SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group B

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SLIET SET 2025
Question Paper · B.E.
Lateral Entry SET-III
Group B
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group B
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Answer Key

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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PaperCode: 2002 Paper Name: 2002-B.E. (LATERAL ENTRY) (SET III)-GROUP B Set Name: Original

Q-1 Aditya-L1 is dedicated mission of ISRO to study ------.

A Moon B Mars

C Jupiter D Sun
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Q-2 The Indus water treaty which has recently been suspended was between India and ---------.

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A China

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C Bangladesh
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Q-3 Cellular jail is located in --------.

A Goa B Shaheed dweep

C Pune D Sri Vijaya Puram

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Q-4
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The ratio of Sun’s distance from earth to the diameter of Sun is approximately ---------.

100
s e 104
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A B
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C 108 D 112

Q-5 As per the latest data released by the IMF World Economic Outlook, position of India among World largest economies is
expected to be at ------------ in May/June 2025.

A 4th B 5th

C 6th D 3rd

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What is the missing number in sequence 4,8,14,22,32,--------?
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Q-6

A
as 42 B 44
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C 46 D 48

Q-7 Choose the correct passive form of the sentence given below:
Had the police arrested the burglar.

A Had the burglar been arrested by the B Have the burglar been arrested by the police.
police.

C The burglar has been arrested by the police.

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D Had the burglar was arrested by the police.
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I can’t find my _____ bag. For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit gl
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Q-8
A lose loosing
B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group B
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C lost D left

Q-9 Identify the word which is similar in the meaning to the phrase (in inverted commas) of the sentence:
When she heard the news, she was “like a dog with two tails”.

A very greedy B very enthusiastic

C very morose D very happy

Q-10 Let's wait until it _______ raining.

A stops B stopped

C stopping D stop

Q-11 Which element has the largest atomic radius?

A Li B Na

C F D I

Q-12

A reduction B oxidation

C Loss of electron D no change

Q-13 The correct order of orbitals in which electrons are filled is?

A 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d B 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s

C 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d D 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d

Q-14 Which of the following is incorrect about ‘s’ orbitals?

A They are spherical in shape B They are found in all principal energy levels

C They can only hold one electron D None of these

Q-15 Which pair of metals has the same electronic configuration

A Cr³⁺, Fe³⁺ B Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺

C V³⁺, Cr³⁺ D Mn²⁺, Ni²⁺

Q-16 The hybridisation of S in SF₆ molecule is
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SLIET SET 2025
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C
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Q-17 Among the following compounds which one is most ionic?

A BeS B BCl₃

C MgCl₂ D Al₂O₃

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Q-18
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Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
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A O
. c B N
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C C D B

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Q-19 The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is

A (NH₄)PO₄ B (NH₄)₂PO₄

C (NH₄)₃PO₄ D None of these

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Arrange the following in increasing order of their bond order He₂, O₂ , N₂ and NO

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Q-20

A He₂˂O₂ ˂N₂˂ NO B He₂˃O₂˃N₂ ˃NO

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C He₂˂N₂˂ NO ˂O₂

l as D He₂˂O₂˂NO ˂N₂

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Q-21 Which of the following is scalar physical quantity?

A Velocity B Acceleration

C Speed D Momentum

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Q-22 Newton’s first law of motion is also known as:

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A Law of inertia B Law of acceleration

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Law of action-reaction Law of gravitation
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C D

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a Q-23 If m is mass of the displaced object, x is displacement and k is spring constant, then the restoring force (F) in SHM
(Simple harmonic motion) is given by:

A F = kx B F = -kx

C F = ma D F = mv

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Q-24 The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs in a transverse wave is called

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A Amplitude

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B Frequency
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C Time period
s D Wavelength
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Q-25 The ability of material to return to its original state after deformation is called:

A Plasticity B Elasticity

C Ductility D Malleability

Q-26 Bernoulli’s principle is based on the conservation of...

A Mass B Momentum

C Charge D Energy

Q-27 The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are....

A Electrons B Holes

C Protons D Positrons

Q-28 The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is called

A Diffusion B Ionization

C Doping D Recombination

Q-29 Which quantum number is used to find energy of electron in an energy level

A Principle quantum number (n) B Azimuthal quantum number (l)

C Magnetic quantum number (m) D Spin quantum number (s)

Q-30 Which of the following is not emitted during a radioactive decay?

A Alpha particle B Gamma rays

C Beta particle D Neutron

Q-31 How many different ways can a team of five people be formed from a total of ten people so that two specific people are
included in each team ?

A 56 B 55

C 57 D 58

Q-32

A B

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D Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group B
SLIET SET 2025
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Q-33

A B

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C D

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Q-34
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A 2,4 B 4,1

C 4,2 D 2,2

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Q-35

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A B

C D

Q-36 If the mean of certain set of data is 25 and variance is 16, then the coefficient of variance is
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A 15 B 16
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17 18
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C D

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A a=4,b=1 B a=1,b=4

C a=-4,b=1 D a=4,b=-4

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Q-38

A 6/5 B 5/6

C (-5)/6 D (-6)/5

Q-39

A B

C D

Q-40 If a line has direction ratios 2,-1,-2, determine its direction cosines

A B

C D

Q-41 Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A Volume B Temperature

C Mass D Total energy

Q-42 A closed system is one in which

A Does not permit any mass transfer B Mass cross the boundary but not the energy
across the boundary, but it permits
transfer of energy

C Neither mass nor energy cross the boundaries D Both energy and mass cross the boundaries
of the system of the system

Q-43 First law of thermodynamics deals with

A Conservation of heat B Conservation of momentum

C Conservation of mass D Conservation of energy
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Q-44 Heat and work are

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A Point functions B System properties

C Path functions D Intensive properties

Q-45 Specific heat of air at constant pressure Cp in kcal/kg is equal to

A 0.17 B 0.21

C 0.24 D 1.41
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Q-46
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Change in entropy (δS) is equal to
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A
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Heat supplied or rejected (δQ) divided by
l
B Absolute temperature (T) divided by Heat
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Absolute temperature (T)

Maximum temperature(Tmax) divided by D
supplied or rejected (δQ)

Maximum temperature plus minimum
Minimum temperature (Tmin) temperature (Tmax+Tmin) divided by
Maximum temperature (Tmax)

Q-47 Internal energy of a substance depends on

A Volume B Pressure
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C Temperature D Entropy

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Q-48
A 45.7%
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An engine working based on Carnot cycle and working between 650K and 310K, the thermal efficiency of the engine is

B 65.2%

C 55.8% D 52.3%

Q-49 Otto cycle consists of

A Two isothermals and two isentropics B Two isentropics and two constant
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processes volume processes

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C Two isentropics, one constant volume and D Two isentropics and two constant Pressure
constant pressure processes
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a Q-50 Dryness fraction of dry steam is

A 0.95 B 0.97

C 1 D 0.98

Q-51 Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition (S.I.) engine?

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A Spark plug B Fuel injector

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D Distributor
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Q-52

A B

C D

Q-53 In an isothermal process, the internal energy of an ideal gas is

A Decreases B Increases

C Remains constant D Initially decreases then increases

Q-54 Diesel cycle consists of

A Two reversible adiabatic and two constant B Two reversible adiabatic, a constant
volume processes pressure and a constant volume
processes

C Two reversible adiabatic and two constant D A reversible adiabatic, a constant pressure, a
pressure processes constant volume and an isothermal processes

Q-55 According to the Clausius statement

A Heat cannot flow itself from a cold body B When two dissimilar metals are heated at one
to a hot body without the aid of the end and cooled at other end, e.m.f. is
external work developed proportional to the difference of
temperature at two ends

C Heat can flow itself from a cold body to a hot D It is possible to construct an engine working
body without help of an external work on a cyclic process, can convert whole of the
heat supplied to it, into mechanical work

Q-56 Units of strain are

A Dimensionless B cm

C Kg/cm²/cm D Kg/cm

Q-57 When a shaft is subjected to a bending moment M and twisting moment T, then the equivalent twisting moment is
equal to

A M+T B M²+ T²

C √(M²+ T²) D √(M²- T² )

Q-58 A column of length L is hinged
at its
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Q-59 In transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is equal to

A 0.5 x Throat of weld B Throat of weld

C √(2 ) x Throat of weld D 2 x Throat of weld

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Q-60
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If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of rivets is
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A 0.20
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C 0.50 D 0.60

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Q-61 Rankine’s theory is used for

A Brittle materials B Ductile materials

C Elastic materials D Plastic materials

Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of
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Q-62
A Maximum stress to the endurance limit B Nominal stress to the endurance limit

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C Maximum stress to the nominal stress

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Q-63 Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

A Elastic limit to the ultimate stress B Young’s modulus to the ultimate tensile
strength

C Endurance limit stress to the working D Elastic limit to the yield point
stress

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The usual proportion for the width (w) of rectangular sunk key is
Q-64

m
(where, d = diameter of the shaft)
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A d/8 B d/4

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a C d/6 D d/2

Q-65 Two close coiled helical springs with stiffness k₁ and k₂ respectively are connected in series. The combined stiffness or
stiffness of an equivalent spring is

A B

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C c. o D
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Q-66 The force of resistance per unit area offered by a body against deformation is known as

A Strain B Compressive force

C Tensile force D Stress

Q-67 Shear stress induced in a shaft varies

A Linearly with maximum at the centre to zero B Linearly with zero at the centre to
at extreme fibre of the shaft maximum at extreme fibre of the shaft

C Non-linear with zero at centre and minimum D Linear with non-zero at the centre and
at the extreme fibre of the shaft minimum at the extreme fibre of the shaft

Q-68 Static friction acts when object is

A Sliding on horizontal surface B Sliding on vertical surface

C Resting on a surface D Sliding on inclined surface

Q-69 Linear momentum of an object 2000g-cm/s. If the velocity of the object is 4 m/s, then the mass of the object is

A 0.5g B 1.5g

C 2.5g D 5g

Q-70

A B

C D

Q-71 Fluid is a substance that

A Can resist shear force B Do not take the shape of their container

C Flows or deforms when an external force D Cannot deform continuously when shear
is applied to it stress is applied

Q-72 The unit of viscosity is

A Newton-sec per square metre B Metres² per sec

C Kg-sec²/metre² D Newton-sec² per metre
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a Q-73 Gauge pressure is equal to
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A (Absolute pressure) + (Atmospheric pressure) B (Absolute pressure) –(Atmospheric
pressure)

C (Atmospheric pressure) – (Absolute pressure) D (Atmospheric pressure) – (Vacuum)

Q-74 The buoyancy depends on

m
A Mass of liquid displaced

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B Viscosity of the liquid
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C
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Pressure of the liquid displaced
c D Depth of immersion
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Q-75
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Metacentric height is the distance between

A The centre of gravity of the floating body B The centre of gravity of the floating body and
and the metacentre the centre of buoyancy

C The centre of gravity of the floating body and D centre of buoyancy and metacentre
the centre of pressure

The specific weight of one litre of a liquid fluid which weighs 7 N is
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Q-76

A 3500N/m³ B 4000N/m³

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C 5000N/m³

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Q-77 As per Pascal’s law

A Intensity of pressure at a point in an open B When pressure is applied to a confined
moving fluid is equal in the direction of fluid, the pressure change is transmitted
applied force undiminished to every part of the fluid
and to the walls of its container, acting
equally in all directions

C When pressure is applied to a confined fluid, D
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When pressure is applied to a confined fluid,

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the pressure does not change and not the pressure change but not transmitted to
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transmitted undiminished to every part of the every part of the fluid and to the walls of its
fluid container
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agQ-78 A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

A High viscosity and incompressible B Viscosity and compressible

C Zero viscosity and incompressible D High internal resistance to flow

Q-79 Atmospheric pressure is

The force exerted by the weight of the
m The volume of air above a surface
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A B
air above a surface
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C Gauge pressure D Absolute zero pressure
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Q-80 Vacuum is pressure that is

A Upper than atmospheric pressure B Lower than atmospheric pressure

C Positive pressure D All are correct statements

Q-81 The engineering materials are classified based on

A Ferrous, non-ferrous and bio-metals B Thermoplastics, thermosets and elastomers

C Ceramics and composites D All of the above

Q-82 Which one is the Mechanical property of a metal ?

A Brittleness B Oxidation

C Corrosion resistance D Magnetic properties

Q-83 The primary purpose of heat treatment is to

A Alter the size and shape of the material B Alter the mechanical properties of a
material, such as its hardness, strength,
ductility and toughness

C Improve the density of the material by D Alter the chemical composition of a material
controlled heating and cooling processes

Q-84 Which of the following is not the objective of the annealing?

A Remove internal stresses B Refine grain size

C Improve machinability D Destroy complete structure of the
material

Q-85 Cyaniding and nitriding are two methods of

A Softening the metal B Case hardening

C Tempering D Normalizing

Q-86 Arc welding uses the electric supply

A Only A.C. B Only D.C.

C Both A.C. and D.C. D Spiral waveform

Q-87 Core is used to

A Support the loose pieces of pattern B Help to remove casting from mould cavity

C Strengthen moulding sand D Make desire hole in casting
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a Q-88 Negative allowance is provided on the pattern to take care of
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A The distortion allowance B The draft allowance

C The machining allowance D The shake allowance

Q-89 Which material is used to make pattern

A Aluminium B Teak wood
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C Cast iron
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D Any of these
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Q-90 Which of the following point angles of a twist drill is used for general purpose work?

A 138° a B 128°

C 118° D 108°

Q-91 If the demand for an item is doubled and the ordering cost halved, the EOQ

A remains unchanged B increases by factor of √2

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C is doubled D is halved

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Q-92 Boring operation in a lathe is used for

A Generating a plane surface B Enlarging a hole

C Generating a serrated surface D Generating threads

Q-93 Lathe specification of swing over bed specifies

A Maximum diameter of job that can be B Minimum diameter of job that can be turned
turned in the lathe in the lathe
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C
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Minimum length of job that can be turned in D
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Minimum radius of job that can be turned in

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the lathe the lathe

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agQ-94 In the following machining operations, the cutting tool reciprocates while the workpiece remains stationary during
cutting

A Turning operation B Milling operation

C Shaping operation D Drilling operation

ABC analysis deals with
Q-95
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A Analysis of process chart
c. o B Flow of material

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C Ordering schedule of job Controlling inventory by categorizing the
D Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group B
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items based on their value and
importance

Q-96 Control charts for the attribute are concerned with

A Checking if the variable is out of control B The actual measurement of the parameter,
comparing with a standard

C Qualitative checking of defects D Direct measurement of variables for control

Q-97 What is TQM?

A Total Quality Maintenance B Total Quality Managers

C Total Quantity Manager D Total Quality Management

Q-98 Which is the sequence of operations in a conventional powder metallurgy process?

A Atomization -Blending and Mixing – B Blending and Mixing – Sintering- Atomization
Compacting -Sintering -Compacting -

C Sintering - Compacting- Atomization - D Compacting -Blending and Mixing –
Blending and Mixing Atomization - Sintering

Q-99 In the description of tool signature, nose radius is indicated

A in the beginning B in the middle

C at the end D not indicated

Q-100 Line balancing is imperative in

A Mass production B Batch production

C Unit production D Job production

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