RRB JE 2026 CBT 2 Question Paper All Branch (in English)

FOR RRB JE EXAM PREPARATION

RRB JE 2026
Question Paper · CBT 2
All Branch (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

RRB JE 2026 Question Paper CBT 2 All Branch (in English)

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 02/07/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject / Exam Group RRB JE Stage 2 Civil and Allied Engineering
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Abilities

Q.1 If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1` return?
Ans 1. Error

2. 1020

3. 30

4. 200

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Q.2 A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal beam using a lever but has a limited
length of plank. Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the beam with the least

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effort if the position of the fulcrum can be changed but the plank length remains
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constant?
1. Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point
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2. Move the fulcrum closer to the worker ag
3. Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

4. Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

Q.3 Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian Navy in November, 2025, to
strengthen anti-submarine and coastal defence capabilities?
Ans 1. INS Mahe

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2. INS Vikrant

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3. INS Arnala
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solution? a
a Ans 1. Metal must be same as salt constituent

2. Salt must be insoluble in water

3. Metal must be higher in reactivity series

4. Reaction must be endothermic

Q.5 Which of the following statements is true about the Outbox?
Ans 1. It is used to receive incoming emails.

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2. It holds emails that have been successfully sent.

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3. It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.

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4. It contains emails that are currently being drafted.

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 110

Q.6 The primary method of managing biodegradable domestic waste after collection is
_________________.
Ans 1. burnt in open air

2. conversion into compost

3. sending for recycling

4. throwing into sewers

Q.7 A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a sharp decline in earthworm
population. The resulting effect on soil is:
Ans 1. Increased water retention

2. Enhanced decomposition

3. Improved aeration

4. Reduced soil fertility

Q.8 Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th National Games of India?
Ans 1. Neeraj Chopra

2. Manu Bhaker

3. Dhinidhi Desinghu

4. Bajrang Punia

Q.9 According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers
(including the Prime Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed what
percentage of the total members of the House of the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 25%

3. 20%

4. 10%

Q.10 Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to fall in the trap of Email fraud or
phishing?
A) Paying attention to lucrative offers.
B) Not checking on links or attachments from unknown senders
C) Providing official information via email
D) Paying attention to the company logo sent in the email
Ans 1. A only

2. A, B, D Only

3. A, B Only

4. A, B, C Only

Q.11 The atmospheric component that remains largely unreactive is _____________.
Ans 1. Methane

2. Argon

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Oxygen

Q.12 What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the upper respiratory mucous
membrane?
Ans 1. It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the lungs

2. It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung

3. It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and forms irritant

4. It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen transport

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 110

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Q.13 In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a compound with the formula
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CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH. What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound?

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Ans 1. 2-methylhexanol
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3. 3-methylhexanol ag l
4. 4-methylpentanol

Q.14 On which date is National Handloom Day observed in India?
Ans 1. 2 October

2. 5 September

3. 18 August

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4. 7 August

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Q.15
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What is the general formula of alkenes?

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Ans 1. CnH2n−2
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2. CnH2n+2
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3. CnHn
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4. CnH2n

Q.16 Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of occupational hazards. The most
effective way to protect them from exposure to infectious materials is:
Ans 1. Regular medical check-ups

2. Segregation of waste into color-coded bins

3. Use of protective equipment and safe handling
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4. Vaccination against common infections

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Q.17
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Which type of computer virus attaches itself to executable files and gets activated when
the file is run?
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Ans 1. Macro Virus
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2. Boot Sector Virus

3. File Infector Virus

4. Worm

Q.18 The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
Ans 1. Develop urban infrastructure

2. Provide rural connectivity through road construction
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3. Enhance telecommunication services in cities
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g l a Q.19 Which function returns the smallest value?
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a Ans 1. COUNT()

2. MAX()

3. AVERAGE

4. MIN()

Q.20 Which of the following Articles states about the right of individual to form associations
or unions or co-operative societies?
Ans 1. Article 19 (1) (a)

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2. Article 19 (1) (b)

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3. Article 19 (1) (d)
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4. Article 19 (1) (c)
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Q.21 A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid on a table. Which substance
should be used to neutralise the acid safely?
Ans 1. Vinegar

2. Lemon juice

3. Baking soda solution

4. Sugar solution

Q.22 Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed together in State Action Plan on Climate
Change (SAPCC) adaptation planning?
Ans 1. Textile design and fashion marketing

2. Water resources and health systems

3. Heavy industry and entertainment

4. Information technology and space research

Q.23 The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________.
Ans 1. Smog and mist

2. Smoke and fog

3. Smoke and haze

4. Fog and clouds

Q.24 Match the following columns.
Pardoning power Function
1. Commutation a. Removes both sentence and the conviction.
2. Reprieve b. Lesser sentence than originally given, in special case
3. Respite c. Reducing the period of sentence without changing th
of the sentence.
4. Remission d. Temporary stay on the execution of a sentence.
5. Pardon e. Substitution of one form of punishment to a lighter on

Ans 1. 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a

2. 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d

3. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b

4. 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a

Q.25 Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed in 1888, showcases a blend of
Victorian Gothic and Indian architectural elements?
Ans 1. Bombay Town Hall

2. Gateway of India

3. Rajabai Clock Tower

4. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

Q.26 Which of the following options must be DISABLED before manually setting the date and
time in Windows?
Ans 1. Set time zone globally

2. Set time automatically

3. Night Light

4. Enable multiple clocks

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 110

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Q.27 The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving water resources management of how
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many states?

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Ans 1. five
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2. seven

3. eight
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4. ten

Q.28 A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving across a rough floor. If the force
applied by the student is exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion, what
will happen to the box?
Ans 1. The box will gradually come to rest

2. The box will move at a constant speed

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3. The box will accelerate forward

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4. The box will move at increasing speed

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Q.29
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How can we locate a file with a known extension but an unknown name in a large
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directory?
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Ans 1. Through File Explorer

2. Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext

3. Checking the Recycle Bin

4. Using the dir command

Q.30 Which of the following statements best describes how the power of accommodation
enables the human eye to focus on both near and distant objects?
Ans 1. The cornea provides all the focusing power required for clear vision

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2. The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the focus

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3. The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its shape through ciliary muscle action

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4. The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps to focus

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Q.31
Ans
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According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons arranged in an atom?
1. Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus

2. Randomly placed inside the nucleus

3. Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a watermelon

4. Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths

Q.32 Consider the following statements regarding chemical reactions and choose the correct
option.
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Statement I: Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single
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product is classified as a combination reaction regardless of heat change.

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Statement II: The reaction CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat is both a combination
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3. Only Statement I is correct

4. Only Statement II is correct

Q.33 Which of the following best describes the velocity-time graph for an object moving with
uniform velocity?
Ans 1. A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis

2. A curved line above the time axis

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3. A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

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4. A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

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Q.34 Which of the following indicators is NOT typically used to measure sustainable
development?
Ans 1. Biocapacity

2. Human Development Index (HDI)

3. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate

4. Ecological Footprint

Q.35 You want to automatically advance slides with narration and animations during a
presentation. Which MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
Ans 1. Slide Sorter

2. Action Buttons

3. Rehearse Timings

4. Presenter View

Q.36 The pollutant group commonly associated with oil spills in oceans is ______________.
Ans 1. agricultural pesticides

2. chemical fertilizers

3. petroleum products

4. synthetic detergents

Q.37 A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers over several years. Which
consequence most likely results from this practice leading to soil pollution?
Ans 1. Faster plant growth every season

2. Increase in earthworm population

3. Accumulation of toxic substances in soil

4. Erosion of surface soil layers

Q.38 When was the 11th National Handloom Day celebrated across India under the
coordination of the Ministry of Textiles?
Ans 1. October 7, 2025

2. September 7, 2025

3. August 7, 2025

4. November 7, 2025

Q.39 Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected words or individual characters within
a paragraph in MS Word 2010?
Ans 1. Character styles

2. Linked styles

3. Paragraph styles

4. Page styles

Q.40 The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred mainly in which region of India?
Ans 1. Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu

2. Sunderbans region of West Bengal

3. Konkan region of Maharashtra

4. Malabar region of Kerala

Q.41 Which of the following best describes how sound travels through air?
Ans 1. The air particles move in circular paths as the wave passes

2. The air particles remain stationary while the wave moves through

3. The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to the direction of the wave

4. The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction of the wave
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 110

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Q.42 The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which plateau region?
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Ans 1. Chotanagpur Plateau

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4. Meghalaya Plateau

Q.43 If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, which component is the solute?
Ans 1. Neither

2. Water only

3. Both salt and water

4. Salt only
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Q.44 A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet for lifting metal scraps. To maximize
the magnetic field strength around the coil, which of the following combinations would
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be most effective?
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1. Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and increasing current through the coil

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2. Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping current constant

3. Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering current

4. Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering current

Q.45 Which of the following satellites was launched on November 2, 2025, to enhance the
Indian Navy’s secure communication network and maritime surveillance capabilities?
Ans 1. Cartosat-3

2. RISAT-2B

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3. CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)

4. GSAT-6A

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Q.46
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What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint 2021 presentation?
Ans 1. .docx
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2. .pdf

3. .pptx

4. .xlsx

Q.47 Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the eastern coastal plains?
Ans 1. Ganga

2. Narmada
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3. Tapi
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g l a Q.48 Which experimental discovery contradicted Thomson's model of the atom and led to its
rejection? a
a Ans 1. Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large angles

2. Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick

3. Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction

4. Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr

Q.49 Which of the following is a primary mission under India's National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC)?

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Ans 1. National Nutrition Mission

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2. National Highway Development Project

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3. National Solar Mission
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4. National Rural Livelihood Mission
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Q.50 Which of the following statements best describes the behavior of magnetic field lines
around a straight current-carrying conductor?
Ans 1. They form concentric circles centered on the conductor.

2. They radiate straight outward from the wire.

3. They are parallel straight lines along the wire.

4. They change direction randomly along the wire.

Section : Technical Abilities

Q.1 What is the importance of the narrower bottom in oval-shaped sewers during low-flow
conditions?
Ans 1. Easier maintenance access

2. Enhanced structural strength

3. Maintained higher flow velocity

4. Reduced construction cost

Q.2 A summit curve is provided on a road profile where:
Ans 1. Two ascending gradients intersect smoothly

2. An ascending gradient meets a falling one

3. Two descending gradients come together

4. A descending gradient meets a level section

Q.3 The primary function of the switch rails in a turnout is to:
Ans 1. Guide wheels from main line to turnout line

2. Provide structural stability

3. Provide a smooth passage through the crossing

4. Maintain proper gauge

Q.4 Which material is preferred for railway track ballast?
Ans 1. Sand

2. Gravel

3. Crushed stone

4. Lime

Q.5 How does a barrage differ from a dam?
Ans 1. A barrage regulates river flow using gates, while a dam stores water in a reservoir.

2. A dam controls only floods, while a barrage is used for irrigation.

3. A barrage is used for hydroelectric power generation, whereas a dam is not.

4. A dam is always smaller in height compared to a barrage.

Q.6 For compression members, the Ɪ-section is preferred because it ______.
Ans 1. requires more material to provide equivalent strength

2. has better resistance to lateral-torsional buckling

3. has a lower weight for the same strength

4. is more flexible compared to other sections

Q.7 The primary purpose of a seal coat in bituminous pavement construction is to:
Ans 1. replace the bituminous binder layer

2. strengthen the granular base

3. improve the compaction of subgrade soil

4. provide skid resistance and waterproofing

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 110

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Q.8 The property of timber which enables it to absorb sudden shocks or impact loads is
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called _______.

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Ans 1. Tenacity
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2. Elasticity

3. Hardness
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4. Toughness

Q.9 In urban planning, GIS is commonly used to:
Ans 1. analyse traffic patterns and optimise signal timings

2. calculate the cost of concrete per cubic meter

3. determine the color scheme of buildings

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4. measure the weight of vehicles directly

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Q.10
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Which of the following advanced technologies is commonly used to ensure uniform

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compaction of concrete in modern construction projects?
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Ans 1. Manual tamping methods

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2. Laser levelling devices

3. High-pressure water jets

4. Vibratory compaction equipment

Q.11 Which combination of factors is most likely to result in cracks due to shrinkage in
plaster?
Ans 1. Thick coat with slow drying conditions

2. Thin coat and moist curing process

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3. Thin coat with slow drying conditions

4. Application of thick coat and rapid drying

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Q.12 Higher water absorption in coarse aggregates indicates:
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Ans 1. increased workability of concrete
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2. better bonding with cement

3. higher porosity and lower strength

4. higher durability of concrete

Q.13 Which of the following best explains why timber with straight grains is often preferred
for structural use?
Ans 1. Straight grains reduce the weight of the timber.

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2. Straight grains make the timber more flexible.
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3. Straight grains provide uniform strength.

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4. Straight grains increase the hardness significantly.

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railway
a curve with a radius of 875 m?

Ans 1. 3°

2. 2°

3. 4°

4. 1°

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Q.15 As per IRC:SP:90-2010, the minimum vertical clearance requirement for road
underpasses is:
Ans 1. 3.5 m for minor roads only

2. 6.25 m above railway track level

3. 4.5 m in all cases

4. 5.0 m in general and 5.5 m in urban areas

Q.16 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about working drawings?
Ans 1. They are detailed drawings of the building.

2. They are drawn to a suitable scale.

3. They do not include schedule of openings.

4. They are fully dimensioned.

Q.17 Which of the following should be minimized in the design of a tension member?
Ans 1. Gross sectional area

2. Allowable stress in tension

3. Deduction for rivet and bolt holes

4. Net sectional area

Q.18 A drafter needs to create a parallel copy of an existing line at a specified distance while
keeping the original line unchanged. Which AutoCAD command is most suitable for this
task?
Ans 1. Extend

2. Stretch

3. Offset

4. Break

Q.19 A uniform bar is heated uniformly but prevented from expanding in any direction. What
type of internal stress develops as a result?
Ans 1. Tensile stress

2. No stress

3. Bending stress

4. Compressive stress

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 110

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Q.20 A block of weight (W) rests on a rough inclined plane with an angle of inclination α
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shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the block surface and the plane

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parallel to the plane to prevent the block from sliding down. Which of the following
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represents the minimum value of (P) required to maintain equilibrium?

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Ans
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1.

2.

3.
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4.

Q.21 Which statement best describes the primary structural function of pile caps in
foundation systems?
Ans 1. Connecting foundation piles directly to floor beams

2. Protecting exposed pile surfaces from environmental damage

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3. Providing waterproof protection around foundation piles

4. Distributing structural loads among supporting piles
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Q.22 Which layer of soil is compacted to increase its bearing strength and reduce settlement

Ans
in construction work?
1. Base layer
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2. Surface layer

3. Subgrade layer

4. Topsoil layer

Q.23 In the context of brick masonry, what distinguishes modular bricks from traditional
bricks?

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Ans 1. Traditional bricks are produced in larger standard sizes

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2. Modular bricks are produced with standardized dimensions

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3. Modular bricks are manufactured mainly by manual methods

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a Q.24 The minimum slope for an accessible ramp as per most building codes is ______.
Ans 1. 1 : 12

2. 1 : 25

3. 1 : 15

4. 1 : 20

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Q.25 Under which of the following types of the dampness-checking materials categories,
does cement concrete fall?
Ans 1. flexible

2. rigid

3. grout

4. temporary

Q.26 Which type of glass is commonly used in doors and windows?
Ans 1. Flint glass

2. Lead glass

3. Borosilicate glass

4. Soda-lime glass

Q.27 Which layer prevents leachate migration in landfills?
Ans 1. Soil Cover

2. Gas Vent

3. Impermeable Liner

4. Waste Layer

Q.28 Which of the following types of flooring is preferably used in dancing halls and in
auditoriums?
Ans 1. Brick Flooring

2. Porcelain Tile flooring

3. Timber Flooring

4. Ceramic Tile flooring

Q.29 Which method is primarily used to fill cracks, voids, and fissures in loose gravels and
rocky strata?
Ans 1. Grouting

2. Cavity wall construction

3. Surface treatment

4. Guniting

Q.30 A louvered door is ideal for which type of location within a building?
Ans 1. Main entrance

2. Laundry room

3. Garage door

4. Emergency exit

Q.31 In a micro-optic theodolite, the optical path used for reading angles is typically:
Ans 1. Optical and magnified via micrometer eyepiece

2. Manual and scale-based

3. Satellite via micrometer eyepiece

4. Interferometric

Q.32 Which of the following is the function of a head regulator in a barrage?
Ans 1. To prevent erosion of riverbanks

2. To prevent the river from outflanking the barrage

3. To admit water into the off taking canal

4. To serve as one side wall of fish ladder

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 110

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Q.33 The quantity estimation of structural timber work (wooden beams) is generally
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calculated based on:

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Ans 1. Volume of timber used
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2. Number of rooms

3. Weight of timber used
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4. Floor area of building

Q.34 A door designed with inclined slats to permit ventilation while restricting direct visibility
is classified as which type?
Ans 1. Panel door

2. Flush door

3. Louvered door
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4. Collapsible door
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Q.35
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The assumption in pure bending that plane sections remain plane after bending leads to
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which stress distribution?
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Ans
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1. Parabolic stress variation
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2. Uniform stress throughout the depth

3. Exponential stress variation

4. Linear stress variation

Q.36 In soil mechanics, the seepage velocity is related to the discharge velocity and porosity
of the soil. Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans 1. Seepage velocity is independent of soil porosity.

2. Seepage velocity is equal to discharge velocity divided by porosity.
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3. Seepage velocity is equal to discharge velocity multiplied by porosity.

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4. Seepage velocity is always less than discharge velocity.
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Q.37
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Which of the following types of welds is primarily designed to transmit shear forces in a
connection?
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Ans 1. Butt weld

2. Groove weld

3. Fillet weld

4. Slot weld

Q.38 What is the recommended sequence for setting CAD software on a computer without
operating system (OS)?
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Ans 1. Download drawing - Start drawing - Install CAD
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2. Install OS - Install CAD software - Configure settings

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visible surfaces of a 3D object, focusing on the shape, aesthetics, and form rather than
its internal structure?
Ans 1. Solid modelling

2. Surface modelling

3. Isometric projection

4. Parametric modelling

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Q.40 In fluid mechanics, zero absolute pressure corresponds to which condition?
Ans 1. Perfect vacuum

2. Atmospheric pressure

3. Gauge pressure

4. Superheated steam

Q.41 _________ formwork is used for continuous vertical structures like chimneys, silos, and
towers.
Ans 1. Slip

2. Steel

3. Plastic

4. Timber

Q.42 Which of the following is a necessary condition for plane table surveying?
Ans 1. The plane table must be levelled and properly oriented at each station

2. Only a single station is required for the entire survey

3. Contours must be measured and plotted before starting the survey

4. All the stations must be established on a slope of the terrain

Q.43 Which of the following correctly represents the concrete contribution to shear strength
Vc in Limit State Method (LSM) design?
Ans 1. Vc is neglected entirely in shear design

2. Vc is always taken equal to the total applied shear force

3. Vc is calculated based on concrete grade (fck)

4. Vc depends only on the tensile strength of concrete

Q.44 The amber signal in traffic control is meant to:
Ans 1. Function as a flashing warning light during off-peak hours

2. Indicate that crossing traffic has the right of way

3. Indicate that vehicles must continue moving without interruption for same movement

4. Indicate transition between stop and go, warning drivers to clear or prepare to stop

Q.45 Which equipment is most suitable for tunnel excavation in medium-strength rock where
precise profiling is required?
Ans 1. Dragline excavator

2. Hydraulic hammer

3. Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM)

4. Explosives

Q.46 In considering thermosetting plastics versus thermoplastics for a high-heat application,
which type should be chosen and why?
Ans 1. Thermosetting plastics, because they get remoulded upon heating

2. Thermoplastics, because they do not soften on heating

3. Thermosetting plastics, because they do not soften on heating

4. Thermoplastics, because they are heat resistant

Q.47 In a reinforced concrete beam, the development length is provided to prevent ______.
Ans 1. crushing of concrete

2. torsional failure

3. excessive deflection
​

​
​

​

4. slipping of reinforcement
​

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Q.48 Which of the following is a direct health effect of prolonged exposure to high levels of
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noise pollution?

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Ans 1. Improved memory
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2. Increased appetite

3. Skin irritation
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4. High blood pressure

Q.49 The friction factor used in geometric design of highways is provided by the:
Ans 1. Indian Road Congress (IRC)

2. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)

3. Ministry of Railways

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4. National Highways Authority

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Q.50
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Which material in section is represented by the hatch shared below as per IS 982
(1989)?
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s e l a
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Ans 1. Concrete

2. Earth

3. Brick
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4. Wood

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Q.51
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Which type of soil requires deeper excavation to avoid structural damage due to
swelling and shrinkage?
la
Ans 1. Sandy soil
ag
2. Black cotton soil

3. Gravelly soil

4. Loamy soil

Q.52 With respect to shear strength of soils, refer to the following Assertion and Reason and
select the correct statement from the options given.

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Assertion (A): For cohesionless soils, the failure does not occur on the plane of

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maximum shear stress.
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Reason (R): Failure in soil takes place due to shear failure when compressive load is
applied.
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Ans
m 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
l as
l as 2. A is false and R is true.
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ag 3. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

4. A is true and R is false.

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Q.53 The following bending moment diagram corresponds to a simply supported beam. The
diagram shows a sudden jump (discontinuity) in bending moment at a point between
the supports. Which of the following loading conditions produces this type of bending
moment diagram?

Ans 1. A concentrated load acting at the midpoint of the beam

2. A uniformly distributed load acting over the entire span

3. A couple acting at a point between the supports

4. Equal and opposite vertical forces acting at the supports

Q.54 What is a common shape of steel fibers used in fiber-reinforced concrete?
Ans 1. Cylindrical

2. Cubic

3. Round

4. Hooked-end

Q.55 The cut section in the method of sections must satisfy which of the following
conditions? (Consider that not more than two members are meeting at a joint.)
Ans 1. It should be made parallel to the support reactions.

2. It should pass through at most three members of a truss.

3. It should be taken only at the midpoint of the truss.

4. It should pass through at least four members.

Q.56 Removal of topsoil, grading to formation level, and forming cuttings or embankments
during earthworks is most effectively carried out using which of the following
equipment?
Ans 1. Concrete mixer

2. Pile driver

3. Tower crane

4. Tractor shovel with a 4-in-1 bucket

Q.57 Which of the following is an essential component commonly included in a construction
tender document?
Ans 1. Project drawings prepared without technical specifications

2. Technical specifications describing project requirements

3. Promotional brochures issued for project advertisement

4. Financial records of all participating contractors

Q.58 What is the primary risk of placing concrete in cold weather?
Ans 1. Higher heat of hydration

2. Increased setting time

3. Increased air content

4. Increased hydration rate

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Q.59 Which of the following is the non-recording type of rain gauge prescribed by the India
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Meteorological Department?

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Ans 1. Weighted bucket rain gauge
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2. Symon’s rain gauge

3. Tipping bucket rain gauge
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4. Float type rain gauge

Q.60 Soda-lime glass is predominantly utilised in architectural construction for:
Ans 1. thermal insulation boards

2. fire-resistant partitions

3. transparent window panes and glazing

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4. structural load-bearing components

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Q.61
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According to IS 1892:2021, for a compact building site of about 0.4 hectare area, what is

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the recommended minimum number and location of boreholes or test pits for soil
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investigation?
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Ans
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1. Boreholes spaced uniformly every 50 meters over the site
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2. One borehole or test pit at the center of the site only

3. At least ten boreholes evenly spaced regardless of site size

4. One borehole or test pit at each corner and one at the center

Q.62 Which type of shoring is used when a building needs to be temporarily supported due
to excavation nearby?
Ans 1. Flying shoring

2. Dead shoring
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3. Raking shoring

4. Underpinning
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Q.63
g
Which is the most appropriate definition of the origin point in an AutoCAD 2D co-
ordinate system?
a
Ans 1. Measured distance from the cursor to previous location

2. Measured distance from a fixed reference point

3. 0,0 location

4. Effective diameter of the cursor on screen

Q.64 During a rapid field test for identifying fine-grained soil, a wetted sample is shaken
vigorously in the palm of the hand. If the surface quickly becomes glossy or wet
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(exhibits 'quicker' behavior), and the gloss disappears immediately upon squeezing the

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sample, which soil type is the sample most likely to be?
Ans

m.co 1. Highly plastic clay (CH)

s e m
s e 2. Organic clay (OH)

g l a
g l a 3. Lean clay (CL)
a
a 4. Inorganic silt (ML)

Q.65 What is an effective way to limit settlement due to subsoil moisture movement?
Ans 1. Increasing the height of the masonry wall structure

2. Providing plinth protection and proper compaction

3. Adding additional reinforcement within the foundation system

4. Reducing the thickness of the foundation wall structure

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Q.66 Which of the following sets of details is typically shown in a building section drawing?
Ans 1. Plinth height, storey heights, thickness of walls, and sizes of structural members

2. Site boundaries, north direction, plot dimensions, and road access information

3. Location of furniture, electrical switch positions, drainage lines, and door numbers

4. Carpet area, number of rooms, exterior color, and type of flooring used

Q.67 When reactions are found graphically for a simply supported beam with vertical point
loads, the length of the reaction vector is proportional to:
Ans 1. The span length of the beam only

2. The distance between loads

3. The beam’s deflection at mid span

4. The magnitude of reaction force at the support

Q.68 For a symmetrical channel section with a moment of inertia Ixx = 9.45 x 107 mm4 and an
area A = 4500 mm2, what is its radius of gyration kxx?
Ans 1. 175.48 mm

2. 159.56 mm

3. 144.92 mm

4. 116.34 mm

Q.69 Identify the correct statement(s) about a change point in a levelling operation.

Statement I : It is also known as turning point.
Statement II : The plus sight is taken on the change point on one set of instrument to
ascertain the elevation of the point.
Statement III : The minus sight is taken on the change point to establish the new height
of the instrument.
Ans 1. Statement I and III only

2. Statement I and II only

3. Statement I only

4. Statement III only

Q.70 Which of the following is a limitation of the Direct Shear Test?
Ans 1. The test cannot measure shear strength parameters like cohesion and angle of internal friction.

2. The failure plane is predetermined and may not be the weakest plane in the soil specimen.

3. It can only be used for clayey soils and not for sandy soils.

4. It requires a very long time to conduct, making it unsuitable for quick analysis.

Q.71 Which of the following automatic rain gauges gives a continuous graph of rainfall vs.
time?
Ans 1. Symons gauge

2. Non-recording gauge

3. Float type recording gauge

4. Tipping bucket gauge

Q.72 In a homogenous and prismatic continuous beam under uniformly distributed load, the
bending moment at an intermediate support is:

(Consider that the length of each intermediate span measures the same.)
Ans 1. sagging

2. equal to the midspan moment

3. zero

4. hogging

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 110

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Q.73 During maintenance, a valve in a water supply system needs to be shut. To avoid water
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hammer, the valve should be:

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Ans 1. Left open
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2. Closed halfway

3. Closed gradually
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4. Closed immediately

Q.74 The fineness of cement is generally expressed in terms of specific surface, which is
measured in:
Ans 1. kg/cm²

2. cm²-g

3. m²/kg
m
4. m²-g
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Q.75
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In energy recovery systems, which of the following pollutants is/are carefully monitored
s e m
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due to health hazards during incineration?
l a
Ans 1. Methane
l a ag
2. Oxygen
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3. Dioxins

4. Nitrogen

Q.76 In a building drawing, a sectional elevation is prepared by imagining a vertical cut
through the structure from top to bottom. Which additional information is mainly
obtained from a sectional elevation compared to a front elevation?
Ans 1. Plot boundaries, setback distances, and site alignment details

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2. Location of rooms, circulation passages, and furniture arrangement details

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3. External appearance of walls, front architectural style, and side view details

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4. Cut portions of structural elements, plinth levels, and foundation details

g la
Q.77
a
Which type of engineering contract involves payment for actual quantities of work done
at agreed rates?
Ans 1. Lump sum contract

2. Turnkey contract

3. Cost-plus contract

4. Item rate contract

Q.78 The maximum stress induced in a member is always:
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Ans 1. equal to the minimum stress
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2. less than the average stress

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s e 3. zero in tension

g l a
g l a 4. greater than or equal to the average stress
a
a Q.79 Which of the following is NOT a type of clay tile for roofing?
Ans 1. Spanish tile

2. Mangalore pattern tile

3. Terracotta Jali

4. Allahabad tile

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Q.80 If the calculated nominal shear stress τv in a reinforced concrete beam exceeds the
maximum permissible shear stress in concrete τc max as per IS 456:2000, what is the
,
appropriate course of action?
Ans 1. Use a lower grade of concrete to reduce stress

2. Increase the beam width only

3. Provide additional shear reinforcement only

4. Increase the effective depth of the beam or redesign the section

Q.81 Which roof type is most suitable for covering spans greater than 9 m?
Ans 1. Aisle Roof

2. King post truss

3. Queen post truss

4. Couple Roof

Q.82 A body is resting on a rough inclined plane. If the frictional force is equal to the
component of weight along the plane, the body is in:
Ans 1. free fall

2. acceleration

3. uniform motion

4. equilibrium

Q.83 Which type of stone is laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall so that it
extends into the thickness of the wall in stone masonry?
Ans 1. Tail

2. Stretcher

3. Header

4. Bed

Q.84 A simply supported beam has a span of 6 m with an overhang of 4 m. A uniformly
distributed load (UDL) of 6 kN/m acts over the overhang length of 4 m. What is the
reaction at the nearest support?
Ans 1. 32 kN

2. 24 kN

3. 6 kN

4. 10 kN

Q.85 What is the primary purpose of pressure grouting in building foundation treatment
work?
Ans 1. Improving soil strength and reducing water penetration below foundation structures

2. Supporting internal wall finishes against mechanical damage during building service

3. Applying protective surface coating for improving appearance of foundation surfaces

4. Increasing thermal insulation performance within external foundation wall assemblies

Q.86 As per IS 17953 : 2023 (uPVC Profiles for Windows and Doors — Specification), for the
determination of resistance to weathering, the range of the radiant exposure
wavelength used is ______.
Ans 1. 150 nm to 300 nm

2. 300 nm to 800 nm

3. 200 nm to 500 nm

4. 50 nm to 150 nm
​

​

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 110

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Q.87 Which of the following RCC elements transfers the Floor finish load to supporting
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beams?

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Ans 1. Parapet wall
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2. Lintel

3. Column
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4. Slab

Q.88 According to Euler's theory, the design load for a column depends on:
Ans 1. The column's length and radius of gyration

2. The bending moment applied at the column’s base

3. The material’s ultimate tensile strength

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4. The moment of inertia and shear stress

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Q.89
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The short piece that connects the ledger to the structure itself in single-frame

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scaffolding is called _____.
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ag
Ans 1. Toe board

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2. Guardrail

3. Putlog

4. Brace

Q.90 Which statement correctly distinguishes administrative approval from technical
sanction in civil engineering estimation?
Ans 1. Administrative approval checks material quality, while technical sanction determines project duration

2. Administrative approval authorizes procurement, while technical sanction approves staffing requirements

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3. Administrative approval controls work execution, while technical sanction manages contractor payments

4. Administrative approval accepts project necessity, while technical sanction verifies design and estimates

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Q.91
las
The bending moment diagram (BMD) for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly

Ans
distributed load over its entire span is:
1. linear in shape ag
2. triangular in shape

3. parabolic in shape

4. rectangular in shape

Q.92 A water pipe has a smooth interior. Over the time, scaling increases the roughness.
What happens to the frictional head loss for the same flow rate?
Ans 1. Decreases
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2. Becomes zero
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m.co 3. Increases
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s e 4. Remains same
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a Q.93
Ans
In disaster management, GIS plays an important role mainly because it:
1. measures permeability of soil samples for hazard mapping

2. calculates settlement in shallow foundations for hazard mapping

3. determines tensile strength of steel reinforcement for hazard mapping

4. integrates spatial and attributes data for hazard mapping

Q.94 For a column with both ends hinged (pinned–pinned), the effective length is
______ times the actual length of the column.
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Ans 1. equal to 1

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2. equal to 1.5

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3. equal to 0.5

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4. equal to 2
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 110

Q.95 Which types of piles are typically used in areas with expansive soils?
Ans 1. Friction piles

2. Under-reamed piles

3. Screw piles

4. Sheet piles

Q.96 In a multi-story portal frame, how does increasing the number of stories affect the
moment distribution in the frame?
Ans 1. The moment at the base of the frame decreases as more stories are added

2. The number of stories does not affect the moment distribution

3. The moments in the lower stories increase, while the upper stories experience lesser moments

4. The moments are uniformly distributed across all stories

Q.97 Which of the following flooring is most suitable for a luxurious appearance in a high-
end hotel lobby?
Ans 1. Marble flooring

2. Linoleum flooring

3. Cement concrete flooring

4. PVC flooring

Q.98 The layout for substructure work must consider nearby underground based utilities
because:
Ans 1. They reduce need for detailed site survey work during excavation

2. Existing underground services may get damaged during excavation

3. They make excavation operations easier on site

4. They improve overall appearance of building layout during excavation

Q.99 In geometric design of highways, while on rolling terrain, design speeds are generally:
Ans 1. Lower than plain terrain

2. Same as mountainous terrain

3. Higher than plain terrain

4. Unrelated to terrain type

Q.100 Pipes of different diameters and lengths connected end to end to form a pipe line are
called ________________.
Ans 1. Equivalent pipes

2. Branched pipes

3. Compound pipes

4. Pipes in parallel

"

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a

Test Date 02/07/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject / Exam RRB JE Stage 2 Electronics and Allied
Group Engineering
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* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : General Abilities

Q.1 The primary method of managing biodegradable domestic waste after collection is
_________________.
Ans 1. sending for recycling

2. conversion into compost

3. burnt in open air

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4. throwing into sewers

Q.2
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Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian Navy in November, 2025, to
strengthen anti-submarine and coastal defence capabilities?

las
Ans 1. INS Mahe

2. INS Vikrant ag
3. INS Arnala

4. INS Ikshak

Q.3 Which of the following satellites was launched on November 2, 2025, to enhance the
Indian Navy’s secure communication network and maritime surveillance capabilities?
Ans 1. GSAT-6A

2. Cartosat-3
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3. CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)
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m.co 4. RISAT-2B
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.4 Which of the following indicators is NOT typically used to measure sustainable
development? a
a Ans 1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate

2. Biocapacity

3. Human Development Index (HDI)

4. Ecological Footprint

Q.5 Which of the following statements best describes the behavior of magnetic field lines
around a straight current-carrying conductor?
Ans
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1. They radiate straight outward from the wire.
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2. They are parallel straight lines along the wire.

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3. They form concentric circles centered on the conductor.
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4. They change direction randomly along the wire. ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 110

Q.6 The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which plateau region?
Ans 1. Deccan Plateau

2. Chotanagpur Plateau

3. Meghalaya Plateau

4. Malwa Plateau

Q.7 The atmospheric component that remains largely unreactive is _____________.
Ans 1. Oxygen

2. Argon

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Methane

Q.8 If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, which component is the solute?
Ans 1. Salt only

2. Both salt and water

3. Water only

4. Neither

Q.9 According to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers
(including the Prime Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed what
percentage of the total members of the House of the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 10%

3. 20%

4. 25%

Q.10 A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal beam using a lever but has a limited
length of plank. Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the beam with the least
effort if the position of the fulcrum can be changed but the plank length remains
constant?
Ans 1. Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point

2. Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

3. Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

4. Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

Q.11 The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________.
Ans 1. Fog and clouds

2. Smoke and fog

3. Smog and mist

4. Smoke and haze

Q.12 According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons arranged in an atom?
Ans 1. Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a watermelon

2. Randomly placed inside the nucleus

3. Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths

4. Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus

Q.13 A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a sharp decline in earthworm
population. The resulting effect on soil is:
Ans 1. Increased water retention

2. Reduced soil fertility

3. Improved aeration

4. Enhanced decomposition
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 110

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Q.14 A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving across a rough floor. If the force
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applied by the student is exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion, what

. co will happen to the box?

s e m
m Ans 1. The box will move at a constant speed
a
se 2. The box will gradually come to rest
ag l
3. The box will move at increasing speed

4. The box will accelerate forward

Q.15 When was the 11th National Handloom Day celebrated across India under the
coordination of the Ministry of Textiles?
Ans 1. October 7, 2025

2. November 7, 2025

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3. September 7, 2025

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4. August 7, 2025

m s e
Q.16
s e
Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed together in State Action Plan on Climate
l a
a ag
Change (SAPCC) adaptation planning?
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ag
Ans 1. Water resources and health systems

2. Heavy industry and entertainment

3. Information technology and space research

4. Textile design and fashion marketing

Q.17 Which function returns the smallest value?
Ans 1. MAX()

2. AVERAGE
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3. COUNT()

4. MIN()
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Q.18
g
Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected words or individual characters within
a paragraph in MS Word 2010?
a
Ans 1. Linked styles

2. Character styles

3. Page styles

4. Paragraph styles

Q.19 Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to fall in the trap of Email fraud or
phishing?
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A) Paying attention to lucrative offers.

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B) Not checking on links or attachments from unknown senders

.co m
C) Providing official information via email

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D) Paying attention to the company logo sent in the email
s e
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Ans 1. A, B Only
g l a
g l a 2. A, B, D Only
a
a 3. A, B, C Only

4. A only

Q.20 Which of the following options must be DISABLED before manually setting the date and
time in Windows?
Ans 1. Enable multiple clocks

2. Set time automatically

3. Set time zone globally
m .
4. Night Light

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 110

Q.21 Which type of computer virus attaches itself to executable files and gets activated when
the file is run?
Ans 1. Worm

2. File Infector Virus

3. Macro Virus

4. Boot Sector Virus

Q.22 Which of the following Articles states about the right of individual to form associations
or unions or co-operative societies?
Ans 1. Article 19 (1) (a)

2. Article 19 (1) (d)

3. Article 19 (1) (b)

4. Article 19 (1) (c)

Q.23 Which of the following best describes the velocity-time graph for an object moving with
uniform velocity?
Ans 1. A curved line above the time axis

2. A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis

3. A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

4. A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

Q.24 A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet for lifting metal scraps. To maximize
the magnetic field strength around the coil, which of the following combinations would
be most effective?
Ans 1. Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering current

2. Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping current constant

3. Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering current

4. Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and increasing current through the coil

Q.25 How can we locate a file with a known extension but an unknown name in a large
directory?
Ans 1. Using the dir command

2. Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext

3. Through File Explorer

4. Checking the Recycle Bin

Q.26 You want to automatically advance slides with narration and animations during a
presentation. Which MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
Ans 1. Rehearse Timings

2. Slide Sorter

3. Action Buttons

4. Presenter View

Q.27 Which of the following statements best describes how the power of accommodation
enables the human eye to focus on both near and distant objects?
Ans 1. The cornea provides all the focusing power required for clear vision

2. The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps to focus

3. The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the focus

4. The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its shape through ciliary muscle action

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 110

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Q.28 A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid on a table. Which substance
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should be used to neutralise the acid safely?

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Ans 1. Lemon juice
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2. Baking soda solution

3. Vinegar
ag
4. Sugar solution

Q.29 Which of the following is a primary mission under India's National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC)?
Ans 1. National Nutrition Mission

2. National Highway Development Project

3. National Rural Livelihood Mission
m
4. National Solar Mission
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Q.30
m .co
Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of occupational hazards. The most
s e m
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effective way to protect them from exposure to infectious materials is:
l a
Ans
l a
1. Use of protective equipment and safe handling
ag
ag
2. Segregation of waste into color-coded bins

3. Regular medical check-ups

4. Vaccination against common infections

Q.31 The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred mainly in which region of India?
Ans 1. Konkan region of Maharashtra

2. Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu

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3. Sunderbans region of West Bengal

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4. Malabar region of Kerala

s e
Q.32
la
In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a compound with the formula
g
a
CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH. What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound?
Ans 1. 2-methylhexanol

2. 3-methylhexanol

3. 3-methylpentan-1-ol

4. 4-methylpentanol

Q.33 If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1` return?
Ans 1. 30
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2. 200
m
m.co 3. Error

s e m
s e 4. 1020

g l a
g l a Q.34 Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed in 1888, showcases a blend of a
a Ans
Victorian Gothic and Indian architectural elements?
1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

2. Gateway of India

3. Bombay Town Hall

4. Rajabai Clock Tower

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 110

Q.35 Consider the following statements regarding chemical reactions and choose the correct
option.

Statement I: Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single
product is classified as a combination reaction regardless of heat change.
Statement II: The reaction CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat is both a combination
reaction and an exothermic reaction.
Ans 1. Only Statement I is correct

2. Both statements are incorrect

3. Both statements are correct

4. Only Statement II is correct

Q.36 Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th National Games of India?
Ans 1. Dhinidhi Desinghu

2. Neeraj Chopra

3. Manu Bhaker

4. Bajrang Punia

Q.37 Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the eastern coastal plains?
Ans 1. Narmada

2. Godavari

3. Ganga

4. Tapi

Q.38 On which date is National Handloom Day observed in India?
Ans 1. 5 September

2. 18 August

3. 7 August

4. 2 October

Q.39 The pollutant group commonly associated with oil spills in oceans is ______________.
Ans 1. agricultural pesticides

2. chemical fertilizers

3. synthetic detergents

4. petroleum products

Q.40 Which experimental discovery contradicted Thomson's model of the atom and led to its
rejection?
Ans 1. Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction

2. Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large angles

3. Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr

4. Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick

Q.41 A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers over several years. Which
consequence most likely results from this practice leading to soil pollution?
Ans 1. Accumulation of toxic substances in soil

2. Faster plant growth every season

3. Erosion of surface soil layers

4. Increase in earthworm population

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 110

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Q.42 The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving water resources management of how
m
many states?

. co
Ans 1. eight
s e m
m a
se l
2. seven

3. ten
ag
4. five

Q.43 Match the following columns.
Pardoning power Function
1. Commutation a. Removes both sentence and the conviction.
2. Reprieve b. Lesser sentence than originally given, in special case
3. Respite c. Reducing the period of sentence without changing th
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.co
of the sentence.
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.co m
4. Remission d. Temporary stay on the execution of a sentence.

m s e
a
5. Pardon e. Substitution of one form of punishment to a lighter on

s e l
a ag
Ans 1. 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a
l
ag
2. 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d

3. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b

4. 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a

Q.44 What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint 2021 presentation?
Ans 1. .pptx

2. .xlsx

3. .docx
m
4. .pdf

m .co
s e
la
Q.45 What is the general formula of alkenes?
Ans 1. CnH2n−2

2. CnH2n+2 ag
3. CnH2n

4. CnHn

Q.46 Which of the following statements is true about the Outbox?
Ans 1. It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.

2. It holds emails that have been successfully sent.
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.co
3. It is used to receive incoming emails.
m
m.co 4. It contains emails that are currently being drafted.

s e m
s e
Q.47 What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the upper respiratory mucous
g l a
g l a membrane?
a
a Ans 1. It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the lungs

2. It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen transport

3. It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung

4. It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and forms irritant

Q.48 The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
Ans 1. Provide rural connectivity through road construction

2. Promote renewable energy usage
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3. Enhance telecommunication services in cities
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s e
4. Develop urban infrastructure
l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 110

Q.49 Which condition is required for a displacement reaction between a metal and salt
solution?
Ans 1. Reaction must be endothermic

2. Metal must be higher in reactivity series

3. Salt must be insoluble in water

4. Metal must be same as salt constituent

Q.50 Which of the following best describes how sound travels through air?
Ans 1. The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to the direction of the wave

2. The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction of the wave

3. The air particles move in circular paths as the wave passes

4. The air particles remain stationary while the wave moves through

Section : Technical Abilities

Q.1 In a monostable configuration of IC 555, why is the Discharge pin (Pin 7) connected
directly to the Threshold pin (Pin 6)?
Ans 1. To prevent the capacitor from ever reaching 2/3 Vcc

2. To ensure the capacitor is instantly discharged once the threshold is reached.

3. To allow the capacitor to charge very slowly for stable output.

4. To trigger the next pulse automatically.

Q.2 What are the statements that begin with # symbol called in C programming language?
Ans 1. Comments

2. Preprocessor Directives

3. Control statements

4. Function declarations

Q.3 Which cable transmits data using light signals?
Ans 1. Twisted pair cable

2. Coaxial cable

3. USB cable

4. Fiber optic cable

Q.4 In a centralized switching system, what is the Control Unit responsible for?
Ans 1. Generating the ringing voltage only

2. Processing dialed digits and managing call setup

3. Generating the voice of the caller

4. Physically moving the copper wires

Q.5 Consider the following statements about RS-232 ports and connectors.

S1: DB9 connector is associated with RS-232
S2: RS-232 uses RJ45 connector for standard serial communication
S3: RS-232 communication is point-to-point

Which statements are TRUE?
Ans 1. Only S1 and S3

2. Only S2 and S3

3. Only S1

4. Only S1 and S2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 110

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Q.6 Which of the following statements is TRUE about data transmission modes?
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Ans 1. Serial transmission always requires more communication lines

. e m
m 2. Serial transmission sends multiple bits simultaneously
as
se 3. Parallel transmission can transmit multiple bits simultaneously
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4. Parallel transmission sends one bit at a time

Q.7 Which characteristic primarily defines how accurately the vertical deflection system of a
CRO displays signals of different amplitudes and frequencies?
Ans 1. Operation of the sweep circuit and retrace interval

2. Phosphor persistence on the CRT screen

3. Accelerating anode voltage in the electron gun

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4. The gain and frequency response of the vertical amplifier

m
Q.8
.co
During insulation testing of a long underground cable, a technician observes higher

m
leakage current compared to a shorter cable of the same type. What is the most likely
s e m
reason?
s e l a
Ans
l a
1. The increased cable length reduces the dielectric strength of the insulation.
ag
ag
2. Leakage current is independent of cable length for the same insulation material.

3. A longer cable always has higher insulation resistance than a shorter cable.

4. The larger insulation surface area provides more leakage paths to ground.

Q.9 In the 8085 microprocessor, what operation is performed by the instruction SUI 20H?
Ans 1. Subtracts 20H from the accumulator

2. Subtracts 20H from the accumulator with borrow

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3. Adds 20H to the accumulator

4. Compares with 20H with the accumulator

e m
Q.10
la
What is the output of the give C language code snippet? s
void f(int x)
ag
{
x = x + 5;
}
int main()
{
int a = 10;
f(a);
printf("%d",a);
return 0;
}

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Ans 1. 5

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.co m
2. 15

m 3. 10
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. Garbage value
a
a Q.11 Why is a high-sensitivity voltmeter preferred for accurate circuit measurements?
Ans 1. It minimizes loading effect by drawing very small current

2. It increases the operating frequency of the circuit

3. It reduces the response time of the instrument

4. It increases the power consumption of the measuring circuit

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 110

Q.12 A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohm and is connected to a
load of 100 ohm. The VSWR is _________.
Ans 1. 0.5

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Q.13 Which of the following contains only valid octal digits?
Ans 1. 2, 4, 6, 9

2. 3, 5, 7, 9

3. 0, 3, 5, 7

4. 1, 5, 7, 8

Q.14 The current flows directly into the input terminals of an ideal op-amp is _____________
due to ____________ input impedance.
Ans 1. zero; infinite

2. 1 milliAmpere; zero

3. dependent on the supply voltage; zero

4. 1 Ampere; moderate

Q.15 An op amp acting as a comparator typically operates in:
Ans 1. Closed-loop mode with negative feedback

2. Unity gain mode

3. Linear region only

4. Open-loop mode

Q.16 Consider the following statements about routing in computer networks.

S1: Routers operate at the network layer
S2: Routing determines packet forwarding paths
S3: Static routing updates automatically
S4: Dynamic routing protocols exchange routing information

Which of the given statements are TRUE?
Ans 1. Only S1 and S2

2. Only S2 and S3

3. Only S1, S2 and S4

4. Only S1 and S4

Q.17 Consider the following code snippet in C programming language.
int n = 5;
int m = n++;
What is the value of m after execution?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 0

4. 1

Q.18 Which statement is TRUE about if statement in the C programming language?
Ans 1. A non-zero value written in the condition means True

2. A value of 0 written in the condition means True

3. Every if statement must have a matching else

4. if statement cannot be nested

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 110

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Q.19 For Astable Multivibrator using IC 555, to increase the frequency of an astable 555
m
circuit without changing the duty cycle ratio, what should a designer do? Assume

. co standard terminologies and resistor names.

s e m
m Ans 1. Increase the value of R_A
a
se 2. Decrease the supply voltage
ag l
3. Increase the value of Capacitor C

4. Decrease the value of C while keeping resistors RA and RB constant

Q.20 Which of the following is a false statement regarding the non-inverting amplifier using
OP-AMP?
Ans 1. It offers high input impedance

2. It provides higher magnitude gain for the same resistor values when compared to the inverting amplifier

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3. It is ideal for use in instrumentation and buffer circuits

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.co m
4. It is limited to handling only DC signals

m s e
Q.21
s e
The output of the phase detector in a phase-locked loop is ____________.
l a
Ans
l a
1. A maximum constant voltage when the phase detector is in a free-running state.
ag
ag
2. Zero when the phase detector finds the input and oscillator phases are perfectly aligned.

3. An alternating current signal when the phase detector locks the loop.

4. A proportional error voltage when the phase detector identifies a phase difference between input and the VCO signal

Q.22 What is the purpose of the Back-off technique in transponder power amplifiers related
to Satellite communication?
Ans 1. To save satellite battery life during the night

2. To reduce intermodulation distortion when multiple carriers are present
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3. To increase the speed of data transmission

4. To increase the maximum output power
e m
las
Q.23
g
Which of the following statements about the Harvard architecture used in the 8051
microcontroller is correct?
a
Ans 1. Uses single memory for program and data

2. Has no external memory support

3. Uses only RAM

4. Uses separate memory for program and data

Q.24 In a LAN environment, switches improve network efficiency primarily by:
Ans 1. Forwarding frames selectively using MAC addresses
m
m
2. Increasing collision occurrences and retransmitting
.co
m.co 3. Broadcasting all frames to every device in the network
s e m
s e 4. Converting digital signal to analog signal
g l a
g l a a
a Q.25
Ans
What does the remanence (Br) indicate in a magnetic hysteresis loop?
1. It is the maximum magnetic flux density reached in the loop.

2. It is the applied field needed to reduce flux to zero.

3. It is the residual magnetic flux density after removing the applied field.

4. It is the area enclosed by the hysteresis loop.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 110

Q.26 In 8051, consider the following instructions:
MOV PSW, #18H
MOV R3, #55H
MOV A, R3

From which register bank is R3 selected in the instruction MOV A, R3?
Ans 1. Bank 3

2. Bank 0

3. Bank 2

4. Bank 1

Q.27 In the Hexagonal cell model, where is the Base Transceiver Station (BTS) typically
located to provide uniform coverage?
Ans 1. Outside the cell boundary to avoid interference

2. At any one of the six corners

3. Along the longest edge of the cell

4. Exactly at the center of the hexagon

Q.28 In the 8085 microprocessor, what happens to the Stack Pointer after execution of PUSH
instruction?
Ans 1. Incremented by 2

2. Decremented by 2

3. Unchanged

4. Incremented by 1

Q.29 The LPF in a PLL determines which of the following dynamic characteristics?
Ans 1. The input impedance of the phase detector.

2. The free-running frequency of the VCO.

3. The maximum output power of the circuit.

4. Settling time and loop stability.

Q.30 If the same quantity is measured several times and the readings vary slightly each time,
which type of error is most likely present?
Ans 1. Calibration error

2. Random error

3. Systematic error

4. Parallax error

Q.31 In an LCD display, what is the main purpose of the liquid crystal layer positioned
between the two glass plates?
Ans 1. To store electrical energy for the display circuit

2. To control the transmission of light through the display

3. To act as a light source for displaying characters

4. To increase the operating voltage of the display segment

Q.32 Which of the following best describes packet switching in computer network?
Ans 1. Entire message transmitted as one continuous signal

2. Data divided into smaller packets transmitted independently

3. Dedicated physical path between sender and receiver

4. Fixed bandwidth allocated permanently to users

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 110

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Q.33 When a NOR-based SR flip-flop with active HIGH inputs receives a momentary logic
m
high on its S (set) input while the R (reset) input remains low, what will be the resulting

. co state of the Q output?

s e m
m Ans 1. Q becomes HIGH and remains latched HIGH
a
se 2. Both outputs will become high during the pulse
ag l
3. The Q output will become low after S returns to low

4. The Q output will toggle between high and low repeatedly

Q.34 What allows a Radar system to detect the presence of a target?
Ans 1. Electromagnetic wave reflection

2. Acoustic resonance

3. Atmospheric refraction
m
4. Chemical ionization
m .co
Q.35
m .co
Which operator is used for dynamic memory allocation in C++?
s e m
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. delete

l a
ag
2. allocate

3. new

4. alloc

Q.36 Which arrangement is used in a CRT of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) to achieve
proper electrostatic focusing of the electron beam?
Ans 1. A cathode at high potential followed by only high potential accelerating anodes

2. A fluorescent screen at lower potential placed after the high potential accelerating anodes

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3. A focusing anode at lower potential placed between two high potential accelerating anodes

4. Two accelerating anodes at equal potential without a focusing anode

e m
Q.37
la
Which shape is used to represent a decision in a flowchart?s
Ans 1. Parallelogram
ag
2. Diamond

3. Oval

4. Rectangle

Q.38 In the 8085 microprocessor, what will be the value of the Program Counter after
execution of the instruction RST 3?
Ans 1. 0030H

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2. 0024H
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3. 0018H

m s e
s e
4. 0003H

g l a
g l a Q.39 A synchronous counter is a counter in which: a
a Ans 1. Only one flip-flop is used

2. All flip-flops are triggered simultaneously

3. No clock is used

4. Flip-flops are triggered one by one

Q.40 A 2-input NOR gate has one input permanently connected to logic LOW (0). How does
the output behave with respect to the other input?

m .
Ans 1. Output is always LOW

2. Output is always HIGH

m .co s e m
e
3. Output is the complement of the other input
s l a
l a
4. Output follows the other input directly
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 110

Q.41 A resistor connected to a DC supply of 20 V produces the same heating effect as an AC
supply connected across the same resistor. What is the RMS value of the AC voltage?
Ans 1. 10 V

2. 28.28 V

3. 20 V

4. 14.14 V

Q.42 In the 8085 microprocessor, if SP = 3FFFH and memory contains:
3FFEH = 20H
3FFFH = 20H
4000H = 10H
4001H =10H

After executing POP H, what will be the contents of HL?
Ans 1. 2020H

2. 2010H

3. 1010H

4. 1020H

Q.43 Which action is the most important for maintaining accurate measurements in an
instrument?
Ans 1. Calibrate the instrument using a standard reference

2. Operating the instrument always at maximum frequency range.

3. Reduce the sensitivity of the instrument

4. Setting the amplifier gain of the instrument to zero

Q.44 What is the main reason high-frequency Carrier signals are used in modulation?
Ans 1. To amplify the original message signal.

2. To make the signal move at the speed of light.

3. To eliminate the need for a receiver.

4. To reduce the physical size of the required antenna.

Q.45 Signal A passes through a NOT gate and then through an AND gate where the second
input is permanently set to logic 1. What is the final output expression?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.46 Consider an abrupt p-n junction under thermal equilibrium. If the acceptor doping
concentration (NA) in the p-region is made significantly larger than the donor doping
concentration (ND) in the n-region (i.e., NA ≫
ND), how is the depletion region physically
distributed?
Ans 1. It extends primarily into the lightly doped n-type region.

2. It extends equally into both the p-type and n-type regions.

3. It extends primarily into the heavily doped p-type region.

4. It is confined strictly to the metallurgical junction with zero penetration into either region.

Q.47 In a graded-index Optical fiber, how is the refractive index distributed?
Ans 1. Decreasing continuously from center to edge

2. Higher in the cladding than the core

3. Increasing from center to edge

4. Uniformly throughout the core

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 110

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Q.48 What is the BCD code for decimal digit 3?
m
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Ans 1. 0011

. e m
m 2. 0110
as
se 3. 0101
ag l
4. 0001

Q.49 According to Carson's Rule, the approximate bandwidth of a frequency modulation
signal is __________.
Ans 1. Infinite

2. Equal to the carrier frequency

3. Twice the sum of the frequency deviation and the highest modulating frequency

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4. Twice the carrier frequency

m
Q.50
.co
In a pulsed radar system, the __________ power is the maximum instantaneous power

m
delivered during the pulse width, whereas the __________ power is the mean power
s e m
s e
output calculated over the total transmission cycle.
l a
Ans
l a
1. Pulsed; Continuous
ag
ag
2. Effective; Gain

3. Average; Peak

4. Peak; Average

Q.51 What is the function of the INTA' signal in the 8085 microprocessor?
Ans 1. To enable interrupts

2. To acknowledge an interrupt request

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3. To disable interrupts

4. To reset the processor

e m
Q.52
las
What is the output of the following C programming language code?

#include<stdio.h>
ag
int main()
{
int x = 10;
int *p = &x;
*p = *p + 5;
printf("%d %d", x, *p);
return 0;
}
Ans 1. 10 10

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2. 15 10

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3. 10 15

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e m
4. 15 15

l as
l asQ.53 In the magnetic trip mechanism of an MCB, which sequence correctly describes the
ag
ag Ans
tripping action during a short circuit?
1. Fault current → contact resistance increases → plunger attracted → latch released

2. Fault current → plunger released → magnetic field generated → contacts open

3. Fault current → bimetal strip bends → latch released → contacts open

4. Fault current → magnetic field generated → plunger attracted → latch released

Q.54 What happens to the amount of substance deposited if the time for which current flows
through an electrolyte is doubled?
Ans 1. It remains unchanged
m .
2. It becomes zero
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s e l a
ag
3. It becomes half

g
4. It also doubles l a
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 110

Q.55 What is the output the given C language code snippet?
#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
int x[] = {10,20,30};
int *p = x;
p++;
printf("%d",*p);
return 0;
}
Ans 1. Garbage value

2. 30

3. 10

4. 20

Q.56 Consider the following statements regarding modems used in computer network:

S1: Modems are required when communication medium carries analog signals
S2: Modulation converts digital data into analog form
S3: Demodulation converts analog data into digital form
S4: Modems assign MAC addresses to computers

Which statements are TRUE?
Ans 1. Only S1, S3 and S4

2. Only S1 and S4

3. Only S1, S2 and S3

4. Only S1 and S2

Q.57 A 4 KB EPROM is organized with 8 data lines. How many address lines does it have?
Ans 1. 14

2. 10

3. 12

4. 8

Q.58 How many PN junctions are present in the structure of a Silicon Controlled Rectifier
(SCR)?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Four

4. Three

Q.59 Which mechanical property allows a conductor to be drawn into thin wires without
breaking?
Ans 1. Ductility

2. Elasticity

3. Hardness

4. Brittleness

Q.60 What does the instruction ORA B do in 8085?
Ans 1. Subtracts B from accumulator

2. Performs AND between accumulator and B

3. Adds B to accumulator

4. Performs logical OR between accumulator and B

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 110

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Q.61 What happens to the frequency of an astable multivibrator if the value of ONLY the
m
timing capacitor is doubled?

. co
Ans 1. The frequency is reduced by half.
s e m
m a
se l
2. The frequency remains the same.

3. The frequency increases fourfold.
ag
4. The frequency doubles.

Q.62 In a CRO time-base circuit, why is constant-current charging preferred for generating
the sweep voltage?
Ans 1. It ensures the capacitor voltage rises uniformly over time, forming a linear sweep

2. It causes the capacitor voltage to rise exponentially with time, distorting the sweep

3. It makes the retrace interval longer than the sweep interval
m
m
4. It relies on the transistor's collector current to set the linearity
.co
Q.63
m .co
A motor draws a starting current much higher than its running current. What should be
s e m
s e
considered when selecting a relay?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Relay contact rating must exceed the motor's peak starting current
ag
ag
2. Relay contact rating should match only the motor running current

3. Relay selection depends solely on the coil voltage specification.

4. Relay selection should focus only on minimum coil voltage

Q.64 A magnetic material has a hysteresis loop area of 0.4 J for each cycle. If the material is
subjected to a frequency of 40 Hz, what is the total hysteresis loss per second?
Ans 1. 16 W

2. 20 W
m
.co
3. 12 W

4. 10 W
e m
las
Q.65
g
A DC node has 1.8 A entering it. Two branches carry 0.6 A and 0.9 A away from the node.
a
Assuming the remaining branch current is also leaving the node, what is its value?

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

Ans 1. 1.2 A

2. 0.3 A

3. 0.5 A
m .
4. 0.9 A

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 110

Q.66 Why should electrical connections be regularly tightened in high-current circuits?
Ans 1. Tight connections ensure lower circuit voltage

2. It prevents accidental current reversal

3. Loose connections cause localized heating and fire risk

4. It avoids electromagnetic interference

Q.67 A designer is selecting an LED driver for an outdoor display exposed to dust and rain.
Which specification should be examined first to determine whether the driver can
withstand these environmental conditions?
Ans 1. Dimming compatibility

2. Power factor rating

3. Ingress Protection (IP) rating

4. Output current tolerance

Q.68 In a 4-to-2 priority encoder, if both D1 and D3 are HIGH, which input determines the
output and why?
Ans 1. The output is undefined due to multiple actives

2. Both D1 and D3 set the output together

3. D1 determines the output because it is the lower number

4. D3 determines the output because it has higher priority

Q.69 A coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the area of the coil is doubled while the
magnetic field strength and orientation remain unchanged, how will the magnetic flux
through the coil be affected assuming the initial magnetic flux is a non-zero finite
value?
Ans 1. The magnetic flux will remain the same

2. The magnetic flux will decrease to half

3. The magnetic flux will become four times

4. The magnetic flux will double

Q.70 The transition of an SCR from the forward blocking state to the conduction state is
called:
Ans 1. Avalanche breakdown

2. Commutation

3. Forward recovery

4. Triggering

Q.71 An engineer is designing a feedback control system using a potentiometer transducer
to measure angular position. What is the primary effect if a voltmeter with low
resistance is connected to measure the potentiometer output?
Ans 1. It increases output signal noise regardless of wiper position

2. It maximizes sensitivity and accuracy of the measuring instrument

3. It reduces the mechanical lifespan of the potentiometer due to excess current

4. It causes loading error, resulting in nonlinear output voltage relative to wiper position

Q.72 What does PPP stand for in Wide Area Network ( WAN ) communication?
Ans 1. Private Port Protocol

2. Point-to-Point Protocol

3. Public Packet Protocol

4. Packet Transfer Protocol

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 110

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Q.73 Which class of IPv4 addresses supports the largest number of host addresses in a
m
computer network?

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Ans 1. Class B
s e m
m a
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2. Class A

3. Class D
ag
4. Class C

Q.74 If the modulating signal is a constant DC voltage, the output of a Phase Modulator will
be:
Ans 1. Zero.

2. A signal with increasing frequency.

3. A constant frequency signal with a fixed phase shift.
m
m
4. A signal with varying amplitude.
.co
Q.75
m .co
A constant negative DC voltage is applied to the input of an inverting integrator.
s e m
s e
Assuming the op-amp starts at zero volts and remains unsaturated, the output will be:
l a
Ans
l a
1. A square wave
ag
ag
2. A positive-going linear ramp

3. A negative-going linear ramp

4. A constant DC voltage

Q.76 Assume an SCR is operating in the forward blocking state. Once a sufficient positive
current pulse is applied to the gate terminal, the SCR triggers into the conduction state.
What happens if the gate signal is completely removed immediately after conduction
starts?

m
Ans 1. The SCR will immediately turn off.

2. The anode current will drop by exactly 50%.

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3. The SCR will begin to oscillate between the ON and OFF states.
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4. The SCR will continue to conduct until the anode current drops below the holding current.
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Q.77
a
In the 8085 microprocessor, what does the instruction PCHL do?
Ans 1. Loads the PC with HL

2. Pops the PC from the stack

3. Loads HL with the PC

4. Pushes PC onto the stack

Q.78 Which protocol is responsible for delivering web pages over the Internet?
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Ans 1. SMTP
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2. ARP

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a Q.79 How does the shading coil in an AC relay minimize contact chatter during operation?
Ans 1. It delays the movement of the relay armature during release.

2. It maintains a holding magnetic force during current zero crossing.

3. It changes the relay's operating voltage rating.

4. It maintains the spacing between relay contacts during operation.

Q.80 The holding current of an SCR is defined as the:
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Ans 1. Minimum anode current required to turn on the SCR

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2. Minimum anode current required to keep the SCR in conduction state
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3. Gate current required to turn off the SCR

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4. Maximum anode current the SCR can withstand
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 110

Q.81 The primary reason for the increase in resistance of metallic conductors with
temperature is _____________.
Ans 1. Atomic collisions inside the conductor increase

2. Atomic vibrations inside the conductor decrease

3. Number of free electrons becomes zero

4. Conducting path inside the material becomes shorter

Q.82 Why is earthing necessary for electrical equipment?
Ans 1. To decrease power consumption

2. To increase wire length

3. To improve light brightness

4. To protect people from electric shock

Q.83 In Boolean algebra, what is the value of C + C'?
Ans 1. C

2. C · C'

3. 1

4. 0

Q.84 At room temperature, the region in a PN junction diode where there are no mobile
electrons or holes is called __________________.
Ans 1. N-type region

2. P-type region

3. Depletion region

4. Ohmic terminal interface

Q.85 A technician is troubleshooting a circuit where the fuse does not blow during an
overcurrent fault. What is the most likely cause?
Ans 1. The fuse is connected in parallel with the load.

2. The fuse wire has low resistance

3. The fuse is installed after the protective relay.

4. The fuse rating is higher than the circuit's safe current.

Q.86 What is the output of the given C language code snippet?
#include<stdio.h>

void f(int n)
{
if(n==0)
return;
printf("%d ",n);
f(n-1);
}

int main()
{
f(3);
return 0;
}
Ans 1. 3 2 1 0

2. 1 2 3

3. Infinite loop

4. 3 2 1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 110

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Q.87 A single-phase AC circuit contains a resistive inductive load. The current lags behind
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the voltage by an angle greater than 0° and less than 90°. What is the power factor of

. co the circuit called?

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m Ans 1. Zero power factor
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se 2. Lagging power factor
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3. Leading power factor

4. Unity power factor

Q.88 If the strength of the current in a straight wire is doubled, how does the magnitude of
the magnetic field at a fixed distance from the wire change?
Ans 1. The field strength is halved

2. The field strength doubles

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3. The field strength remains unchanged

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4. The field strength quadruples

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Q.89
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Why does charging a lead-acid secondary cell increase the specific gravity of the
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a ag
electrolyte?
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Ans 1. Active materials reform and increase acid concentration

2. It decreases due to formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen

3. It increases due to hydrogen gas raising electrolyte density

4. It stays the same because separators control dilution

Q.90 In an analog Stored Program Control (SPC) system, the Program manages:
Ans 1. The electronic connection of the analog matrix

2. The digital conversion of the voice signal
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3. The brightness of the telephone screen

4. The internet connection of the subscriber
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las
Q.91
Ans 1. RET ag
Which instruction is used to return from a subroutine in 8085?

2. RST

3. CALL

4. JMP

Q.92 Which internal component of the IC 555 is responsible for resetting the flip-flop when
the voltage at Pin 6 exceeds two-thirds of Vcc supply?
Ans 1. The Upper Comparator
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2. The Voltage Divider Network
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m.co 3. The Lower Comparator
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s e 4. The Discharge Transistor
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a Q.93 You need to read a floating-point value from the user in the C programming language.
Which of the following statements correctly performs this task?
Ans 1. float x; scanf("%f, &x);

2. float x; scanf("%d" , &x);

3. float x; scanf("%f",*x);

4. float x; scanf("%f" , x);

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Q.94 A user wants to transmit uncompressed digital audio and video between a computer
and a display using a single cable. Which connector type is most appropriate?
Ans 1. F connector

2. RCA connector

3. BNC connector

4. HDMI connector

Q.95 What would happen if an electrical device is not earthed and a fault occurs?
Ans 1. The resistance of the device will increase

2. The exposed metal parts may carry dangerous voltage

3. The device will automatically shut down

4. The supply voltage will decrease

Q.96 If a communication system performs effectively in between 200 Hz to 3.4 kHz, what is its
bandwidth?
Ans 1. 3.6 kHz

2. 3.4 kHz

3. 200 Hz

4. 3.2 kHz

Q.97 A 1 mA,100 Ω meter movement is converted to a 100 mA ammeter using a parallel shunt
resistor. If this shunt resistor suddenly becomes open-circuited while a steady line
current of 80 mA is passing through the meter, what is the most likely outcome?
Ans 1. The meter indication drops to zero due to loss of shunt current

2. The meter continues to indicate the measured current correctly

3. Excessive current may flow through the meter movement and damage it

4. The meter becomes more sensitive and shows larger deflections

Q.98 Which type of network typically experiences the lowest transmission delay?
Ans 1. WAN

2. Satellite Network

3. MAN

4. LAN

Q.99 Using De Morgan’s law, what is the equivalent of ?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.100 Under forward-bias conditions, what is the primary mechanism that creates forward
current across a PN junction?
Ans 1. The drift of majority carriers due to the enhanced internal barrier electric field.

2. The millions of protons creation inside the depletion region

3. The freezing of movement for free electrons across the metallurgical junction.

4. Majority carriers crossing the junction to become injected minority carriers that diffuse through the neutral regions

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 110

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a

Test Date 02/07/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject / Exam RRB JE Stage 2 Mechanical and Allied
Group Engineering
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* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : General Abilities

Q.1 If 10 grams of salt are dissolved in 100 mL of water, which component is the solute?
Ans 1. Both salt and water

2. Salt only

3. Neither

4. Water only
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Q.2
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Which of the following indicators is NOT typically used to measure sustainable
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development?

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Ans 1. Biocapacity

2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate
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3. Human Development Index (HDI)

4. Ecological Footprint

Q.3 A field exposed to excessive pesticide use shows a sharp decline in earthworm
population. The resulting effect on soil is:
Ans 1. Reduced soil fertility

2. Enhanced decomposition

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3. Improved aeration
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4. Increased water retention

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Q.4 The term 'smog' is a combination of ____________.
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Smog and mist
a
a 2. Smoke and haze

3. Fog and clouds

4. Smoke and fog

Q.5 Biomedical waste handlers in a hospital are at risk of occupational hazards. The most
effective way to protect them from exposure to infectious materials is:
Ans 1. Use of protective equipment and safe handling

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2. Segregation of waste into color-coded bins

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3. Vaccination against common infections

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4. Regular medical check-ups
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Q.6 Which new warship was commissioned by the Indian Navy in November, 2025, to
strengthen anti-submarine and coastal defence capabilities?
Ans 1. INS Ikshak

2. INS Mahe

3. INS Vikrant

4. INS Arnala

Q.7 Which condition is required for a displacement reaction between a metal and salt
solution?
Ans 1. Salt must be insoluble in water

2. Metal must be same as salt constituent

3. Metal must be higher in reactivity series

4. Reaction must be endothermic

Q.8 The primary method of managing biodegradable domestic waste after collection is
_________________.
Ans 1. conversion into compost

2. sending for recycling

3. throwing into sewers

4. burnt in open air

Q.9 A student pushes a heavy box that is already moving across a rough floor. If the force
applied by the student is exactly equal to the frictional force opposing the motion, what
will happen to the box?
Ans 1. The box will gradually come to rest

2. The box will move at increasing speed

3. The box will accelerate forward

4. The box will move at a constant speed

Q.10 Which of the following satellites was launched on November 2, 2025, to enhance the
Indian Navy’s secure communication network and maritime surveillance capabilities?
Ans 1. RISAT-2B

2. GSAT-6A

3. CMS-03 (GSAT-7R)

4. Cartosat-3

Q.11 What is the general formula of alkenes?
Ans 1. CnH2n−2

2. CnH2n

3. CnHn

4. CnH2n+2

Q.12 A student accidentally spills some hydrochloric acid on a table. Which substance
should be used to neutralise the acid safely?
Ans 1. Baking soda solution

2. Lemon juice

3. Vinegar

4. Sugar solution

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 110

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Q.13 The Atal Bhujal Yojana 2020 focused on improving water resources management of how
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many states?

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Ans 1. seven
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2. ten

3. five
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4. eight

Q.14 Which of the following statements best describes the behavior of magnetic field lines
around a straight current-carrying conductor?
Ans 1. They form concentric circles centered on the conductor.

2. They are parallel straight lines along the wire.

3. They change direction randomly along the wire.
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4. They radiate straight outward from the wire.
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Q.15
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Who won the maximum number of medals at the 38th National Games of India?
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Ans 1. Dhinidhi Desinghu

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2. Manu Bhaker

3. Neeraj Chopra

4. Bajrang Punia

Q.16 The Kol Rebellion (1831–32) mainly affected which plateau region?
Ans 1. Malwa Plateau

2. Chotanagpur Plateau

3. Deccan Plateau
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4. Meghalaya Plateau

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Q.17
s
Which of the following statements best describes how the power of accommodation

la
enables the human eye to focus on both near and distant objects?
Ans
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1. The cornea provides all the focusing power required for clear vision

2. The iris controls the amount of light entering and helps to focus

3. The retina moves forward and backward to adjust the focus

4. The eye lens changes its focal length by altering its shape through ciliary muscle action

Q.18 Which function returns the smallest value?
Ans 1. AVERAGE

2. MIN()
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3. MAX()
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m.co 4. COUNT()
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s e g l a
g l a Q.19 Which of the following is a primary mission under India's National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC)? a
a Ans 1. National Nutrition Mission

2. National Highway Development Project

3. National Rural Livelihood Mission

4. National Solar Mission

Q.20 When was the 11th National Handloom Day celebrated across India under the
coordination of the Ministry of Textiles?

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Ans 1. August 7, 2025

2. September 7, 2025

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3. November 7, 2025
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4. October 7, 2025
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Q.21 Which Quick Style type is applied only to selected words or individual characters within
a paragraph in MS Word 2010?
Ans 1. Page styles

2. Paragraph styles

3. Character styles

4. Linked styles

Q.22 Which of the following Articles states about the right of individual to form associations
or unions or co-operative societies?
Ans 1. Article 19 (1) (c)

2. Article 19 (1) (a)

3. Article 19 (1) (d)

4. Article 19 (1) (b)

Q.23 You want to automatically advance slides with narration and animations during a
presentation. Which MS PowerPoint feature should you use to achieve this?
Ans 1. Slide Sorter

2. Rehearse Timings

3. Presenter View

4. Action Buttons

Q.24 Consider the following statements regarding chemical reactions and choose the correct
option.

Statement I: Every reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single
product is classified as a combination reaction regardless of heat change.
Statement II: The reaction CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat is both a combination
reaction and an exothermic reaction.
Ans 1. Both statements are incorrect

2. Both statements are correct

3. Only Statement I is correct

4. Only Statement II is correct

Q.25 The primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is to:
Ans 1. Develop urban infrastructure

2. Promote renewable energy usage

3. Enhance telecommunication services in cities

4. Provide rural connectivity through road construction

Q.26 How can we locate a file with a known extension but an unknown name in a large
directory?
Ans 1. Checking the Recycle Bin

2. Using the dir command

3. Through File Explorer

4. Using the Search box in File Explorer with *.ext

Q.27 What is the main reason sulfur dioxide irritates the upper respiratory mucous
membrane?
Ans 1. It combines with haemoglobin and effect the oxygen transport

2. It oxidizes to sulphur trioxide and inhaled deep into lung

3. It dissolves in moisture in upper respiratory tract and forms irritant

4. It combines with other pollutants and polymerizes in the lungs

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 110

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Q.28 According to Thomson’s model, how are electrons arranged in an atom?
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Ans 1. Moving in fixed orbits around the nucleus

. e m
m 2. Embedded in a positively charged sphere like seeds in a watermelon
as
se 3. Orbiting around neutrons in elliptical paths
ag l
4. Randomly placed inside the nucleus

Q.29 If cell A1 = 10 and B1 = 20, what will `=A1+B1` return?
Ans 1. Error

2. 1020

3. 200

4. 30
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Q.30 The pollutant group commonly associated with oil spills in oceans is ______________.

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Ans 1. synthetic detergents

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2. agricultural pesticides

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3. petroleum products

4. chemical fertilizers

Q.31 Match the following columns.
Pardoning power Function
1. Commutation a. Removes both sentence and the conviction.
2. Reprieve b. Lesser sentence than originally given, in special case
3. Respite c. Reducing the period of sentence without changing th

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of the sentence.

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4. Remission d. Temporary stay on the execution of a sentence.
5. Pardon
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e. Substitution of one form of punishment to a lighter on

Ans 1. 1-d, 2-b, 3-e, 4-c, 5-a
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2. 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a
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3. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-b

4. 1-c, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d

Q.32 Which of the following best describes how sound travels through air?
Ans 1. The air particles vibrate up and down perpendicular to the direction of the wave

2. The air particles move in circular paths as the wave passes

3. The air particles remain stationary while the wave moves through
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4. The air particles vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction of the wave

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Q.33
mAccording to the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers
l as
l as (including the Prime Minister) in the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed what
percentage of the total members of the House of the People, i.e., Lok Sabha?
ag
ag Ans 1. 15%

2. 20%

3. 25%

4. 10%

Q.34 The atmospheric component that remains largely unreactive is _____________.
Ans 1. Carbon dioxide

2. Methane
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3. Argon
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4. Oxygen
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Q.35 Which experimental discovery contradicted Thomson's model of the atom and led to its
rejection?
Ans 1. Observation of line spectra of hydrogen by Bohr

2. Measurement of atomic radius using X-ray diffraction

3. Discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick

4. Alpha particle scattering showing deflection at large angles

Q.36 Which of the following is/are the primary reasons to fall in the trap of Email fraud or
phishing?
A) Paying attention to lucrative offers.
B) Not checking on links or attachments from unknown senders
C) Providing official information via email
D) Paying attention to the company logo sent in the email
Ans 1. A, B, D Only

2. A only

3. A, B, C Only

4. A, B Only

Q.37 A construction worker needs to lift a heavy metal beam using a lever but has a limited
length of plank. Which adjustment would allow the worker to lift the beam with the least
effort if the position of the fulcrum can be changed but the plank length remains
constant?
Ans 1. Place the fulcrum at the center of the plank

2. Keep the fulcrum fixed at any point

3. Move the fulcrum closer to the worker

4. Move the fulcrum closer to the beam

Q.38 Which type of computer virus attaches itself to executable files and gets activated when
the file is run?
Ans 1. File Infector Virus

2. Boot Sector Virus

3. Macro Virus

4. Worm

Q.39 What file extension is used to save an MS PowerPoint 2021 presentation?
Ans 1. .pdf

2. .docx

3. .xlsx

4. .pptx

Q.40 On which date is National Handloom Day observed in India?
Ans 1. 7 August

2. 5 September

3. 2 October

4. 18 August

Q.41 Which of the following options must be DISABLED before manually setting the date and
time in Windows?
Ans 1. Night Light

2. Enable multiple clocks

3. Set time automatically

4. Set time zone globally

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 50 of 110

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Q.42 Which pair of sectors is commonly addressed together in State Action Plan on Climate
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Change (SAPCC) adaptation planning?

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Ans 1. Water resources and health systems
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2. Textile design and fashion marketing

3. Information technology and space research
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4. Heavy industry and entertainment

Q.43 A factory plans to install a powerful electromagnet for lifting metal scraps. To maximize
the magnetic field strength around the coil, which of the following combinations would
be most effective?
Ans 1. Using a soft iron core, increasing coil turns, and increasing current through the coil

2. Using a steel core, decreasing coil turns, and lowering current

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3. Using an air core, decreasing coil turns, and keeping current constant

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4. Using a copper core, increasing coil turns, and lowering current

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Q.44
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Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the eastern coastal plains?
l a
Ans 1. Tapi
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2. Narmada
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3. Ganga

4. Godavari

Q.45 The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred mainly in which region of India?
Ans 1. Konkan region of Maharashtra

2. Sunderbans region of West Bengal

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3. Malabar region of Kerala

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4. Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu

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Q.46
la
In a real-life scenario, a chemist discovers a compound with the formula
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CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH. What is the correct IUPAC name for this compound?
Ans 1. 3-methylhexanol

2. 3-methylpentan-1-ol

3. 2-methylhexanol

4. 4-methylpentanol

Q.47 Which British colonial building in Mumbai, completed in 1888, showcases a blend of
Victorian Gothic and Indian architectural elements?

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Ans 1. Rajabai Clock Tower

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2. Bombay Town Hall

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l as
l as 4. Gateway of India
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ag Q.48 A farmer applies large amounts of chemical fertilizers over several years. Which
consequence most likely results from this practice leading to soil pollution?
Ans 1. Erosion of surface soil layers

2. Accumulation of toxic substances in soil

3. Increase in earthworm population

4. Faster plant growth every season

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Q.49 Which of the following best describes the velocity-time graph for an object moving with
uniform velocity?
Ans 1. A straight line sloping upwards from the time axis

2. A line starting from the origin and sloping upwards

3. A straight horizontal line parallel to the time axis

4. A curved line above the time axis

Q.50 Which of the following statements is true about the Outbox?
Ans 1. It is used to receive incoming emails.

2. It temporarily stores emails that are queued for sending.

3. It contains emails that are currently being drafted.

4. It holds emails that have been successfully sent.

Section : Technical Abilities

Q.1 A hollow shaft is designed to transmit a torque of 40000 N-m. The polar moment of
inertia (J) is 0.004 m4. The ratio of inside diameter to outside diameter of the hollow
shaft (Di/Do) is 0.8. The inside diameter is 400 mm. What is the maximum induced
shear stress (tmax) at the outer ber of the shaft?
Ans 1. 2500 MPa

2. 2.5 MPa

3. 250 MPa

4. 0.25 MPa

Q.2 In a scenario where excessive spatter occurs during arc welding, which adjustment is
most likely to mitigate the issue without compromising weld quality?
Ans 1. Switching to a larger electrode

2. Reducing arc length slightly

3. Decreasing base metal thickness

4. Increasing travel speed marginally

Q.3 A mechanical engineer needs to choose a steel for a structural component that requires
moderate ductility and high weldability. Based on the chemical composition and
classification, which steel type should be recommended?
Ans 1. Mild steel with low carbon and minimal alloying elements

2. Alloy steel with high chromium and nickel content

3. Alloy steel with high manganese and vanadium content

4. Mild steel with increased silicon and phosphorus content

Q.4 The ideal gas law for isothermal process can be represented as ______, (P is the
pressure and V is the volume of the gas at any stage).
Ans 1. P = constant.

2. PV = Constant.

3. V = constant.

4. P/V = Constant.

Q.5 Which two types of thermodynamic processes constitute the Carnot cycle in an ideal
heat engine?
Ans 1. Adiabatic and isochoric

2. Isothermal and adiabatic

3. Isothermal and isochoric
fi

4. Isobaric and isochoric

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 110

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Q.6 Which property of rubber-based coatings makes them suitable for protecting steel
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pipes in industrial environments?

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Ans 1. The coating improves the electrical conductivity of the pipe surface
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2. The coating provides high levels of thermal conductivity for the pipes

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3. The coating's flexibility prevents cracking under vibration and resists chemical attack

4. The coating's color remains durable even with prolonged sunlight exposure

Q.7 Intensity of pressure at a point in a fluid is:
Ans 1. Pressure includes both normal and shear stresses acting simultaneously at a point

2. Total normal force acting uniformly over a surface, independent of area and location within the fluid

3. Pressure at a point varies significantly with direction even in a static fluid

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4. Normal force per unit area at a point in the fluid, scalar intensity independent of direction

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Q.8
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Why is water mixed with oil often preferred as a grinding coolant over plain water?

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Ans
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1. It provides both cooling and lubrication

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2. It increases corrosion of metals
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3. It makes coolant less effective

4. It decreases grinding time significantly

Q.9 The primary function of a sine bar is to:
Ans 1. calibrate pressure gauges

2. check thread pitches

3. measure angles with high accuracy

4. measure linear dimensions
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Q.10
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Which of the following is a necessary modification in Newton’s second law to derive
D'Alembert’s principle for a dynamic system?
s e
Ans
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1. Incorporate a fictitious force equal to "minus mass times acceleration"
g
a
2. Omit all resistive forces acting on the system

3. Replace all forces with their average values

4. Include only gravitational forces in the analysis

Q.11 During the 'Shaping' operation conducted on a workpiece of aluminum material, the
type of coolant used is:
Ans 1. kerosene

2. cutting compound
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3. mineral hard oil
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m.co 4. dry kerosene turpentine
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g l a Q.12 During oxy-acetylene gas welding, improper adjustment of the neutral flame can most
likely result in which weld defect on stainless steel? a
a Ans 1. Occurrence of incomplete root fusion in the joint

2. Formation of significant undercut along the joint

3. Development of porosity within the weld metal

4. Excessive oxidation at the weld bead surface

Q.13 What is the heat supplied to a Carnot engine that produces 100 kW of useful work at an
efficiency of 35%?

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Ans 1. 300 kW

2. 150 kW

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3. 200 kW
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4. 285.7 kW
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Q.14 Which of the following properties is used as the basis for temperature measurement in
constant volume thermometers?
Ans 1. Pressure

2. Volume

3. Entropy

4. Enthalpy

Q.15 Which material handling equipment would be most suitable for transferring bulk
granular materials over a long horizontal distance within a factory?
Ans 1. Forklift transportation

2. Overhead crane arrangement

3. Belt conveyor system

4. Pallet truck operation

Q.16 Which of the following is considered a common surface defect in welding processes?
Ans 1. Undercut along the weld bead

2. Excessive spatter deposits

3. Lamellar tearing in plate

4. Incomplete penetration at root

Q.17 What type of measurement does a 'comparator' work on?
Ans 1. Absolute measurement

2. Basic measurement

3. Direct measurement

4. Relative measurement

Q.18 A component in a high-impact environment requires resistance to fracture with minimal
deformation. Which material property would be most critical to avoid premature failure?
Ans 1. High brittleness with low ductility

2. Low brittleness with high toughness

3. High brittleness with high elasticity

4. Low brittleness with low stiffness

Q.19 In high-performance applications such as turbine shafts and precision gears, alloy
steels are favored over mild steels primarily because they:
Ans 1. Require less alloying and heat treatment to achieve desired strength

2. Exhibit superior machinability due to refined ferritic microstructure

3. Possess lower density and improved dimensional stability

4. Retain mechanical integrity and hardness under conditions of elevated temperature and cyclic stress

Q.20 Which type of flux is most suitable for minimizing oxidation in high-temperature
aluminum welding applications involving magnesium alloys?
Ans 1. Fluoride-based flux

2. Borax-based flux

3. Zinc chloride-based flux

4. Rosin-based flux

Q.21 Which of the following is a limitation of conventional oxy-fuel gas cutting?
Ans 1. Cannot cut stainless steel efficiently

2. Cannot cut mild steel plates

3. Cannot cut thick carbon steels

4. Requires electrical input for operation

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 110

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Q.22 A technician wants to improve flatness and surface quality of a gauge block using
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lapping. What is the most important factor to control?

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Ans 1. Applying excessive force to speed up lapping
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m a
se l
2. Using coarse abrasives for faster removal

3. Uniform pressure and movement across the surface
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4. High temperature and fast lap speed

Q.23 Which type of friction occurs when surfaces are lubricated with a fluid?
Ans 1. Rolling friction

2. Film friction

3. Dry friction

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4. Static friction

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Q.24
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In ABC analysis, the letter 'C' is designated to:

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Ans
e
1. high valued items, smaller in number

s l a
l a
2. high valued items, larger in number
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3. low valued items, smaller in number

4. low valued items, larger in number

Q.25 Which of the following best describes the principle of parkerising?
Ans 1. A phosphate layer forms by chemical reaction

2. A paint coating is applied to the surface

3. A polymer coating is sprayed on the surface

4. Surface roughness is increased mechanically
m
Q.26
m .co
Which component is essential in a profile projection method for accurately displaying
the outline of a machine part?
s e
Ans
la
1. Collimated light source with precise screen alignment
g
2. Simple lamp with diffused translucent screen a
3. Curved screen with angled light projection

4. Non-reflective surface with ambient room lighting

Q.27 The lathe bed is designed with which type of guideways?
Ans 1. Circular

2. Rectangular

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3. Triangular

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4. Inverted V and flat combination

m s e
s e
Q.28 The functioning of a comparator is based on:
g l a
g l a Ans 1. The use of limit gauges
a
a 2. An optical measuring system

3. The use of an accurately calibrated scale

4. Comparison with a known standard, such as slip gauges

Q.29 For shafts designed to transmit the same torque, which statement is generally true
when comparing a solid shaft to a hollow shaft of the same material and outer
diameter?
Ans 1. The hollow shaft has a lower torsional stiffness but lower weight.

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2. The hollow shaft has a higher torsional stiffness and higher weight.

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3. The solid shaft has a higher torsional stiffness and lower weight.

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as
4. Both shafts have equal torsional stiffness and equal weight.

l ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 110

Q.30 The shape of the bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a
uniformly distributed load (UDL) over the whole length is _____.
Ans 1. Rectangular

2. Triangular

3. Trapezoidal

4. Parabolic

Q.31 What type of efficiency is most important for an axial flow compressor in high-speed
applications?
Ans 1. Volumetric efficiency

2. Isentropic efficiency

3. Thermal efficiency

4. Mechanical efficiency

Q.32 Water as a cutting fluid does NOT spread well over a surface to wet it because of _____.
Ans 1. low surface tension

2. high buoyancy force

3. high volatility

4. high surface tension

Q.33 Determine the gauge pressure given an absolute pressure of 2 atm and atmospheric
pressure of 1 atm.
Ans 1. 2 atm

2. 1 atm

3. 3 atm

4. 0.5 atm

Q.34 Radial flow pumps are preferred when:
Ans 1. Flow is very viscous

2. Only low suction head is available

3. High flow, low head is required

4. Low flow, high head is required

Q.35 For a simply supported beam with multiple point loads, maximum bending moment
occurs where:
Ans 1. Reaction = 0

2. Load = 0

3. Deflection = 0

4. Shear force = 0

Q.36 The area under load v/s elongation diagram for a ductile material upto fracture indicates
_____.
Ans 1. Resilience

2. Modulus of toughness

3. Modulus of resilience

4. Toughness

Q.37 Why does the vapor pressure of a liquid increase with an increase in temperature?
Ans 1. Molecules gain kinetic energy to escape into vapor

2. Surface tension remains constant

3. Viscosity reduces exponentially

4. Density reduces in a straight-line manner

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 56 of 110

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Q.38 A synthetic oil is contained in an accelerating elevator moving upward with acceleration
m
(a). If the pressure intensity at the free surface is atmospheric, the intensity of pressure

. co at a depth (h) below the surface is [take (g) as the acceleration due to gravity]:

s e m
m Ans 1. Patm - ρgh
a
se 2. Patm - ρ(g−a)h
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3. Patm + ρ(g+a)h

4. Patm + ρgh

Q.39 Which of the following is a primary application of interferometry in metrology?
Ans 1. Analyzing thermal conductivity of metals

2. Measuring surface flatness with high precision

3. Determining chemical composition by spectroscopy
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m
4. Calculating torque in shafts using sensors
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Q.40
m .co
Which defect results from improper shielding during the welding process and causes
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s e
gas pockets in the weld?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Slag inclusion
ag
ag
2. Undercut

3. Lack of fusion

4. Porosity

Q.41 What is the typical least count of a bevel protractor with a vernier scale?
Ans 1. 1°

2. 0.1°

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3. 10 minutes

4. 5 minutes

e m
Q.42
las
A cylindrical steel rod with a diameter of 20 mm is subjected to a tensile load of 40 kN.

ag
The material has a yield strength of 450 MPa. Assuming the deformation remains within
the elastic limit, calculate the factor of safety based on the ultimate tensile strength and
the yield strength. If the modulus of elasticity of the steel is 200 GPa, determine the
elongation of the rod over a length of 500 mm under this load. Which of the following
options correctly represents the factor of safety based on yield strength and the
elongation?
Ans 1. Factor of Safety (Yield) = 3.58, Elongation = 0.8 mm

2. Factor of Safety (Yield) = 3.58, Elongation = 0.318 mm

3. Factor of Safety (Yield) = 2.25, Elongation = 0.5 mm

4. Factor of Safety (Yield) = 2.25, Elongation = 0.318 mm
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Q.43 Which manufacturing method is primarily used to harden and set silicate-bonded

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grinding wheels?
s e
s e
Ans 1. High-pressure forging of abrasive particles
g l a
g l a 2. Low-temperature drying without firing
a
a 3. Controlled firing at moderate temperature

4. Chemical polymerization at room temperature

Q.44 When selecting a material for a component subjected to cyclic loading and impact,
which mechanical property should be prioritized along with hardness?
Ans 1. Plasticity must be considered to increase mass

2. Ductility must be considered to avoid oxidation

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3. Toughness must be considered to resist sudden failure
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4. Elasticity must be considered for better insulation

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Q.45 Which of the following is an example of a positive displacement air compressor?
Ans 1. Centrifugal compressor

2. Radial dynamic compressor

3. Axial flow compressor

4. Reciprocating piston compressor

Q.46 A force of 10 N acts along a line OB, which makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal
line OA. What is the component of the force along the direction of the acute angle
bisector of angle ∠ AOB?
Ans 1. 10 sin 30° N

2. 10 N

3. 10 cos 60° N

4. 10 cos 30° N

Q.47 Which of the following best describes the purpose of ABC analysis in inventory
management?
Ans 1. To categorize inventory items based on significance in value and usage frequency

2. To group inventory items based on supplier location and delivery schedule

3. To organize inventory items solely by their production shelf life in warehouse

4. To store inventory items according to their physical characteristics in the warehouse

Q.48 When a mild steel bar is loaded in tension within the elastic limit, the relation between
stress and strain is:
Ans 1. Stress ∝ (Strain)²

2. Stress ∝ √(Strain)

3. Stress independent of strain

4. Stress ∝ Strain

Q.49 If a block slides down a rough plane inclined at 30° with a coefficient of friction of 0.2,
the net acceleration is:
Ans 1. 0.326 g

2. 0.676 g

3. Zero

4. 0.5 g

Q.50 The horizontal and vertical components of a 100 N force inclined at 37° with the
horizontal are: (consider the approximation of sin 37°=0.6, cos 37°=0.8 and tan 37°=0.75)
Ans 1. 80 N and 60 N

2. 60 N and 80 N

3. 100 N and 0 N

4. 70 N and 70 N

Q.51 An LVDT (Linear Variable Differential Transformer) is primarily used in which type of
comparator?
Ans 1. Electrical comparator

2. Mechanical comparator

3. Optical comparator

4. Pneumatic comparator

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 110

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Q.52 A force of 100 N acting on a rigid body is moved to another point along the same line of
m
action. What is the effect on the external equilibrium of the body?

. co s e m
m Ans 1. The external equilibrium changes
a
se 2. The effect depends on the material
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3. The force magnitude becomes zero

4. The external equilibrium remains unchanged

Q.53 Trackless cranes are mainly used for:
Ans 1. Lifting loads in confined or uneven areas

2. Operations limited to fixed tracks

3. Handling liquid materials only
m
4. Continuous material transport
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Q.54
m .co
Which characteristic best describes the arc in submerged arc welding?
s e m
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. The arc is exposed to the atmosphere during welding

l a
ag
2. The arc is shielded only by inert gas during welding

3. The arc is completely covered by a layer of flux

4. The arc is visible and produces bright light during welding

Q.55 Which of the following is not a type of friction?
Ans 1. Rolling friction

2. Static friction

3. Gravitational friction
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4. Kinetic friction

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Q.56
s
Which of the following best describes the function of a hoist in material handling
systems?
la
Ans
ag
1. Sorting materials by size during material handling

2. Moving loads horizontally between different workstations

3. Rotating loads for alignment during material handling

4. Lifting and lowering loads vertically with controlled movement

Q.57 What is the main chemical change that occurs on the metal surface during anodizing?
Ans 1. Removal of the oxide layer

2. Deposition of metallic ions
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m
3. Formation of a thick oxide layer
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m.co 4. Dissolving the metal away
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.58
Ans
In a two-stroke diesel engine, the exhaust gases are removed through:
a
a
1. Ports

2. Spark plug

3. Carburetor

4. Valves

Q.59 What is the nature of strain as a physical quantity?
Ans 1. It has units of length.

2. It has units of force per area.
m .
3. It is dimensionless.

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4. It has units of volume.
s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 110