedicine platform for rural teleconsultations

Q.90 Which organisation planned a big safety drill called 'Operation Abhyaas' in May 2025 to
help people prepare for emergencies?
Ans A. Department of Military Affairs (DMA)

B. Defence Equipment Exporters Association (DEEA)

C. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
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D. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)

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Q.91
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What does PYKKA stand for in the context of sports?
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Ans
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A. Panchayat Yojana Kendra for Kids Activities
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B. Primary Youth Khel Ka Abhiyan

C. Panchayat Yuva Krida Aur Khel Abhiyan

D. Public Youth Krida Kendra Abhiyan

Q.92 Where was the All India Masters Ranking Badminton Tournament 2025 held from 22-29
January 2025?
Ans A. Bangalore, Karnataka

B. Mumbai, Maharashtra
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C. Hyderabad, Telangana

D. Panchkula, Haryana
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Q.93
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In January 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lifted restrictions on which two Non-
Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)? a
Ans A. Arohan and Muthoot Finance

B. DMI Finance and Muthoot Finance

C. Navi Finserv and Shriram Finance

D. Asirvad Microfinance and DMI Finance

Q.94 Which new index, presented in March 2025 by the International Finance Forum,
evaluates global AI competitiveness?
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Ans
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A. Global AI Vibrancy Index
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s e m
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g l a
g l a D. AI Governance Index
a
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quietly triggering a climate chaos by adding which of the following gases in the
atmosphere?
Ans A. Nitrous Oxide

B. Methane

C. Carbon Monoxide

D. Hydrofluorocarbons
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.96 In which of the following places was the Round Table Discussion on improving female
workforce participation in India, organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment
and the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, held in March 2025?
Ans A. Mussoorie

B. Shimla

C. Nainital

D. Dalhousie

Q.97 Which Section of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, ensures that women are NOT
excluded from Waqf property inheritance?
Ans A. Section 2C (2)

B. Section 3A(2)

C. Section 4B

D. Section 9F

Q.98 Which Indian naval asset participated in the defense exercise La Pérouse 2025?
Ans A. INS Mumbai

B. INS Vikrant

C. INS Arihant

D. INS Satpura

Q.99 Who authored the book "Careless People: A Cautionary Tale of Power, Greed, and Lost
Idealism" released in March 2025?
Ans A. Sarah Wynn‑Williams

B. Sheryl Sandberg

C. Boria Majumdar

D. Simon Sinek

Q.100 What was the main objective of the 4th BIMSTEC Disaster Management Exercise hosted
virtually by the National Disaster Management Authority in July 2025?
Ans A. To assess and enhance regional preparedness for cyclones and floods

B. To strengthen regional cooperation in early warning systems

C. To test joint response protocols for natural disasters across member nations

D. To develop a unified framework for reconstruction planning

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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Test Date 09/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What is required to describe the distance an object has travelled?
Ans A. Only the direction of motion

B. Both magnitude and direction

C. The starting and ending points only

D. Only the numerical value, which is its magnitude

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Q.2 What is corrosion most commonly observed as?
Ans A. Rust formation on iron objects
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B. Boiling of water in a kettle
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C. Melting of metal when heated
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D. Glowing of a bulb

Q.3 The importance of genetic variation in organisms is that _________.
Ans A. it increases the chances of survival of an organism

B. it gives rise to dominant and recessive traits

C. it leads to uniformity in the progeny

D. it enables sexual reproduction
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Q.4 Which cell organelle is responsible for releasing energy in the form of ATP, which

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enables various metabolic functions in an animal cell?
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Ans A. Endoplasmic reticulum
g l a
g l a B. Mitochondria a
a C. Lysosome

D. Nucleus

Q.5 What is 'suspension' in chemistry?
Ans A. A heterogeneous mixture with large particles

B. A colloidal dispersion

C. A homogeneous mixture
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D. A true solution

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 A 96 kg astronaut is standing on Earth. What is his weight on the Moon? (g on earth =
10 m/s2)
Ans A. 960 N

B. 160 N

C. 16 N

D. 96 N

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the law of conservation of energy?
Ans A. Energy can be converted from one form to another

B. Total energy in a closed system remains constant

C. Kinetic energy can convert into potential energy

D. Energy can be created to increase total energy of a closed system

Q.8 Which component of phloem is basically responsible for the translocation of food?
Ans A. Companion cells

B. Phloem parenchyma

C. Phloem fibres

D. Sieve elements

Q.9 Which of the following conditions will most effectively accelerate the corrosion of iron?
Ans A. Iron surface in dry air with no impurities

B. Iron coated with a thin layer of zinc (galvanization)

C. Iron surface exposed to moist air containing dissolved salts

D. Iron immersed in pure water, free of dissolved oxygen

Q.10 Which of the following hydrocarbons is saturated?
Ans A. Propene

B. Butane

C. Benzene

D. Butene

Q.11 The image formed by a convex mirror is always _________.
Ans A. real and inverted

B. virtual and erect

C. real and erect

D. virtual and inverted

Q.12 Which of the following particles contribute to the mass number?
Ans A. Protons only

B. Protons and Neutrons

C. Electrons only

D. Electrons and Protons

Q.13 A body of mass 5 kg is moving with an acceleration of 2 m/s². What is the force acting
on it?
Ans A. 7 N

B. 2 N

C. 10 N

D. 5 N

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 The main purpose of the earth wire in a domestic circuit is:
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Ans A. to reduce resistance

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B. to supply current

g l a
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C. to protect from electric shocks

D. to increase voltage

Q.15 Which of the following devices does NOT use the heating effect of current for its
working?
Ans A. Electric Fuse

B. Electric Iron

C. Electric Mixer Grinder

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D. Electric Geyser
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Q.16 .co
Hormone named testosterone is secreted from which of the following parts of a human
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being?
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Ans A. Testis
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B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tube

D. Ureter

Q.17 Which property of a carbon atom enables one carbon atom to form bonds with other
carbon atoms?
Ans A. Valency

B. Polymerisation
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C. Catenation

D. Isomerisation
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Q.18
g
A village that regularly suffers from drought wants to store water for dry seasons to
a
irrigate the agricultural field. Which method will help most?
Ans A. Spraying pesticides

B. Sprinkler irrigation

C. Growing short-duration crops

D. Rainwater harvesting and watershed management

Q.19 What is the range of the pH scale?

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Ans A. -1 to 14

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B. 0 to 14

e m
e m C. 0 to 7

l as
l as D. 0 to 10
ag
ag Q.20 A student places an object at a distance greater than twice the focal length from a
convex lens. What kind of image is formed?
Ans A. Real, inverted, and larger than the object

B. Virtual, erect, and smaller than the object

C. Real, inverted, and smaller than the object

D. Virtual, erect, and larger than the object

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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.21 What is the advantage of fragmentation as a mode of reproduction in plants?
Ans A. Promotes bud formation

B. Forms spores for dispersal

C. Brings about rapid multiplication

D. Increases genetic diversity

Q.22 How does the Mimosa pudica (touch-me-not) plant transmit the touch stimulus from the
point of contact to the motor cells responsible for movement?
Ans A. By releasing hormones that travel through specialised tubes

B. Through specialised nerve tissues connecting the points

C. Through electrical and chemical signals passed between general plant cells

D. Through growth of new supportive cells at the touch site

Q.23 Leucoplasts have which of the following colours?
Ans A. White

B. Orange

C. Indigo

D. Purple

Q.24 A sound of 100 Hz is compared with a sound of 500 Hz. Which of the following
statements is correct?
Ans A. 500 Hz sound has a higher pitch.

B. Pitch cannot be compared.

C. 100 Hz sound has a higher pitch.

D. Both have the same pitch.

Q.25 What is the correct definition of atomic mass?
Ans A. It is the mass of one atom in kilograms.

B. It is the mass of one hydrogen molecule.

C. It is the mass of an atom in grams.

D. It is the mass relative to carbon-12 atom.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Amit and Deeksha together invested ₹56,100 in a business. At the end of the year, out
of a total profit of ₹9,200, Amit's share was ₹2,300. How much was Amit's investment?
Ans A. ₹14,025

B. ₹14,870

C. ₹12,370

D. ₹14,690

Q.27 A 793 m long train is running at 90 km/hr. How long will it take to clear a 782 m long
platform completely?
Ans A. 63 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 61 seconds

D. 66 seconds

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.28 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 12 and 6 days, respectively. How long (in days)
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will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?

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Ans A. 4
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C. 8 ag l
D. 5

Q.29 The sum of the ages of Ramesh and Suresh is 52 years. Ramesh's age is 4 years more
than twice Suresh's age. What is Suresh's age?
Ans A. 14 years

B. 15 years

C. 12 years
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D. 16 years

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Q.30
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The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
l as
l as
washing machine increases by 64% and that of the TV decreases by 28%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
ag
Ans
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A. Decrease by 27%

B. Increase by 29.4%

C. Increase by 27.2%

D. Decrease by 30%

Q.31 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Rupesh
borrowed an amount of ₹5,00,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Rupesh after 4 years.

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Ans A. 69,500

B. 70,000
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C. 71,000
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D. 71,500
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Q.32 If 4 lines of a print, in a column of a book, contain 63 words, how many words will a
column of 64 lines contain?
Ans A. 1004

B. 1008

C. 1012

D. 1018

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Q.33
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Given that C is the third proportional of 6 and B. If B is the sum of the first three even
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natural numbers, then find the value of C.

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Ans
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A. 21.9

g l a
g l a B. 23.39
a
a C. 24.0

D. 26.31

Q.34

Ans A. 40

B. 10

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C. 20

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D. 25

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Q.35 A class of 30 students took a Physics test. Fourteen students had an average score of
98. The other students had an average score of 54. What is the average score (rounded
up to one decimal place) of the whole class?
Ans A. 71.6

B. 76.9

C. 64.6

D. 74.5

Q.36 A rectangular park is 34 m long and 24 m wide. A path of uniform width runs inside it,
surrounding a grassy lawn. If the area of the path is 216 m2, what is the perimeter of the
grassy lawn?
Ans A. 100 m

B. 112 m

C. 104 m

D. 96 m

Q.37 The mode of the observations 35, 21, 25, 21, 35, 32, 32, 30, 20, 35, 34, 35, 34, 25, 35, 33
and 25 is:
Ans A. 21

B. 25

C. 35

D. 32

Q.38 A trapezium-shaped field has an area of 720 m2, and the perpendicular distance
between its parallel sides is 16 m. If one of the parallel sides is 25% more than the other
parallel side, then the length of the smaller parallel side is _____.
Ans A. 50 m

B. 30 m

C. 60 m

D. 40 m

Q.39 Simplify: 372 – 362 + 352 – 342 + 332 – 322
Ans A. 211

B. 207

C. 200

D. 197

Q.40 If an item marked at ₹1,675 is sold for ₹1,273, then what is the discount percentage?
Ans A. 24%

B. 26%

C. 25%

D. 22%

Q.41 From the top of a building 72.1 m high, the angle of depression to a car on the ground
is 45°. Find the distance of the car from the foot of the building.
Ans A. 72.1 m

B. 81.2 m

C. 124.73 m

D. 41.6 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.42
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Ans A. 51.36%

se B. 72.73%
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C. 46.36% a
D. 36.36%

Q.43 Identify the correct set of angles of a triangle.
Ans A.

B.

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C.

D.
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Q.44 Robert, Chris, and Jeremy can finish a certain piece of work in 16, 48, and 32 days,

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respectively. All three of them started the work together. Robert left the work after 2
l a
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days and Chris left just 4 days before the work was completed. Find the total number of
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days taken for the work to be completed.
Ans A. 18.4

B. 16.2

C. 24.3

D. 17.7

Q.45
1271

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Ans A. 1.2

B. 1.8
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C. 0.8
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D. 0.08
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Q.46 A dealer makes a profit of 40% even after giving a 26% discount on the advertised price
of a bike. If he makes a profit of ₹5,698 on the sale of the bike, what is the advertised
price (in ₹)?435
Ans A. 26,950

B. 26,846

C. 27,014

D. 26,952
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Q.47

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A shopkeeper bought a chair for ₹750. He sold it at a 10% loss. What was the selling
price of the chair?
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Ans A. ₹640
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g l a B. ₹710 a
a C. ₹740

D. ₹675

Q.48 If 20% of a number is added to 78, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same
number is:344
Ans A. 78.5

B. 68.5

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C. 58.5

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D. 88.5

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.49 A two-digit number is 7.75 times the sum of its digits. If its digits are reversed, the
number decreases by 54. What is the original number?
Ans A. 93

B. 60

C. 71

D. 82

Q.50 A person can cover a certain distance in 1 hour 24 minutes by covering one-fourth of
the distance at 5 km/hr and the rest at 6 km/hr. Find the total distance (in km).
Ans A. 6

B. 12

C. 10

D. 8

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. BF-AC

B. MQ-LO

C. EI-DG

D. IM-HK

Q.52 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is O related to V if ‘O - P # T @ G + V’?
Ans A. Wife

B. Daughter

C. Mother

D. Sister

Q.53 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LEX 14, OHA 23, RKD 32, UNG 41, XQJ 50, ?
Ans A. AQM 59

B. ATM 57

C. ATM 59

D. AMT 59

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
as
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(10, 150, 5)
(8, 96, 4)
Ans A. (9, 162, 6)

B. (5, 54, 3)

C. (7, 98, 3)

D. (12, 288, 6)

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Q.55 Which of the following number will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
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24, 27, 35, 59, 107, 227, ?

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Ans A. 358

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B. 421
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C. 321

D. 395
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Q.56 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only A sits to the left of D. Only four people sit between A and C. Only B sits between G
and F, and G is not an immediate neighbour of C.
How many people sit to the right of G?
Ans A. 1

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B. 2

C. 3

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D. 4
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Q.57 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

351 ÷ 3 + 284 × 4 − 11 = ?
Ans A. 996

B. 999

C. 991

D. 993

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Q.58 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
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series to make it logically complete?

e m
e m HZC, LDG, PHK, TLO, ?

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l asAns A. XQS
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ag B. XPS

C. XQR

D. XPR

Q.59 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 23 34 45 56 ?
Ans A. 63

B. 61
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C. 67

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D. 65
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.60 O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north.
Only two people sit to the left of P. Only three people sit between P and W. Only one
person sits between W and X. R sits to the immediate left of O. Y is not an immediate
neighbour of W.
How many people sit to the right of Q?6313
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

Q.61 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order.
W is kept immediately above T. D is kept immediately above S. Only P is kept above B.
Only two boxes are kept above W. D is not kept at the third position from the bottom.
How many boxes are kept between E and P?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Q.62 Town A is to the north of Town B. Town C is to the west of Town A. Town D is to the
south of Town C. Town E is to the east of Town D. Town B is to the southeast of Town E.
What is the position of Town E with respect to Town A?
Ans A. Southwest

B. Northwest

C. Northeast

D. Southeast

Q.63 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

KIO : LFK
PER : QBN
Ans A. BGW : CDR

B. OGT : PDP

C. KQL : LMH

D. UJK : VGF

Q.64 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits to the
immediate right of C. Only three people sit between B and A when counted from the left
of B. Only three people sit between C and D when counted from the left of C. G sits to
the immediate right of F. How many people sit between A and C when counted from the
right of C?
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q.65 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HFE

B. MLJ

C. GED

D. ZXW

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.66 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be
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come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

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22 D 55 A 5 C 14 B 8 = ?
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B. 124 ag l
C. 123

D. 121

Q.67 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 3 9 7 8 9 8 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 7 2 2 9 7 8 3 1 6 2 4 3 3 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
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odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?4392

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Ans A. 4

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B. 6

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C. 5

D. 7

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘by the way’ is coded as ‘ts rd ui’ and ‘a long way’ is coded
as ‘kl ui za’. How is ‘way’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. ts

B. ui

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C. rd

m
D. kl

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Q.69
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If 3 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
g
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8563546, then which of the following digits will be fourth from the left in the new
number thus formed?
Ans A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Q.70 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 715, 906, 570, 853, 418 (Right)
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(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
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NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

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e m What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second

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digit of the lowest number?6274

l a Ans A. 7
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C. 6

D. 8

Q.71 AHKO is related to EKOR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, QTAA is related to UWED. To which of the given options is CCMJ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. GFQK

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B. GFQM

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C. GQWE

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D. GMJU

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.72 Town F is to the north of Town G. Town H is to the east of Town F. Town I is to the south
of Town H. Town J is to the west of Town I. Town G is to the south-west of Town J. What
is the position of Town F with respect to Town J?
Ans A. South-east

B. North-east

C. North-west

D. South-west

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘BIRD’ is coded as ‘2739’ and ‘DRIP’ is coded as ‘3978’.
What is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language? 8991
Ans A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 3

Q.74 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

58 51 44 37 30 ?
Ans A. 21

B. 22

C. 23

D. 25

Q.75 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All jams are cobras.
All cobras are mats.

Conclusions:
(I) Some mats are cobras.
(II) All jams are mats.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.76 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All eggs are artists.
Some mangoes are artists.

Conclusions:
(I): Some eggs are mangoes.
(II): Some artists are eggs.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.77 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit
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numbers only).

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(Left) 8 3 2 6 7 5 4 3 9 1 8 2 5 (Right)
as
se How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right), which are immediately
followed by an odd number? ag l
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. More than three

D. Two

Q.78 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
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WORD - WDRO - DROW
OATS - OSTA - STAO
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Ans
e
A. HERD - EHRD - DERH
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B. PART - PRAT - TRAP
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C. FOUR - FORU - OURF

D. GIVE - GEVI - EVIG

Q.79 Abhishek ranked 17th from the top and 49th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 65

B. 63

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C. 66

D. 64

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s e
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Q.80 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

g
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

a
(Left) £ $ 9 3 4 9 7 £ % & # 7 3 1 8 7 5 * @ 4 £ $ (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 0
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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

m s e
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Q.81 As of June 2025, which actor turned politician is the Deputy Chief Minister of the state

g l a
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of Andhra Pradesh?
A. Pawan Kalyan a
a B. Chiranjeevi

C. Prakash Raj

D. Balakrishna

Q.82 The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award was presented to which of the below ace
shooter by Indian President Droupadi Murmu in 2025?
Ans A. Rubina Francis

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B. Manu Bhaker

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C. Mona Agarwal
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D. Sarabjot Singh
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.83 Who among the following received the United Nations Sasakawa Award 2025 for
Disaster Risk Reduction?
Ans A. Dr. Shekhar Mande

B. Randeep Guleria

C. Dr. Soumya Swaminathan

D. Dr. Mrutyunjay Mohapatra

Q.84 Which of the following became India’s 107th National Park in April 2025?
Ans A. Bhitarkanika

B. Dudhwa

C. Gorumara

D. Similipal

Q.85 Which state government in October 2025 approved the Bamboo Industry Policy, 2025,
aimed at providing farmers with a sustainable and eco-friendly source of income, while
boosting the state’s domestic and global bamboo production?
Ans A. Tamil Nadu

B. West Bengal

C. Maharashtra

D. Tripura

Q.86 Which of the following banks removed the minimum balance requirement for all
savings accounts in June 2025?
Ans A. Bank of Baroda

B. Punjab National Bank

C. State Bank of India

D. Canara Bank

Q.87 Which of the following banks signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Indo-
Tibetan Border Police in February 2025 for providing financial and insurance benefits?
Ans A. IndusInd Bank

B. Punjab National Bank

C. Canara Bank

D. State Bank of India

Q.88 Which special year has ISRO declared 2025 to be, highlighting its human spaceflight
efforts?
Ans A. Solar Year

B. Mars Year

C. Moon Year

D. Gaganyaan Year

Q.89 What was Transparency International’s score for the US in the 2024 Corruption
Perceptions Index?
Ans A. 62

B. 70

C. 65

D. 67

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.90 As notified in March 2025, how many DRDO Industry Academia Centres of Excellence
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(DIA-CoEs) have been set up across the country at premier institutions such as IITs,

. IISc, and central universities?
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Ans A. 15

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B. 10

C. 20
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D. 5

Q.91 The tech fair VivaTech, 2025, was held in which of the following European cities in June
2025?
Ans A. Paris

B. Lisbon
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C. Barcelona
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D. Berlin

e m l as
Q.92
s
Toshikazu Yamanishi set a new world record in which event in February 2025?

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ag
Ans A. 5 km race walk

B. 10 km race walk

C. 20 km race walk

D. 50 km race walk

Q.93 In which of the following weight categories did Manisha Bhanwala win the gold medal
at the Asian Wrestling Championships, 2025?
Ans A. 76 kg

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B. 62 kg

C. 53 kg

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D. 59 kg

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Q.94
ag
Tiger Triumph defense exercise conducted in April 2025 was a joint exercise between
India and which country?
Ans A. The US

B. Australia

C. France

D. The UK

Q.95 Euthalia malaccana, which was officially recorded in Arunachal Pradesh’s Leparada
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district, in May 2025, is a new species of which of the following?
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Ans A. Locust

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B. Grasshopper

s e g l
g l a C. Butterfly
a
a D. Dragonfly

Q.96 What is the name of the vessel in which two women officers from the Indian Navy have
completed a landmark circumnavigation voyage under the Navika Sagar Parikrama II
mission in May 2025?
Ans A. INS Indira

B. INS Sarojini

C. INS Bhagmati

D. INS Tarini
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.97 How many Atal Tinkering Labs were announced to be set up in government schools
over the next five years in the Union Budget 2025-26?
Ans A. 30,000

B. 40,000

C. 50,000

D. 20,000

Q.98 As of 10 June 2025, how many new sports infrastructure projects were approved worth
₹3,124.12 crore across India?
Ans A. 300

B. 250

C. 350

D. 326

Q.99 In which village was Ahilyabai Holkar born, where the Maharashtra Cabinet held a
special meeting in May 2025 to honour her 300th birth anniversary?
Ans A. Paithan

B. Nashik

C. Maheshwar

D. Chondi

Q.100 According to the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, how many Muslim women must be
included in State Waqf Boards?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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a

Test Date 09/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 The approximate radii of hydrogen atom is:
Ans A. 10–10 m

B. 10–7 m

C. 10–8 m

D. 10–9 m

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Q.2 Which of the following is NOT an example of action-reaction pair?
Ans A. Bat exerts force on ball and ball exerts force on bat
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B. Force of engine on car and car moves forward
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a
C. Gun recoils backward and bullet moves forwardg
D. Swimmer pushes water backward and water pushes swimmer forward

Q.3 Which of the following is true for solids?

a. Definite shape
b. Rigidity fixed
c. Volume
Ans A. a and b only

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B. a and c only

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C. b and c only

e m
e m D. a, b and c

l as
l as Q.4 In a balanced chemical equation, the total number of atoms of each element is:
ag
ag Ans A. Equal on both sides

B. More on the reactant side

C. Always changing

D. More on the product side

Q.5 If a student adds water to a concentrated acid quickly, what is likely to happen?
Ans A. The solution will become cold.

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B. Nothing will happen.

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C. The solution may splash and cause burns.

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D. The acid will solidify.
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Which plant tissue is mostly found in the husk of a coconut, and what is its main
function?
Ans A. Collenchyma – providing flexibility

B. Xylem – conducting water and minerals

C. Sclerenchyma – providing strength and rigidity

D. Parenchyma – storage of food

Q.7 Which statement best describes the forces involved when a bird flaps its wings
downward to fly upward?
Ans A. The flapping of wings is the action, and the gravity pulling the bird down is the reaction.

B. The bird pushes the air downward, but no equal and opposite force acts on it.

C. The bird’s weight acts as the action force, and the air provides the reaction force.

D. The downward push of the wings on the air is the action, and the lift produced by the air on the wings is the reaction.

Q.8 Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of
which compound that could be used for the purpose of whitewashing?
Ans A. CaSO4

B. CaO

C. Ca(HCO3)2

D. CaCO3

Q.9 What happens when you dissolve sugar in water?
Ans A. Sugar reacts with water

B. Particles of sugar settle at the bottom

C. Sugar particles occupy spaces between water particles

D. Water evaporates

Q.10 In flowering plants, the fusion of the male and female gametes within the ovule is called
______.
Ans A. germination

B. pollination

C. fertilisation

D. transpiration

Q.11 What happens right after the formation and maturation of seeds in flowering plants?
Ans A. Seed dispersal

B. Pollination

C. Fertlisation

D. Seed germination

Q.12 The lens formula is given by:
Ans A. f = v + u

B. 1/f = 1/v – 1/u

C. 1/f = u/v

D. f = uv

Q.13 The ________ is the longest cell in the human body.
Ans A. platelet

B. muscle fibre

C. neuron

D. osteocyte
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.14 What is the process known for removing impurities from ores?
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Ans A. Roasting

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B. Refining

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C. Concentration

D. Smelting

Q.15 Identify the way that is NOT used by insect pests to attack the plants.
Ans A. By cutting the root, stem and leaf

B. By sucking the cell sap

C. By creeping on stem

D. By boring into stem and fruits
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.co m
Q.16 What causes the acceleration of an object when it falls toward the Earth?

m s e
a
Ans A. Friction

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a ag
B. Magnetic force
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C. Air resistance

D. Earth's gravitational force

Q.17 An electric bulb draws a current of 0.15 A for 8 minutes. How much electric charge
flows through the circuit during this time?
Ans A. 720 C

B. 72 A

C. 1.2 C
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D. 72 C

e m
Q.18 The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as:

las
g
Ans A. the ratio of speed of light in medium to that in vacuum

a
B. the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to that in medium

C. the ratio of speed of light in medium to that in air

D. the ratio of speed of light in one medium to that in another medium

Q.19 Which of the following contraceptive devices/methods prevent(s) spreading of STDs
(Sexually Transmitted Diseases) such as AIDS?
Ans A. Oral Pills

B. Condoms
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C. Copper T

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D. Vasectomy/Tubectomy

l as
l asQ.20 Ohm’s Law is valid under which condition?
ag
ag Ans A. Only for metallic conductors at constant temperature

B. Only for insulator at high temperatures

C. Only for semiconductors

D. For all materials at any temperature

Q.21 The plasma membrane is composed of _____________.
Ans A. sugars and lipids

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B. proteins and sugars

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C. lipids and proteins

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D. DNA and lipids

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.22 Carbon can form long chains because it exhibits ________ and shows ________.
Ans A. tetravalency; catenation

B. double bond; triple bond

C. electronegativity; tetravalency

D. trivalent; catenation

Q.23 Substances that are broken down by biological processes are said to be:
Ans A. synthetic

B. non-biodegradable

C. biodegradable

D. metallic

Q.24 If the time period of a sound wave is , what does represent?
Ans A. Speed ( )

B. Wavelength ( )

C. Amplitude ( )

D. Frequency ( )

Q.25 A ball of mass 3 kg is raised to a height of 6 m. Its potential energy is _______.
Take g = 10 m/s2
Ans A. 180 J

B. 200 J

C. 20 J

D. 1.8 J

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The sum of the first 9 prime numbers is:
Ans A. 100

B. 102

C. 101

D. 96

Q.27 Evaluate: 60 − [12 ÷ (2 + 1) + 4 × 2]
Ans A. 49

B. 46

C. 48

D. 50

Q.28 The marked price of an item is set at 41% above its cost price. If the merchant sells the
item at 13% below the marked price, his profit percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal
place) is:
Ans A. 25.4%

B. 22.7%

C. 26.3%

D. 21.8%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.29 Calculate the mode from the following data.
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Days of Confinement 7 8 9 10 11

. Number of Patients 5 7 8 6 4
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m as
se Ans A. 11

B. 9 ag l
C. 10

D. 8

Q.30 Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 17 : 19 and the sum of these numbers is 7752. Find
the middle number.5295
Ans A. 3469

B. 3468
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C. 3470

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D. 3465

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Q.31
l as
A train overtakes two people running along a railway track. The first person is running
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at 12.6 km/hr, and the second person is running at 25.2 km/hr. The train takes 16.8
seconds to pass the first person and 22.4 seconds to pass the second person. What is
the speed of the train if both are running in the same direction as the train?
Ans A. 60 km/hr

B. 59 km/hr

C. 62 km/hr

D. 63 km/hr

Q.32
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A and B working together can do a piece of work in 4 days. B alone can do the same

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work in 36 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?2531
Ans A. 10
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B. 12
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C. 9
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D. 4.5

Q.33 The length of a rectangle is twice its breadth. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 12 cm,
find the length and breadth.
Ans A. Length = 4 cm and breadth = 2 cm

B. Length = 2 cm and breadth = 4 cm

C. Length = 6 cm and breadth = 3 cm

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D. Length = 3 cm and breadth = 6 cm
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Q.34
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Find the lowest value for * in the number 3*760 such that the resulting number is
s e m
s e divisible by 12.

g l a
g l a Ans A. 5
a
a B. 0

C. 2

D. 1

Q.35

Ans A. 55.91%

B. 81.82%
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C. 50.91%
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D. 40.91%

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Q.36 The monthly incomes of two friends Kiran and Mahesh, are in the ratio 5 : 8
respectively and each of them saves ₹78,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Kiran (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,73,000

B. 1,94,000

C. 1,95,000

D. 1,96,000

Q.37 From a shipmast head 210 m high, the angle of depression of a boat is observed to be
60°. Find the distance (in m) of the boat from the ship.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38 If the total age of Hassan and Ali is 12 years more than the total age of Ali and Ahmed,
how many years younger is Ahmed than Hassan?
Ans A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 11

Q.39 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 28°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 4, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 8°

B. 13°

C. 6°

D. 3°

Q.40

Ans A. 3x2 − 4x + 15

B. 3x2 + 4x + 17

C. 2x2 − 4x + 17

D. 3x2 − 4x + 17

Q.41 Two trains, 130 m and 190 m long, are running in the same direction at speeds of 96
km/hr and 48 km/hr, respectively. How much time will the faster train take to completely
cross the slower one?
Ans A. 9 seconds

B. 18 seconds

C. 24 seconds

D. 8 seconds

Q.42 The total number of colour blocks is 8360. If the ratio of red block to blue block is 1 : 3
and the ratio of blue block to yellow block is 7 : 4, then how many yellow blocks are
there?5679
Ans A. 2494

B. 2495

C. 2508

D. 2598

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.43 The largest possible cone is carved from a solid wooden cube of side 21 cm. What is
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s e m
m a
se Ans A. 7240.3

B. 5940.5 ag l
C. 6125.5

D. 6835.5

Q.44 The arithmetic mean of the observations 58, 13, 74, 38, 98, 36, 43, 39 and 42 is:
Ans A. 53

B. 49

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C. 51

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D. 43

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Q.45
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After allowing a discount of 11% on the marked price of an article, it is sold for ₹41,207.
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Find its marked price (in ₹).
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Ans A. 46,300

B. 46,276
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C. 46,363

D. 46,148

Q.46 The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 51% and that of the TV decreases by 15%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 7 TVs?

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Ans A. Increase by 4.8%

B. Increase by 5.2%

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C. Decrease by 5%

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D. Decrease by 8%
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Q.47

Ans A. 886

B. 896

C. 688

D. 868
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Q.48 A group of 10 women can weave a designer saree in 20 days. After 4 days, another
group of 20 women joins them to work on the same saree. In how many more days will
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e m the saree be completely woven?

l as
l asAns
A.
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B.

C.

D.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.49 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Rakesh
borrowed an amount of ₹2,20,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Rakesh after 4 years.
Ans A. 34,700

B. 36,200

C. 36,700

D. 35,200

Q.50 The difference between the cost price and the selling price of an object is ₹480. If the
profit is 20% on the cost price, find the selling price of the object.
Ans A. ₹2,400

B. ₹2,000

C. ₹2,500

D. ₹2,880

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

41 C 12 A 6 D 5 B 2 = ?
Ans A. 31

B. 33

C. 32

D. 34

Q.52 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 783 791 531 563 594 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?2431
Ans A. 12

B. 11

C. 10

D. 9

Q.53 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

92 D 9 C 96 A 12 B 7 = ?
Ans A. 133

B. 139

C. 193

D. 143

Q.54 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

OSW 24, GKO 35, YCG 46, QUY 57, IMQ 68, ?1852
Ans A. AEI 79

B. AEI 78

C. AIE 79

D. AOI 79

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. that group?
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
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position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. VZS
ag
B. PTN

C. SWP

D. EIB

Q.56 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All wallet are bank.
All bank are vault.
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Conclusions:
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(I): Some vault are bank.
(II): All wallet are vault.
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Ans
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A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.57 Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. C sits to the immediate left of A. Only two people sit between C and E when
counted from the left of E. Only three people sit between H and E when counted from

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the left of H. D sits to the immediate left of H. B is not an immediate neighbour of E. F

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sits second to the right of G. Who sits third to the right of H?

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Ans A. B

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B. A

C. F

D. G
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Q.58 This question is based on the following words
COP, TIK, ANY, CAN, OWN
If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no vowel?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

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C. One
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D. Three

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Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘lime card river’ is coded as 'du kt bv' and ‘river child judge’
g l a
g l a is coded as ‘rr xi kt’. How is ‘river’ coded in that language?
a
a Ans A. kt

B. rr

C. du

D. bv

Q.60 KOJL is related to RVQS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MQLN is related to TXSU. To which of the following is OSNP related,
following the same logic?

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Ans A. ZVUW

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B. ZVWU

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C. VZWU

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D. VZUW
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.61 एक िनि त कूट भाषा म,
'A + B' का अथ है िक 'A, B का पु्ऴ है '
'A – B' का अथ है िक 'A, B का भाई है '
'A × B' का अथ है िक 'A, B की प ी है '
'A ÷ B' का अथ है िक 'A, B का िपता है '
उपरो्व के आधार पर, यिद 'D × F + G ÷ H – J' है , तो D का J से या संबंध है ?
Ans A. भाई की पु ी

B. भाई की प ी

C. प ी

D. पु ी

Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

710 712 708 714 706 716 ?3522
Ans A. 704

B. 718

C. 708

D. 720

Q.63 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

15 + 17 ÷ 27 × 3 − 10 = ?
Ans A. −130

B. −128

C. −127

D. −126

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All hammers are screwdrivers.
Some screwdrivers are wrenches.
No wrenches are pliers.

Conclusions:
(I): Some pliers are screwdrivers.
(II): Some wrenches are hammers.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) is true

B. Only conclusion (II) is true

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 16 27 40 55 ?3816
Ans A. 60

B. 70

C. 62

D. 72

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Q.66 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
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certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

. e m
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CLUB - LCUB - CUBL
as
se l
SEAT - ESAT - SATE
Ans A. GROW - GORW - WORG
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B. TWIN - WTIN - WINT

C. HOME - OHME - EOMH

D. PALE - APLE - PLEA

Q.67 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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(18, 324, 1)
(7, 71, 23)
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Ans
l a
A. (22, 501, 13)s ag
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B. (44, 1955, 15)

C. (1, 30, 25)

D. (22, 505, 22)

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

FGH BCD XYZ TUV ?
Ans A. PRO
m
B. PQR

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C. POR
s e
D. PRQ
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Q.69
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In a certain code language, 'elbow yield apple' is coded as 'tr ss jw' and 'apple case
barn' is coded as 'ss rz jn'. How is 'apple' coded in that language?
Ans A. tr

B. jw

C. ss

D. rz

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Q.70 KOJM is related to QUPS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, OSNQ is related to UYTW. To which of the following is GKFI related,
following the same logic?
e m
e
Ans
m A. MQLO
l as
l as B. QMLO
ag
ag C. MQOL

D. QMOL

Q.71 In a row of 41 people facing north, Mohan is 10th from the left end. If Rahul sits 9th to
the right of Mohan, what is Rahul’s position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 22nd

B. 23rd

C. 24th
m .
D. 21st

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.72 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit
numbers only).

(Left) 8 3 7 1 2 5 9 6 3 7 8 2 4 1 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there (from left to right) which are immediately
followed by an odd number?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. More than three

Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TP-UR

B. VR-WU

C. PL-QN

D. RN-SP

Q.74 Five people V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a row facing towards north. W is sitting at the
extreme left end of the row. There are two people sitting between Z and W. V is
immediate neighbour of Z . X is immediate neighbour of V. Exactly how many people
are sitting in between W and Y?5993
Ans A. Two

B. None

C. One

D. Three

Q.75 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 8 2 6 4 7 3 5 1 9 8 3 7 2 6 5 9 1 4 8 7 2 6 9 3 5 8 (Right).

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. Two

B. Five

C. Three

D. Four

Q.76 Toshi starts from point A and drives 70 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 45 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 76 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 31 km to the north

B. 32 km to the south

C. 33 km to the south

D. 30 km to the north

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 79 104 129 154 179 ?

s e m
m a
se
Ans A. 199

g l
B. 204

C. 210
a
D. 215

Q.78 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only C is kept above B. Only E is kept between B and F. Only G is kept
below A. How many boxes are kept below F?
Ans A. 1

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B. 3

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C. 2

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D. 4

e m l as
Q.79
l as
Ravindra starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
ag
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drives 3 km, turns right and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 13 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km towards east

B. 5 km towards south

C. 5 km towards north

D. 15 km towards north

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Q.80 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit
between W and Y. A sits to the immediate left of Y. No one sits to the right of B. Only

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two people sit between B and A. X sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit
between C and X?

las
Ans A. Three

B. Four ag
C. One

D. Two

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which Indian political leader is known for the 'Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra' campaign in

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2025?

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Ans A. Mallikarjun Kharge

m .co B. Rahul Gandhi

s e m
s e C. Shivraj Singh Chouhan

g l a
g l a D. Yogi Adityanath
a
a Q.82 In the 2025 Ludhiana West by-election, which party emerged victorious?
Ans A. Indian National Congress

B. Aam Aadmi Party

C. Bharatiya Janata Party

D. Shiromani Akali Dal

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.83 Who became the first athlete in history to run sub-10 s in the 100 m for 11 consecutive
years?
Ans A. Akani Simbine

B. Andre De Grasse

C. Usain Bolt

D. Trayvon Bromell

Q.84 In February 2025, in which district did the NDRF launch an avalanche rescue operation?
Ans A. Chamoli

B. Shillong

C. Uttarkashi

D. Shimla

Q.85 Which city was declared India’s 'Leopard Capital' on 5 June 2025?
Ans A. Dehradun

B. Udaipur

C. Mysuru

D. Bengaluru

Q.86 Which of the following cities hosted the National Workshop in July 2025, organised by
the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to strengthen the
implementation of the SMILE-B (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and
Enterprise – Begging) scheme?
Ans A. Indore

B. Jaipur

C. Patna

D. Lucknow

Q.87 The inaugural Everest Climbers’ Summit focused on climate, held in 2025, took place
in:
Ans A. Lhasa, Tibet

B. Dhaka, Bangladesh

C. Kathmandu, Nepal

D. Dharamsala, India

Q.88 How many Centres of Excellence (CoE) were inaugurated by the Union Minister of State
for Rural Development in June 2025 in Chennai?
Ans A. 200

B. 400

C. 300

D. 100

Q.89 The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, is also known as __________.
Ans A. TAHIB Act

B. UMEED Act

C. SAHIB Act

D. FARID Act

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.90 Which legendary sprinter was named a Guinness World Records ICON in June 2025?
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Ans A. Carl Lewis

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B. Justin Gatl

g l a
a
C. Michael Johnson

D. Usain Bolt

Q.91 Which telemedicine platform served over 36 crore patients by April 2025, per the
Ministry of Health?
Ans A. Practo

B. eSanjeevani

C. Apollo Telehealth

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D. Mfine
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Q.92 .co
Which of the following institutions won the Bakshi Cup in 2025?
m s em
Ans
s e
A. Indian Naval Academy (INA)
l a
l a ag
ag
B. Air Force Academy (AFA)

C. National Defence Academy (NDA)

D. Indian Military Academy (IMA)

Q.93 In August 2025, the report ‘Unlocking a $200 Billion Opportunity: Electric Vehicles in
India,’ assessing challenges and key steps for India’s Electric Mobility transition, was
released by ________.
Ans A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency

B. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
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C. NITI Aayog

D. Ministry of Heavy Industries
e m
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Q.94
Ans A. Asha ag
What is the name of Assam’s AI-powered virtual news anchor unveiled in 2025?

B. Ananya

C. Arpita

D. Ankita

Q.95 Who chaired the 10th Governing Council Meeting of the NITI Aayog on 24 May 2025?
Ans A. Amit Shah
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B. Manohar Lal Khattar
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m .co C. JP Nadda
s e m
s e D. Narendra Modi
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a Q.96 Which of the following showed an increase to 99.62% in 2024-25, according to the
Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress Report,
2025?
Ans A. Percentage of population covered by social protection systems/floors

B. The renewable energy share in the total installed electricity generation

C. Percentage of population using an improved drinking water source in rural areas

D. The reduction in emissions intensity of GDP

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.97 Which of the following banks launched the largest staff engagement initiative called
‘Next LEAP’ to empower workforce in 2025?
Ans A. Canara Bank

B. Indian Bank

C. Bank of Baroda

D. State Bank of India

Q.98 What was the nationality of the legendary fashion designer Giorgio Armani, who passed
away in 2025?
Ans A. American

B. Italian

C. Spanish

D. French

Q.99 In May 2025, the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) recommended Asheesh
Pandey as the new Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of which
bank?
Ans A. Canara Bank

B. Central Bank of India

C. Union Bank of India

D. State Bank of India

Q.100 Which team did the Indian women’s team defeat to emerge as champions in the
inaugural Kho Kho World Cup on 19 January 2025?
Ans A. Pakistan

B. Nepal

C. Bangladesh

D. China

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48