RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 12 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 12 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 12/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements about vacuoles is INCORRECT?
Ans A. Vacuoles in plant cells are filled with cell sap, which helps provide turgidity and rigidity.

B. Vacuoles store important substances such as amino acids, sugars, organic acids and proteins.

C. Plant cells usually have a large central vacuole.

D. Vacuoles are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.

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Q.2 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the mitochondria in a plant cell?
Ans A. Mitochondria does not have its own DNA.

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B. Mitochondria performs photosynthesis.

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C. Mitochondria has a single membranous covering.
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D. The mitochondrial inner membrane is deeply folded.

Q.3 Which of the following plants is unisexual?
Ans A. Papaya

B. Mustard

C. Pea

D. China rose
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Q.4 What should be the position of the object, if a concave mirror forms a virtual, erect and
enlarged image of the object?
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Ans
m A. The object is placed at the focus of the mirror.
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D. The object is placed between the pole and the focus of the mirror.

Q.5 Flushing of which gas is usually preferred in order to prevent the rancidity of the
packaged food items?
Ans A. Nitrogen

B. Nitrogen dioxide

C. Nitric oxide
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D. Dinitrogen trioxide

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following statements is true according to the First Law of Motion?
Ans A. A car accelerates when the engine is started.

B. A stone falling freely under gravity.

C. A person continues to move forward when a car stops suddenly.

D. A rocket launching upward.

Q.7 In which of the following media is the speed of sound the highest?
Ans A. Iron

B. Vacuum

C. Air at room temperature

D. Water

Q.8 Why is it impossible for two magnetic field lines to cross each other at a single point?
Ans A. Because the magnetic field strength would be zero at that point

B. Because they are always parallel inside the magnet

C. Because they repel each other due to like polarity

D. Because it would imply the compass needle could point in two directions simultaneously

Q.9 Which of the following statements is true about modern fish farming?
Ans A. Hormones are used for fish breeding

B. Enzymes are used to help fish grow bigger

C. Fish farming cannot be done in ponds

D. All fish seeds are collected from rivers

Q.10 The extraction of metals from their ores is known as which of the following?
Ans A. Mining

B. Metallurgy

C. Refining

D. Smelting

Q.11 A resistor of 4 Ω produces 64 J of heat every second. What is the potential difference
across it?
Ans A. 8 V

B. 16 V

C. 64 A

D. 16 A

Q.12 Which of the following correctly describes an ion?
Ans A. A neutral molecule formed by ionic bonding

B. An atom or group of atoms with a net electric charge

C. An atom with more protons than neutrons

D. A molecule that has gained or lost neutrons

Q.13 Which of the following facilitates the communication between the central nervous
system and the other parts of the body?
Ans A. Spinal cord

B. Involuntary muscles.

C. Voluntary muscles

D. Peripheral nervous system

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following tissues makes the plant hard and stiff?
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Ans A. Sclerenchyma

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D. Chlorenchyma

Q.15 Which of the following non-metals exhibits a metallic lustre despite being chemically
non-metallic?
Ans A. Phosphorus

B. Nitrogen

C. Iodine

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D. Sulphur

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Q.16
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A mother who is malnourished during pregnancy is likely to:

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A. have a faster delivery

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B. give birth to an underweight baby
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C. have a stronger immune system

D. produce more milk

Q.17 A light ray passes through the centre of curvature of a convex mirror. What happens to
it after reflection?
Ans A. It gets absorbed.

B. It becomes parallel to the principal axis.

C. It retraces its own path.
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D. It converges at the focus.

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Q.18
Ans
What is the atomic mass of magnesium oxide?
A. 40
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B. 35 ag
C. 45

D. 32

Q.19 A yellow luminous flame is usually an indication of which of the following?
Ans A. Complete combustion

B. Combustion of metals

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C. Incomplete combustion with unburnt carbon particles

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D. Formation of carbon dioxide

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Q.20 What is the minimum approximate work required to bring a car of mass 1500 kg moving
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at a velocity of 60 km/hr to rest?
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A. 2.08 × 105 J

B. 1.56 × 105 J

C. 6.25 × 105 J

D. 4.68 × 105 J

Q.21 What do we call the motion of an object that travels equal distances in equal intervals of
time, even when the time intervals are very small?
Ans A. Uniform motion

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B. Accelerated motion

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C. Non-uniform motion

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D. Circular motion

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.22 Which of the following objects will sink in water? (Take the density of water as 1g/cm3)
(i) An iron nail of density 2.5 g/cm3
(ii) A iron block of density 0.83 g/cm3
(iii) A iron ball of density 2 g/cm3
Ans A. Only (ii)

B. Only (iii)

C. Both (i) and (ii)

D. Both (i) and (iii)

Q.23 Select the correct property of micelles in soap that help them to interact with water:
Ans A. hydrophobic tail

B. hydrocarbon

C. both hydrophilic head and hydrophobhic tail

D. hydrophillic head

Q.24 What is the atomic mass of oxygen?
Ans A. 16 u

B. 12 u

C. 18 u

D. 8 u

Q.25 What is the longevity period of egg in the fallopian tube in case of failure of fertilisation
in human females?
Ans A. 4-5 days

B. 6-7 days

C. 3-4 days

D. 1-2 days

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 65%

D. 100%

Q.27 A rectangular aquarium with dimensions 60 cm × 45 cm × 40 cm is filled with water to
80% of its height. If a solid metallic cube of edge 20 cm is completely immersed in it, by
how much does the water level rise (rounded off to two decimal places)?
Ans A. 2.56 cm

B. 2.76 cm

C. 2.36 cm

D. 2.96 cm

Q.28 What is the third proportional to 54x2 and 18xy?4963
Ans A. 4y2

B. 6y2

C. 5y2

D. 7y2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.29 If an item marked at ₹6,250 is sold for ₹250, then what is the discount percentage?
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Ans A. 98%

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D. 97%

Q.30 6514
Ans A. 4.75

B. 6.25

C. 5.75

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D. 5.25

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Q.31 The difference between two numbers is 92. The ratio of the two numbers is 7 : 3. Which
is the smaller of the two numbers?
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Ans A. 79
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B. 96
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C. 69 ag
D. 63

Q.32 A sum of money was invested at simple interest at a certain rate for 9 years. Had it been
invested at an 8% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched ₹7,992 more. Find the
principal.
Ans A. ₹11,100

B. ₹10,200

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C. ₹11,200

D. ₹12,200
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Q.33 If A : B = 4 : 6 and B : C = 7 : 11, then A : B : C is:
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Ans A. 14 : 21 : 33
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B. 4 : 12 : 33

C. 4 : 31 : 21

D. 11 : 23 : 40

Q.34 A helicopter is flying at a height of 575 m. A person on the
ground sees it at an angle of elevation of 30°. What is the
horizontal distance from the person to the point on the m
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ground exactly below the helicopter?
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C. 994.75 m

D. 895.75 m

Q.35 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same
work in 14 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
Ans A. 21

B. 22
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C. 24

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D. 10.5
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Q.36 A 290-metre-long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 29 seconds. What is the
speed of the train (in km/hr)?3716
Ans A. 144

B. 147

C. 138

D. 153

Q.37 In 10 years from now, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is 9 years older
than B, find the present age of A.
Ans A. 38 years

B. 48 years

C. 44 years

D. 40 years

Q.38 The sides of a triangle are 24 cm, 32 cm and 40 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with the length of 32 cm?
Ans A. 43 cm

B. 55 cm

C. 24 cm

D. 33 cm

Q.39

Ans A. 22530

B. 21500

C. 20110

D. 21025

Q.40 Find the area of the triangle if the lengths of its two perpendicular sides are 4 cm and 5
cm.
Ans A. 25 cm2

B. 30 cm2

C. 20 cm2

D. 10 cm2

Q.41 Find the H.C.F. of 18, 54, and 72 is:
Ans A. 18

B. 27

C. 6

D. 12

Q.42

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.43
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Ans A. 1.21

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B. 1.59

C. 1.10
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D. 1.74

Q.44 A class of 93 students took a Physics test. 10 students had an average score of 90. The
remaining students had an average score of 75. What is the average score (rounded off
to one decimal place) of the whole class?
Ans A. 71.8

B. 76.6
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C. 86.7

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D. 74.9

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Q.45
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The arithmetic mean of the observations 27, 36, 12, 24, 48, 59, 60, 80 and 14 is:
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Ans A. 31

B. 38
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C. 40

D. 36

Q.46 A dealer makes a profit of 52% even after giving a 24% discount on the advertised price
of a scooty. If he makes a profit of ₹6,526 on the sale of the scooty, what is the
advertised price (in ₹)?436
Ans A. 25,132
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B. 25,100

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C. 25,103
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D. 25,065
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Q.47
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Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 Sohan sells a water bottle to Ronak at 28% profit. Ronak sells the water bottle to Rahul
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at a profit of 12.5%. If Rahul paid ₹288 for the water bottle, then for how much did Sohan

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buy it?

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A. ₹200

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D. ₹220

Q.49 The cost of a washing machine is 75% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 72% and that of the TV decreases by 20%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 4 washing machines and 3 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 8%

B. Increase by 6%

C. Increase by 3%
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D. Decrease by 1%

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Q.50

3842
Ans A. 71 hours

B. 75 hours

C. 94 hours

D. 92 hours

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

17 24 38 59 87 ?
Ans A. 122

B. 123

C. 121

D. 120

Q.52 Each of the digits in the number 3412687 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed? 4366
Ans A. 11

B. 9

C. 8

D. 6

Q.53 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 $ 5 @ 3 ! 3 5 6 7 & % $ 3 # 2 7 + ? > < (Right)

If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be the
seventh from the right?
Ans A. $

B. #

C. %

D. @

Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8 10 7 12 ‘?’ 16
Ans A. 11

B. 10

C. 5

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(25, 21, 38)
(43, 39,56)
Ans A. (9, 5, 24)

B. (26, 22, 39)

C. (39, 35, 18)

D. (32, 36, 53)

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Q.56 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given

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below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

OSO−SWS
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IMI−MQM

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Ans A. QTO−UYU
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B. QUQ−UYU

C. QTO−TXT
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D. QUQ−TYT

Q.57 In a certain code language, ‘hold it together’ is coded as ‘gt df za’ and ‘do it together’ is
coded as ‘kl df za’. How is ‘hold’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. kl
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B. za

C. df
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D. gt
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Q.58 ag
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
BJR 18 CKS 20 DLT 22 EMU 24 ?
Ans A. GOY 26

B. FNV 26

C. FOW 26

D. GPV 26

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Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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All Penguins are Magpies.
All Magpies are Eagles.

Conclusions:
(I): All Penguins are Eagles.
(II): Some Magpies are Robins.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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D. Only conclusion (II) follows

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Q.60 O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
Only three people sit to the left of P. Only R sits to the right of Q. Only three people sit
between Q and O. X sits at some place to the left of Y but at some place to the right of
W.
How many people sit between W and Y?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Four

D. Three

Q.61 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

CKT60, GMS54, KOR48, ?
Ans A. OQQ42

B. PQR41

C. PRR41

D. ORQ42

Q.62 Each of the digits in the number 2716495 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are first from the left and first from the right
in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 9

B. 10

C. 12

D. 7

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
42 55 68 81 94 ?
Ans A. 125

B. 105

C. 107

D. 95

Q.64 In a certain code language,

A ? B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A = B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A √ B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is C related to L if 'C √ D ? E @ F = L'?
Ans A. Daughter

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Wife

Q.65 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

LAKE - ALKE - EKAL
UGLY - GULY - YLGU
Ans A. PLAY - PALY - YALP

B. RUNS - URNS - UNSR

C. SINK - ISNK - KNIS

D. MEAT - EMAT - TEAM

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Q.66 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
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7362984, what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second

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C. 11

D. 9

Q.67 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:

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Some fruits are vegetables.
All vegetables are animals.
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Conclusions:
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(I): Some animals are fruits.
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(II): Some fruits are not animals.
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Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.68 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only one person sits to the left of E. Only two people sit between E and F. C sits
immediately to the right of D. G sits immediately to the left of A. Only one person sits
between F and D. How many people sit between A and E?
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Ans A. 1

B. 2
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C. 4
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D. 3
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Q.69 Seven boxes, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only three boxes are kept below N. Only two boxes are kept between N
and P. Only Q is kept above O. S is kept at some place below R and at some place above
M. Which box is kept at the second position from the bottom?
Ans A. S

B. P

C. O

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D. M
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Q.70
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In a certain code language, ‘star bag magic’ is coded as ‘bk kk sm’ and ‘wheat star
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s e poem’ is coded as ‘kk tj ew’. How is ‘star’ coded in that language?

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a B. tj

C. bk

D. kk

Q.71 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. CBF
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B. UUX
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C. VUY

D. KJN
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Q.72 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards the north. He then takes a left
turn, drives 14 km, turns left and drives 19 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 30
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 16 km to the west

B. 16 km to the east

C. 20 km to the south

D. 12 km to the north

Q.73 HO 2 is related to IJ −12 in a certain way. In the same way, FI 5 is related to GD −9. To
which of the given options is HU 3 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. IP −11

B. JQ −13

C. IQ −11

D. JP −13

Q.74 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 1 4 3 4 8 2 5 2 4 8 3 1 3 8 3 3 4 3 2 8 9 7 3 4 2 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

Q.75 Kavya ranked 32nd from the top and 15th from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 35

B. 40

C. 36

D. 46

Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. WN – TZ

B. VM – SY

C. XO – UA

D. PG – NS

Q.77 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 5 5 4 3 8 3 2 8 2 4 4 5 8 2 6 4 9 7 8 4 2 2 9 6 1 3 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.78 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done
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from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

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se How many even numbers are there (from left to right) which are immediately followed
by odd numbers?
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Ans A. One

B. More than three

C. Three

D. Two

Q.79 O, P, Q, R, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only three people sit
between W and Y. P sits to the immediate left of Y. No one sits to the right of Q. Only two
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people sit between Q and P. X sits to the immediate right of O.
How many people sit between R and X?
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Ans A. Four

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B. One
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C. Three
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D. Two
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Q.80 Town K is to the east of Town L. Town M is to the south of Town K. Town N is to the west
of Town M. Town O is to the north of Town N. Town L is to the north-west of Town O.
What is the position of Town K with respect to Town O?
Ans A. North-east

B. South-west

C. North-west

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D. South-east

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81
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Which of the following portals integrated multiple agriculture schemes across
ministries in June 2025? a
Ans A. FarmOne

B. Kisan Setu

C. Krishi Nivesh

D. AgriConnect

Q.82 Which of the following cities of India established a Public-Private Partnership (PPP)

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model-based green waste processing plant under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban

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that started the first batch of trial production in March 2025?

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Ans A. Indore

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B. Mysore

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Q.83 Which coach received the Dronacharya Award for shooting in 2025?
Ans A. Sandeep Sangwan

B. Deepali Deshpande

C. Subhash Rana

D. S Muralidharan

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Q.84 Who inaugurated the Fit India Carnival, 2025?
Ans A. Mansukh Mandaviya

B. Narendra Modi

C. Amit Shah

D. Anurag Thakur

Q.85 The World Social Summit (Second Summit for Social Development) was scheduled for
4–6 November 2025 in:
Ans A. Doha, Qatar

B. Nairobi, Kenya

C. New York, USA

D. Geneva, Switzerland

Q.86 Who won the Men’s Singles title at the Australian Open 2025?
Ans A. Novak Djokovic

B. Alexander Zverev

C. Jannik Sinner

D. Carlos Alcaraz

Q.87 Which of the following government schemes was launched to strengthen India’s
ecosystem for manufacturing electronic components, modules, and sub-assemblies?
Ans A. Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme

B. Make in India Initiative

C. Digital India Programme

D. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme

Q.88 On 21 May 2025, the Indian Navy officially inducted a uniquely constructed Ancient
Stitched Ship at Karwar Naval Base. Which IIT is the technical partner for this?
Ans A. IIT Madras

B. IIT Kharagpur

C. IIT Hyderabad

D. IIT Kanpur

Q.89 As reported in February 2025, the Union Environment Ministry of Government of India
developed new features on which platform for quicker processing of forest clearances?
Ans A. SAMARPAN 2.0

B. PARIVARTAN 2.0

C. Ecosia 2.0

D. PARIVESH 2.0

Q.90 On 16 May 2025, the Supreme Court struck down government provisions that allowed
what type of environmental clearance?
Ans A. Fast-track clearances

B. Hastily approved clearances

C. Clearances for small-scale projects

D. Retrospective environmental clearances

Q.91 During the Asian Productivity Organization’s May 2025 meeting, what leadership role
did India assume?
Ans A. Announced relocation of secretariat to New Delhi

B. Chairmanship for 2025–26

C. Elected as Secretary‑General

D. Vice‑Chair for 2025–26
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.92 What is the name of the scheme announced in Union Budget 2025–26 for promoting
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Indian language books in digital form?

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Ans A. Bhasha Shiksha Abhiyan
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B. Digital Bharat Granth Scheme

C. Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme
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D. Vidya Vani Project

Q.93 Which of the following major health issues is Puducherry targeting in 2025 through its
new screening initiative under the Family Adoption Programme?
Ans A. Dengue

B. Malaria

C. Tuberculosis
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D. Diabetes
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Q.94
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Which of the following reports, released in October 2025, stated that human‑caused
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PM2.5 pollution was responsible for more than 1.7 million deaths in India in 2022?
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Ans
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A. The UNEP Global Assessment Report on Air Pollution and Health
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B. The Lancet Countdown on Health and Climate Change

C. The World Health Organization Air Quality Assessment Report, 2025

D. India State of Environment and Health Overview Report, 2025

Q.95 What is the full form of ICC in the context of cricket?
Ans A. Indian Cricket Council

B. International Cricket Confederation

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C. International Council for Cricket

D. International Cricket Council

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Q.96
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Under the scheme ADITI (Acing Development of Innovative Technologies), announced

innovation in defence technologies? ag
at DefConnect 2024, which of the following is the size of the corpus to promote

Ans A. ₹500 crore

B. ₹250 crore

C. ₹1,000 crore

D. ₹750 crore

Q.97 In November 2025, Narendra Modi inaugurated 'Shanti Shikhar', a modern centre for

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spiritual learning, peace, and meditation of the Brahma Kumaris at Nava Raipur in

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which Indian state?

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Ans A. Chhattisgarh

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B. Jharkhand

l as
l as C. Odisha
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Q.98 In June 2025, what was the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) forecast for the average
Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation for FY26?
Ans A. 3.7%

B. 3.1%

C. 4.1%

D. 3.5%

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Q.99 Which of the following organisations launched the 'Digital Taxpayer Interface System'
(DTIS) in 2025 to ease income tax filing?
Ans A. GST Council

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. NITI Aayog

D. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

Q.100 In 2025, which nation announced its withdrawal from the Economic Community of
Central African States (ECCAS)?
Ans A. Cameroon

B. Burundi

C. Gabon

D. Rwanda

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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a

Test Date 12/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Why are ultrasounds preferred for cleaning objects with complex shapes?
Ans A. They increase temperature of solution

B. They produce magnetic effect

C. They have very high speed in liquids

D. Their high frequency dislodges dirt particles

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Q.2 When light enters a glass prism from air at the first refracting surface, the light ray
_________.

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Ans A. Undergoes total internal reflection.

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B. Bends towards the normal, as it enters a denser medium

C. Bends away from the normal, increasing the angle of incidence

D. Passes straight through without bending

Q.3 In the following reaction, what colour change is observed?

Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu

Ans A. Red to green

B. Blue to red
m
mC. Blue to green
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s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.4
Ans
The ability of gases to be compressed easily is due to:
a
a
A. large spaces between particles

B. lack of particles

C. strong forces between particles

D. high mass of particles

Q.5 Which of the following best describes the key feature of the velocity–time graph for an
object moving with uniform velocity?
Ans A. It is a straight line parallel to the time axis.

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B. It is a curved line.

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C. It is a straight line parallel to the velocity axis.
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D. It is a straight line inclined to the time axis.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 The formula for acceleration due to gravity (g) at the surface of the Earth is
____________.
Ans A. g=GM/R2

B. g=R2/GM

C. g=G/MR2

D. g=GM/R

Q.7 What is the electronic configuration of oxygen (Atomic number = 8)?
Ans A. 4, 4

B. 2, 4, 6

C. 2, 6

D. 2, 8

Q.8 Which of the following methods is NOT used for the ore enrichment?
Ans A. Leaching

B. Froth floatation

C. Dredging

D. Hydraulic washing

Q.9 What type of reaction is CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂?
Ans A. Combination

B. Decomposition

C. Displacement

D. Neutralisation

Q.10 What is the role of the prostrate gland and seminal vesicles in the human male
reproductive system?
Ans A. To provide fluids for transporting sperm

B. To produce sperm cells

C. To lower the temperature of the testes

D. To secrete testosterone

Q.11 If a man of mass 75 kg climbs an 8 m staircase in 25 s, taking g = 10 m/s², his average
power is _______.
Ans A. 120 W

B. 150 W

C. 240 W

D. 24 W

Q.12 What is the meaning of ‘Different parts of the human body perform different functions’?
Ans A. Presence of division of labour

B. All cells perform same function

C. Different cells perform same function

D. Absence of division of labour

Q.13 Which of the following organisms reproduces by binary fission?
Ans A. Planaria

B. Spirogyra

C. Hydra

D. Amoeba

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 Small changes in DNA copies during reproduction are important because they
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________.

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Ans A. prevent fertilisation from happening
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se B. provide variations which may help in survival

C. always cause harmful effects ag l
D. stop reproduction in the next generation

Q.15 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the shape and function of
different cell types?
Ans A. Nerve cells are long and branched to carry messages across the body.

B. Red blood cells are biconcave to increase oxygen-carrying capacity.

C. White blood cells can change shape to move through tissues.
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D. Muscle cells are flat and circular to help them flow in blood.

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Q.16
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When barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate, it gives aluminium chloride
l as
along with:

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Ans A. a white colour precipitate of barium sulphate

B. a white colour precipitate of barium chloride

C. a yellow colour precipitate of barium sulphate

D. a white colour precipitate of barium oxide

Q.17 Why do we need to conserve coal and petroleum?
Ans A. They are unlimited resources.

B. They are non-renewable sources of energy.
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C. They are formed every day in factories.

D. They are renewable sources of energy.
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Q.18
Ans ag
The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of ___________.
A. speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in medium

B. speed of light in water to speed of light in medium

C. speed of light in medium to speed of light in vacuum

D. speed of light in glass to speed of light in water

Q.19 A government scheme promotes the rearing of fish in artificially controlled freshwater
ponds. What is this type of fishing called?

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Ans A. Saltwater fishing

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B. Capture fishing

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e m C. Marine fishing

l as
l as D. Culture fishing
ag
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What is his average speed?
Ans A. 0 m/s

B. 1.04 m/s

C. 5.2 m/s

D. 10.4 m/s

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Q.21 Which of the following cell organelles is filled with digestive enzymes and helps to keep
the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn out cell organelles?
Ans A. Chloroplast

B. Lysosomes

C. Chromoplast

D. Ribosome

Q.22 How many atoms are there in a molecule of water?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q.23 Isobars are atoms having the same:
Ans A. atomic number and mass

B. mass number, different elements

C. number of neutrons only

D. number of electrons only

Q.24 A voltmeter is always connected in a circuit:
Ans A. in diagonal

B. in parallel

C. in series

D. in place of a switch

Q.25 According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced (H) is directly proportional to
which of the following?
Ans A. The current (I)

B. The square of the current (I2)

C. The square of the time (t2)

D. The square of the resistance (R2)

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Two cars start from the same point and travel in opposite directions. If one car travels
at 60 km/hr and the other at 75 km/hr, how far apart will they be after 3 hours?
Ans A. 395 km

B. 425 km

C. 445 km

D. 405 km

Q.27

Ans A. 55.56%

B. 111.11%

C. 70.55%

D. 65.55%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.28 The total surface area of a right circular cylinder with radius of the base 12 cm and
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height 72 cm is:

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(take π = 22/7)
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se Ans A. 528 cm2

B. 905 cm2 ag l
C. 6336 cm2

D. 5430 cm2

Q.29

Ans A. 7

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B. 6
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C. 9

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D. 8

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Q.30 A dealer purchased a microwave for ₹57,000. He allows a discount of 64% on its marked
price and still gains 38%. Find the marked price of the microwave.
Ans A. ₹2,18,514

B. ₹2,18,310

C. ₹2,18,398

D. ₹2,18,500

Q.31 If a X m long train running at a speed of 41 m/sec crosses a railway platform in 34 sec.

m
Find the value of X, if the length of the railway platform is 301 m.

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Ans A. 1093

B. 1090
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C. 1088
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D. 1089
ag
Q.32 The arithmetic mean of the observations 90, 94, 44, 97, 46, 72, 62, 44 and 54 is:
Ans A. 72

B. 67

C. 57

D. 71

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Q.33
m
The average age of a father and his daughter is 27 years. The ratio of their ages 4 years
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hence from now, will be 23 : 8. Find the daughter's present age (in years).
Ans
m A. 20
s e
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a
a
C. 16

D. 15

Q.34 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 6 and 3 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 9

B. 3

C. 4

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D. 6

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Q.35

5479
Ans A. 360

B. 348

C. 340

D. 354

Q.36

Ans A. 11400

B. 11240

C. 8575

D. 10610

Q.37 The fourth proportional to 12, a, and 6a is 50. What is the positive value of 'a'?
Ans A. 8

B. 13

C. 12

D. 10

Q.38 A camp has provisions for 55 persons for 14 days. In how many days will the same
provisions finish off, if the strength of the camp is increased to 70 persons?
Ans A. 10

B. 11

C. 14

D. 9

Q.39 The sum of two consecutive numbers is 51. What are the numbers?
Ans A. 24, 25

B. 27, 28

C. 25, 26

D. 26, 27

Q.40 The cost price of a box of pen is ₹5,400. The shopkeeper gives a 62% discount on the
cost price. What will be the selling price (in ₹)?
Ans A. 2,138

B. 2,052

C. 2,095

D. 1,986

Q.41 ₹3,246 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and
C, and C and D are in the ratios of 4 : 5, 4 : 5, and 6 : 7, respectively. The share of A (in
₹) is:
Ans A. 532

B. 612

C. 576

D. 508

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.42 Pipe A can fill a tank in 32 minutes and pipe B can empty it in 48 minutes. If both the
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pipes are opened together, after how many minutes should pipe B be closed, so that

. the tank is filled in 60 minutes?
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Ans A. 40

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B. 48

C. 36
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D. 42

Q.43

Ans
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A.
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B.
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C.

D.

Q.44 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Ashish
borrowed an amount of ₹4,40,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Ashish after 4 years.
Ans A. 61,600

B. 63,100
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C. 61,100
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D. 62,600
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Q.45
Ans
a
If mean is 35 and median is 33.5, then the value of mode is:6534
A. 30.5

B. 31

C. 31.5

D. 32

Q.46 In a right-angle triangle ABC, right angled at B, AB = 8 cm. A line AO is drawn which
meets BC at O such that AO = OC = 10 cm. Find the area of triangle ABC.
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Ans A. 36 cm2
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B. 64 cm2

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g l a
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a
a Q.47 The income of Raman is ₹70,000. He saves 26% of his income. If his income increases
by 32% and expenditure increases by 45%, then his savings will:
Ans A. increase by ₹913

B. decrease by ₹908

C. decrease by ₹910

D. increase by ₹909

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Q.48

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.49 The sides of a triangle are 20 cm, 51 cm, and 37 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with a length of 51 cm?
Ans A. 12 cm

B. 49 cm

C. 53 cm

D. 30 cm

Q.50 An article is sold at a 15% profit. If it had been sold for ₹90 more, the profit would have
been 25%. What is the cost price of the article?
Ans A. ₹850

B. ₹900

C. ₹950

D. ₹800

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. PN – WB

B. VS – CH

C. SP – ZE

D. HE – OT

Q.52 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two
people sit between D and A when counted from the left of A. C sits third to the left of G.
E sits to the immediate right of G. E sits second to the left of D. F is an immediate
neighbour of C. How many people sit between B and G when counted from the left of
G?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

D. One

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
as
se Statements:
Some camels are boats. ag l
Some boats are stars.

Conclusion (I): Some camels are stars.
Conclusion (II): Some boats are camels.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.54
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the

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English alphabetical order?
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SWE ZDL GKS NRZ ?
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Ans A. UGI

B. UGY
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C. UYG

D. UIG

Q.55 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below B. Only one box is kept above W. Only
one box is kept between W and E. T is kept immediately above S. P is kept at some
place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and T?
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Ans A. One

B. Three
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C. Two
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D. Four
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Q.56 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

ICG23 JDH31 KEI39 LFJ47 ?
Ans A. MGL56

B. MGK55

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C. MGL55

m
D. MGK56
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s
Q.57
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Six people, D, E, F, G, H and I, are sitting in a row facing north. Only two people sit to

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the left of I. D sits third to the right of I. H is an immediate neighbour of both F and D. E
l a
g l a sits to the immediate right of G. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one DOES NOT belong a
a Ans
to that group?
A. ED

B. FH

C. IF

D. EI

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.58 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All cups are glasses.
All glasses are tiles.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tiles are glasses.
(II) All cups are tiles159.0
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow,

Q.59 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

UN-RK-OQ
SL-PI-MO
Ans A. QJ-NG-KM

B. RJ-NH-KL

C. QJ-NG-KL

D. RJ-NG-KL

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘may i sit’ is coded as ‘pt sq ac’ and ‘please sit here’ is
coded as ‘pt hm rf’. How is ‘sit’ coded in that language?
Ans A. hm

B. sq

C. rf

D. pt

Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. VZU

B. SVR

C. YBX

D. RUQ

Q.62 Monit starts from point A and drives 43 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
drives 54 km, turns left and drives 58 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 67 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 15 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 13 km to the west

B. 12 km to the west

C. 11 km to the east

D. 10 km to the east

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
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s e m
m a
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Ans A. 641

g l
B. 643

C. 647
a
D. 644

Q.64 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

112 × 4 ÷ 8 − 2 + 23 = ?
Ans A. 26
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B. 21

C. 18

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D. 13
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Q.65 Each of the digits in the number 7214365 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. None

D. Three

Q.66
m
Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers

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are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.)
(Left) 1 8 9 1 3 8 3 8 9 9 5 9 6 5 5 1 7 7 4 2 3 1 6 (Right)

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How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
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even number and also immediately followed by an even number?

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Ans A. Two

B. Three ag
C. None

D. One

Q.67 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 5 1 7 3 5 2 8 7 6 9 8 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
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odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

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Ans

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A. Two

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l as B. One

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ag C. Three

D. Four

Q.68 In a row of 39 people facing north, Vandana is 16th from the left end. If Nayana sits 7th
to the right of Vandana, then what is Nayana’s position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 17th

B. 16th

C. 13th

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D. 15th

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Q.69 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

WASP - WPSA - PSAW
GUTS - GSTU - STUG
Ans A. POND - PNOD - DNOP

B. NICE - NECI - ECIN

C. GROW - GRWO - ROWG

D. HUGE - UHGE - EUGH

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

612 610 606 600 592 ?3902
Ans A. 582

B. 584

C. 581

D. 591

Q.71 In a certain code language,
A ? B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A = B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
and A √ B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is C related to L if 'C ? D @ E √ F = L'?
Ans A. Sister

B. Daughter

C. Mother

D. Wife

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
31 51 71 91 111 ?
Ans A. 131

B. 132

C. 130

D. 129

Q.73 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 3 8 9 8 9 3 4 4 4 5 1 2 3 6 8 3 2 9 6 2 9 1 4 9 2 1 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Seven

B. Five

C. Eight

D. Nine

Q.74 Tinu starts from point A and drives 55 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 57 km, turns right and drives 61 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 66 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 8 km to the south

B. 9 km to the south

C. 10 km to the north

D. 7 km to the south
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.75 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
co
the following sets.

. e m
m
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
as
se l
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) ag
(18, 162, 9)
(21, 189, 9)
Ans A. (16, 144, 8)

B. (12, 120, 9)

C. (9, 90, 9)

D. (15, 135, 9)

m
m .co
.co
Q.76 If + means ÷, − means ×, × means −, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
em
e
608 + 76 × 6 − 37 ÷ 259 = ?m l as
Ans A. 41
l as ag
B. 45
ag
C. 33

D. 39

Q.77 In a certain code language, ‘moving through life’ is coded as ‘gt df za’ and ‘life is short’
is coded as ‘kl td za’. How is ‘life’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. za
m
B. kl

m .co
C. df
s e
D. gt
g la
Q.78
a
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) % 4 6 1 * @ 8 $ 7 & Ω 9 # 2 + 3 £ 5 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans A. 6

m
B. 3

mC. 4
.co
m .co D. 5
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.79 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only six people
a
sit to the right of C. Only four people sit to the left of B. D sits to the left of A but right of

a Ans
B. F sits second to the right of G. How many people sit to the right of E?
A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.80 FK 14 is related to CG 16 in a certain way. In the same way, QV 22 is related to NR 24. To
which of the given options is OT 27 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. LP 29

B. JQ 28

C. JS 29

D. LS 28

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What was the official theme for the National Technology Day, 2025?
Ans A. PANTRA – Prapancha for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

B. MANTRA – Manovikas for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

C. YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

D. TANTRA – Tapasya for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

Q.82 What responsibility did the Supreme Court give to the National Environmental
Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) in April 2025?
Ans A. To repair the Taj Mahal

B. To promote tourism near the Taj Mahal

C. To relocate glass factories near the Taj Mahal

D. To study the impact of glass industries on the Taj Mahal

Q.83 With which country did India conduct the joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster
Relief (HADR) exercise in May 2025?
Ans A. Sri Lanka

B. The Philippines

C. Japan

D. The Maldives

Q.84 Which earthquake rescue operation was launched by the National Disaster Response Fo
Ans A. Operation Bramha

B. Operation Naag

C. Operation Vishnu

D. Operation Sudarshan

Q.85 As of June 2025, in which of the following years has India aimed to achieve net-zero
emissions?
Ans A. 2057

B. 2030

C. 2047

D. 2070

Q.86 India will ban AsiaSat's AS-5 and AS-7 satellites after 31 March 2026. This decision
comes from the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre due to
concerns over ______.
Ans A. Japanese authority

B. Chinese authority

C. South Korean authority

D. Singaporean authority

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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.co
Q.87 Which of the following hockey players received the Arjuna Award in January 2025?
m
co m
Ans A. Deep Grace Ekka

m . s e
se
B. Gurjit Kaur

g l a
a
C. Salima Tete

D. Savita Punia

Q.88 In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Government of India announced which of the
following missions for ensuring energy reliability and reducing dependency on fossil
fuels?
Ans A. Hydrogen Mission

B. Hydro Power Mission

C. Nuclear Energy Mission
m
m .co
.co
D. EV Mission

em
Q.89
e m
On which date was the birth anniversary of social reformer Jyotiba Phule observed in
l as
the year 2025?

l as ag
ag
Ans A. 5th September

B. 15th August

C. 11th April

D. 14th April

Q.90 As of 4 July 2025, India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at ________.
Ans A. ₹56,58,048 crores

B. ₹59,68,048 crores
m
.co
C. ₹67,68,048 crores

D. ₹54,68,048 crores
e m
las
Q.91
Ans A. Royal Portrush, Northern Ireland ag
Where was the 2025 Open Championship (golf) played from July 17–20?

B. Royal Liverpool, England

C. St Andrews, Scotland

D. Royal Troon, Scotland

Q.92 According to the Global Peace Index 2025, which of the following countries at the
bottom, indicating the least peaceful nation?

m
.co
Ans A. Sudan

m
.co
B. Russia

e m
e m C. Yemen

l as
l as D. Syria
ag
ag Q.93 Who won Breakthrough of the Year at the 2025 Laureus Awards?
Ans A. Summer McIntosh

B. Victor Wembanyama

C. Lamine Yamal

D. Coco Gauff

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.94 What was the score of India in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024 released
by Transparency International in February 2025?
Ans A. 38

B. 40

C. 24

D. 31

Q.95 Which para-athlete was honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award by
President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan in January 2025?
Ans A. Praveen Kumar

B. Ajeet Singh

C. Subhash Rana

D. Preeti Pal

Q.96 Monika Gusain won a senior executive post in which of the following Indian
associations?
Ans A. Indian Institute of Architects

B. National Association of Realtors - India

C. Asian Rural Development Organization

D. Supreme Court Bar Association

Q.97 Bima Vistaar, an insurance product covering life, health and property for rural people, is
likely to be launched by ________.
Ans A. January 2026

B. December 2025

C. November 2025

D. March 2026

Q.98 Under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, how many Jan Aushadhi
Kendras (JAKs) have been opened till 28 February 2025 across India, having an end-to-
end IT-enabled supply chain system?
Ans A. 13,007

B. 15,057

C. 14,057

D. 16,507

Q.99 Which of the following tennis tournaments used live electronic line calling instead of
human judges in 2025?
Ans A. Wimbledon

B. Australian Open

C. French Open

D. US Open

Q.100 What was the theme for Ayurveda Day, 2025, as announced by the Ministry of Ayush?
Ans A. Traditional Remedies in Modern Times

B. Ayurveda, Environment & You

C. Ayurveda for Wellness

D. Ayurveda for People & Planet

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 12/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining the kidney tubules?
Ans A. Glandular Epithelium

B. Columnar Epithelium

C. Cuboidal Epithelium

D. Skeletal Epithelium

m
.co
Q.2 The bad taste or smell from the leftover food is caused due to:
Ans A. the oxidation of proteins

e m
B. the oxidation of fats and oil

las
C. the oxidation of sugar

D. the oxidation of carbohydrates ag
Q.3 Which of the following is correct if the egg is NOT fertilised with the sperm?
Ans A. Uterus lining is unaffected

B. Uterus lining becomes thick and spongy

C. Uterus lining slowly breaks, sheds as blood and mucous

D. Uterus lining becomes thin
m
m .co
.co
Q.4 Which of the following particles contribute to the mass number?
Ans
e m
s
A. Electrons only

e m l a
l as B. Protons and Neutrons

ag
ag C. Protons only

D. Electrons and Protons

Q.5 Budding in Hydra is best classified as:
Ans A. fission

B. sexual reproduction

C. asexual reproduction

D. fragmentation

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 According to the sign convention for lenses, all distances measured in the direction of
incident light are taken as:
Ans A. zero

B. positive

C. negative

D. depends on the type of lens

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT the use of bleaching powder?
Ans A. to make drinking water free from germs

B. for removing permanent hardness of water

C. for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry

D. as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries

Q.8 Which of the following metals forms a protective oxide layer on its surface when
exposed to air, preventing further corrosion?
Ans A. Sodium

B. Aluminium

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium

Q.9 In liquids, a small fraction of particles at the surface, having higher kinetic energy,
which is able to break away from the forces of attraction of other particles, will
ultimately get converted into which state?
Ans A. Solid

B. Deposition

C. Vapor

D. Sublimation

Q.10 Study the experimental set up containing a water filled jar and an onion with growing
roots set vertically up. Which type of tissue is present in the portion A of roots tips?

Ans A. Sclerenchyma

B. Meristematic tissue

C. Parenchyma

D. Collenchyma

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

m
.co
Q.11 A ball of mass 3 kg is placed on a shelf 2 m above the ground. The gravitational
m
potential energy of the ball is

. co
Ans A. 6 J
s e m
m a
se B. 60 J

C. 300 J ag l
D. 30 J

Q.12 Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes a compound from a solution?
Ans A. A compound has a variable composition, while a solution has a fixed composition.

B. A compound has a fixed composition and properties distinct from its constituent elements, unlike a solution.

C. Both compound and solution are always homogeneous and chemically bonded.

m
.co
D. A compound can be separated into its components by physical methods, while a solution cannot.

m
Q.13
.co
A ball is thrown vertically upwards at a speed of 2 m/s. What will be the maximum

m s em
a
height attained and velocity of the body at the highest point, respectively, of the ball?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
s e l
l a ag
ag
Ans A. 0.2 m and 0 m/s

B. 5 m and 2 m/s

C. 5 m and 0 m/s

D. 0.2 m and 2 m/s

Q.14 A car starts from rest is accelerated to a velocity of 60 km/hr in 5 minutes. What is the
acceleration of the car?
Ans A. 0.055 m/s2

B. 12 m/s2
m
C. 0.025 m/s2
.co
D. 1 m/s2
s em
Which of the following lenses can be used tog la the eye defect myopia?
Q.15
Ans A. Concave lens
a correct

B. Convex lens

C. Plano-convex lens

D. Cylindrical lens

Q.16 An increase of molecular mass in any homologous series indicates:
Ans A. increase melting point and decrease boiling point
m
m .co
B. increase melting and boiling points

m.co C. decrease melting point and increases boiling point
s e m
s e D. decrease melting and boiling points

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.17 Through which of the following ways can scientists incorporate desirable characters
into crop varieties?
Ans A. Weed control

B. Hybridisation

C. Fertilisers

D. Irrigation

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.18 Which material is generally used for making resistance wires because it has high
resistance and high melting point?
Ans A. Copper

B. Silver

C. Aluminium

D. Nichrome

Q.19 Match the following animal tissues with their correct features.
a. Squamous Epithelium i. Cells are thin and flat and form a delicate
lining of the oesophagus
b. Stratified Squamous ii. It forms the inner lining of the respiratory
Epithelium tract
c. Cuboidal Epithelium iii. It forms the lining of kidney tubules and
ducts of salivary glands
d. Ciliated Columnar Epithelium iv. Cells are arranged in many layers, as in
skin
Ans A. a iv, b i, c iii, d ii

B. a iv, b i, c ii, d iii

C. a i, b iv, c iii, d ii

D. a i, b iii, c ii, d iv

Q.20 If the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is the minimum distance required for an
observer to hear a distinct echo?
Ans A. 344 m

B. 17.2 m

C. 0.1 m

D. 34.4 m

Q.21 In poultry farming, what are the primary purposes for developing improved breeds?
Ans A. Egg and meat production

B. Wool and milk production

C. Decoration and sports

D. Only manure production

Q.22 In uniform circular motion, which of the following physical quantities remains constant?
Ans A. Acceleration

B. Centripetal force

C. Speed

D. Velocity

Q.23 From the given alternatives, which part of the flower finally changes into a fruit in the
flowering plant?
Ans A. Ovule

B. Seed

C. Flower

D. Ovary

Q.24 Carbon forms a very large number of compounds due to two unique properties. Which
of the following correctly identifies these properties?
Ans A. Allotropy and isomerism

B. High melting point and ductility

C. Catenation and tetravalency

D. Good conductivity and sonorous nature

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

m
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Q.25 An electric iron of resistance 15 Ω is connected to 220 V supply. How much heat will be
m
produced in one minute?

. co
Ans A. 1.94 kJ
s e m
m a
se l
B. 200 kJ

C. 194 kJ
ag
D. 500 kJ

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The length, breadth, and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 8 : 7 : 5. If the
volume of the box is 2240 cm³, find the total surface area (in cm2, round off to the
nearest tens) of the box.
Ans A. 1050
m
B. 1140
m .co
C. 960
.co s em
D. 1250
s em l a
g l a ag
Q.27

Ans
2
a 2

A. 7 : 6 : 4
2
If 8x + 2y + 18z − 4xy − 6yz − 12zx = 0, then find x : y : z.

B. 2 : 3 : 5

C. 3 : 4 : 5

D. 3 : 6 : 2

Q.28 One pipe can fill a tank in 2 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 4 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
m
.co
many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
Ans A. 2

e m
B. 4

las
C. 1

D. 3 ag
Q.29 Which of the given values can x NOT take without changing the mode in the following
data set?

{1, 2, 3, 3, 7, 8, 9, 3, 11, x, 17, 11, 13}
Ans A. 3

B. 2

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.co
C. 13

m
.co
D. 11

e m
e
Q.30 m l as
l as ag
ag Ans A. 82.4 m

B. 66.4 m

C. 56.2 m

D. 78.2 m

Q.31 Prakhar and Riya together invested ₹35,600 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹5,000, Prakhar's share was ₹2,300. What was Prakhar's investment?
Ans A. ₹16,235
m .
.co m
B. ₹16,390

m s e
C. ₹16,376

s e l a
D. ₹16,675

g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.32 A son's present age is two-fifths of the age of his father. After 8 years from now, his age
will be one-half of the age of his father. How old (in years) is the father at present?
Ans A. 40

B. 42

C. 44

D. 45

Q.33

3838
Ans A. 23.1

B. 19.4

C. 15.4

D. 18.9

Q.34 The curved surface area of a cylinder of height 12 cm is 602.88 cm2. If the radius of the
cylinder is doubled and its height is increased by 25%, then find the ratio between the
original volume to the new volume of the cylinder.

(Use π = 3.14)
Ans A. 1 : 5

B. 2 : 3

C. 3 : 7

D. 4 : 9

Q.35 A cricketer has an average of 62 runs over 5 innings. If he scores 296 runs in the 6th
inning, by how many runs does his average score increase?
Ans A. 36

B. 39

C. 30

D. 37

Q.36

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.37 What is the value of x in the following equation?
4167
Ans A. 1197

B. 1971

C. 1195

D. 1179

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

m
.co
Q.38 A shopkeeper marks his goods at X% above the cost price and sells them at a discount
m
of 35%. If he makes a profit of 69%, find the value of X.

. co
Ans A. 162
s e m
m a
se l
B. 159

C. 161
ag
D. 160

Q.39 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Mahesh
borrowed an amount of ₹4,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Mahesh after 2 years.
Ans A. 33,700

B. 31,700

m
.co
C. 33,200

m
.co m
D. 32,200

m s e
Q.40
s e
A person’s salary is first reduced by 30% and then increased by 40%. What is the overall
l a
a ag
percentage decrease in his salary?
l
ag
Ans A. 1%

B. 3%

C. 5%

D. 2%

Q.41 If an item marked at ₹4,820 is sold for ₹4,338, then what is the discount percentage?
Ans A. 10%

B. 8%
m
.co
C. 11%

D. 9%
e m
las
Q.42
g
The income of Raman is ₹43,500. He saves 17% of his income. If his income increases
a
by 18% and expenditure increases by 20%, then his savings will:
Ans A. increase by ₹609

B. decrease by ₹608

C. increase by ₹606

D. decrease by ₹604

Q.43 If three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 and their total sum is 510, what is the greatest
number that can exactly divide all three numbers?
m
.co
Ans A. 34
m
.co m
B. 33

m s e
s e C. 35

g l a
g l a D. 32
a
a Q.44 If 20% of a number is added to 78, then the result is the same number. 70% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 88.25

B. 78.25

C. 98.25

D. 68.25

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.45 The sum of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 13. Find the smaller number.
Ans A. 12

B. 15

C. 13

D. 16

Q.46 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 14°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 75°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans A. 136°

B. 151°

C. 166°

D. 137°

Q.47 Aarti, Anil and Naveen started a business in partnership, investing in the ratio of
17:6:17, respectively. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of ₹78,600, which is
20% of their total investment. How much did Anil invest (in ₹)?
Ans A. 58,838

B. 58,880

C. 58,788

D. 58,950

Q.48 Two trains, 259 m and 231 m in length, are running in opposite directions. The first runs
at the rate of 55 km/hr and the second at the rate of 71 km/hr. How long will they take to
cross each other?
Ans A. 17 seconds

B. 16 seconds

C. 11 seconds

D. 14 seconds

Q.49 A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 80 min, and at a speed of 56 m/min for 64
min. Her average speed (in m/min) is:
Ans A. 42

B. 40

C. 29

D. 36

Q.50 Rizwan buys 3 watches, all with the same price, for a total of ₹4,800. He sells the first at
a profit of ₹200, the second at a loss of ₹100, and the third at a profit of ₹150. What is
the overall profit or loss percentage? (Round off to two decimal places)
Ans A. 4.31% profit

B. 5.21% profit

C. 5.21% loss

D. 4.31% loss

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 17 km, then turns right and drives 32 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7
km. He then taken a right turn, drives 10 km, then turns left and drives 4 km. He takes a
final right turn, drives 10 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km to the North

B. 7 km to the South

C. 6 km to the South

D. 6 km to the North
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

m
.co
Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 110 109 111 108 112 107 ?

s e m
m Ans A. 113
a
se B. 115
ag l
C. 119

D. 117

Q.53 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 1 3 9 6 7 7 7 9 4 4 1 1 5 9 6 5 3 5 9 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 (Right)

m
.co
How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an

m
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 0

m .co s em
B. 2
s e l a
C. 1
l a ag
D. 3
ag
Q.54 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. AFG

B. WAC

C. GKM
m
D. TXZ

m .co
s e
la
Q.55 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second to

g
the right of A. D sits second to the left of E. C is on the immediate right of B. Who is

Ans
sitting on the immediate right of F?
A. E
a
B. B

C. D

D. C

Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
m
.co
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
m
.co m
Ans A. TPL

m s e
s e
B. VRN

g l a
g l a C. UQN
a
a D. ROJ

Q.57 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

25 × 5 − 7 ÷ 8 + 10 = ?
Ans A. 51

B. 50

C. 49
m .
.co m
D. 53

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

66 56 46 36 26 ?
Ans A. 15

B. 16

C. 13

D. 14

Q.59 Town X is to the west of Town Y. Town Z is to the north of Town Y. Town W is to the west
of Town Z. Town V is to the south of Town W. Town X is to the north-west of Town V.
What is the position of Town X with respect to Town W?
Ans A. South-east

B. South-west

C. North-east

D. North-west

Q.60 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

HDP 1, JEM -2, LFJ 4, NGG -8, ?
Ans A. HJP 14

B. PPO 11

C. OPP 12

D. PHD 16

Q.61 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

OPM−KLI
YZW−UVS
Ans A. BBX−WXU

B. BBX−XYV

C. BCZ−XYV

D. BCZ−WYU

Q.62 GB 16 is related to KE 13 in a certain way. In the same way, MH 25 is related to QK 22. To
which of the given options is SN 28 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. WQ 25

B. YQ 26

C. XP 26

D. WP 25

Q.63 IB 15 is related to NF 12 in a certain way. In the same way, OH 20 is related to TL 17. To
which of the given options is RK 26 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. VN 23

B. UN 24

C. WO 23

D. WQ 24

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

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Q.64 F, G, H, I, M, N, and O are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
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Only two people sit between F and G, when counted from the right of F. Only two people

. co sit between G and M, when counted from the right of G. Only three people sit between F

s
and N, when counted from the right of F. H sits to the immediate left of I. Who sits thirde m
m a
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to the left of O?
Ans A. G
ag
B. F

C. I

D. H

Q.65 Seven boxes D, E, F, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. D is kept immediately above V. W is kept immediately above F. Only U is
kept above E. Only one box is kept between U and D. W is not kept at third position
from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between X and U?11056
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Ans A. Three
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B. One

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C. Four

s e l a
D. Two
l a ag
Q.66 ag
In a certain code language, ‘LEASK’ is coded as ‘76432’ and ‘KASEY’ is coded as
‘46837’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?3474
Ans A. 3

B. 7

C. 4

D. 2

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Q.67 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 8 7 4 1 2 6 9 5 3 1 4 (Right)
e m
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g
How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd

Ans A. Four
a
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

Q.68 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit to
the left of D. Only A sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and B. X sits
at some place to the left of Y but at some place to the right of W. How many people sit
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between W and Y?
m
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Ans A. Four

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s e
B. One

g l a
g l a C. Two
a
a D. Three

Q.69 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

34 − 7 ÷ 6 + 270 × 9 = ?
Ans A. 48

B. 44

C. 46
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D. 42

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All kites are banks.
No pencils are kites.
Conclusions:
(I) Some banks are not pencils.
(II) All banks are kites.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.71 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All golds are hens.
No hen is a cow.

Conclusions:
(I) No gold is a cow.
(II) Some cows are hens.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.72 In a certain code language,
A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
and A # B means ‘ A is the sister of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D # R * A ± C ₹ O’?
Ans A. Sister

B. Wife

C. Mother

D. Daughter

Q.73 If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

23 - 15 ÷ 246 + 318 x 6 = ?
Ans A. 538

B. 554

C. 562

D. 546

Q.74 Deepali ranked 9th from the top and 43rd from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 41

B. 51

C. 21

D. 53

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Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘the dog barks’ is coded as ‘av ds tw’ and ‘dog can run’ is
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coded as ‘rd te av’. How is ‘dog’ coded in the given language?

. co
Ans A. ds
s e m
m a
se l
B. tw

C. av
ag
D. te

Q.76 Refer to the number and symbol series given below and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) # 9 & 5 1 © * * * @ # & 7 & # $ 8 & 3 1 @ € (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
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and also immediately followed by a number?

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Ans A. 2

em
B. 4

e m l as
C. 3

l as ag
ag
D. 1

Q.77 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single
digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 6 9 7 3 6 9 8 4 3 8 5 4 5 2 8 6 7 2 8 6 2 6 9 5 1 9 1 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 3
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C. 4

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D. 5
s e
g la
Q.78
a
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

71 75 83 95 111 ?
Ans A. 131

B. 151

C. 121

D. 141

Q.79 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.
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m.co
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
s e m
s e adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
g l a
g l a and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
a
a (11, 110, 10)
(8, 64, 8)
Ans A. (12, 120, 10)

B. (10, 80, 9)

C. (7, 56, 7)

D. (9, 72, 9)

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the
English alphabetical order?

RUY PSW NQU LOS ?
Ans A. JMR

B. JNQ

C. JMQ

D. JNR

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In which state was the Rajiv Gandhi Van Samvardhan Yojana launched in June 2025?
Ans A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Haryana

C. Uttarakhand

D. Punjab

Q.82 Which gymnast was named Sportswoman of the Year for the fourth time at the Laureus
Awards?
Ans A. Faith Kipyegon

B. Rebeca Andrade

C. Simone Biles

D. Sifan Hassan

Q.83 Where will the Billie Jean King Cup Finals be hosted from 2025–2027?
Ans A. Tokyo, Japan

B. Shenzhen, China

C. Beijing, China

D. Seoul, South Korea

Q.84 An all-women team from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force has successfully returned
from the country’s first-ever international open-sea sailing expedition to Seychelles in
June 2025.What is the name of the indigenously-built Indian Armed Services Vessel
used for this Sailing Expedition?
Ans A. Triveni

B. Durga

C. Ganga

D. Bhagirathi

Q.85 Which Bollywood actor announced his comeback with the film Duniyadari in 2025?
Ans A. Neeraj Shah

B. Sanjay Dutt

C. Govinda

D. Mithun Chakraborty

Q.86 What rank did India secure in UNICEF’s 'The State of the World’s Children 2024' report,
spotlighting the severe climate risks facing its children?
Ans A. 11th

B. 32nd

C. 26th

D. 54th

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.87 The joint maritime drill between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy that began on 05
m
October 2025 along India’s western seaboard was known as ______.

. co
Ans A. KONKAN-25
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m a
se l
B. Operation Abhyaas-25

C. ZAPAD-25
ag
D. Yudh Abhyas-25

Q.88 Which award recognised Kelly Slater for his lifelong contributions to sport in April
2025?
Ans A. Laureus Lifetime Achievement Award

B. ESPN Lifetime Honour

C. Laureus World Sportsman
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D. Olympic Order
m .co
Q.89
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Which of the following two countries will co-host the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2026?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. India and Bangladesh

l a
ag
B. India and Sri Lanka

C. India and UAE

D. Sri Lanka and Pakistan

Q.90 Who set a new national record in the men’s 10,000 metres at the Ten 2025 athletics meet
held in San Juan Capistrano, USA?
Ans A. Gulveer Singh

B. Avinash Sable

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C. Kartik Kumar

D. Gopi T

e m
Q.91
las
Which of the following banks revived its special Fixed Deposit (FD) scheme, known as

Ans A. Canara Bank ag
'Amrit Vrishti,' with a 444-day tenure, effective from 15 April 2025?

B. Punjab National Bank

C. Bank of Baroda

D. State Bank of India

Q.92 Which traditional Islamic purpose aligns with the Waqf (Amendment) Act’s 2025 focus
on widows’ and orphans’ welfare?
Ans A. Nikah registration
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B. Waqf-alal-aulad principle
.co
m.co C. Madarsa development
s e m
s e D. Zakat donation
g l a
g l a a
a Q.93 ‘Expanding Quality Higher Education through States and State Public Universities’ is a
report released in February 2025 by:
Ans A. IIT Bombay

B. NITI Aayog

C. University Grants Commission

D. Ministry of Education

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.94 In January 2025, which of the following states signed an MoU with State Bank of India
and Union bank of India to offer zero-premium insurance to government employees?
Ans A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

C. Assam

D. Uttar Pradesh

Q.95 In the short duration hot test of the semi-cryogenic engine conducted on 24 April 2025
by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), to validate the engine start-up
sequence, the Engine Power Head Test Article was subjected to a hot test for a duration
of _______.
Ans A. 5.5 seconds

B. 6.5 seconds

C. 3.5 seconds

D. 4.5 seconds

Q.96 As announced in May 2025, in which of the following states of India, will the first
Artificial Intelligence Special Economic Zone be set up?
Ans A. Telangana

B. Haryana

C. Chhattisgarh

D. Gujarat

Q.97 In which of the following years did the Government of India launch the National Critical
Mineral Mission?
Ans A. 2023

B. 2017

C. 2021

D. 2025

Q.98 Where was the Fit India Carnival 2025 held?
Ans A. Red Fort, New Delhi

B. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi

C. Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi

D. India Gate, New Delhi

Q.99 Which authority introduced updated rules for biological resource regulation in India in
2025?
Ans A. National Environmental Council

B. Central Pollution Control Board

C. International Eco Research Forum

D. National Biodiversity Authority

Q.100 When was the Union Government of India approved the establishment of the Eighth Pay
Commission?
Ans A. February 2025

B. March 2025

C. January 2025

D. April 2025

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48