KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Microbiology

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Microbiology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Microbiology

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Sr. No. .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

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MICROBIOLOGY

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Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60

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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :

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Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question a
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Instructions for Candidates :

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1. Write your Entrance Booklet and
fill up the necessary in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.

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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the

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6. Do not darken more than one circle ofaoptions for any question. A question with more than one darkened
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.

response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question

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be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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1. According to Pasteur’s statements which one of the 6. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is :
following is true ? (A) Absence of locomotion

(A) Living organisms discriminate between (B) Absence of nuclear envelope
(C) Absence of nuclear material
stereoisomers
(D) Absence of protein synthesis
(B) Fermentation is caused by microorganisms
7. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that :
(C) Living organisms don’t discriminate between
(A) Fail to reproduce on artificial media
stereoisomers
(B) Have a rigid cell wall
(D) Both (A) and (B) (C) Are resistant to penicillin
2. The light emitting luminescent bacteria is : (D) Stain well with Gram’s stain
(A) Vibrio fischeri 8. Protein particles which can infect are called :

(B) Photobacterium phosphoreum (A) Virons
(B) Prion
(C) Vibrio anguilarum
(C) Nuclei
(D) All of the above
(D) None of these
3. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they : 9. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on
(A) increase osmotic pressure MacConkey’s medium are :
(B) Produce a hypertonic environment (A) Purple colored
(B) Pink colored
(C) Deplete nutrient
(C) Pale colored
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Green colored
4. Father of microbiology is :
10. Mesosomes are the part of :
(A) Louis Pasteur (A) Plasma membrane
(B) Lister (B) ER
(C) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (C) Mitochondria

(D) Robert Koch (D) Golgi apparatus
11. A culture medium the exact composition of which is
5. Compound microscope was discovered by :
not known was called as :
(A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (A) Simple
(B) Louis Pasteur (B) Enriched
(C) Johnsen & Hans (C) Defined

(D) None of these (D) Natural

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as 12. The temperature required for pasteurization is : a g
18. Which of the following is imperfect fungi ?
(A) Above 100°C (A) Basidiomycetes
(B) Below 100°C (B) Deuteromycetes
(C) 100°C (C) Zygomycetes
(D) None of these (D) Ascomycetes

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19. Basic principle in industrial microbiology is :

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13. Best method for getting pure culture is :

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(A) Suitable growth conditions

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(A) Streak-plate

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(B) Sub culture

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(C) Providing aseptic conditions

(D) None of lthese a
(C) Both (A) & (B)

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14. The majoraconstituent in agar is :
(D) All of these
20. Submerged fermentations are :

(A) Lipids (A) Batch fermentation
(B) Continuous fermentation
(B) Amino-acids
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Polysaccharides
(D) None of these
(D) Polypeptides

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21. The organisms which can grow best in the presence

c. o(A) Aerophilic
15. In the synthesis of cell components the major element
of a low concentration of oxygen :
required is :

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(A) Nitrogen

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(B) Sulphur
(C) Aerobic
(C) Carbon
(D) Anaerobic
(D) Oxygen
22. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as :
16. In the sigmoid curve (or) growth curve of bacteria,
(A) They are indispensable for genetic cloning
there are ________ stages.
(B) They are essential for bacterial reproduction
(A) 3
(C) They can replicate freely outside the bacterial

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(B) 4

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cell

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(C) 6

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(D) They are self replicating within the bacterial cell
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17.m.The genetic material in influenza A virus is :
(D) 7
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23. The utilization of light energy to drive the synthesis of

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ATP is called as :

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(A) Photolysis
(B) Phosphorylation
(C) sRNA (C) Photosynthesis
(D) None of these (D) Respiration

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24. Which is the Sulphur containing amino acid ? 29. Choose the correct sequence among the following:
(A) Methionine Western blotting, Northern blotting and Southern
(B) Leucine blotting is a technique used in the determination of :

(C) Valine (A) Protein, RNA and DNA

(D) Arginine (B) RNA, DNA and Protein
(C) DNA, RNA and Protein
25. For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine and
methionine the element required is : (D) Protein DNA and RNA

(A) Sulphur 30. Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a :

(B) Oxygen (A) Hydrolase

(C) Nitrogen (B) Oxido reductase
(C) Transferases
(D) None
(D) Isomerase
26. During cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or
not ? 31. The distance between each turn in the helical strand
of DNA is :
(A) No NADP formation
(A) 20A°
(B) No NADP utilization
(B) 34A°
(C) NADP is concreted into NADPH
(C) 42A°
(D) All of the above
(D) 28A0
27. The compound that is added to the medium to absorb
32. The technique involved in comparing the DNA
oxygen for the creation of anaerobic conditions :
components of two samples is known as :
(A) Potassium sulphate
(A) Monoclonal Ab techniques
(B) Nitrous acid
(B) Recombinant DNA technology
(C) Hydrogen peroxide
(C) Genetic finger printing
(D) None
(D) Polymerase chain reaction
28. The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated
33. What are the first cells to reach the site of a bacterial
is called :
infection?
(A) Pasteurization
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Desiccation (B) Dendritic cells
(C) Disinfection (C) Lymphocytes
(D) Lyophilization (D) RBCs

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34. The passage of blood cells through the intact walls of 40. The oxidation of which substance in the body yields
the capillaries, typically accompanying inflammation the most calories ?
is : (A) Glucose
(A) Anaphylaxis (B) Proteins
(B) Diapedesis (C) Lipids

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(C) Phagocytosis (D) Glycogen

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(D) None of these

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41. Which among the following is not an Archaebacteria?

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35. The antibody that is first formed

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(A) Euryarchaeota

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(A) IgG

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(B) Korarchaeota

(C) IgD ag
(B) IgM
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(D) Proteobacteria
(D) IgE
42. The Mitochondrial DNA is :
36. The acquired immunity can be developed :
(A) Circular double stranded
(A) Artificially
(B) Circular single stranded
(B) Naturally
(C) Linear single stranded
(C) Both

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(D) Linear double stranded

37. Intensity of attraction between antigen and antibody . c
(D) None

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43. The cofactor of the enzyme Ptyalin is :

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molecule is known as :

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(A) Affinity
(B) Avidity (C) Sodium

(C) Synergism (D) Potassium
(D) Precipitation 44. In denaturation of proteins, the bond which is not
broken:
38. Phagocytosis is carried out by which cells ?
(A) Neutrophils (A) Disulphide Bond

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(B) Peptide bond

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(B) Macrophages

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(C) Hydrogen bond

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(C) Dendritic cells

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(D) Ionic bond
45. Cellulose is made upaof the molecules of
(D) All of these

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39.

ag (B) Placental transport (B) ß-glucose
(C) Heat stability at 56°C (C) Both
(D) Sedimentation coefficient (D) None

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46. A holoenzyme is : 51. The water potential of a pure water is :

(A) Functional unit (A) 1
(B) -2
(B) Coenzyme
(C) Zero (0)
(C) Apoenzyme
(D) None
(D) All of these 52. The process of successful establishment of the species
47. The Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present in a new area is called :
mainly in the : (A) Sere
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Climax

(B) Nuclear membrane (C) Invasion
(D) Ecesis
(C) Inner mitochondrial membrane
53. Which is the first transgenic plant developed ?
(D) None of these
(A) Transgenic Tobacco
48. Cyanobacteria are believed to be the free living (B) Transgenic Soyabean
ancestors of : (C) Transgenic Cotton
(A) Plasmids (D) Transgenic Maize
(B) Chloroplasts 54. The term totipotency is the capability of :
(C) Fungi (A) Cells to generate whole plant
(B) Bud to generate whole plant
(D) None of these
(C) Seed to generate whole plant
49. In a food chain, the total amount of living material is
(D) None of the above
depicted by :
55. Which enzyme is used by Agrobacterium for growth?
(A) Pyramid of biomass
(A) Auxin
(B) Pyramid of energy (B) Cytokinin
(C) Pyramid of number (C) Opine
(D) Trophic levels (D) All of the above
50. The particulate matter in the air can lead to : 56. Synthesis of hydrolyzing enzymes during germination
is induced by :
(A) Rise in blood pressure
(A) Indole-3-acetic acid
(B) Impaired kidneys
(B) AbscisicAcid
(C) Impaired nervous system (C) Ethylene
(D) Aggravated respiratory diseases (D) Gibberellic Acid

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57. Which of the following is not a measure of central 59. Which of the following correlation coefficient value is
considered as weak ?
tendency ?
(A) 0.5
(A) Standard deviation (B) 2
(B) Mean (C) 0.2
(C) Mode (D) 0.4

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60. The standard error is a measure of

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(D) Median

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(A) The standard error is computed from known

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58. The probability of occurrence of an event lies

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sample statistics
between :
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(A) -1 and 0 of the population parameter
(C) It provides an unbiased estimate of the standard
(B) 0 and 1 deviation of the statistic
(C) -1 and 1 (D) All of the above
(D) Exactly 1

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ROUGH WORK

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