NBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2024 All Subjects
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NBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2024 All Subjects – Text
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Page 1
NAGALAND BOARD
QUESTION
PAPER
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
2024
Page 2
Total number of printed pages : 9 NB/XII/ENG/1
2024
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 16 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C &D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Choose the correct option for the following questions: 4x1=4
(a) Read the given extract to attempt the question that follows:
“He would never become accustomed to this life of wretchedness”.
What is ‘this life of wretchedness’ referred to here?
(i) Poverty (ii) Hunger
(iii) Miserable life (iv) Impoverished
(b) What signs does the speaker Ellen Johnson Sirleaf see in the world?
(i) Social justice and fairness (ii) Pursuit of peace
(iii) New-found freedom (iv) Optimism and hope
(c) “Great pirates of Penzance!” Who says this?
(i) Bill (ii) Sam
(iii) Red Chief (iv) Ebenezer Dorset
(d) “Today’s ever changing society calls for a leader who possesses these
qualities”. Select the options that list the qualities of today’s leader:
(i) Collaborate
(ii) Dominating
(iii) Accept feedback
(iv) Decisive in action
(v) Freedom
(vi) Analytical
(vii) Competitive
2024
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 16 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C &D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Choose the correct option for the following questions: 4x1=4
(a) Read the given extract to attempt the question that follows:
“He would never become accustomed to this life of wretchedness”.
What is ‘this life of wretchedness’ referred to here?
(i) Poverty (ii) Hunger
(iii) Miserable life (iv) Impoverished
(b) What signs does the speaker Ellen Johnson Sirleaf see in the world?
(i) Social justice and fairness (ii) Pursuit of peace
(iii) New-found freedom (iv) Optimism and hope
(c) “Great pirates of Penzance!” Who says this?
(i) Bill (ii) Sam
(iii) Red Chief (iv) Ebenezer Dorset
(d) “Today’s ever changing society calls for a leader who possesses these
qualities”. Select the options that list the qualities of today’s leader:
(i) Collaborate
(ii) Dominating
(iii) Accept feedback
(iv) Decisive in action
(v) Freedom
(vi) Analytical
(vii) Competitive
Page 3
-2- NB/XII/ENG/1
A. (i) and (v)
B. (ii) and (vii)
C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
D. (i) ,(iii), (iv) and (vi)
2. Answer the following questions: 3x2=6
(a) Write a brief note on Leymah Roberta Gbowee.
(b) What did Sam see when he was awakened by a series of terrible screams
from Bill?
(c) What do you understand by ‘Managing Emotions’?
3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:
a. Jean Victor’s life story speaks volumes about his character. Comment.
Or 5
b. Grandma acted as a driving force in Susan’s life to achieve her goals.
Substantiate your answer with reasons.
4. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
a. I am not yet born; provide me
With water to dandle me, grass to grow for me, trees to talk….
How is nature presented in the above lines?
(i) Caring friend (ii) Goddess
(iii) Caring mother (iv) Priestess
b. In ‘Spring and Fall’ who, in reality is Margaret mourning for?
(i) Fallen leaves (ii) Her own mortality
(iii) Goldengrove (iv) Wanwood leafmeal
c. “Into the jaws of Death, Into the mouth of Hell”. Identify the poetic
device used in these lines?
(i) Personification (ii) Metaphor
(iii) Simile (iv) Repitition
5. Read the lines from the poem and answer the following questions:
a. I am not yet born; forgive me
For the sins that in me the world shall commit, my words
When they speak me, my thoughts when they think me,
My treason engendered by traitors beyond me, my life when they murder by
Means of my hands, my death when they live me.
(i) Why does the speaker seek for forgiveness? 1
(ii) Why is the speaker so sure that he will commit sins? 1
(iii) What do you understand by the lines ‘my words when they speak
me, my thoughts when they think me’? 1
A. (i) and (v)
B. (ii) and (vii)
C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
D. (i) ,(iii), (iv) and (vi)
2. Answer the following questions: 3x2=6
(a) Write a brief note on Leymah Roberta Gbowee.
(b) What did Sam see when he was awakened by a series of terrible screams
from Bill?
(c) What do you understand by ‘Managing Emotions’?
3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:
a. Jean Victor’s life story speaks volumes about his character. Comment.
Or 5
b. Grandma acted as a driving force in Susan’s life to achieve her goals.
Substantiate your answer with reasons.
4. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
a. I am not yet born; provide me
With water to dandle me, grass to grow for me, trees to talk….
How is nature presented in the above lines?
(i) Caring friend (ii) Goddess
(iii) Caring mother (iv) Priestess
b. In ‘Spring and Fall’ who, in reality is Margaret mourning for?
(i) Fallen leaves (ii) Her own mortality
(iii) Goldengrove (iv) Wanwood leafmeal
c. “Into the jaws of Death, Into the mouth of Hell”. Identify the poetic
device used in these lines?
(i) Personification (ii) Metaphor
(iii) Simile (iv) Repitition
5. Read the lines from the poem and answer the following questions:
a. I am not yet born; forgive me
For the sins that in me the world shall commit, my words
When they speak me, my thoughts when they think me,
My treason engendered by traitors beyond me, my life when they murder by
Means of my hands, my death when they live me.
(i) Why does the speaker seek for forgiveness? 1
(ii) Why is the speaker so sure that he will commit sins? 1
(iii) What do you understand by the lines ‘my words when they speak
me, my thoughts when they think me’? 1
Page 4
-3- NB/XII/ENG/1
Or
b. If this be error, and upon me prov’d,
I never writ, nor no man ever lov’d.
(i) Who is ‘I’ here? (1)
(ii) What is the ‘error’ the poet is referring to? (1)
(iii) What is the significance of the last two lines? (1)
6. Answer the following questions in about 120 words:
a. The unleaving of Goldengrove during the autumn season carries a deeper
meaning. What according to you is the underlying theme captured in the
poem ‘Spring and Fall’?
Or 4
b. Even after realizing that their commander had ‘blundered’, the soldiers
kept charging forward. Write a note on the soldiers as portrayed in the
poem, ‘The Charge of the Light Brigade’.
7. a. “Have patience, gentle friends. I must not read it.
It is not meet you know how Caesar loved you.
You are not wood, you are not stones, but men.
And, being men, hearing the will of Caesar,
It will inflame you; it will make you mad.
‘Tis good you know not that you are his heirs,
For if you should, O, what would come of it?”
(a) Who is the speaker in the above lines? 1
(b) Explain the lines ‘you are not wood, you are not stones, but men’. 2
(c) What is the intention of the speaker in the above lines? 2
Or
b. Can you spot ‘mob mentality’ in this scene of the play, Mark Antony’s
Speech? Write a note expressing your views on the same. (5)
8. Answer any two (2) of the following questions in about 150 words: 2x5=10
(a) Give a pen –portrait of Lord Canterville.
(b) Describe in detail the plan of the ghost to frighten the Otis family on the 17th
of August.
(c) How are the themes of love and death described in ‘The Canterville Ghost’?
Or
b. If this be error, and upon me prov’d,
I never writ, nor no man ever lov’d.
(i) Who is ‘I’ here? (1)
(ii) What is the ‘error’ the poet is referring to? (1)
(iii) What is the significance of the last two lines? (1)
6. Answer the following questions in about 120 words:
a. The unleaving of Goldengrove during the autumn season carries a deeper
meaning. What according to you is the underlying theme captured in the
poem ‘Spring and Fall’?
Or 4
b. Even after realizing that their commander had ‘blundered’, the soldiers
kept charging forward. Write a note on the soldiers as portrayed in the
poem, ‘The Charge of the Light Brigade’.
7. a. “Have patience, gentle friends. I must not read it.
It is not meet you know how Caesar loved you.
You are not wood, you are not stones, but men.
And, being men, hearing the will of Caesar,
It will inflame you; it will make you mad.
‘Tis good you know not that you are his heirs,
For if you should, O, what would come of it?”
(a) Who is the speaker in the above lines? 1
(b) Explain the lines ‘you are not wood, you are not stones, but men’. 2
(c) What is the intention of the speaker in the above lines? 2
Or
b. Can you spot ‘mob mentality’ in this scene of the play, Mark Antony’s
Speech? Write a note expressing your views on the same. (5)
8. Answer any two (2) of the following questions in about 150 words: 2x5=10
(a) Give a pen –portrait of Lord Canterville.
(b) Describe in detail the plan of the ghost to frighten the Otis family on the 17th
of August.
(c) How are the themes of love and death described in ‘The Canterville Ghost’?
Page 5
-4- NB/XII/ENG/1
SECTION –B (Reading)
9. 1. While there is no denying that the world loves a winner, it is important that
you recognize the signs of stress in your behaviour and be healthy enough to
enjoy your success. Stress can strike anytime, in a fashion that may leave you
unaware of its presence in your life. While a certain amount of pressure is
necessary for performance, it is important to be able to recognize your individual
limit. For instance, there are some individuals who accept competition in a
healthy fashion. There are others who collapse into weeping wrecks before an
exam or on comparing mark sheets and finding that their friend has scored
better.
2. Stress is a body reaction to any demands or changes in its internal and
external environment. Whenever there is a change in the external environment
such as temperature, pollutants, humidity and working conditions, it leads to
stress. In these days of competition when a person makes up his mind to
surpass what has been achieved by others, leading to an imbalance between
demands and resources, it causes psychosocial stress. It is a part and parcel of
everyday life.
3. Stress has a different meaning, depending on the stage of life you are in.
The loss of a toy or a reprimand from the parents might create a stress shock in
a child. An adolescent who fails an examination may feel as if everything has
been lost and life has no further meaning. In an adult, the loss of his or her
companion, job or professional failure may appear as if there is nothing more to
be achieved.
4. Such signs appear in the attitude and behaviour of the individual, as muscle
tension in various parts of the body, palpitation and high blood pressure,
indigestion and hyperacidity. Ultimately, the result is self-destructive behaviour
such as eating and drinking too much, smoking excessively, relying on
tranquilisers. There are other signs of stress such as trembling, shaking,
nervous blinking, dryness of throat and mouth and difficulty in swallowing.
5. The professional under stress behaves as if he is a perfectionist. It leads to
depression, lethargy and weakness. Periodic mood shifts also indicate the stress
status of the students, executives and professionals.
6. In a study sponsored by World Health Organization and carried out by
Harvard School of Public Health, the global burden of diseases and injury
indicated that stress diseases and accidents are going to be the major killers in
the 21st century.
7. The heart disease and depression both stress diseases are going to rank first
and second in 21st century. Road traffic accidents are going to be the third-
SECTION –B (Reading)
9. 1. While there is no denying that the world loves a winner, it is important that
you recognize the signs of stress in your behaviour and be healthy enough to
enjoy your success. Stress can strike anytime, in a fashion that may leave you
unaware of its presence in your life. While a certain amount of pressure is
necessary for performance, it is important to be able to recognize your individual
limit. For instance, there are some individuals who accept competition in a
healthy fashion. There are others who collapse into weeping wrecks before an
exam or on comparing mark sheets and finding that their friend has scored
better.
2. Stress is a body reaction to any demands or changes in its internal and
external environment. Whenever there is a change in the external environment
such as temperature, pollutants, humidity and working conditions, it leads to
stress. In these days of competition when a person makes up his mind to
surpass what has been achieved by others, leading to an imbalance between
demands and resources, it causes psychosocial stress. It is a part and parcel of
everyday life.
3. Stress has a different meaning, depending on the stage of life you are in.
The loss of a toy or a reprimand from the parents might create a stress shock in
a child. An adolescent who fails an examination may feel as if everything has
been lost and life has no further meaning. In an adult, the loss of his or her
companion, job or professional failure may appear as if there is nothing more to
be achieved.
4. Such signs appear in the attitude and behaviour of the individual, as muscle
tension in various parts of the body, palpitation and high blood pressure,
indigestion and hyperacidity. Ultimately, the result is self-destructive behaviour
such as eating and drinking too much, smoking excessively, relying on
tranquilisers. There are other signs of stress such as trembling, shaking,
nervous blinking, dryness of throat and mouth and difficulty in swallowing.
5. The professional under stress behaves as if he is a perfectionist. It leads to
depression, lethargy and weakness. Periodic mood shifts also indicate the stress
status of the students, executives and professionals.
6. In a study sponsored by World Health Organization and carried out by
Harvard School of Public Health, the global burden of diseases and injury
indicated that stress diseases and accidents are going to be the major killers in
the 21st century.
7. The heart disease and depression both stress diseases are going to rank first
and second in 21st century. Road traffic accidents are going to be the third-
Page 6
-5- NB/XII/ENG/1
largest killers. These accidents are also an indicator of psychosocial stress in a
fast-moving society. Other stress diseases like ulcers, hypertension and
sleeplessness have assumed epidemic proportions in modern societies.
8. A person under stress reacts in different ways and the common ones are
flight, fight and flee depending upon the nature of the stress and capabilities of
the person. The three responses can be elegantly chosen to cope with the stress
so that stress does not damage the system and become distressed.
9. When stress crosses the limit, peculiar to an individual, it lowers his
performance capacity. Frequent crossings of the limit may result in chronic
fatigue in which a person feels lethargic, disinterested and is not easily
motivated to achieve anything. This may make the person mentally undecided,
confused and accident-prone as well. Sudden exposure of unnerving stress may
also result in a loss of memory. Diet, massage, food supplements, herbal
medicines, hobbies, relaxation techniques and dance movements are excellent
stress busters.
Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions given
below:
a. Which of the following signs appear in the attitude and behaviour of the
individual as muscle tension? 1
i. Ulcers
ii. Palpitation
iii. Fatigue
iv. Hypertension
v. Hyperacidity
vi. Sleeplessness
(i) i and iv
(ii) iii and vi
(iii) ii and v
(iv) iv and v
b. The writer attempts to ______ the readers through this write –up. 1
(i) Rebuke (ii) Question
(iii) Offer aid to (iv) Offer advice to
c. Which of the following are going to be the major killers in 21st
century? 1
i Indigestion
ii Depression
iii Smoking Excessively
iv Loss of memory
largest killers. These accidents are also an indicator of psychosocial stress in a
fast-moving society. Other stress diseases like ulcers, hypertension and
sleeplessness have assumed epidemic proportions in modern societies.
8. A person under stress reacts in different ways and the common ones are
flight, fight and flee depending upon the nature of the stress and capabilities of
the person. The three responses can be elegantly chosen to cope with the stress
so that stress does not damage the system and become distressed.
9. When stress crosses the limit, peculiar to an individual, it lowers his
performance capacity. Frequent crossings of the limit may result in chronic
fatigue in which a person feels lethargic, disinterested and is not easily
motivated to achieve anything. This may make the person mentally undecided,
confused and accident-prone as well. Sudden exposure of unnerving stress may
also result in a loss of memory. Diet, massage, food supplements, herbal
medicines, hobbies, relaxation techniques and dance movements are excellent
stress busters.
Based on your reading of the passage, answer the following questions given
below:
a. Which of the following signs appear in the attitude and behaviour of the
individual as muscle tension? 1
i. Ulcers
ii. Palpitation
iii. Fatigue
iv. Hypertension
v. Hyperacidity
vi. Sleeplessness
(i) i and iv
(ii) iii and vi
(iii) ii and v
(iv) iv and v
b. The writer attempts to ______ the readers through this write –up. 1
(i) Rebuke (ii) Question
(iii) Offer aid to (iv) Offer advice to
c. Which of the following are going to be the major killers in 21st
century? 1
i Indigestion
ii Depression
iii Smoking Excessively
iv Loss of memory
Page 7
-6- NB/XII/ENG/1
(i) Only ii
(ii) Only iii
(iii) Only i and iv
(iv) Only i
d. How does the professional under stress behave? 1
e. What is the result of self- destructive behaviour? 1
f. Find a word in the passage which is opposite to ‘praise’. (para. 3) 1
g. According to the writer, what are excellent stress busters? 2
10. Read the following passage and prepare notes on the contents of the
passage and summarize in about 80 words using the notes that you have
made: 4+3=7
Sustainable development has become a central concept in our rapidly
changing world. It represents a crucial approach to addressing the complex
challenges of our time, including environmental degradation, social inequality,
and economic instability. Sustainable development is a vision of progress that
seeks to balance economic growth, social equity, and environmental stewardship
to ensure that future generations can also thrive. This essay explores the key
principles, benefits, and challenges of sustainable development, emphasizing its
significance in shaping a more promising future for all.
One of the primary principles of sustainable development is the
responsible use and preservation of natural resources. This involves reducing
greenhouse gas emissions, conserving biodiversity, and minimizing pollution.
Sustainable development recognizes the finite nature of Earth’s resources and
advocates for their sustainable management to ensure they are available for
future generations.
Sustainable development seeks to promote economic growth and
prosperity while ensuring long- term stability. It emphasizes economic
diversification, innovation and resource efficiency. By fostering sustainable
economic practices, it aims to lift people out of poverty and improve their
quality of life. Equity and social justice are fundamental to sustainable
development. This principle entails reducing social disparities, ensuring access
to education, healthcare and basic services for all, and promoting inclusive and
just societies. It strives to create a world where no one is left behind.
Sustainable development is not just a buzzword; it is a fundamental
concept for addressing the pressing issues of our time. By prioritizing
environmental stewardship, economic prosperity, social equity, and
interconnectedness, sustainable development offers a roadmap to a brighter
future. Its benefits include environmental protection, improved quality of life,
(i) Only ii
(ii) Only iii
(iii) Only i and iv
(iv) Only i
d. How does the professional under stress behave? 1
e. What is the result of self- destructive behaviour? 1
f. Find a word in the passage which is opposite to ‘praise’. (para. 3) 1
g. According to the writer, what are excellent stress busters? 2
10. Read the following passage and prepare notes on the contents of the
passage and summarize in about 80 words using the notes that you have
made: 4+3=7
Sustainable development has become a central concept in our rapidly
changing world. It represents a crucial approach to addressing the complex
challenges of our time, including environmental degradation, social inequality,
and economic instability. Sustainable development is a vision of progress that
seeks to balance economic growth, social equity, and environmental stewardship
to ensure that future generations can also thrive. This essay explores the key
principles, benefits, and challenges of sustainable development, emphasizing its
significance in shaping a more promising future for all.
One of the primary principles of sustainable development is the
responsible use and preservation of natural resources. This involves reducing
greenhouse gas emissions, conserving biodiversity, and minimizing pollution.
Sustainable development recognizes the finite nature of Earth’s resources and
advocates for their sustainable management to ensure they are available for
future generations.
Sustainable development seeks to promote economic growth and
prosperity while ensuring long- term stability. It emphasizes economic
diversification, innovation and resource efficiency. By fostering sustainable
economic practices, it aims to lift people out of poverty and improve their
quality of life. Equity and social justice are fundamental to sustainable
development. This principle entails reducing social disparities, ensuring access
to education, healthcare and basic services for all, and promoting inclusive and
just societies. It strives to create a world where no one is left behind.
Sustainable development is not just a buzzword; it is a fundamental
concept for addressing the pressing issues of our time. By prioritizing
environmental stewardship, economic prosperity, social equity, and
interconnectedness, sustainable development offers a roadmap to a brighter
future. Its benefits include environmental protection, improved quality of life,
Page 8
-7- NB/XII/ENG/1
economic stability, and enhanced resilience. However, overcoming the
challenges of short-term thinking, vested interests, global inequality and
complex interactions is essential to realize its full potential. To secure a
sustainable future for ourselves and future generations, we must commit to
embracing and implementing the principles of sustainable development in
every aspect of our lives and societies.
SECTION-C (Writing)
11. Mrs. Lemshen: Hello!
Ali: Hi
Mrs. Lemshen: Yes. May I know who is on the line please?
Ali: I am Ali. Could I talk to Chiro?
Mrs. Lemshen: Chiro has a slight fever. I would have asked him to take the
call but right now he’s asleep.
Ali: Was he absent from school because of the fever?
Mrs. Lemshen: Yes. Any message?
Ali: He must be feeling worried about the Monday Test. Tell
him that it has been postponed till Friday. Monday has
been declared a holiday on account of Gandhi Jayanti.
Mrs. Lemshen: Good for Chiro. I’ll tell him that.
Ali: Can you also let him know that our English teacher has
instructed us to read the novel and prepare a review by the
end of the week?
Mrs. Lemshen: Okay I’ll tell him about it.
Ali: Please ask him to take good care of himself and give him
my wishes for a speedy recovery.
Mrs. Lemshen: Thank you. Bye
Ali: Bye, Aunty.
Given above is a telephonic conversation between Mrs. Hemshen and Ali. As
Mrs. Lemshen was going out for shopping, she left a message for Chiro. Draft
the message in about 50-60 words.
Or 4
You are Toshi Jamir from St. Edmund’s School, Wokha. You are applying for
the State Post Matric Scholarship 2024 under fresh category. Given below is the
application form. Fill in all the necessary details in block letters.
APPLICANT’S DETAILS
Academic Year__________________(Fresh/Renewal) Tick
Full name_________________
Mobile Number (Linked with Bank/Aadhaar)____________
Email (for correspondence)_______________
economic stability, and enhanced resilience. However, overcoming the
challenges of short-term thinking, vested interests, global inequality and
complex interactions is essential to realize its full potential. To secure a
sustainable future for ourselves and future generations, we must commit to
embracing and implementing the principles of sustainable development in
every aspect of our lives and societies.
SECTION-C (Writing)
11. Mrs. Lemshen: Hello!
Ali: Hi
Mrs. Lemshen: Yes. May I know who is on the line please?
Ali: I am Ali. Could I talk to Chiro?
Mrs. Lemshen: Chiro has a slight fever. I would have asked him to take the
call but right now he’s asleep.
Ali: Was he absent from school because of the fever?
Mrs. Lemshen: Yes. Any message?
Ali: He must be feeling worried about the Monday Test. Tell
him that it has been postponed till Friday. Monday has
been declared a holiday on account of Gandhi Jayanti.
Mrs. Lemshen: Good for Chiro. I’ll tell him that.
Ali: Can you also let him know that our English teacher has
instructed us to read the novel and prepare a review by the
end of the week?
Mrs. Lemshen: Okay I’ll tell him about it.
Ali: Please ask him to take good care of himself and give him
my wishes for a speedy recovery.
Mrs. Lemshen: Thank you. Bye
Ali: Bye, Aunty.
Given above is a telephonic conversation between Mrs. Hemshen and Ali. As
Mrs. Lemshen was going out for shopping, she left a message for Chiro. Draft
the message in about 50-60 words.
Or 4
You are Toshi Jamir from St. Edmund’s School, Wokha. You are applying for
the State Post Matric Scholarship 2024 under fresh category. Given below is the
application form. Fill in all the necessary details in block letters.
APPLICANT’S DETAILS
Academic Year__________________(Fresh/Renewal) Tick
Full name_________________
Mobile Number (Linked with Bank/Aadhaar)____________
Email (for correspondence)_______________
Page 9
-8- NB/XII/ENG/1
Date of Birth__________________
Gender______________
Aadhaar No__________________
Tribe______________ Nationality____________
Father’s Name____________ Occupation______________
Religion Christian Muslim Hindu Sikh Others
Category General OBC SC ST
Institution Name__________
Residential Address____________
12. Write an article expressing your views in about 150-200 words on the topic
‘Lack of Civic Sense’ and how it should be inculcated in children at a very
young age.
Or 5
A Medical College was inaugurated in your town by the Union Health Minister
on the 14th January 2024. As a reporter from ‘The Herald’, write a brief report
on the same to be published in the newspaper in about 150-200 words.
13. You saw an advertisement in the local daily newspaper and wish to apply for the
post advertised. Write a job application with a covering letter. Give your
essential details in a C.V. Sign yourself as Edward /Rachael. 6
SITUATION VACANT
Required an Assistant Sales Manager for Super Mart which is opening soon.
Candidate should be 25-30 years, should be a graduate with at least 2 years of
SECTION-D (Grammar)
experience in sales management. Must be fluent in English and Hindi and should
have good computer knowledge. Apply to the Proprietor, Mint Super Mart, Main
Town, Mokokchung.
SECTION – D (Grammar)
14. Rewrite the following as directed: 3x1=3
a. I was writing a book. Then I fell ill. (Combine the sentence using Past
Perfect Continuous Tense)
b. Sam learned to multiply tables by next week. (Future Perfect Tense)
c. The kettle______ (boil) . Can you turn off the gas? (Present Continuous
Tense)
Date of Birth__________________
Gender______________
Aadhaar No__________________
Tribe______________ Nationality____________
Father’s Name____________ Occupation______________
Religion Christian Muslim Hindu Sikh Others
Category General OBC SC ST
Institution Name__________
Residential Address____________
12. Write an article expressing your views in about 150-200 words on the topic
‘Lack of Civic Sense’ and how it should be inculcated in children at a very
young age.
Or 5
A Medical College was inaugurated in your town by the Union Health Minister
on the 14th January 2024. As a reporter from ‘The Herald’, write a brief report
on the same to be published in the newspaper in about 150-200 words.
13. You saw an advertisement in the local daily newspaper and wish to apply for the
post advertised. Write a job application with a covering letter. Give your
essential details in a C.V. Sign yourself as Edward /Rachael. 6
SITUATION VACANT
Required an Assistant Sales Manager for Super Mart which is opening soon.
Candidate should be 25-30 years, should be a graduate with at least 2 years of
SECTION-D (Grammar)
experience in sales management. Must be fluent in English and Hindi and should
have good computer knowledge. Apply to the Proprietor, Mint Super Mart, Main
Town, Mokokchung.
SECTION – D (Grammar)
14. Rewrite the following as directed: 3x1=3
a. I was writing a book. Then I fell ill. (Combine the sentence using Past
Perfect Continuous Tense)
b. Sam learned to multiply tables by next week. (Future Perfect Tense)
c. The kettle______ (boil) . Can you turn off the gas? (Present Continuous
Tense)
Page 10
-9- NB/XII/ENG/1
15. Write the meaning of the following idioms and phrases and make sentences
of your own: 3x1=3
a. Born with a silver spoon
b. As bright as a button
c. Hit the nail on the head
16. Insert the blanks with correct modals: 4x1=4
a. You______take your umbrella. It is raining.
b. Jane______lose any more weight; she is already so slim.
c. _____ you pass me the salt and pepper?
d. You _____be exhausted after that long drive.
*****************************************
15. Write the meaning of the following idioms and phrases and make sentences
of your own: 3x1=3
a. Born with a silver spoon
b. As bright as a button
c. Hit the nail on the head
16. Insert the blanks with correct modals: 4x1=4
a. You______take your umbrella. It is raining.
b. Jane______lose any more weight; she is already so slim.
c. _____ you pass me the salt and pepper?
d. You _____be exhausted after that long drive.
*****************************************
Page 11
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/EDU/1
2024
EDUCATION
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Human life has two aspects, namely :- 1
(a) Psychological and Biological (b) Psychological and sociological
(c) Biological and Sociological (d) Physiological and psychological
2. Who stated, “ Development is a continuous and gradual process.”? 1
(a) Crow and Crow (b) Skinner
(c) E.B. Hurlock (d) Pearsy London.
3. Infants reacts differently to smiling and scolding and can distinguish between
friendly and angry voices from: . 1
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(c) 5 months (d) 6 months
4. __________ explains how different combinations of genes give birth to different
types of children: 1
(a) Meiosis (b) Chromosomes
(c) Mating (d) Growth
5. The ability to bounce back from adversity has been referred to as : 1
(a) Balance (b) Flexibility
(c) Resilience (d) Self- Actualisation
6. Everyone of us have different styles of learning, Emma learns best with pictures
and words. Which of the following categories she falls under. 1
(a) Visual and Aural (b) Verbal and Physical
(c) Aural and Verbal (d) Visual and Verbal
2024
EDUCATION
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Human life has two aspects, namely :- 1
(a) Psychological and Biological (b) Psychological and sociological
(c) Biological and Sociological (d) Physiological and psychological
2. Who stated, “ Development is a continuous and gradual process.”? 1
(a) Crow and Crow (b) Skinner
(c) E.B. Hurlock (d) Pearsy London.
3. Infants reacts differently to smiling and scolding and can distinguish between
friendly and angry voices from: . 1
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(c) 5 months (d) 6 months
4. __________ explains how different combinations of genes give birth to different
types of children: 1
(a) Meiosis (b) Chromosomes
(c) Mating (d) Growth
5. The ability to bounce back from adversity has been referred to as : 1
(a) Balance (b) Flexibility
(c) Resilience (d) Self- Actualisation
6. Everyone of us have different styles of learning, Emma learns best with pictures
and words. Which of the following categories she falls under. 1
(a) Visual and Aural (b) Verbal and Physical
(c) Aural and Verbal (d) Visual and Verbal
Page 12
-2- NB/XII/EDU/1
7. Rose spends most of her time eating, and not drinking sufficient amount of water to
keep herself hydrated, she also wears headphones for too many hours, does not protect
herself from the sun, at the same time she doesn’t get enough sleep. Rose has 1
(a) Poor productive habits (b) Habits related to diet and nutrition
(c) Habits that impact health (d) Personal bad habits
8. Mr. Toni uses certain objects such as pictures and blocks to teach young children.
Which type of intelligence test is used by Mr. Toni? 1
(a) Individual test (b) Performance test
(c) Group test (d) Verbal test
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of personality: 1
(a) Personality is perceptive
(b) Personality is organised
(c) Personality is unique and specific
(d) Personality is dynamic
10. Sentila displays extreme shyness and withdraws herself from any kind of activities.
Which category of differently abled children will she fall under:- 1
(a) Delicate children
(b) Emotionally and socially handicapped children
(c) Mentally handicapped children
(d) Physically Handicapped children
11. Write any two characteristics of maturation. 2
12. What is biological heredity? 2
13. Name the four aspects of life style which can ensure good health. 2
14. Define Habit. Mention any one characteristic of habit. 1+1=2
15. Find the I.Q of Kevi, whose mental age is 10 and chronological age is 8. 2
16. Define Individual difference and elaborate its categories. 1+1=2
17. Explain in brief the two-factor theory of intelligence. 2
18. Kavi is a very smart and talented girl but she has some difficulty in speech. Suggest
any two steps that will help her to overcome her problem. 2
19. Explain any two laws of heredity. 4
20. Differentiate between sensation and perception. 4
21. Mention any four points for breaking bad habits. 4
7. Rose spends most of her time eating, and not drinking sufficient amount of water to
keep herself hydrated, she also wears headphones for too many hours, does not protect
herself from the sun, at the same time she doesn’t get enough sleep. Rose has 1
(a) Poor productive habits (b) Habits related to diet and nutrition
(c) Habits that impact health (d) Personal bad habits
8. Mr. Toni uses certain objects such as pictures and blocks to teach young children.
Which type of intelligence test is used by Mr. Toni? 1
(a) Individual test (b) Performance test
(c) Group test (d) Verbal test
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of personality: 1
(a) Personality is perceptive
(b) Personality is organised
(c) Personality is unique and specific
(d) Personality is dynamic
10. Sentila displays extreme shyness and withdraws herself from any kind of activities.
Which category of differently abled children will she fall under:- 1
(a) Delicate children
(b) Emotionally and socially handicapped children
(c) Mentally handicapped children
(d) Physically Handicapped children
11. Write any two characteristics of maturation. 2
12. What is biological heredity? 2
13. Name the four aspects of life style which can ensure good health. 2
14. Define Habit. Mention any one characteristic of habit. 1+1=2
15. Find the I.Q of Kevi, whose mental age is 10 and chronological age is 8. 2
16. Define Individual difference and elaborate its categories. 1+1=2
17. Explain in brief the two-factor theory of intelligence. 2
18. Kavi is a very smart and talented girl but she has some difficulty in speech. Suggest
any two steps that will help her to overcome her problem. 2
19. Explain any two laws of heredity. 4
20. Differentiate between sensation and perception. 4
21. Mention any four points for breaking bad habits. 4
Page 13
-3- NB/XII/EDU/1
22. Calculate the median from the following figures: 4
Serial no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Age (years) 38 32 28 22 26 20 19 45
23. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: -
1×4=4
Everyone desires to have a personality that is appreciated by all. Personality is the
combination of physical, emotional, spiritual, and psychological aspects.
If one wishes to enhance one’s personality, start by respecting oneself and
believing in your ability to win respect from others. Always give importance to words
speak only when it is required and necessary.
What we say has tremendous power, it can hurt, it can charm or it can harm. A
kind word can support and motivate everyone. Be devoted and committed to our
work and remember we are always a learner. The higher we reach, the humbler we
should be. The meaning of life is to grow, but grow with the changes for the better.
Our personality shows when we have a positive outlook and humble acceptance of
success.
a) Why are words important?
b) What is the meaning of life?
c) Give the various aspects included in personality.
d) What is the first step to enhance your personality?
24. (a) Describe the social and emotional characteristics of childhood period. 3+3=6
Or
(b) List out any six causes of maladjustment. (6)
25. (a) Discuss the factors affecting attention.
Or 6
(b) State any three advantages and disadvantages of habit formation.
26. (a) Explain “Classical Conditioning Theory” of learning in brief. State any three
educational implications of Classical Conditioning Theory. 3+3=6
Or
(b) Mention the causes of individual differences. (6)
27. (a) State the utility of psychology in education.
Or 8
(b) What are the principles of growth and development?
28. (a) Discuss the various techniques to enhance one’s memory. 8
Or
(b) Write short notes on:- (4+4=8)
i) Questionnaire
ii) Interview
***************************
22. Calculate the median from the following figures: 4
Serial no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Age (years) 38 32 28 22 26 20 19 45
23. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: -
1×4=4
Everyone desires to have a personality that is appreciated by all. Personality is the
combination of physical, emotional, spiritual, and psychological aspects.
If one wishes to enhance one’s personality, start by respecting oneself and
believing in your ability to win respect from others. Always give importance to words
speak only when it is required and necessary.
What we say has tremendous power, it can hurt, it can charm or it can harm. A
kind word can support and motivate everyone. Be devoted and committed to our
work and remember we are always a learner. The higher we reach, the humbler we
should be. The meaning of life is to grow, but grow with the changes for the better.
Our personality shows when we have a positive outlook and humble acceptance of
success.
a) Why are words important?
b) What is the meaning of life?
c) Give the various aspects included in personality.
d) What is the first step to enhance your personality?
24. (a) Describe the social and emotional characteristics of childhood period. 3+3=6
Or
(b) List out any six causes of maladjustment. (6)
25. (a) Discuss the factors affecting attention.
Or 6
(b) State any three advantages and disadvantages of habit formation.
26. (a) Explain “Classical Conditioning Theory” of learning in brief. State any three
educational implications of Classical Conditioning Theory. 3+3=6
Or
(b) Mention the causes of individual differences. (6)
27. (a) State the utility of psychology in education.
Or 8
(b) What are the principles of growth and development?
28. (a) Discuss the various techniques to enhance one’s memory. 8
Or
(b) Write short notes on:- (4+4=8)
i) Questionnaire
ii) Interview
***************************
Page 14
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/PSY/1
2024
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. _______ is the first step in understanding a psychological attribute. 1
(a) Assessment (b) Intelligence.
(c) Situationism (d) Values
2. Mary lags behind her peers in language and motor skills. She is trained in self care
as well as in simple social and communication skills. She also needs little
supervision in everyday task. Her level of intellectual disability falls in which
category. 1
(a) Mild (I.Q 55 to 70) (b) Moderate (I.Q 35-40 to 50-55)
(c) Severe (I.Q 20-25 to 35-40) (d) Profound (I.Q below 20-25)
3. As persons, we always make some judgement about our own values or worth. This
value judgement about herself/ himself is called. 1
(a) Self-efficacy (b) Self-regulation
(c) Self- esteem (d) Self-control
4. Which of the following is a personality trait proposed by Cattell? 1
(a) Cardinal Traits (b) Central Traits
(c) Secondary Traits (d) Source Traits
5. Who emphasised psychological conflict and disturbed interpersonal relationship as
causes of psychological disorder? 1
(a) St. Augustine (b) Johann Weyer
(c) Galen (d) Hippocrates
6. Azo believes that he is being plotted against, spied on, slandered, threatened,
attacked or deliberately victimised. Identify the delusion experienced by Azo. 1
(a) Delusion of reference (b) Delusion of control
(c) Delusion of Grandeur (d) Delusion of Persecution
2024
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. _______ is the first step in understanding a psychological attribute. 1
(a) Assessment (b) Intelligence.
(c) Situationism (d) Values
2. Mary lags behind her peers in language and motor skills. She is trained in self care
as well as in simple social and communication skills. She also needs little
supervision in everyday task. Her level of intellectual disability falls in which
category. 1
(a) Mild (I.Q 55 to 70) (b) Moderate (I.Q 35-40 to 50-55)
(c) Severe (I.Q 20-25 to 35-40) (d) Profound (I.Q below 20-25)
3. As persons, we always make some judgement about our own values or worth. This
value judgement about herself/ himself is called. 1
(a) Self-efficacy (b) Self-regulation
(c) Self- esteem (d) Self-control
4. Which of the following is a personality trait proposed by Cattell? 1
(a) Cardinal Traits (b) Central Traits
(c) Secondary Traits (d) Source Traits
5. Who emphasised psychological conflict and disturbed interpersonal relationship as
causes of psychological disorder? 1
(a) St. Augustine (b) Johann Weyer
(c) Galen (d) Hippocrates
6. Azo believes that he is being plotted against, spied on, slandered, threatened,
attacked or deliberately victimised. Identify the delusion experienced by Azo. 1
(a) Delusion of reference (b) Delusion of control
(c) Delusion of Grandeur (d) Delusion of Persecution
Page 15
-2- NB/XII/PSY/1
7. An alcoholic is given a mild electric shock and asked to smell the alcohol. With
repeated pairings, the smell of the alcohol is disliked as the pain of the shock is
associated with it and the person will give up alcohol this is most likely due to: 1
(a) Token economy (b) Modelling
(c) Aversive conditioning (d) Systematic desensitisation
8. Which therapy locates the cause of psychological distress in irritational thoughts
and beliefs? 1
(a) Behaviour Therapy (b) Cognitive Therapy
(c) Biomedical Therapy (d) Client- Centered therapy
9. The concept of cognitive dissonance was proposed by: 1
(a) Leon Festinger (b) Frits Heider
(c) Zajonc (d) Norman Triplett
10. Kekhrie exercises regularly and gets the honour of being ‘Miss Good Health’ in
school, she may develop a positive attitude towards exercise and health in general.
This is due to 1
(a) Learning attitudes by association.
(b) Learning attitudes through group or cultural norms.
(c) Learning through exposure to information.
(d) Learning attitudes by being rewarded or punished.
11. List any two characteristics of traits. 2
12. Carl Jung developed his own theory of personality. Briefly explain. 2
13. Meren has been watching TV and also spending more time on the phone to deal
with the stress. Which coping strategy is being used by Meren? Briefly explain. 2
14. What is OCD? 2
15. State any two goals of psychotherapy. 1+1=2
16. Highlight the two components of a therapeutic alliance. 1+1=2
17. Are attitudes learnt? Explain how. 2
18. Individuals attitude may not always be exhibited through behaviour. When would
there be consistency between attitudes and behaviour? 1+1=2
19. Theories of intelligence are broadly classified into two approaches. Explain briefly.
2+2=4
20. Seema communicates her feelings and views clearly with confidence. She could say
‘no’ to a request or state an opinion without being self-conscious. Seema is
someone who has high self-esteem and a solid sense of her own identity. Suggest
any two life skills that can help Seema meet the challenges of life successfully.
2+2=4
7. An alcoholic is given a mild electric shock and asked to smell the alcohol. With
repeated pairings, the smell of the alcohol is disliked as the pain of the shock is
associated with it and the person will give up alcohol this is most likely due to: 1
(a) Token economy (b) Modelling
(c) Aversive conditioning (d) Systematic desensitisation
8. Which therapy locates the cause of psychological distress in irritational thoughts
and beliefs? 1
(a) Behaviour Therapy (b) Cognitive Therapy
(c) Biomedical Therapy (d) Client- Centered therapy
9. The concept of cognitive dissonance was proposed by: 1
(a) Leon Festinger (b) Frits Heider
(c) Zajonc (d) Norman Triplett
10. Kekhrie exercises regularly and gets the honour of being ‘Miss Good Health’ in
school, she may develop a positive attitude towards exercise and health in general.
This is due to 1
(a) Learning attitudes by association.
(b) Learning attitudes through group or cultural norms.
(c) Learning through exposure to information.
(d) Learning attitudes by being rewarded or punished.
11. List any two characteristics of traits. 2
12. Carl Jung developed his own theory of personality. Briefly explain. 2
13. Meren has been watching TV and also spending more time on the phone to deal
with the stress. Which coping strategy is being used by Meren? Briefly explain. 2
14. What is OCD? 2
15. State any two goals of psychotherapy. 1+1=2
16. Highlight the two components of a therapeutic alliance. 1+1=2
17. Are attitudes learnt? Explain how. 2
18. Individuals attitude may not always be exhibited through behaviour. When would
there be consistency between attitudes and behaviour? 1+1=2
19. Theories of intelligence are broadly classified into two approaches. Explain briefly.
2+2=4
20. Seema communicates her feelings and views clearly with confidence. She could say
‘no’ to a request or state an opinion without being self-conscious. Seema is
someone who has high self-esteem and a solid sense of her own identity. Suggest
any two life skills that can help Seema meet the challenges of life successfully.
2+2=4
Page 16
-3- NB/XII/PSY/1
21. Discuss any four techniques used in behaviour therapy. 1x4=4
22. Explain any two factors that influence attitude change. 2+2=4
23. Explain any four reasons that make people join groups. 4
24. (a) “Any intellectual activity involves the independent functioning of three
neurological systems.” Explain with reference to PASS model. 6
Or
(b) Explain any three parameters on which basis the psychotherapies are classified.
(3×2=6)
25. (a) Give a brief description of the psychosexual stages of development.
Or 3+3=6
(b) Ben holds a negative attitude towards individuals of a particular community. He
avoids helping or interacting with them in his workplace and also in the market.
Identify and explain the behaviour being exhibited by Ben. Mention any three
strategies that can help Ben overcome such negative attitudes.
26. (a) A wide range of events and conditions can generate stress. Explain three sources
of stress. 3×2=6
Or
(b) What is a group? List any four salient characteristics of a group. (2+4=6)
27. (a) Intelligence tests are of several types. Discuss any two types of intelligence tests.
List any two ill-effects of intelligence testing. 6+2=8
Or
(b) Explain any two projective techniques for assessment of personality. (4+4=8)
28. (a) Discuss any four factors that facilitate positive health and well being. 4×2=8
Or
(b) What is meant by the term ‘Dissociation’? Discuss two forms of dissociative
disorders. (2+6=8)
***************************
21. Discuss any four techniques used in behaviour therapy. 1x4=4
22. Explain any two factors that influence attitude change. 2+2=4
23. Explain any four reasons that make people join groups. 4
24. (a) “Any intellectual activity involves the independent functioning of three
neurological systems.” Explain with reference to PASS model. 6
Or
(b) Explain any three parameters on which basis the psychotherapies are classified.
(3×2=6)
25. (a) Give a brief description of the psychosexual stages of development.
Or 3+3=6
(b) Ben holds a negative attitude towards individuals of a particular community. He
avoids helping or interacting with them in his workplace and also in the market.
Identify and explain the behaviour being exhibited by Ben. Mention any three
strategies that can help Ben overcome such negative attitudes.
26. (a) A wide range of events and conditions can generate stress. Explain three sources
of stress. 3×2=6
Or
(b) What is a group? List any four salient characteristics of a group. (2+4=6)
27. (a) Intelligence tests are of several types. Discuss any two types of intelligence tests.
List any two ill-effects of intelligence testing. 6+2=8
Or
(b) Explain any two projective techniques for assessment of personality. (4+4=8)
28. (a) Discuss any four factors that facilitate positive health and well being. 4×2=8
Or
(b) What is meant by the term ‘Dissociation’? Discuss two forms of dissociative
disorders. (2+6=8)
***************************
Page 17
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/ENT/1
2024
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Central level financing institutions for supporting entrepreneurs are____________. 1
a) SIDBI b) IFCI
c) NABARD d) All of the above.
2. Entrepreneur perceives opportunity from_______________. 1
a) Problems b) Needs
c) Both problems and needs d) None of the above.
3. Mr. Alex started a mobile repairing shop in his area after doing a diploma course.
What idea field is it? 1
a) Market-driven b) Trade related
c) Service related d) Creative efforts.
4. Custom duty is____________________. 1
a) A Tax on imported and exported goods
b) A Tax on only imported goods
c) A Tax on only exported goods
d) A Tax on goods sold within the country.
5. Which form of business organization gives all the rights even to the minor members? 1
a) Sole Proprietorship b) Partnership
c) Company d) Joint Hindu Family Business.
6. Identify the plan which gives an idea regarding the setup of an organization. 1
a) Financial plan b) Human resource plan
c) Organisational plan d) Marketing plan.
2024
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Central level financing institutions for supporting entrepreneurs are____________. 1
a) SIDBI b) IFCI
c) NABARD d) All of the above.
2. Entrepreneur perceives opportunity from_______________. 1
a) Problems b) Needs
c) Both problems and needs d) None of the above.
3. Mr. Alex started a mobile repairing shop in his area after doing a diploma course.
What idea field is it? 1
a) Market-driven b) Trade related
c) Service related d) Creative efforts.
4. Custom duty is____________________. 1
a) A Tax on imported and exported goods
b) A Tax on only imported goods
c) A Tax on only exported goods
d) A Tax on goods sold within the country.
5. Which form of business organization gives all the rights even to the minor members? 1
a) Sole Proprietorship b) Partnership
c) Company d) Joint Hindu Family Business.
6. Identify the plan which gives an idea regarding the setup of an organization. 1
a) Financial plan b) Human resource plan
c) Organisational plan d) Marketing plan.
Page 18
-2- NB/XII/ENT/1
7. Lenskart sale their eyewear directly through mailorder and internet to the customer.
What is the channel of distribution used by the company? 1
a) One level channel b) Zero level channel
c) Two level channel d) Three level channel.
8. Franchising of any firm is based on which category of expansion______________. 1
a) Internal expansion b) External expansion
c) Both internal and external expansion d) None of the above.
9. Formula of capital employed is___________________. 1
a) Share capital + Reserves + Long term debts
b) Share capital - Reserves + Long term debts
c) Share capital + Reserves - Long term debts
d) Share capital - Reserves - Long term debts.
10. Which budget is called the profit plan of the firm? 1
a) Production budget b) Sales budget
c) Master budget d) Cash budget.
11. Several macro environmental factors could influence ISRO to develop and
launch Chandrayaan-3 on 14th July 2023. Mention four such factors. 2
12. State two conditions for existence of Joint Hindu Family Business. 2
13. Write in brief the meaning of Workload Analysis and Workforce Analysis. 2
14. List two advantages of brand name to customer. 2
15. Write any two steps involved in value chain analysis. 2
16. State two limitations of vertical integration. 2
17. Write any four factors that help in calculating maximum inventory level. 2
18. State any four uses of problem identification that helps an entrepreneur. 4
19. Define goal. Write three rules for goal setting. 1+3= 4
20. Write any four objectives of SEBI. 4
7. Lenskart sale their eyewear directly through mailorder and internet to the customer.
What is the channel of distribution used by the company? 1
a) One level channel b) Zero level channel
c) Two level channel d) Three level channel.
8. Franchising of any firm is based on which category of expansion______________. 1
a) Internal expansion b) External expansion
c) Both internal and external expansion d) None of the above.
9. Formula of capital employed is___________________. 1
a) Share capital + Reserves + Long term debts
b) Share capital - Reserves + Long term debts
c) Share capital + Reserves - Long term debts
d) Share capital - Reserves - Long term debts.
10. Which budget is called the profit plan of the firm? 1
a) Production budget b) Sales budget
c) Master budget d) Cash budget.
11. Several macro environmental factors could influence ISRO to develop and
launch Chandrayaan-3 on 14th July 2023. Mention four such factors. 2
12. State two conditions for existence of Joint Hindu Family Business. 2
13. Write in brief the meaning of Workload Analysis and Workforce Analysis. 2
14. List two advantages of brand name to customer. 2
15. Write any two steps involved in value chain analysis. 2
16. State two limitations of vertical integration. 2
17. Write any four factors that help in calculating maximum inventory level. 2
18. State any four uses of problem identification that helps an entrepreneur. 4
19. Define goal. Write three rules for goal setting. 1+3= 4
20. Write any four objectives of SEBI. 4
Page 19
-3- NB/XII/ENT/1
21. a) “An entrepreneur who fails to scan business environment is unlikely to survive in
the long run”. Explain this statement.
Or 6
b) “Creativity and innovation is not a single activity but it is a complete process”. Do
you agree with the view? Give reasons for your answer.
22. a) Write any six features of Cash flow Statement. 6
Or
b) What is meant by return on investment? Explain its significance in the firm. (1+5=6)
23. a) Explain three merits and three limitations of institutional finance. 3+3=6
Or
b) When was ICICI set up in India? Write the functions performed by ICICI to
achieve its objectives. (1+5=6)
24. a) “Each business projects has its own unique features which must be taken care
of before starting the business”. Do you agree? Discuss the need of business
plan in the light of this statement. 1+7=8
Or
b) “The success of business depends upon entrepreneurs skill to anticipate the
problems and solve them”. In the light of the given statement, explain any eight
factors to be kept in mind before starting a business enterprise. (8)
25. a) What is meant by penetration pricing strategy and skimming pricing strategy?
Explain the six factors to be kept in mind while fixing the price of a commodity.
2+6=8
Or
b) Explain four product related factors and four market related factors to be
kept in mind while fixing the price of a commodity. (4+4=8)
********************************
21. a) “An entrepreneur who fails to scan business environment is unlikely to survive in
the long run”. Explain this statement.
Or 6
b) “Creativity and innovation is not a single activity but it is a complete process”. Do
you agree with the view? Give reasons for your answer.
22. a) Write any six features of Cash flow Statement. 6
Or
b) What is meant by return on investment? Explain its significance in the firm. (1+5=6)
23. a) Explain three merits and three limitations of institutional finance. 3+3=6
Or
b) When was ICICI set up in India? Write the functions performed by ICICI to
achieve its objectives. (1+5=6)
24. a) “Each business projects has its own unique features which must be taken care
of before starting the business”. Do you agree? Discuss the need of business
plan in the light of this statement. 1+7=8
Or
b) “The success of business depends upon entrepreneurs skill to anticipate the
problems and solve them”. In the light of the given statement, explain any eight
factors to be kept in mind before starting a business enterprise. (8)
25. a) What is meant by penetration pricing strategy and skimming pricing strategy?
Explain the six factors to be kept in mind while fixing the price of a commodity.
2+6=8
Or
b) Explain four product related factors and four market related factors to be
kept in mind while fixing the price of a commodity. (4+4=8)
********************************
Page 20
Total number of printed pages:7 NB/XII/AEN/1
2024
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, & C.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (LITERATURE)
PROSE
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 4x1=4
a. According to Nehru, what has been the quest of man from the earliest
beginning?
(i) Understand science
(ii) Create arms and weapons
(iii) Explore and learn about the world
(iv) Understand religion and philosophy
b. ________ conducted a great war without departing from wisdom,
according to Russell.
(i) Hegel (ii) Queen Elizabeth I
(iii) Henry IV (iv) Abraham Lincoln
c. Which followers are not to be liked; lest while a man maketh his train
longer, and his wings shorter?
(i) Costly followers (ii) Dangerous followers
(iii) Glorious followers (iv) Ordinary followers
d. In the chapter ‘The Last Lesson’, what was the order that had arrived
from Berlin?
(i) To teach only French in the schools of Alsace and Lorriane
(ii) To teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine
(iii) To teach the importance of one’s native language
(iv) To ban German and promote French language
2. Why does Bacon warn the readers against having ‘glorious followers’? 2
2024
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, & C.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (LITERATURE)
PROSE
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 4x1=4
a. According to Nehru, what has been the quest of man from the earliest
beginning?
(i) Understand science
(ii) Create arms and weapons
(iii) Explore and learn about the world
(iv) Understand religion and philosophy
b. ________ conducted a great war without departing from wisdom,
according to Russell.
(i) Hegel (ii) Queen Elizabeth I
(iii) Henry IV (iv) Abraham Lincoln
c. Which followers are not to be liked; lest while a man maketh his train
longer, and his wings shorter?
(i) Costly followers (ii) Dangerous followers
(iii) Glorious followers (iv) Ordinary followers
d. In the chapter ‘The Last Lesson’, what was the order that had arrived
from Berlin?
(i) To teach only French in the schools of Alsace and Lorriane
(ii) To teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine
(iii) To teach the importance of one’s native language
(iv) To ban German and promote French language
2. Why does Bacon warn the readers against having ‘glorious followers’? 2
Page 21
[2] NB/XII/AEN/1
3. In the story ‘The Last Lesson’, what does M. Hamel do when the church clock
strikes twelve? 2
4. “It is not only in public ways, but in private life equally, that wisdom is needed.”
Explain in your own words in about 40-50 words. Elucidate with one example
from the text. 2+1=3
5. a. “So, from the earliest times until today man’s quest has gone on, and
he has found out many things but many still remain…”. Express in your
own words the quest of man as described by Nehru.
Or 4
b. In Bacon’s view, what are the potential drawbacks or dangers associated
with having an excessive number of followers?
6. a. I have said that in some degree wisdom can be taught. I think that this
teaching should have a larger intellectual element than has been customary
in what has been thought of as moral instruction. I think that the disastrous
results of hatred and narrow-mindedness to those who feel them can be
pointed out incidentally in the course of giving knowledge.
(i) Is the teaching of wisdom possible? 1
(ii) Why is wisdom necessary in education? 1
(iii) What is the ideal approach to impart knowledge? 2
(iv) Based on the given lines, which word is the most apt for
‘intellectual’? 1
a. physical b. psychological
c. virtual d. technical
Or
b. My children, this is the last lesson I shall give you. The order has come
from Berlin…. The new master comes tomorrow. This is your last French
lesson. I want you to be very attentive. What a thunder clap these words
were to me!
(i) Identify the person addressing the children. (1)
(ii) Who is the new master? (1)
(iii) What do you understand by the line “What a thunderclap these
words were to me”? (2)
(iv) An apt antonym for the word ‘attentive’? (1)
a. alert b. watchful
c. observant d. negligent
POETRY
7. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 2x1=2
a. Identify the player with full of strange oaths in ‘All the World’s a
Stage’?
3. In the story ‘The Last Lesson’, what does M. Hamel do when the church clock
strikes twelve? 2
4. “It is not only in public ways, but in private life equally, that wisdom is needed.”
Explain in your own words in about 40-50 words. Elucidate with one example
from the text. 2+1=3
5. a. “So, from the earliest times until today man’s quest has gone on, and
he has found out many things but many still remain…”. Express in your
own words the quest of man as described by Nehru.
Or 4
b. In Bacon’s view, what are the potential drawbacks or dangers associated
with having an excessive number of followers?
6. a. I have said that in some degree wisdom can be taught. I think that this
teaching should have a larger intellectual element than has been customary
in what has been thought of as moral instruction. I think that the disastrous
results of hatred and narrow-mindedness to those who feel them can be
pointed out incidentally in the course of giving knowledge.
(i) Is the teaching of wisdom possible? 1
(ii) Why is wisdom necessary in education? 1
(iii) What is the ideal approach to impart knowledge? 2
(iv) Based on the given lines, which word is the most apt for
‘intellectual’? 1
a. physical b. psychological
c. virtual d. technical
Or
b. My children, this is the last lesson I shall give you. The order has come
from Berlin…. The new master comes tomorrow. This is your last French
lesson. I want you to be very attentive. What a thunder clap these words
were to me!
(i) Identify the person addressing the children. (1)
(ii) Who is the new master? (1)
(iii) What do you understand by the line “What a thunderclap these
words were to me”? (2)
(iv) An apt antonym for the word ‘attentive’? (1)
a. alert b. watchful
c. observant d. negligent
POETRY
7. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 2x1=2
a. Identify the player with full of strange oaths in ‘All the World’s a
Stage’?
Page 22
[3] NB/XII/AEN/1
(i) The school boy (ii) The justice
(iii) The soldier (iv) The lover
b. Who painted the portrait of the Duchess?
(i) The Duke of Ferrara (ii) Fra Pandolf
(iii) The Envoy (iv) The Count
8. “One short sleep past, we wake eternally”
What do you understand by this line? 2
9. Write about Sarojini Naidu’s association of morning with birth in ‘Indian
weavers’. 2
10. Critically analyse the lines given below in about 60-90 words. Answer any
one (1). 1x4=4
a. She had
A heart – how shall I say? – too soon made glad,
Too easily impressed: she liked what’er
She looked on, and her looks went everywhere.
b. Thou art slave to Fate, Chance, kings and desperate man.
And dost with poison, war and sickness dwell;
And poppy, or charms can make us sleep as well,
And better than thy stroke; why swell’st thou then?
11. a. Weavers, weaving solemn and still,
What do you weave in the moonlight chill?...
White as a feather and white as a cloud,
We weave a dead man’s funeral shroud.
(i) What does the poet ask the weavers? 1
(ii) What is the correlation between moonlight chill and dead man’s
funeral shroud? 2
(iii) What is the shroud compared to by the weavers? 1
(iv) What is the mood of the weavers? 1
Or
b. Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
(i) Which stage is referred to here? (1)
(ii) What is the ‘strange eventful history’? (1)
(iii) Why is it called ‘second childishness’? (1)
(iv) What happens in the last scene? (2)
(i) The school boy (ii) The justice
(iii) The soldier (iv) The lover
b. Who painted the portrait of the Duchess?
(i) The Duke of Ferrara (ii) Fra Pandolf
(iii) The Envoy (iv) The Count
8. “One short sleep past, we wake eternally”
What do you understand by this line? 2
9. Write about Sarojini Naidu’s association of morning with birth in ‘Indian
weavers’. 2
10. Critically analyse the lines given below in about 60-90 words. Answer any
one (1). 1x4=4
a. She had
A heart – how shall I say? – too soon made glad,
Too easily impressed: she liked what’er
She looked on, and her looks went everywhere.
b. Thou art slave to Fate, Chance, kings and desperate man.
And dost with poison, war and sickness dwell;
And poppy, or charms can make us sleep as well,
And better than thy stroke; why swell’st thou then?
11. a. Weavers, weaving solemn and still,
What do you weave in the moonlight chill?...
White as a feather and white as a cloud,
We weave a dead man’s funeral shroud.
(i) What does the poet ask the weavers? 1
(ii) What is the correlation between moonlight chill and dead man’s
funeral shroud? 2
(iii) What is the shroud compared to by the weavers? 1
(iv) What is the mood of the weavers? 1
Or
b. Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
(i) Which stage is referred to here? (1)
(ii) What is the ‘strange eventful history’? (1)
(iii) Why is it called ‘second childishness’? (1)
(iv) What happens in the last scene? (2)
Page 23
[4] NB/XII/AEN/1
DRAMA
12. What is the central disagreement between Uncle James and Philip? 2
13. James: (rather upset) Oh!(recovering himself) Fortunately, I have other means of
impressing you. The power of the purse goes a long way in this world. I
propose to use it.
a. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract:
The power of the purse is ________. 1
b. Why does Uncle James propose to use other means of impressing Philip? 2
14. a. Explore the characteristic development of Uncle James throughout the
Story.
Or 5
b. Explain why Philip says that he has become twenty-five?
FICTION
15. Where does Pip meet the escaped convict, Abel Magwitch, at the beginning
of the novel? 1
16. What causes the death of Miss Havisham? 2
17. What differences did Pip find between Estella and Biddy? 3
18. a. I am what you have made me. Take all the praise, take all the blame,
take all the success, take all the failure, in short, take me.
(i) Who said this and to whom? 1
(ii) What significance does this conversation hold in the novel? 1
(iii) In what context does the speaker make this statement? 2
Or
b. Dear Magwitch, I must tell you, now at last. You understand what I say?
A gentle pressure on my head. “You had a child once, whom you loved
and lost.” A stronger pressure on my head. “She lived and found powerful
friends. She is living now. She is a lady and very beautiful. And I love her!
(i) ‘I must tell you, now at last.’ Why does Pip say ‘at last’? (1)
(ii) The lost child was ________. (1)
a. Pip b. Herbert
c. Estella d. Biddy
(iii) Give any two reasons why Pip reveals the information of
Magwitch’s child. (2)
DRAMA
12. What is the central disagreement between Uncle James and Philip? 2
13. James: (rather upset) Oh!(recovering himself) Fortunately, I have other means of
impressing you. The power of the purse goes a long way in this world. I
propose to use it.
a. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract:
The power of the purse is ________. 1
b. Why does Uncle James propose to use other means of impressing Philip? 2
14. a. Explore the characteristic development of Uncle James throughout the
Story.
Or 5
b. Explain why Philip says that he has become twenty-five?
FICTION
15. Where does Pip meet the escaped convict, Abel Magwitch, at the beginning
of the novel? 1
16. What causes the death of Miss Havisham? 2
17. What differences did Pip find between Estella and Biddy? 3
18. a. I am what you have made me. Take all the praise, take all the blame,
take all the success, take all the failure, in short, take me.
(i) Who said this and to whom? 1
(ii) What significance does this conversation hold in the novel? 1
(iii) In what context does the speaker make this statement? 2
Or
b. Dear Magwitch, I must tell you, now at last. You understand what I say?
A gentle pressure on my head. “You had a child once, whom you loved
and lost.” A stronger pressure on my head. “She lived and found powerful
friends. She is living now. She is a lady and very beautiful. And I love her!
(i) ‘I must tell you, now at last.’ Why does Pip say ‘at last’? (1)
(ii) The lost child was ________. (1)
a. Pip b. Herbert
c. Estella d. Biddy
(iii) Give any two reasons why Pip reveals the information of
Magwitch’s child. (2)
Page 24
[5] NB/XII/AEN/1
19. a. Give the character sketch of Estella.
Or 5
b. What is the significance of the title of the novel ‘Great Expectations’?
SECTION – B (GRAMMAR)
20. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: 3x1=3
a. The children threw stones ________ the pond.
b. He was ________ friends.
c. I shall do it ________ pleasure.
21. Insert correct conjunctions: 3x1=3
a. My pet looks ferocious _________ is very gentle.
b. The medicines will be of no help ________ you take the full course.
c. _______ the teacher has time, she will also explain the equations.
22. a. Correct the following sentences and rewrite them: 2x1=2
(i) Do not advice me.
(ii) Sara went to school despite of having a fever.
b. Choose the right word given within the brackets to complete these
sentences: 2x1=2
(i) The (principle/principal) of our college is a strict disciplinarian,
but a really nice person.
(ii) It becomes difficult to (breathe/breath) atop Mt. Everest.
SECTION – C (READING)
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. When you grow up in a place where it rains for five months a year, wise elders
help you to get acquainted with the rain early. They teach you that it is ignorance
to think that it is the same rain falling every day. Oh no! The rain is always doing
different things at different times. There are rain that is gentle, and there is also
rain that falls too hard and damages the crops. Hence, pray for the sweet rain that
helps the crops to grow.
2. The monsoon in the Naga Hills goes by the native name, ‘Khoutho tei’ (which
means the rice-growing season). It lasts from May to early or mid-october. The
local residents firmly believe that Durga Puja in October announces the end of
rain. After that, one might expect a couple of short winter showers, and the spring
showers in March and April. Finally, comes the ‘big rain’ in May; proper
rainstorms accompanied by heart-stopping lightning and ear-splitting thunder.
19. a. Give the character sketch of Estella.
Or 5
b. What is the significance of the title of the novel ‘Great Expectations’?
SECTION – B (GRAMMAR)
20. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: 3x1=3
a. The children threw stones ________ the pond.
b. He was ________ friends.
c. I shall do it ________ pleasure.
21. Insert correct conjunctions: 3x1=3
a. My pet looks ferocious _________ is very gentle.
b. The medicines will be of no help ________ you take the full course.
c. _______ the teacher has time, she will also explain the equations.
22. a. Correct the following sentences and rewrite them: 2x1=2
(i) Do not advice me.
(ii) Sara went to school despite of having a fever.
b. Choose the right word given within the brackets to complete these
sentences: 2x1=2
(i) The (principle/principal) of our college is a strict disciplinarian,
but a really nice person.
(ii) It becomes difficult to (breathe/breath) atop Mt. Everest.
SECTION – C (READING)
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. When you grow up in a place where it rains for five months a year, wise elders
help you to get acquainted with the rain early. They teach you that it is ignorance
to think that it is the same rain falling every day. Oh no! The rain is always doing
different things at different times. There are rain that is gentle, and there is also
rain that falls too hard and damages the crops. Hence, pray for the sweet rain that
helps the crops to grow.
2. The monsoon in the Naga Hills goes by the native name, ‘Khoutho tei’ (which
means the rice-growing season). It lasts from May to early or mid-october. The
local residents firmly believe that Durga Puja in October announces the end of
rain. After that, one might expect a couple of short winter showers, and the spring
showers in March and April. Finally, comes the ‘big rain’ in May; proper
rainstorms accompanied by heart-stopping lightning and ear-splitting thunder.
Page 25
[6] NB/XII/AEN/1
3. This is the season when people use the word ‘sezuo’ to refer to the week-long
rains, when cloths don’t dry and smell of mould, when fungus forms on the floor
and when you can’t see the moon or the stars.
4. The rains are also called after flowering plants and people believe that the
blossoming of some plants draw out rain. Once the monsoon sets in, field work is
carried out in earnest and the work of uprooting and transplanting paddy in fields
is done. The months of hard labour are June, July and August. Rain in August is a
sign that the time for cultivation is over. If any new grain seeds are sown, they
may not sprout; even if they do sprout, they are not likely to bear grain. The rain
acts as a kind of farmer’s almanac.
5. The urban population of school-goers and office-goers naturally dislikes the
monsoon and its accompanying problems of landslides, muddy streets and
periodic infections. For non-farmers, the month of September can be depressing,
when the rainfall is incessant and the awareness persists that the monsoons will
last out till October. One needs to have the heart of a farmer to remain grateful for
the watery days, and be able to observe the many kinds of rain.
6. Each rain period has a job to fulfill: October rain helps garlic bulbs to form,
while ‘kemenya’ rain helps the rice beer grain. Without it, the ears of the rice
cannot form properly. End of October is the most beautiful month in the Naga
Hills, as the fields turn gold and wild sunflowers blooms over the slopes, all
heralding the harvest. Prayers go up for protecting the fields from storms, and the
rains to retreat because the grains need to stand in the sun and ripen. The cycle
nears completion in a few weeks before the harvest, and the rain does retreat so
thoroughly, that the earth quickly turns hard. The raining months becomes a
distant memory until it starts all over again.
a. What does the elders want you to understand about rains? 1
(i) That rains are always welcomed
(ii) That the same rain falls everyday
(iii) That the rain always damages the crops
(iv) That rain always does different things at different times
b. The rains are named after flowering plants because - 1
(i) heavy rains kill plants
(ii) it is believed that plants bring the rain
(iii) flowers grow in rainy season
(iv) flower grow all the year round
c. People who live in cities don’t like rainy season because - 1
(i) they are not bothered about farmers
3. This is the season when people use the word ‘sezuo’ to refer to the week-long
rains, when cloths don’t dry and smell of mould, when fungus forms on the floor
and when you can’t see the moon or the stars.
4. The rains are also called after flowering plants and people believe that the
blossoming of some plants draw out rain. Once the monsoon sets in, field work is
carried out in earnest and the work of uprooting and transplanting paddy in fields
is done. The months of hard labour are June, July and August. Rain in August is a
sign that the time for cultivation is over. If any new grain seeds are sown, they
may not sprout; even if they do sprout, they are not likely to bear grain. The rain
acts as a kind of farmer’s almanac.
5. The urban population of school-goers and office-goers naturally dislikes the
monsoon and its accompanying problems of landslides, muddy streets and
periodic infections. For non-farmers, the month of September can be depressing,
when the rainfall is incessant and the awareness persists that the monsoons will
last out till October. One needs to have the heart of a farmer to remain grateful for
the watery days, and be able to observe the many kinds of rain.
6. Each rain period has a job to fulfill: October rain helps garlic bulbs to form,
while ‘kemenya’ rain helps the rice beer grain. Without it, the ears of the rice
cannot form properly. End of October is the most beautiful month in the Naga
Hills, as the fields turn gold and wild sunflowers blooms over the slopes, all
heralding the harvest. Prayers go up for protecting the fields from storms, and the
rains to retreat because the grains need to stand in the sun and ripen. The cycle
nears completion in a few weeks before the harvest, and the rain does retreat so
thoroughly, that the earth quickly turns hard. The raining months becomes a
distant memory until it starts all over again.
a. What does the elders want you to understand about rains? 1
(i) That rains are always welcomed
(ii) That the same rain falls everyday
(iii) That the rain always damages the crops
(iv) That rain always does different things at different times
b. The rains are named after flowering plants because - 1
(i) heavy rains kill plants
(ii) it is believed that plants bring the rain
(iii) flowers grow in rainy season
(iv) flower grow all the year round
c. People who live in cities don’t like rainy season because - 1
(i) they are not bothered about farmers
Page 26
[7] NB/XII/AEN/1
(ii) going for shopping becomes difficult
(iii) it bring mud and sickness with it
(iv) they don’t like the plants that grow during rainy season
d. Select the most suitable title for the above passage. 1
(i) Rains
(ii) Flowering plants
(iii) The week long rain
(iv) Monsoon in the Naga Hills
e. Write the antonym of the word ‘advance’ from paragraph 6. 1
f. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with
respect to the following: 1
Durga Puja plays an important role in the lives of the local because
___________.
g. Find the synonyms of - 1+1=2
(i) Calendar (paragraph 4)
(ii) Extremely loud (paragraph 2)
h. Write any two natural occurrences during ‘Sezuo’ rain. 2
***************************
(ii) going for shopping becomes difficult
(iii) it bring mud and sickness with it
(iv) they don’t like the plants that grow during rainy season
d. Select the most suitable title for the above passage. 1
(i) Rains
(ii) Flowering plants
(iii) The week long rain
(iv) Monsoon in the Naga Hills
e. Write the antonym of the word ‘advance’ from paragraph 6. 1
f. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with
respect to the following: 1
Durga Puja plays an important role in the lives of the local because
___________.
g. Find the synonyms of - 1+1=2
(i) Calendar (paragraph 4)
(ii) Extremely loud (paragraph 2)
h. Write any two natural occurrences during ‘Sezuo’ rain. 2
***************************
Page 27
Total number of printed pages:7 NB/XII/HND/1
2024
HINDI
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C& D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the
correct number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (पठन परी ण)
1. िन िलिखत ग ांश को पढकर पूछे गए के उ र िलिखए
आज कसी भी ि का सबसे अलग एक टापू क तरह जीना संभव नह रह गया
है। मानव समाज म िविभ पंथ और िविवध मत मतांतर के लोग साथ-साथ रह रहे ह।
ऐसे म यह अिधक आव यक हो गया है क लोग एक दूसरे को जान, उनक आव यकता
एवं उनक इ छा -आकां ा को समझ, उ ह वरीयता द और उनके धा मक िव ास,
पूजा-प ितय , अनु ान को स मान द। भारत जैसे देश म यह और भी अिधक आव यक है
य क यह देश कसी एक धम, मत या िवचारधारा का नह है। वामी िववेकानंद इस बात
को समझते थे। अपने आचार-िवचार म वे अपने समय से ब त आगे थे। उ ह ने धम को
मनु य क सेवा के क म रखकर ही अ याि मक चतन कया था। उ ह ने यह िव ोही
बयान दया क इस देश के 33 करोड़ भूखे, द र और कु पोषण के िशकार लोग को देवी-
देवता क तरह मं दर म थािपत कया जाए और मं दर से देवी-देवता क मू तय
को हटा दया जाए। उनका दृढ मत था क िविभ धम-सं दाय के बीच संवाद होना ही
चािहए। वे िविभ सं दाय क अनेक पता को उिचत और वाभािवक मानते थे।
वामीजी िविभ धा मक आ था के बीच सामंज य थािपत करने के प धर थे और
सभी को एक ही धम का अनुयायी बनाने के िव थे। वे कहा करते थे य द सभी मानव
एक ही धम को मानने लगे, एक ही पूजा-प ित को अपना ल और एक सी नैितकता का
अनुपालन करने लगे, तो यह सबसे दुभा यपूण बात होगी य क ये सब हमारे धा मक और
आ याि मक िवकास के िलये ाणघातक ह गे तथा हम हमारी सां कृ ितक जडो से काट दगे।
वामी िववेकानंद हदू धम म सुधार लाना चाहते थे और हदु म गव तथा आ मिव ास
का भाव उ प करना चाहते थे। हदू धम एक ओर ढ़वा दता और दूसरी ओर अं ेज
ारा देश पर पि मी िवचार थोपे जाने से पीिड़त था। िववेकानंद का सबसे बड़ा योगदान
यह था क उ ह ने औपिनवेशक शासन से मुि के िलये संघष को आ याि मक आधार दया
और नैितक व सामािजक दृि से हदू समाज म उ थान के िलए काम कया।
I. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुिनए: 4x1=4
2024
HINDI
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C& D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the
correct number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (पठन परी ण)
1. िन िलिखत ग ांश को पढकर पूछे गए के उ र िलिखए
आज कसी भी ि का सबसे अलग एक टापू क तरह जीना संभव नह रह गया
है। मानव समाज म िविभ पंथ और िविवध मत मतांतर के लोग साथ-साथ रह रहे ह।
ऐसे म यह अिधक आव यक हो गया है क लोग एक दूसरे को जान, उनक आव यकता
एवं उनक इ छा -आकां ा को समझ, उ ह वरीयता द और उनके धा मक िव ास,
पूजा-प ितय , अनु ान को स मान द। भारत जैसे देश म यह और भी अिधक आव यक है
य क यह देश कसी एक धम, मत या िवचारधारा का नह है। वामी िववेकानंद इस बात
को समझते थे। अपने आचार-िवचार म वे अपने समय से ब त आगे थे। उ ह ने धम को
मनु य क सेवा के क म रखकर ही अ याि मक चतन कया था। उ ह ने यह िव ोही
बयान दया क इस देश के 33 करोड़ भूखे, द र और कु पोषण के िशकार लोग को देवी-
देवता क तरह मं दर म थािपत कया जाए और मं दर से देवी-देवता क मू तय
को हटा दया जाए। उनका दृढ मत था क िविभ धम-सं दाय के बीच संवाद होना ही
चािहए। वे िविभ सं दाय क अनेक पता को उिचत और वाभािवक मानते थे।
वामीजी िविभ धा मक आ था के बीच सामंज य थािपत करने के प धर थे और
सभी को एक ही धम का अनुयायी बनाने के िव थे। वे कहा करते थे य द सभी मानव
एक ही धम को मानने लगे, एक ही पूजा-प ित को अपना ल और एक सी नैितकता का
अनुपालन करने लगे, तो यह सबसे दुभा यपूण बात होगी य क ये सब हमारे धा मक और
आ याि मक िवकास के िलये ाणघातक ह गे तथा हम हमारी सां कृ ितक जडो से काट दगे।
वामी िववेकानंद हदू धम म सुधार लाना चाहते थे और हदु म गव तथा आ मिव ास
का भाव उ प करना चाहते थे। हदू धम एक ओर ढ़वा दता और दूसरी ओर अं ेज
ारा देश पर पि मी िवचार थोपे जाने से पीिड़त था। िववेकानंद का सबसे बड़ा योगदान
यह था क उ ह ने औपिनवेशक शासन से मुि के िलये संघष को आ याि मक आधार दया
और नैितक व सामािजक दृि से हदू समाज म उ थान के िलए काम कया।
I. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुिनए: 4x1=4
Page 28
[2] NB/XII/HND/1
a. टापू क तरह जीने से लेखक का या आशय है?
(i) घमंड म रहना (ii) समाज से अलग रहना
(iii) समाज से जुड़कर रहना (iv) िवन रहना
b. िववेकानंद ने धम को कस दृि से देखा था?
(i) मनु य क सेवा (ii) पशु-सेवा
(iii) ई र क आराधना (iv) आ याि मक जागरण
c. िविभ पंथ और मत-मतांतर के लोग िमलकर नह रहगे तो उसका या
प रणाम होगा ?
(i) समाज म शांित थािपत होगी।
(ii) धा मक सं थान से िववाद नह होगा।
(iii) सभी का जीवन और अिधक क ठन हो जाएगा।
(iv) सभी का जीवन सुखमय हो जाएगा।
d. िववेकानंद ने 33 करोड़ देवी-देवता कनके िलए योग कया है?
(i) गाय के िलए (ii) भूखे और द र जनता के िलए
(iii) मू तय के िलए (iv) प थर के िलए
II. दए गए के उ र िलिखए :
e. ‘उ थान’ का िवलोम श द िलिखए। 1
f. वामी िववेकानंद कस धम म सुधार लाना चाहते थे? 1
g. धम और सं दाय के बीच संवाद होने से समाज को या लाभ होगा? 2
h. तुत ग ांश के मा यम से लेखक ने या स देश दया है? 2
SECTION – B (संरचना)
2. िन िलिखत म से कसी एक का उ र 150 से 200 श द म िलिखए :
a. ‘इंटरनेट’ िवषय पर एक िनबंध िलिखए।
अथवा 6
b. दो िम के बीच ‘पेड़ क उपयोिगता’ िवषय पर चचा करते ए एक संवाद
को िलिखए।
3. िन िलिखत म से कसी एक का उ र िलिखए:
a. मु त ित का ाकरण एवं संरचना संबंधी ु टय को संशोिधत करते ए संपादन
क िजए:
a. टापू क तरह जीने से लेखक का या आशय है?
(i) घमंड म रहना (ii) समाज से अलग रहना
(iii) समाज से जुड़कर रहना (iv) िवन रहना
b. िववेकानंद ने धम को कस दृि से देखा था?
(i) मनु य क सेवा (ii) पशु-सेवा
(iii) ई र क आराधना (iv) आ याि मक जागरण
c. िविभ पंथ और मत-मतांतर के लोग िमलकर नह रहगे तो उसका या
प रणाम होगा ?
(i) समाज म शांित थािपत होगी।
(ii) धा मक सं थान से िववाद नह होगा।
(iii) सभी का जीवन और अिधक क ठन हो जाएगा।
(iv) सभी का जीवन सुखमय हो जाएगा।
d. िववेकानंद ने 33 करोड़ देवी-देवता कनके िलए योग कया है?
(i) गाय के िलए (ii) भूखे और द र जनता के िलए
(iii) मू तय के िलए (iv) प थर के िलए
II. दए गए के उ र िलिखए :
e. ‘उ थान’ का िवलोम श द िलिखए। 1
f. वामी िववेकानंद कस धम म सुधार लाना चाहते थे? 1
g. धम और सं दाय के बीच संवाद होने से समाज को या लाभ होगा? 2
h. तुत ग ांश के मा यम से लेखक ने या स देश दया है? 2
SECTION – B (संरचना)
2. िन िलिखत म से कसी एक का उ र 150 से 200 श द म िलिखए :
a. ‘इंटरनेट’ िवषय पर एक िनबंध िलिखए।
अथवा 6
b. दो िम के बीच ‘पेड़ क उपयोिगता’ िवषय पर चचा करते ए एक संवाद
को िलिखए।
3. िन िलिखत म से कसी एक का उ र िलिखए:
a. मु त ित का ाकरण एवं संरचना संबंधी ु टय को संशोिधत करते ए संपादन
क िजए:
Page 29
[3] NB/XII/HND/1
एक मोरनी था वह अपने तीन ब के साथ जंगल म रहते थे। एक दन मोरनी
ब क खेत म ले गया। सारे ब े माँ के पीछे पीछे चल रही थी। ले कन तीसरा
ब ा चंचल थी। वह इधर उधर देखने लगी है। रा ता भटक गई माँ ने घबराकर
ाक- ाक का आवाज लगायी।
अथवा 4
b. अपने िम /सहेली को अपने बड़े भाई के िववाह म सि मिलत होने के िलए
आमंि त करते ए लगभग 50 श द म एक िनमं ण प िलिखए।
SECTION – C( ाकरण एवं अनुवाद)
4. संिध-िव छेद क िजये : 2x1=2
a. महेश b. अ यिधक
5. दए गए सामािसक पद का िव ह क िजए : 2x1=2
a. नवर b. स या ह
6. िन िलिखत श द के दो-दो पयायवाची श द िलिखए : 2x1=2
a. रात b. सूरज
7. दए गए मुहावर का अथ वा य- योग ारा प क िजए: 2x1=2
a. न द हराम करना b. मुँह फे रना
8. ेष अलंकार क प रभाषा िलख कर एक उदाहरण दीिजए। 2
9. चौपाई को प रभािषत करते ए एक उदाहरण के मा यम से प क िजए। 2
10. हदी म अनुवाद क िजए : 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
SECTION – D (सािह य)
ग -भाग
11. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुनकर िलिखए : 4x1=4
a. लेखक का िम बाजार य गया था?
(i) एक मामूली चीज़ लाने (ii) बंडल लाने
(iii) िखलौने लाने (iv) राशन लाने
b. ‘जे युए’ नामक बािलका कहाँ रहती थी?
(i) जो सोमा (ii) के दमा
एक मोरनी था वह अपने तीन ब के साथ जंगल म रहते थे। एक दन मोरनी
ब क खेत म ले गया। सारे ब े माँ के पीछे पीछे चल रही थी। ले कन तीसरा
ब ा चंचल थी। वह इधर उधर देखने लगी है। रा ता भटक गई माँ ने घबराकर
ाक- ाक का आवाज लगायी।
अथवा 4
b. अपने िम /सहेली को अपने बड़े भाई के िववाह म सि मिलत होने के िलए
आमंि त करते ए लगभग 50 श द म एक िनमं ण प िलिखए।
SECTION – C( ाकरण एवं अनुवाद)
4. संिध-िव छेद क िजये : 2x1=2
a. महेश b. अ यिधक
5. दए गए सामािसक पद का िव ह क िजए : 2x1=2
a. नवर b. स या ह
6. िन िलिखत श द के दो-दो पयायवाची श द िलिखए : 2x1=2
a. रात b. सूरज
7. दए गए मुहावर का अथ वा य- योग ारा प क िजए: 2x1=2
a. न द हराम करना b. मुँह फे रना
8. ेष अलंकार क प रभाषा िलख कर एक उदाहरण दीिजए। 2
9. चौपाई को प रभािषत करते ए एक उदाहरण के मा यम से प क िजए। 2
10. हदी म अनुवाद क िजए : 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
SECTION – D (सािह य)
ग -भाग
11. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुनकर िलिखए : 4x1=4
a. लेखक का िम बाजार य गया था?
(i) एक मामूली चीज़ लाने (ii) बंडल लाने
(iii) िखलौने लाने (iv) राशन लाने
b. ‘जे युए’ नामक बािलका कहाँ रहती थी?
(i) जो सोमा (ii) के दमा
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(iii) े हामा (iv) िव वेमा
c. कसक हँस इंसान जैसी नह है?
(i) शमा (ii) संतोष
(iii) रमेश (iv) मोहन
d. ि शंकु पाठ के अनुसार शेखर कौन था?
(i) साधारण ि (ii) छा
(iii) नेता (iv) भाई
12. ‘ब त बड़ा सवाल’ एकांक का उ े य प क िजए। 2
13. उजड़े ए खेत क दशा देखकर ह कू य स था? 2
14. कोसोहो ने अपनी प ी तथा पु को घर से य िनकाल दया? 3
15. a. िन कथन कसने, कससे तथा य कहा है?
“यह देिखए, सब उड़ गया, अभी जो रेल टकट के िलए भी बचा हो।”
अथवा 1+1+2=4
b. “माघ पूस क रात हार म कै से कटेगी?”
16. कसी एक ग ांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र दीिजए
a. उन लोग के दो नाम थे- इंदर सेना या मढक मंडली। िब कु ल एक दूसरे के
िवपरीत। जो लोग उनके न - व प शरीर, उनक उछल-कू द, उनके शोर-शराबे
और उनके कारण गली म होने वाली क चड़ कांदो से िचढते थे, वे उ ह कहते थे-
मढक मंडली। उनक अगवानी गािलय से होती थी। वे होते थे दस-बारह से सोलह-
अठारह बरस के लड़के , सांवला नंगा-बदन, िसफ एक जाँिघया या कभी-कभी िसफ
लंगोट। एक जगह इक े होते थे। पहला जयकारा लगता था, “बोलो गंगा मैया क
जय।“ जयकारा सुनते ही लोग सावधान हो जाते थे। ि याँ और लड़ कयाँ छ े-
बारजे से झाँकने लगती थ और यह िविच नंग-धड़ंग टोली उछलती-कू दती
समवेत पुकार लगाती थी।
(i) मंडली के या नाम होते थे? 1
(ii) लोग मढक मंडली से य िचढ़ते थे? 1
(iii) कनक अगवानी गािलय से होती थी? 1
(iv) इं दर-सेना म कतने बरस के लड़के होते थे? 1
(v) इं दर-सेना कसका जयकारा लगाती थी? 1
(iii) े हामा (iv) िव वेमा
c. कसक हँस इंसान जैसी नह है?
(i) शमा (ii) संतोष
(iii) रमेश (iv) मोहन
d. ि शंकु पाठ के अनुसार शेखर कौन था?
(i) साधारण ि (ii) छा
(iii) नेता (iv) भाई
12. ‘ब त बड़ा सवाल’ एकांक का उ े य प क िजए। 2
13. उजड़े ए खेत क दशा देखकर ह कू य स था? 2
14. कोसोहो ने अपनी प ी तथा पु को घर से य िनकाल दया? 3
15. a. िन कथन कसने, कससे तथा य कहा है?
“यह देिखए, सब उड़ गया, अभी जो रेल टकट के िलए भी बचा हो।”
अथवा 1+1+2=4
b. “माघ पूस क रात हार म कै से कटेगी?”
16. कसी एक ग ांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र दीिजए
a. उन लोग के दो नाम थे- इंदर सेना या मढक मंडली। िब कु ल एक दूसरे के
िवपरीत। जो लोग उनके न - व प शरीर, उनक उछल-कू द, उनके शोर-शराबे
और उनके कारण गली म होने वाली क चड़ कांदो से िचढते थे, वे उ ह कहते थे-
मढक मंडली। उनक अगवानी गािलय से होती थी। वे होते थे दस-बारह से सोलह-
अठारह बरस के लड़के , सांवला नंगा-बदन, िसफ एक जाँिघया या कभी-कभी िसफ
लंगोट। एक जगह इक े होते थे। पहला जयकारा लगता था, “बोलो गंगा मैया क
जय।“ जयकारा सुनते ही लोग सावधान हो जाते थे। ि याँ और लड़ कयाँ छ े-
बारजे से झाँकने लगती थ और यह िविच नंग-धड़ंग टोली उछलती-कू दती
समवेत पुकार लगाती थी।
(i) मंडली के या नाम होते थे? 1
(ii) लोग मढक मंडली से य िचढ़ते थे? 1
(iii) कनक अगवानी गािलय से होती थी? 1
(iv) इं दर-सेना म कतने बरस के लड़के होते थे? 1
(v) इं दर-सेना कसका जयकारा लगाती थी? 1
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अथवा
b. मेरे भीतर अपनी ही एक दुिनया बनती चली जा रही थी। बडी भरी-पूरी और
रंगीन। आजकल मुझे कसी क ज रत ही महसूस नह होती। लगता जैसे म अपने
म ही पूरी ।ँ हमेशा साथ म रहने वाली ममी भी आउट होती जा रही है और
शायद यही कारण है क इधर मने ममी पर यान देना ही छोड दया है। रोजमरा
क बाते तो होती ह, पर के वल बाते ही होती ह- उसके परे कही कु छ नह ।
(i) कसके भीतर एक दुिनया बनती चली जा रही थी? (1)
(ii) तनु के भीतर कस कार क दुिनया बन रही थी? (1)
(iii) तनु को या लगने लगा? (1)
(iv) तनु ने कस पर यान देना छोड़ दया? (1)
(v) तनु क माँ से कस कार क बात होती थी? (1)
प भाग
17. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुिनए : 2x1=2
a. अपने अिहत क आशंका से शरणागत का याग करने वाले ि को
तुलसीदास ने या कहकर बुलाया है?
(i) पशु (ii) देवता
(iii) संत (iv) ानी
b. पतंग क या िवशेषता होती है?
(i) ह का (ii) भारी
(iii) ल बा (iv) चौड़ा
18. तुलसीदास के अनुसार मुिखया को कै सा होना चािहए? 2
19. ‘घर क याद’ किवता म माँ के ि व क कन िवशेषता का वणन कया गया है? 2
20. a. पृ वी घूमती ई आती है, उनके बेचैन पैर के पास,
जब वे दौड़ते ह बेसुध, छत को भी नरम बनाते ए।
(i) ये पंि याँ कस किवता से ली गई ह? 1
(ii) इस किवता के रचनाकार कौन ह? 1
(iii) इन पंि य का आशय प क िजए। 2
अथवा
b. मेरे भीतर अपनी ही एक दुिनया बनती चली जा रही थी। बडी भरी-पूरी और
रंगीन। आजकल मुझे कसी क ज रत ही महसूस नह होती। लगता जैसे म अपने
म ही पूरी ।ँ हमेशा साथ म रहने वाली ममी भी आउट होती जा रही है और
शायद यही कारण है क इधर मने ममी पर यान देना ही छोड दया है। रोजमरा
क बाते तो होती ह, पर के वल बाते ही होती ह- उसके परे कही कु छ नह ।
(i) कसके भीतर एक दुिनया बनती चली जा रही थी? (1)
(ii) तनु के भीतर कस कार क दुिनया बन रही थी? (1)
(iii) तनु को या लगने लगा? (1)
(iv) तनु ने कस पर यान देना छोड़ दया? (1)
(v) तनु क माँ से कस कार क बात होती थी? (1)
प भाग
17. दए गए िवक प म से सही िवक प चुिनए : 2x1=2
a. अपने अिहत क आशंका से शरणागत का याग करने वाले ि को
तुलसीदास ने या कहकर बुलाया है?
(i) पशु (ii) देवता
(iii) संत (iv) ानी
b. पतंग क या िवशेषता होती है?
(i) ह का (ii) भारी
(iii) ल बा (iv) चौड़ा
18. तुलसीदास के अनुसार मुिखया को कै सा होना चािहए? 2
19. ‘घर क याद’ किवता म माँ के ि व क कन िवशेषता का वणन कया गया है? 2
20. a. पृ वी घूमती ई आती है, उनके बेचैन पैर के पास,
जब वे दौड़ते ह बेसुध, छत को भी नरम बनाते ए।
(i) ये पंि याँ कस किवता से ली गई ह? 1
(ii) इस किवता के रचनाकार कौन ह? 1
(iii) इन पंि य का आशय प क िजए। 2
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[6] NB/XII/HND/1
अथवा
b. हे सजीले हरे सावन, हे क मेरे पु य पावन,
तुम बरस लो वे न बरसे, पाँचवे को वे न तरसे।
(i) ये पंि याँ कस किवता से ली गई ह? (1)
(ii) इस किवता के रचनाकार कौन ह? (1)
(iii) दए गए पंि य का आशय प क िजए। (2)
21. कसी एक प ांश का संदभ एवं संग सिहत ा या क िजए :
a. सचमुच मुझे दंड दो क भूलूँ म, भूलूँ म,
तु ह भूल जाने क ,
दि णी ुवी अंधकार-अमाव या,
शरीर पर चेहरे पर अंतर म पा लूँ म,
झेलूँ म, उसी म नहा लूँ म।
अथवा 5
b. पायो नाम चा चतामिन, उर कर ते न खसैह ।
याम प सूची िचर कसौटी िचत कं चनिह कसैह ।
परबस जािन हँ य इन इं न, िनज बस है न हंसैह ।
मन मधुकर पन कै तुलसी, रघुपित पद कमल बसैह ।
कथा सािह य
22. िनमला के िववाह के समय उसके पित के कतने पु थे और उनके या नाम थे? 2
23. िनमला क सगाई टूटने का या कारण था? 3
24. कसी एक ग ांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र दीिजए :
a. मंसाराम क अकाल मृ यु से तोताराम िनराश और हतो सािहत हो गए। धंधे क
ओर उदासीन रहने के कारण उनक आमदनी भी कम हो गई। मकान नीलाम हो
अथवा
b. हे सजीले हरे सावन, हे क मेरे पु य पावन,
तुम बरस लो वे न बरसे, पाँचवे को वे न तरसे।
(i) ये पंि याँ कस किवता से ली गई ह? (1)
(ii) इस किवता के रचनाकार कौन ह? (1)
(iii) दए गए पंि य का आशय प क िजए। (2)
21. कसी एक प ांश का संदभ एवं संग सिहत ा या क िजए :
a. सचमुच मुझे दंड दो क भूलूँ म, भूलूँ म,
तु ह भूल जाने क ,
दि णी ुवी अंधकार-अमाव या,
शरीर पर चेहरे पर अंतर म पा लूँ म,
झेलूँ म, उसी म नहा लूँ म।
अथवा 5
b. पायो नाम चा चतामिन, उर कर ते न खसैह ।
याम प सूची िचर कसौटी िचत कं चनिह कसैह ।
परबस जािन हँ य इन इं न, िनज बस है न हंसैह ।
मन मधुकर पन कै तुलसी, रघुपित पद कमल बसैह ।
कथा सािह य
22. िनमला के िववाह के समय उसके पित के कतने पु थे और उनके या नाम थे? 2
23. िनमला क सगाई टूटने का या कारण था? 3
24. कसी एक ग ांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र दीिजए :
a. मंसाराम क अकाल मृ यु से तोताराम िनराश और हतो सािहत हो गए। धंधे क
ओर उदासीन रहने के कारण उनक आमदनी भी कम हो गई। मकान नीलाम हो
Page 33
[7] NB/XII/HND/1
जाने और पु ी आशा के ज म लेने पर िनमला म भी ब त प रवतन हो जाता है।
अब उसे घर चलाने क भी ब त फ होने लगी है। वह एक-एक पैसा बचाने लगी।
परंतु मझले पु िजयाराम ने उसके गहने चुरा िलए और वह िभखारी सी बन गयी।
फर भी वह कु छ न बोली य क वह बड़ी सहनशील नारी थी। जब पुिलस खोज
करने आई तो उसने अपने पास जो पये बचे ए थे, वे दे दए और अपने घर क
इ त बचाई।
(i) मुंशी तोताराम िनराश और हतो सािहत य हो गए थे? 1
(ii) िनमला ने कसे ज म दया था? 1
(iii) कसने िनमला के गहन का संदक
ू चुरा िलया था? 1
(iv) मुंशी तोताराम क आमदनी य कम हो गई थी? 1
(v) िनमला ने अपने घर क इ त कै से बचायी? 1
अथवा
b. उस दन से िनमला का रंग ढंग बदलने लगा। अपने को कत पर िमटा देने का
िन य कर िलया। अब तक नैरा य के संताप म उसने कत पर यान ही न दया
था। उसके दय म िव लव क वाला सी दहकती रहती थी, िजसक असहाय
वेदना ने उसे सं ानहीन सा कर रखा था। अब उस वेदना का वेग शांत होने लगा।
उसे ात आ क मेरे िलए जीवन का कोई आनंद नह । उसका व देखकर य
इस जीवन को न क । संसार म सब के सब ाणी सुख सेज ही पर तो नह सोते।
म भी उ ह अभाग म से ।ँ
(i) कसका रं ग-ढंग बदलने लगा था? (1)
(ii) कसने कत पर खुद को िमटा देने का िन य कया? (1)
(iii) िनमला के मन म कस कार क वाला दहकती रहती थी? (1)
(iv) कसके जीवन म कोई आनंद नह है? (1)
(v) कन बात ने िनमला को सं ानहीन बना दया था? (1)
******************************
जाने और पु ी आशा के ज म लेने पर िनमला म भी ब त प रवतन हो जाता है।
अब उसे घर चलाने क भी ब त फ होने लगी है। वह एक-एक पैसा बचाने लगी।
परंतु मझले पु िजयाराम ने उसके गहने चुरा िलए और वह िभखारी सी बन गयी।
फर भी वह कु छ न बोली य क वह बड़ी सहनशील नारी थी। जब पुिलस खोज
करने आई तो उसने अपने पास जो पये बचे ए थे, वे दे दए और अपने घर क
इ त बचाई।
(i) मुंशी तोताराम िनराश और हतो सािहत य हो गए थे? 1
(ii) िनमला ने कसे ज म दया था? 1
(iii) कसने िनमला के गहन का संदक
ू चुरा िलया था? 1
(iv) मुंशी तोताराम क आमदनी य कम हो गई थी? 1
(v) िनमला ने अपने घर क इ त कै से बचायी? 1
अथवा
b. उस दन से िनमला का रंग ढंग बदलने लगा। अपने को कत पर िमटा देने का
िन य कर िलया। अब तक नैरा य के संताप म उसने कत पर यान ही न दया
था। उसके दय म िव लव क वाला सी दहकती रहती थी, िजसक असहाय
वेदना ने उसे सं ानहीन सा कर रखा था। अब उस वेदना का वेग शांत होने लगा।
उसे ात आ क मेरे िलए जीवन का कोई आनंद नह । उसका व देखकर य
इस जीवन को न क । संसार म सब के सब ाणी सुख सेज ही पर तो नह सोते।
म भी उ ह अभाग म से ।ँ
(i) कसका रं ग-ढंग बदलने लगा था? (1)
(ii) कसने कत पर खुद को िमटा देने का िन य कया? (1)
(iii) िनमला के मन म कस कार क वाला दहकती रहती थी? (1)
(iv) कसके जीवन म कोई आनंद नह है? (1)
(v) कन बात ने िनमला को सं ानहीन बना दया था? (1)
******************************
Page 34
Total number of printed pages 5 NB/XII/BNG/1
2024
BENGALI
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A,B,C, & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct number in
your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
িবভাগ - ক (পাঠ)
1. িন িলিখত অংশটৄকৄ ভােলা কের পেড় েলার উ র িলখঃ-
মানুেষর সৃি করা থাই মানুষেক ব কের, মানুেষর ধম, সমাজ, ভাষা সািহত সকেলর মেধ
আজও তার পিরচয় পাওয়া যায় ।
িচনা বািলকার েতার মেতাই থাও মানুেষর বঁেধ রেখেছ। মানুষ য মানুষ, তার য বেড়
ওঠার কথা তা থা ভৄিলেয় রেখেছ। তাই থা ভা ঁেত মানুষ ি ধােবাধ কের, িমথ াচারেণর ভেয় এ
যন মানুেষর উপর মানুেষরই সৃি থার অত াচার।
একিদন িছল, নারীর কাজ েলােক বাহবা,উ ৎসাহ দওয়া হত। এখন আর তমন নই। একিদন
নারীর আদশ, সং ােরর থম িদন থেক বশ উঁচৄ পযা৴েয়র িছল। িক কায৴ে ে িছল না, এই
সং ােরর নানা নাম িছল। নারী াধীনতা, নারী পু েষর সমান অিধকার ইত ািদ, ইত ািদ, এেত কॆত
লাভ িক ই ঘেটিন। -একজন যারা বাহবা পেলা তারা মেন করেলা অমৃত লাভ কেরেছ, যারা
অবেহলা পেলা তারা মেন করল তােদর িদেয় িক হবার নয়।
ব ত দশখানা বই মুখ করেত পারেল বা -চারিট পরী া পাশ করেত পারেলই নারীর মুি
ঘেট গল এমন ভাবা ভॅল, িশ া এেতা সহেজ শষ হবার নয়, িশ িয় ী হেত পারেলই নারীর ভাবনা
শষ হেয় যায়না, বা না হেলও য তমন িক মা লাভ ব াঘাত ঘেট তা নয়। জগৎ িবিচ ,
সৗ য৴ময়, িতিট মানুষ নানা মুখ িনেয় জ হণ কের। আেদর িচ া, চতনা িভ হওয়া
াভািবক। নারী-পু য় এ ে মি িলত ভােব সাম স সূে িথত হেয় চতনার আদান- দান
করেল মানব সমােজর িবকাশ আবশ াবী।
নীেচ দওয়া উ র িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাওঃ
(a) মানুেষর পিরচয় িকেস পাওয়া যায় ? 1
(i) সািহত (ii) খলা
(iii) ঝগড়া (iv) মারামাির ।
(b) মানুষ কী ভা ঁেত ি ধােবাধ কের ? 1
(i) থা (ii) বাসন
(iii) বািড় (iv) স ক ।
2024
BENGALI
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A,B,C, & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct number in
your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
িবভাগ - ক (পাঠ)
1. িন িলিখত অংশটৄকৄ ভােলা কের পেড় েলার উ র িলখঃ-
মানুেষর সৃি করা থাই মানুষেক ব কের, মানুেষর ধম, সমাজ, ভাষা সািহত সকেলর মেধ
আজও তার পিরচয় পাওয়া যায় ।
িচনা বািলকার েতার মেতাই থাও মানুেষর বঁেধ রেখেছ। মানুষ য মানুষ, তার য বেড়
ওঠার কথা তা থা ভৄিলেয় রেখেছ। তাই থা ভা ঁেত মানুষ ি ধােবাধ কের, িমথ াচারেণর ভেয় এ
যন মানুেষর উপর মানুেষরই সৃি থার অত াচার।
একিদন িছল, নারীর কাজ েলােক বাহবা,উ ৎসাহ দওয়া হত। এখন আর তমন নই। একিদন
নারীর আদশ, সং ােরর থম িদন থেক বশ উঁচৄ পযা৴েয়র িছল। িক কায৴ে ে িছল না, এই
সং ােরর নানা নাম িছল। নারী াধীনতা, নারী পু েষর সমান অিধকার ইত ািদ, ইত ািদ, এেত কॆত
লাভ িক ই ঘেটিন। -একজন যারা বাহবা পেলা তারা মেন করেলা অমৃত লাভ কেরেছ, যারা
অবেহলা পেলা তারা মেন করল তােদর িদেয় িক হবার নয়।
ব ত দশখানা বই মুখ করেত পারেল বা -চারিট পরী া পাশ করেত পারেলই নারীর মুি
ঘেট গল এমন ভাবা ভॅল, িশ া এেতা সহেজ শষ হবার নয়, িশ িয় ী হেত পারেলই নারীর ভাবনা
শষ হেয় যায়না, বা না হেলও য তমন িক মা লাভ ব াঘাত ঘেট তা নয়। জগৎ িবিচ ,
সৗ য৴ময়, িতিট মানুষ নানা মুখ িনেয় জ হণ কের। আেদর িচ া, চতনা িভ হওয়া
াভািবক। নারী-পু য় এ ে মি িলত ভােব সাম স সূে িথত হেয় চতনার আদান- দান
করেল মানব সমােজর িবকাশ আবশ াবী।
নীেচ দওয়া উ র িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাওঃ
(a) মানুেষর পিরচয় িকেস পাওয়া যায় ? 1
(i) সািহত (ii) খলা
(iii) ঝগড়া (iv) মারামাির ।
(b) মানুষ কী ভা ঁেত ি ধােবাধ কের ? 1
(i) থা (ii) বাসন
(iii) বািড় (iv) স ক ।
Page 35
2 NB/XII/BNG/1
(c) নারীর কাজ েলােক আেগ কী করা হেতা ? 1
(i) বাহবা (ii) লাকচ ৄর আড়ােল রাখা হেতা
(iii) ফেল দওয়া হেতা (iv) িছেড় ফলা হেতা ।
(d) ‘অমৃত’ শ িটর িবপরীত শ কী হেব ? 1
(i) ীর (ii) গরল
(iii) িমি (iv) তেতা ।
নীেচর িলর উ র ায় ‘5’ থেক ‘10’ িট শে র মেধ দাওঃ-
(e) মানুষেক কী ব কের ? 1
(f) চীনা বািলকার েতা িকেসর তীক ? 1
(g) জগৎ কমন ? 1
(h) মানব সমােজর িবকাশ িকভােব স ব ? 1
(i) িল পিরবতন করঃ- “নারী” 1
(j) সি িবে দ করঃ- “িমথ াচারণ” 1
িবভাগ - ‘খ’ ( রচনা ও িনিমিত)
2. িন িলিখত িলর উ র 150 থেক 200 িট শে র মেধ িলখঃ-
(a) াবল ন (Selfhelp)
অথবা 6
(b) মেন কর তৄিম শীলা অথবা সুশীল, িনেজর মাতॆভাষা িনেয় পড়ােশানা করা য কতটা জ রী তা িনেয়
সীতা অথবা মলেয়র সােথ কেথাপকথেনর মাধ েম আেলাচনা কর।
3. িন িলিখত িলর উ র ‘50’ িট শে র মেধ িলখঃ
(a) তৄিম লেরেটা কেলেজর সাং িতক স াদক অ ণ অথবা িরমা, তামার কেলেজ একিট িবতক
িতেযািগতার আেয়াজন কেরেছা। সই িতেযািগতায় িবখ াত সাংবািদক জয় গা ামীেক
িবচারেকর আসন অলংকॆত করার জন একিট আম ণ পে র খসড়া কর ।
অথবা 4
(b) অ ি সংেশাদন বা স াদনা করঃ
বৎসেরর সু রতম ঋতৄ বষাকােল গাপূজা অনুি ত হয় । বষার সুনীল আকােশ, মেঘরা ভেস
বড়ায়। মৃৎ-িশ ীরা িদন রাি বেস থেক গা ঠাকৄর বানায়। গা চতৄভৄজ। চারহােত নানা অলংকাের
অলংকॆত হেয় মিহষাসুেরর িপেঠ চেপ, িসংহেক বধ করার শ িট আমােদর কােছ এক িবেশষ প
ধারণ কেরন। দবীর ডানিদেক ধেনর দবী ল ী ও দবেসনাপিত গেনশ এবং বাম িদেক িবদ ার
দবী সর তী ও িসি দাতা কাি েকয় দবীর সােথই পুিজত হন। কাি েকয়র পােশ নবপি কা বা
কলােবৗ দ ায়মান। ধু ধম য় ে নয় মানিবক স েকর সহজ আ িরকতার েশ এ উৎসবিট
অনন ।
(c) নারীর কাজ েলােক আেগ কী করা হেতা ? 1
(i) বাহবা (ii) লাকচ ৄর আড়ােল রাখা হেতা
(iii) ফেল দওয়া হেতা (iv) িছেড় ফলা হেতা ।
(d) ‘অমৃত’ শ িটর িবপরীত শ কী হেব ? 1
(i) ীর (ii) গরল
(iii) িমি (iv) তেতা ।
নীেচর িলর উ র ায় ‘5’ থেক ‘10’ িট শে র মেধ দাওঃ-
(e) মানুষেক কী ব কের ? 1
(f) চীনা বািলকার েতা িকেসর তীক ? 1
(g) জগৎ কমন ? 1
(h) মানব সমােজর িবকাশ িকভােব স ব ? 1
(i) িল পিরবতন করঃ- “নারী” 1
(j) সি িবে দ করঃ- “িমথ াচারণ” 1
িবভাগ - ‘খ’ ( রচনা ও িনিমিত)
2. িন িলিখত িলর উ র 150 থেক 200 িট শে র মেধ িলখঃ-
(a) াবল ন (Selfhelp)
অথবা 6
(b) মেন কর তৄিম শীলা অথবা সুশীল, িনেজর মাতॆভাষা িনেয় পড়ােশানা করা য কতটা জ রী তা িনেয়
সীতা অথবা মলেয়র সােথ কেথাপকথেনর মাধ েম আেলাচনা কর।
3. িন িলিখত িলর উ র ‘50’ িট শে র মেধ িলখঃ
(a) তৄিম লেরেটা কেলেজর সাং িতক স াদক অ ণ অথবা িরমা, তামার কেলেজ একিট িবতক
িতেযািগতার আেয়াজন কেরেছা। সই িতেযািগতায় িবখ াত সাংবািদক জয় গা ামীেক
িবচারেকর আসন অলংকॆত করার জন একিট আম ণ পে র খসড়া কর ।
অথবা 4
(b) অ ি সংেশাদন বা স াদনা করঃ
বৎসেরর সু রতম ঋতৄ বষাকােল গাপূজা অনুি ত হয় । বষার সুনীল আকােশ, মেঘরা ভেস
বড়ায়। মৃৎ-িশ ীরা িদন রাি বেস থেক গা ঠাকৄর বানায়। গা চতৄভৄজ। চারহােত নানা অলংকাের
অলংকॆত হেয় মিহষাসুেরর িপেঠ চেপ, িসংহেক বধ করার শ িট আমােদর কােছ এক িবেশষ প
ধারণ কেরন। দবীর ডানিদেক ধেনর দবী ল ী ও দবেসনাপিত গেনশ এবং বাম িদেক িবদ ার
দবী সর তী ও িসি দাতা কাি েকয় দবীর সােথই পুিজত হন। কাি েকয়র পােশ নবপি কা বা
কলােবৗ দ ায়মান। ধু ধম য় ে নয় মানিবক স েকর সহজ আ িরকতার েশ এ উৎসবিট
অনন ।
Page 36
3 NB/XII/BNG/1
িবভাগ - ‘গ’ ( ব াকরণ ও অনুবাদ)
4. ি সমাস কােক বেল ? উদাহরণ দাও । 2
5. ব াসবাক সহ সমােসর নাম লখঃ 3x1=3
(i) আজানু (ii) মাবাবা (iii) মনমািঝ
6. অথালংকার কােক বেল ? 2
7. উদাহরণ সহ সং া লখঃ- 1x3=3
(i ) উপমা
অথবা
(ii) ষ
8. িন িলিখত িবিশ াথক পদ িলর ারা বাক রচনা করঃ 2x1=2
(i) তােসর ঘর (ii) গাবর গেনশ
9. বাংলায় অনুবাদ কর 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and located
on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted with
Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either Pungro or
Salomi.
িবভাগ ‘ঘ’ ( সািহত )
গদ াংশ
10. নীেচ দওয়া পদ িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাও ? 4x1=4
(a) িবড়ােলর মতানুসাের পেরাগকার কী
(i) পরমধম (ii) পরমপাপ
(iii) ভজােলর কাজ (iv) ঃখপূণকাজ
(b) ভচ ীর পুজা ক কেরিছল?
(i) চরণ (ii) শ ামাচরণ
(iii) হিরচরণ (iv) পেরশ
(c) ‘কিবরাজ’ বলা হয়-
(i) ডা রেক (ii) কিবেক
(iii) লখকেক (iv) গায়কেক
(d ) ‘Aesthetic Values’ বলেত কী বাঝায় ?
(i) সামািজক মূল েবাধ (ii) আধ াি ক মূল েবাধ
(iii) ন নতাি ক মূল েবাধ (iv) নিতক মূল েবাধ
11. ‘িবড়াল’ গ িট কার রচনা ? ‘িবড়াল’ গে িবড়ালিট কার িতিনিধ ? 1+1=2
িবভাগ - ‘গ’ ( ব াকরণ ও অনুবাদ)
4. ি সমাস কােক বেল ? উদাহরণ দাও । 2
5. ব াসবাক সহ সমােসর নাম লখঃ 3x1=3
(i) আজানু (ii) মাবাবা (iii) মনমািঝ
6. অথালংকার কােক বেল ? 2
7. উদাহরণ সহ সং া লখঃ- 1x3=3
(i ) উপমা
অথবা
(ii) ষ
8. িন িলিখত িবিশ াথক পদ িলর ারা বাক রচনা করঃ 2x1=2
(i) তােসর ঘর (ii) গাবর গেনশ
9. বাংলায় অনুবাদ কর 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and located
on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted with
Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either Pungro or
Salomi.
িবভাগ ‘ঘ’ ( সািহত )
গদ াংশ
10. নীেচ দওয়া পদ িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাও ? 4x1=4
(a) িবড়ােলর মতানুসাের পেরাগকার কী
(i) পরমধম (ii) পরমপাপ
(iii) ভজােলর কাজ (iv) ঃখপূণকাজ
(b) ভচ ীর পুজা ক কেরিছল?
(i) চরণ (ii) শ ামাচরণ
(iii) হিরচরণ (iv) পেরশ
(c) ‘কিবরাজ’ বলা হয়-
(i) ডা রেক (ii) কিবেক
(iii) লখকেক (iv) গায়কেক
(d ) ‘Aesthetic Values’ বলেত কী বাঝায় ?
(i) সামািজক মূল েবাধ (ii) আধ াি ক মূল েবাধ
(iii) ন নতাি ক মূল েবাধ (iv) নিতক মূল েবাধ
11. ‘িবড়াল’ গ িট কার রচনা ? ‘িবড়াল’ গে িবড়ালিট কার িতিনিধ ? 1+1=2
Page 37
4 NB/XII/BNG/1
12. কান ন িল সাবজনীন তথা িব জনীন বেল হণ করা যায় ? একজন ব াি র জীবেনর সাফেলর
চািবকািঠ কী ? 1+1=2
13. চরেণর ছেলর নাম কী ? কেনা তার জল হেয়িছল এবং কত বছেরর জন ? 2 +1=3
14.(a) ‘‘আিম যিদ নেপািলয়ান হইতাম, ওয়াটালু িজিতেত পািরতাম িক না ’’
(i) কার উি ? 1
(ii) নেপািলয়ান ক ? 1
(iii) ওয়াটালু কী ? 2
অথবা
(b) দেশর ভিবষৎ নাগিরক কারা ? নিতক মূল েবাধ কােক বেল ? (1+3=4)
15. (a) ‘‘হিরচরণ নািক ভারী তামার পছেন লেগছ”
(i) কান গে র অংশ ? 1
(ii) লখেকর নাম কী ? 1
(iii) উি িট কার ? 1
(iv) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? 1
(v) হিরচরণ ক ? 1
অথবা
(b) ‘‘আিম একবার তারেক র চললাম, িফরেত -একিদন দির হেব”
(i) কান গে র অংশ ? (1)
(ii) কার উি ? (1)
(iii) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? (1)
(iv) তারেক র কী ? (2)
পদ াংশ
16. নীেচ দওয়া পদ িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাওঃ-
(a) কিব রবী নাথ ঠাকৄর কান কােব র জন ‘‘ নােবল পুর র” পান ? 1
(i) গীতিবতান (ii) গীতা িল
(iii) গীিতমাল (iv) গীতািল
(b) ‘‘ি িপটক’’ কােদর ধম ? 1
(i) বৗ েদর (ii) মুসিলমেদর
(iii) িশখেদর (iv) পাশ েদর
17. ‘‘বাংলার মুখ আিম দিখয়ািছ’’ কিবতািট কার রচনা ? কিবর কান কাব থেক কিবতািট গৃিহত
হেয়েছ ? 1+1=2
18. পাইেয়র হাত েটা িকেসর মেতা ? তার শরীেরর সােথ কিব িকেসর তৄলনা কেরেছন ? 1+1=2
12. কান ন িল সাবজনীন তথা িব জনীন বেল হণ করা যায় ? একজন ব াি র জীবেনর সাফেলর
চািবকািঠ কী ? 1+1=2
13. চরেণর ছেলর নাম কী ? কেনা তার জল হেয়িছল এবং কত বছেরর জন ? 2 +1=3
14.(a) ‘‘আিম যিদ নেপািলয়ান হইতাম, ওয়াটালু িজিতেত পািরতাম িক না ’’
(i) কার উি ? 1
(ii) নেপািলয়ান ক ? 1
(iii) ওয়াটালু কী ? 2
অথবা
(b) দেশর ভিবষৎ নাগিরক কারা ? নিতক মূল েবাধ কােক বেল ? (1+3=4)
15. (a) ‘‘হিরচরণ নািক ভারী তামার পছেন লেগছ”
(i) কান গে র অংশ ? 1
(ii) লখেকর নাম কী ? 1
(iii) উি িট কার ? 1
(iv) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? 1
(v) হিরচরণ ক ? 1
অথবা
(b) ‘‘আিম একবার তারেক র চললাম, িফরেত -একিদন দির হেব”
(i) কান গে র অংশ ? (1)
(ii) কার উি ? (1)
(iii) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? (1)
(iv) তারেক র কী ? (2)
পদ াংশ
16. নীেচ দওয়া পদ িল থেক সিঠক উ রিট বেছ নাওঃ-
(a) কিব রবী নাথ ঠাকৄর কান কােব র জন ‘‘ নােবল পুর র” পান ? 1
(i) গীতিবতান (ii) গীতা িল
(iii) গীিতমাল (iv) গীতািল
(b) ‘‘ি িপটক’’ কােদর ধম ? 1
(i) বৗ েদর (ii) মুসিলমেদর
(iii) িশখেদর (iv) পাশ েদর
17. ‘‘বাংলার মুখ আিম দিখয়ািছ’’ কিবতািট কার রচনা ? কিবর কান কাব থেক কিবতািট গৃিহত
হেয়েছ ? 1+1=2
18. পাইেয়র হাত েটা িকেসর মেতা ? তার শরীেরর সােথ কিব িকেসর তৄলনা কেরেছন ? 1+1=2
Page 38
5 NB/XII/BNG/1
19.(a) ‘‘িবধাতার েরােষ িভে র াের বেস ভাগ কের খেত হেব সকেলর সােথ অ পান’’
(i) কান কিবতার অংশ ? 1
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? 1
(iii) ‘‘িবধাতার েরােষ’’ বলেত কিব কী বুিঝেয়েছন ? 2
অথবা
(b ) ‘‘ ব লাও একিদন গাভৄেডর জেল ভলা িনেয়’’
(i) কিবতািটর নাম কী ? (1)
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? (1)
(iii) ব লা ক ? (1)
(iv) স কাথায় যাি েলা ? (1)
20.(a) ‘‘বু গয়া এ, জ জােলম এ, মদীনা কাবা ভবন’’
(i) জ জােলম কাথায় অবি ত ? 1
(ii) এটা কােদর পিব ান ? 1
(iii) মদীনা কী ? 1
(iv) বু ক ? 1
(v) কাবা ভবন কী ? 1
অথবা
(b ) ‘‘আ ড়ােত তার বাঁেশর লািঠ অেনক মােন মানী খলার দেল তাের িনেয়ই সবার টানাটািন’’
(i) কান কিবতার অংশ ? (1)
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? (1)
(iii) আ ড়া বলেত কী বাঝ ? (1)
(iv) কােক িনেয় সবাই টানাটািন কের ? কেনা ? (2)
কথাসািহত
21. অভয়ার বািড় কাথায় িছল ? তার স ীিটর নাম কী িছল ? 1+1=2
22. ‘‘আপিন িক বমার মেয় িবেয় কেরেছন নািক ? কার উি ? কােক করা হেয়েছ ? বমার বতমান নাম
কী ? 1+1+1=3
23.(a) ‘‘িতিন এতকাল আপনার কােনা খাঁজ নন না, িক জােনন?’’
(i) কার উি ? 1
(ii) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? 1
(iii) ক, কার খাজ নন না ? 1
(iv) ব া কেনা এ প উি কেরেছন ? 2
অথবা
(b ) রাজল ীর চির িচ ণ কর । (5)
**********************
19.(a) ‘‘িবধাতার েরােষ িভে র াের বেস ভাগ কের খেত হেব সকেলর সােথ অ পান’’
(i) কান কিবতার অংশ ? 1
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? 1
(iii) ‘‘িবধাতার েরােষ’’ বলেত কিব কী বুিঝেয়েছন ? 2
অথবা
(b ) ‘‘ ব লাও একিদন গাভৄেডর জেল ভলা িনেয়’’
(i) কিবতািটর নাম কী ? (1)
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? (1)
(iii) ব লা ক ? (1)
(iv) স কাথায় যাি েলা ? (1)
20.(a) ‘‘বু গয়া এ, জ জােলম এ, মদীনা কাবা ভবন’’
(i) জ জােলম কাথায় অবি ত ? 1
(ii) এটা কােদর পিব ান ? 1
(iii) মদীনা কী ? 1
(iv) বু ক ? 1
(v) কাবা ভবন কী ? 1
অথবা
(b ) ‘‘আ ড়ােত তার বাঁেশর লািঠ অেনক মােন মানী খলার দেল তাের িনেয়ই সবার টানাটািন’’
(i) কান কিবতার অংশ ? (1)
(ii) কিবর নাম কী ? (1)
(iii) আ ড়া বলেত কী বাঝ ? (1)
(iv) কােক িনেয় সবাই টানাটািন কের ? কেনা ? (2)
কথাসািহত
21. অভয়ার বািড় কাথায় িছল ? তার স ীিটর নাম কী িছল ? 1+1=2
22. ‘‘আপিন িক বমার মেয় িবেয় কেরেছন নািক ? কার উি ? কােক করা হেয়েছ ? বমার বতমান নাম
কী ? 1+1+1=3
23.(a) ‘‘িতিন এতকাল আপনার কােনা খাঁজ নন না, িক জােনন?’’
(i) কার উি ? 1
(ii) কােক করা হেয়েছ ? 1
(iii) ক, কার খাজ নন না ? 1
(iv) ব া কেনা এ প উি কেরেছন ? 2
অথবা
(b ) রাজল ীর চির িচ ণ কর । (5)
**********************
Page 39
Total number of printed pages:7 NB/XII/TNY/1
2024
TENYIDIE
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedzeu phrülie di ketsokebako kelashülie:
1. Themia zhorüli kedikecü puotei lie morosuoya. Zhorüli ha kimhie di sedetaya
ga? iro nhicumia yopuoe kitiekinu puo krü zho kedipuo mhie shikecü dorielie di
memie sierya. Puo krünie-e unie zho mene, menuo mu huoniehuo khrie huoniehuo
thezie di lhouya liro u nuonuoko rei unie meho di unie zho süko welieya. Mia
krünuo huo thenu-thepfu rei rünuo mene ketsü mo, u nuonuo khiera nu
kegeikemeü rürei mo, mia kepese dieko pu, mia rhu kemo dieko pu, iya ro u
nuonuo rei puo krü dorielie di rünuo mo, mia mhorhu chü mo, kethesü,
kerüzhakecü dieko rei pu rürei mo idi phichü siertuo.
2. Nhicumia yopuopuocüe puo tha hau nunu sede di süsieu va leshüki nu volie di
puo kromia ze kepekro sede, morei puoe vo kehoukiko nu puo demiako ze
kepezalie di kepethamiako die rünyü sede ikevoko geinu zhorüli kerüdi ngu sede
parya. Nhicumia ha kezhowe rüü seya mu süla hai di nhicumia yopuoe puo kromia
zho kevi kro puo rei liepie puo vie chülie vi morei kesuo kro puo rei dorielie
mhaitalie kevi ba. Mha kehoupuorei rüdilie kenjüte icü die tuo mo, derei mha
kerüdi hakoha meho menuo vo ro puotei lie di rüdi vorya.
3. Tsiu rüdikecü geinu mha huo nu vilie shierei menuo mo ro mha kekrei huo nu
thachü morei tso mo voketa rei nguya. Thakie puo, tsie u nuonuoko leshümhasi
kho sese phrete, derei mia mhakesimia pucü, “Leshümhasi ha mia puo mhasikelie
geinu phrü vo di themia phou thenieu parlie kemochie zhorüli khrukhre mu puo
kru tseikecü parlie reya shie” isi. Ketho zo, leshümhasi ngulieketa la mha pete
siliete imo huora meho vocü huomia leshümhasi kho selieketa huo u thuo u lepie
mha petesiliete nhie iketuo rei nguya. Derei themia ha u thuo u lepie ‘sükezie si
morei vite, morokesuoko sü si tseiliete’ ituoya liro sü geinu kekrülieketuo cha rei
ba phicü ngulieya.
2024
TENYIDIE
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedzeu phrülie di ketsokebako kelashülie:
1. Themia zhorüli kedikecü puotei lie morosuoya. Zhorüli ha kimhie di sedetaya
ga? iro nhicumia yopuoe kitiekinu puo krü zho kedipuo mhie shikecü dorielie di
memie sierya. Puo krünie-e unie zho mene, menuo mu huoniehuo khrie huoniehuo
thezie di lhouya liro u nuonuoko rei unie meho di unie zho süko welieya. Mia
krünuo huo thenu-thepfu rei rünuo mene ketsü mo, u nuonuo khiera nu
kegeikemeü rürei mo, mia kepese dieko pu, mia rhu kemo dieko pu, iya ro u
nuonuo rei puo krü dorielie di rünuo mo, mia mhorhu chü mo, kethesü,
kerüzhakecü dieko rei pu rürei mo idi phichü siertuo.
2. Nhicumia yopuopuocüe puo tha hau nunu sede di süsieu va leshüki nu volie di
puo kromia ze kepekro sede, morei puoe vo kehoukiko nu puo demiako ze
kepezalie di kepethamiako die rünyü sede ikevoko geinu zhorüli kerüdi ngu sede
parya. Nhicumia ha kezhowe rüü seya mu süla hai di nhicumia yopuoe puo kromia
zho kevi kro puo rei liepie puo vie chülie vi morei kesuo kro puo rei dorielie
mhaitalie kevi ba. Mha kehoupuorei rüdilie kenjüte icü die tuo mo, derei mha
kerüdi hakoha meho menuo vo ro puotei lie di rüdi vorya.
3. Tsiu rüdikecü geinu mha huo nu vilie shierei menuo mo ro mha kekrei huo nu
thachü morei tso mo voketa rei nguya. Thakie puo, tsie u nuonuoko leshümhasi
kho sese phrete, derei mia mhakesimia pucü, “Leshümhasi ha mia puo mhasikelie
geinu phrü vo di themia phou thenieu parlie kemochie zhorüli khrukhre mu puo
kru tseikecü parlie reya shie” isi. Ketho zo, leshümhasi ngulieketa la mha pete
siliete imo huora meho vocü huomia leshümhasi kho selieketa huo u thuo u lepie
mha petesiliete nhie iketuo rei nguya. Derei themia ha u thuo u lepie ‘sükezie si
morei vite, morokesuoko sü si tseiliete’ ituoya liro sü geinu kekrülieketuo cha rei
ba phicü ngulieya.
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4. U nhicu teiki mha kengu mu tsie mha kenguko kekreithorte, rüdithorte. U
kelhou nu khunhie mu khunhie mhiemhie zo di puotei kekra vota tse mha rüdi
penyaketa mha kekra ngu. Thakie puo, thiedzü rünako nu cavüki seya mo, themia
vo koureko nunu cavüya. Phichümiako huo vo keduo di cavü baya. Mha hakoha
nu tsie rhiu leshü ro supuonie süsü pelelietuo di mu! Mha hakoha rüli se mia
puopuokecüu geinu rüdi par bacü ngulie ba.
5. Rüdi pevikelie dze nyi phi, derei huora le mo zo di rüdi kekrü votazhücü rei nyi
batalie vi. Themia kelhou nu kelhouzho mu kelhoubo haha meyiethor zo. Mia
kekramia thiedzü vor u ze lhoukecü tei ki u Tenyimia krünuoko ha tshe phi zo.
Leshüdako nu u Tenyimia kevi dze kepukeshüko ro unhyüca rurakecü tei rei baya.
Derei tsie meho menuo lashü tse mha kekra nu u krünuoko zhorüliko ha thedze
kepuu mothoü si mu ngu mo votazhie. We kijüu ze takezhü hanu ha huomia ta
rükriethorzhücü rei ngu be! U Tenyimia krünuoko mu Mezhamia iro u pfheneiko
rei, u tsüthoko rei kekrei. Mia u kengu geinu si kekrei mhalieya. Tsie sü mha süko
jü vote, derei süpfü mia puo mia puo u melekeliepfü mo. Uko thie le morokesuo
puo tse, u pfhenei rei kediwalie vi, u tsütho, u rütso pete kediwalie vi. Mha süko
pete rüdita shierei u DIE ro rüditaya mo. Süu rüdikelie vie mo, u die ha u kelhou
zasiko donu kemeyietho puo. Se menuolie morosuo kekreilamonyü süu puo thuo
puo ba nu ba sei bayakezha vie puocü la.
Ketsokecü:
(a) Zhorüli ha kirapuo nu sedetaya ga? 1
(i) Kitiekinu (ii) Leshüki
(iii) Kehouki (iv) U kromia
(b) Cavüki sü kedipuo ga? 1
(i) cakro kepenuoki keba ki (ii) kepeza di mhacükecü chü
(iii) seikra krieyakezhau (iv) thebuoki
(c) Themia _____ parlie kemochie zhorüli khrukhre mu puo kru
tseikecüu parlie reya. 1
(i) leshümhasi kho tsei (ii) rüdi
(iii) phichü (iv) phou thenieu
(d) U kelhou zasiko donu kemeyietho-u kedipuo ga? 1
(i) zhorüli (ii) die
(iii) kelhouzho (iv) kelhoubo
(e) Thedze hau nu dieca hanie ze kemhie kebanie pfhüshülie. 1+1=2
(i) Therhu khakeshü (paragragh 1)
(ii) Huohuo zho dorieliekecü (paragraph 2)
4. U nhicu teiki mha kengu mu tsie mha kenguko kekreithorte, rüdithorte. U
kelhou nu khunhie mu khunhie mhiemhie zo di puotei kekra vota tse mha rüdi
penyaketa mha kekra ngu. Thakie puo, thiedzü rünako nu cavüki seya mo, themia
vo koureko nunu cavüya. Phichümiako huo vo keduo di cavü baya. Mha hakoha
nu tsie rhiu leshü ro supuonie süsü pelelietuo di mu! Mha hakoha rüli se mia
puopuokecüu geinu rüdi par bacü ngulie ba.
5. Rüdi pevikelie dze nyi phi, derei huora le mo zo di rüdi kekrü votazhücü rei nyi
batalie vi. Themia kelhou nu kelhouzho mu kelhoubo haha meyiethor zo. Mia
kekramia thiedzü vor u ze lhoukecü tei ki u Tenyimia krünuoko ha tshe phi zo.
Leshüdako nu u Tenyimia kevi dze kepukeshüko ro unhyüca rurakecü tei rei baya.
Derei tsie meho menuo lashü tse mha kekra nu u krünuoko zhorüliko ha thedze
kepuu mothoü si mu ngu mo votazhie. We kijüu ze takezhü hanu ha huomia ta
rükriethorzhücü rei ngu be! U Tenyimia krünuoko mu Mezhamia iro u pfheneiko
rei, u tsüthoko rei kekrei. Mia u kengu geinu si kekrei mhalieya. Tsie sü mha süko
jü vote, derei süpfü mia puo mia puo u melekeliepfü mo. Uko thie le morokesuo
puo tse, u pfhenei rei kediwalie vi, u tsütho, u rütso pete kediwalie vi. Mha süko
pete rüdita shierei u DIE ro rüditaya mo. Süu rüdikelie vie mo, u die ha u kelhou
zasiko donu kemeyietho puo. Se menuolie morosuo kekreilamonyü süu puo thuo
puo ba nu ba sei bayakezha vie puocü la.
Ketsokecü:
(a) Zhorüli ha kirapuo nu sedetaya ga? 1
(i) Kitiekinu (ii) Leshüki
(iii) Kehouki (iv) U kromia
(b) Cavüki sü kedipuo ga? 1
(i) cakro kepenuoki keba ki (ii) kepeza di mhacükecü chü
(iii) seikra krieyakezhau (iv) thebuoki
(c) Themia _____ parlie kemochie zhorüli khrukhre mu puo kru
tseikecüu parlie reya. 1
(i) leshümhasi kho tsei (ii) rüdi
(iii) phichü (iv) phou thenieu
(d) U kelhou zasiko donu kemeyietho-u kedipuo ga? 1
(i) zhorüli (ii) die
(iii) kelhouzho (iv) kelhoubo
(e) Thedze hau nu dieca hanie ze kemhie kebanie pfhüshülie. 1+1=2
(i) Therhu khakeshü (paragragh 1)
(ii) Huohuo zho dorieliekecü (paragraph 2)
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(f) Kimhie di nhicunuomia yopuo gei zhorüli rüdi sede parkecü
ngulieya ga? 2
(g) Themia kelhou nu mhaca kenie meyiethor üdi pukeshü nie thushülie. 1
(h) Kiüdi u die se menuo se morosuo ga? 1
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 150-200 mese nunu thushülie:
a. ‘Mediemerhiekecü puo kevi’ (Importance of Politeness) icü cayie hau
geinu ese thushülie.
Moro 6
b. Noe khadou kerekenie (XII) palie ro chazou vo leshüphrü nyü ba, n
mharhü mu n mengu süu la n puo ze kerüchükecü rüchüdieu thushülie.
3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie thushülie:
a. Noe n leshüki nu krütau chü ba. Siro n leshüki nu ‘U krünuo teisozha’
pebaketuo la kethezhokecü phreikie leshü thupie mia krünuo tsükecü
phreikie puo thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Diecha khakeshüko se di khune kemhiekecü (copy editing) chüshülie:
Ütsali nu u tenyi pfhephra-u tsali kechü ha tsie teiu nu khunhiekhunhie ki
puo cha meya parzhie. Siro thepfhe chü di u va pfhü tsü kecü rei chülie vi
bate. Thepfhe kechü miae u mhaphruo hako la Kepenuopfü tshe mu thezie
ba. Ütsali ha puoü tsa-u shi morei rünyü u nei phreya sütuoi u die Tenyidie
nu shierei, kekradie morei thetephrie die nunu shierei rünyü u noumvü se
baya. Tsie teiki thepfhe kechümia kekra u Tenyidie nunu rei tsali tsa zo di
chükecü kra phizhie derei miakra u die pfhephra nu par toulie mo di u
Tenyidie diecau rei pie kekramia pfhephra ü nu shülie di chü bakecü kekra
si bate. Süla we mia die nu tsali chü ro mia die pfhephra tou nu chülie mu u
die nu chü ro u die tou nu chülie morosuo u die pfhephra keziviko pedzüwa
mo di pekru pie uvie chü khe.
SECTION – C (Diezho)
4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie: 12x1=12
a. Tezie nu nhasi kekra ba. (‘Tezie’ hau dieza zatse kiu nu ba ga?)
b. ‘Meyie’ hau pie tsüle nu thushülie.
c. Nuo hako suomia nuonuo ga? (Pekiekeshü zasou-u kiu ga?)
d. Khriesako bu kerügu-u teliete. (Kerüdi dietho-u rhieshülie)
e. _________ mithu bu a ga pete cüliete. (Ungo pfhephra puokru tou-u
thushülie)
f. Nhasiko __________ vi mote. (Ketsakekra dietso-u pie khieshülie)
g. A Puo mereiki nu vote. (Rhiepie kebau diezho kikru kiu nu ba ga?)
(f) Kimhie di nhicunuomia yopuo gei zhorüli rüdi sede parkecü
ngulieya ga? 2
(g) Themia kelhou nu mhaca kenie meyiethor üdi pukeshü nie thushülie. 1
(h) Kiüdi u die se menuo se morosuo ga? 1
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 150-200 mese nunu thushülie:
a. ‘Mediemerhiekecü puo kevi’ (Importance of Politeness) icü cayie hau
geinu ese thushülie.
Moro 6
b. Noe khadou kerekenie (XII) palie ro chazou vo leshüphrü nyü ba, n
mharhü mu n mengu süu la n puo ze kerüchükecü rüchüdieu thushülie.
3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie thushülie:
a. Noe n leshüki nu krütau chü ba. Siro n leshüki nu ‘U krünuo teisozha’
pebaketuo la kethezhokecü phreikie leshü thupie mia krünuo tsükecü
phreikie puo thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Diecha khakeshüko se di khune kemhiekecü (copy editing) chüshülie:
Ütsali nu u tenyi pfhephra-u tsali kechü ha tsie teiu nu khunhiekhunhie ki
puo cha meya parzhie. Siro thepfhe chü di u va pfhü tsü kecü rei chülie vi
bate. Thepfhe kechü miae u mhaphruo hako la Kepenuopfü tshe mu thezie
ba. Ütsali ha puoü tsa-u shi morei rünyü u nei phreya sütuoi u die Tenyidie
nu shierei, kekradie morei thetephrie die nunu shierei rünyü u noumvü se
baya. Tsie teiki thepfhe kechümia kekra u Tenyidie nunu rei tsali tsa zo di
chükecü kra phizhie derei miakra u die pfhephra nu par toulie mo di u
Tenyidie diecau rei pie kekramia pfhephra ü nu shülie di chü bakecü kekra
si bate. Süla we mia die nu tsali chü ro mia die pfhephra tou nu chülie mu u
die nu chü ro u die tou nu chülie morosuo u die pfhephra keziviko pedzüwa
mo di pekru pie uvie chü khe.
SECTION – C (Diezho)
4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie: 12x1=12
a. Tezie nu nhasi kekra ba. (‘Tezie’ hau dieza zatse kiu nu ba ga?)
b. ‘Meyie’ hau pie tsüle nu thushülie.
c. Nuo hako suomia nuonuo ga? (Pekiekeshü zasou-u kiu ga?)
d. Khriesako bu kerügu-u teliete. (Kerüdi dietho-u rhieshülie)
e. _________ mithu bu a ga pete cüliete. (Ungo pfhephra puokru tou-u
thushülie)
f. Nhasiko __________ vi mote. (Ketsakekra dietso-u pie khieshülie)
g. A Puo mereiki nu vote. (Rhiepie kebau diezho kikru kiu nu ba ga?)
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h. Puoe kepekhre dzeko pete pie Neinuo ki pushü. (‘Neinuo’ dieca hau
diezanyie kiu nu ba ga?)
i. Uko uko thuo mhanyako pfhü kengulie. (Diechau nu kepenou zasou-u
thashülie)
j. Kepenuopfüe kehourapuorei ba zo. (Diechau nu thechü diebau thashülie)
k. Puo mhakesipfü puo. (‘Mhakesipfü’ dieca hau pie pfunu zarhe nu
thushülie)
l. Diekhe puo pie diecha thushülie.
5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze
6. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
a. Niakibamia mu Virüzouma rüna hanie donu zha hade chatuo kepecie -
(i) Khunhie tuo (ii) Zha kenie
(iii) Zha se (iv) Zha dia
b. Sibeilhou-e Kedisenyü se dze se vor supuo ki pu ga?
(i) Krunyü (ii) Vitso
(iii) Khosa mu Lhouvozoü (iv) Khonyü mu Shürheinyü-ü
c. Miapuoe u kelhouzha __________ pralie kemochie phichümia pieu pfülie
sü mo.
(i) 35 (ii) 45
(iii) 55 (iv) 65
d. Rüna puo khrietho rüna pesotuo ükebau -
(i) Sotho (ii) Sophre
(iii) Sopu (iv) Sozhü
7. Virünoumo krüe puo bu thenu kimhiecü lie nyüya ga? 2
8. U tsiepfumia kedipuo la huo tsü huo vo zhie vor ga? 2
9. U seyie liethomiae kedipuo pu di u seyie zhapu chü tuoya üdi Vitso-e pu ga? 3
10. a. Pfüpekruo kro-u nu rüpfhünuoko rüli kikemhie ga? Ukoe kimhie di
h. Puoe kepekhre dzeko pete pie Neinuo ki pushü. (‘Neinuo’ dieca hau
diezanyie kiu nu ba ga?)
i. Uko uko thuo mhanyako pfhü kengulie. (Diechau nu kepenou zasou-u
thashülie)
j. Kepenuopfüe kehourapuorei ba zo. (Diechau nu thechü diebau thashülie)
k. Puo mhakesipfü puo. (‘Mhakesipfü’ dieca hau pie pfunu zarhe nu
thushülie)
l. Diekhe puo pie diecha thushülie.
5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze
6. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
a. Niakibamia mu Virüzouma rüna hanie donu zha hade chatuo kepecie -
(i) Khunhie tuo (ii) Zha kenie
(iii) Zha se (iv) Zha dia
b. Sibeilhou-e Kedisenyü se dze se vor supuo ki pu ga?
(i) Krunyü (ii) Vitso
(iii) Khosa mu Lhouvozoü (iv) Khonyü mu Shürheinyü-ü
c. Miapuoe u kelhouzha __________ pralie kemochie phichümia pieu pfülie
sü mo.
(i) 35 (ii) 45
(iii) 55 (iv) 65
d. Rüna puo khrietho rüna pesotuo ükebau -
(i) Sotho (ii) Sophre
(iii) Sopu (iv) Sozhü
7. Virünoumo krüe puo bu thenu kimhiecü lie nyüya ga? 2
8. U tsiepfumia kedipuo la huo tsü huo vo zhie vor ga? 2
9. U seyie liethomiae kedipuo pu di u seyie zhapu chü tuoya üdi Vitso-e pu ga? 3
10. a. Pfüpekruo kro-u nu rüpfhünuoko rüli kikemhie ga? Ukoe kimhie di
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Kedisenyü kerheiro liewa ga?
Moro 2+2=4
b. Kedipuo kele geinu u tsiepfumiae Vitho mu Sonyi peba vor ga? Rüsie
hakemhie cüko nu sopu-u mu sotho-u rüna khriethokoe kimhie di
kekhruohishüya ga?
11. a. Nko thie we mia se kere tuoe, süla unie penuo vo di puo zeu biewa ro
ki-a?
i) Die hau supuo pu ga? Puotou-u kedashülie: 1
a) Phichüu b) Nhicuu
c) Nuotsuo-u d) Puo puo
ii) ‘Puo zeu’ sü supuo ga? 1
iii) Phichüu kedipuo se puo siezenie tarhoshü ga? 2
iv) Kedipuo la ukoe puo zeu biewaketa leta ga? 1
Moro
b. ‘Peyu’ morei ‘peyumhasi’ icüu ha puoca sou se mu themia kelhou rüli
kekra puo gei ba?
i) Peyumia puo gei kelhou rüli kevi kimhiecü kropuo ba morosuoya
ga? (2)
ii) Peyumhasi puoca kedipuo ga? (2)
iii) Kedipuo la krütamiae kethoca morei ketouca chülie motaya ga? (1)
a) Krüta thachü la b) Peyumhasi thachü la
c) Kedieze kemo la d) Dietho kemo la
Geizo
12. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 2x1=2
a. ‘Kenei Kekra Ki Ketho Yopuo Vi’ geizo diebo-u kiu nu chie se par ga?
(i) Mhasi thau (ii) Zhorüli thau
(iii) Kelhou thau (iv) Kinyi thau
b. ‘Nhamenyiepounuo’ geizo nu khriesarüümia bu suomia nei chükelie
kemengu pu ga?
(i) Kepenuopfü (ii) Themia
(iii) Thedzükezeiko (iv) Kepenuopfü zhapumiako
13. ‘A Mhi Pie Kengu’ geizo-u nu ükezopfüe thiedzü phichümiako razou kehouko
nu vo kedipuo chüya mu rünau la kedipuo üsi ga? 2
14. ‘Nhamenyiepounuo’ geizo-u nu ükezopfü Kekhrievoü-e kedipuo kemengu
geinu geizo hau zoshü üsi ga? 2
Kedisenyü kerheiro liewa ga?
Moro 2+2=4
b. Kedipuo kele geinu u tsiepfumiae Vitho mu Sonyi peba vor ga? Rüsie
hakemhie cüko nu sopu-u mu sotho-u rüna khriethokoe kimhie di
kekhruohishüya ga?
11. a. Nko thie we mia se kere tuoe, süla unie penuo vo di puo zeu biewa ro
ki-a?
i) Die hau supuo pu ga? Puotou-u kedashülie: 1
a) Phichüu b) Nhicuu
c) Nuotsuo-u d) Puo puo
ii) ‘Puo zeu’ sü supuo ga? 1
iii) Phichüu kedipuo se puo siezenie tarhoshü ga? 2
iv) Kedipuo la ukoe puo zeu biewaketa leta ga? 1
Moro
b. ‘Peyu’ morei ‘peyumhasi’ icüu ha puoca sou se mu themia kelhou rüli
kekra puo gei ba?
i) Peyumia puo gei kelhou rüli kevi kimhiecü kropuo ba morosuoya
ga? (2)
ii) Peyumhasi puoca kedipuo ga? (2)
iii) Kedipuo la krütamiae kethoca morei ketouca chülie motaya ga? (1)
a) Krüta thachü la b) Peyumhasi thachü la
c) Kedieze kemo la d) Dietho kemo la
Geizo
12. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 2x1=2
a. ‘Kenei Kekra Ki Ketho Yopuo Vi’ geizo diebo-u kiu nu chie se par ga?
(i) Mhasi thau (ii) Zhorüli thau
(iii) Kelhou thau (iv) Kinyi thau
b. ‘Nhamenyiepounuo’ geizo nu khriesarüümia bu suomia nei chükelie
kemengu pu ga?
(i) Kepenuopfü (ii) Themia
(iii) Thedzükezeiko (iv) Kepenuopfü zhapumiako
13. ‘A Mhi Pie Kengu’ geizo-u nu ükezopfüe thiedzü phichümiako razou kehouko
nu vo kedipuo chüya mu rünau la kedipuo üsi ga? 2
14. ‘Nhamenyiepounuo’ geizo-u nu ükezopfü Kekhrievoü-e kedipuo kemengu
geinu geizo hau zoshü üsi ga? 2
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15. Geizo diecha hanie puo (1) kedapie puoca vatshashülie: 1x4=4
a. Kitiekinu mhatho re ba rei
Kiliethoko nie rhierhu pephu
Nie prünuo dze medo mha rüguo
Tuoya derei nie shiephruo jülie.
b. Zha phi mo rei kethonuo yopuo,
Mhara zhü di ngulie ümha ro,
Ketho süyo theze pielie di,
Süyo mezo menuo zo vo tse,
Vo puobo nu mha kevi pete,
Ngulietuo shie themia pete la.
16. a. Kijü hanu lhou kevi zeru
Kepenuopfü chadiu vacie,
Kelhou chakhie merhie tuo dinu,
Zhara vo rei rünoumotie ru.
U tsanuoko mhasimhale se,
Kelhou the chü nie chathalieluo.
i) Geizo hau nu ükezomiae thie krütamiako gei puo kemengu-u
kedipuo üsi ga? 2
ii) Kelhou kimhiecü puoe thenou rüülie kelho pu ga? 2
iii) Diecha hako nu u bu kimhie di lhoulie morokesuo pushü ga? 1
Moro
b. Nie pa nie zü tuoketa pete,
Kie kengu ze Teigei kedi nu,
Thehoutheba kevi kese la,
Zo balie di hie ketsur nhie
Hie zelieluo, hie KEKHRIETHOKO.
i) Geizo-u nu kipukoe u se sie rei kikemhie tuo thenyüsie üdi
ükezopfüe pu ga? (2)
ii) ‘Thehoutheba’ sü kedipuo ga? (2)
iii) Ükezopfüe puo mengu-u kicüpuo phrashü ga? (1)
Noudo Dze
17. Phichümiako u mhidzü pekrü mu Kepenuopfü uko kecha kelashü ru
kikemhieta üsi ga? 2
18. Dietho-o nuoko kikru kimhiecü kikru puo ga? 3
19. a. “Themia kehoupuorei puo thuo prukeshüu retuo.”Diecha hau
medzi di Kekuolieü kikru dze thushülie. 5
15. Geizo diecha hanie puo (1) kedapie puoca vatshashülie: 1x4=4
a. Kitiekinu mhatho re ba rei
Kiliethoko nie rhierhu pephu
Nie prünuo dze medo mha rüguo
Tuoya derei nie shiephruo jülie.
b. Zha phi mo rei kethonuo yopuo,
Mhara zhü di ngulie ümha ro,
Ketho süyo theze pielie di,
Süyo mezo menuo zo vo tse,
Vo puobo nu mha kevi pete,
Ngulietuo shie themia pete la.
16. a. Kijü hanu lhou kevi zeru
Kepenuopfü chadiu vacie,
Kelhou chakhie merhie tuo dinu,
Zhara vo rei rünoumotie ru.
U tsanuoko mhasimhale se,
Kelhou the chü nie chathalieluo.
i) Geizo hau nu ükezomiae thie krütamiako gei puo kemengu-u
kedipuo üsi ga? 2
ii) Kelhou kimhiecü puoe thenou rüülie kelho pu ga? 2
iii) Diecha hako nu u bu kimhie di lhoulie morokesuo pushü ga? 1
Moro
b. Nie pa nie zü tuoketa pete,
Kie kengu ze Teigei kedi nu,
Thehoutheba kevi kese la,
Zo balie di hie ketsur nhie
Hie zelieluo, hie KEKHRIETHOKO.
i) Geizo-u nu kipukoe u se sie rei kikemhie tuo thenyüsie üdi
ükezopfüe pu ga? (2)
ii) ‘Thehoutheba’ sü kedipuo ga? (2)
iii) Ükezopfüe puo mengu-u kicüpuo phrashü ga? (1)
Noudo Dze
17. Phichümiako u mhidzü pekrü mu Kepenuopfü uko kecha kelashü ru
kikemhieta üsi ga? 2
18. Dietho-o nuoko kikru kimhiecü kikru puo ga? 3
19. a. “Themia kehoupuorei puo thuo prukeshüu retuo.”Diecha hau
medzi di Kekuolieü kikru dze thushülie. 5
Page 45
[7] NB/XII/TNY/1
Moro
b. Mia thuo lielie rei morei pu zotuo, avu kelhou geinu zasi meyiemeluocü
thashüte, süla avu kemekrieta di mia huo bu rei avu mhie tuocüsie
si zo mu!
i) ‘Avu’ icüu sü suomia pu ba ga? (1)
ii) Unie-e kehou liethomia la kemichie kicüpuo ba ücü zhapu chüshü
ga? (2)
iii) Unie-e mia krünuoko bu kimhie di u nuonuo petha morokesuo
pushü ga? (2)
***************************
Moro
b. Mia thuo lielie rei morei pu zotuo, avu kelhou geinu zasi meyiemeluocü
thashüte, süla avu kemekrieta di mia huo bu rei avu mhie tuocüsie
si zo mu!
i) ‘Avu’ icüu sü suomia pu ba ga? (1)
ii) Unie-e kehou liethomia la kemichie kicüpuo ba ücü zhapu chüshü
ga? (2)
iii) Unie-e mia krünuoko bu kimhie di u nuonuo petha morokesuo
pushü ga? (2)
***************************
Page 46
Total number of printed pages:7 NB/XII/SMI/1
2024
SUMI (SÜTSAH)
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPHA – A (Akipphi)
1. Hi aqhou yehpuakeu akivishi phino iniji akeu khochile lo:
1. Achine eno apine kümtsü shikhawo avikuqo pine ye kitemi shiuve kethüno
lakhi kini no shilu che. Pine, aphiküsa aghüzakiphe pine lo hutoi Lapuu no
kishekulu shitsü cheni.
2. Thoghiu avi qonike ishino avi sawo akikhala lo ayi tsüküba lo tsüve cheni
Avi qoniye akeu kishelo awukhu pesü no vephove tsü cheni. Ti shino avi sasü
aphu kümtsü homxa qo nani.
3. Avi qoni keghenguno ananu pepu no lashola lono ghuthu lakhi aghüle kuni,
amütasa lono ghuthu lakhi eno kuni, eno chilisa lono ghuthu lakhi aghüle kucheni.
Ti aghüle ku ake ghuloki lo avi kütsü kighi ye timi pukhu no nopesü ngono igha-
ighu avi kichiqhi no qo cheni. Avi qo süsü kükami momu shichu-shisho vekemi
kikhala lo ighi kelo azü pesü avi gilo letepuku tsü cheni. Hitoi qoa püzü avelau ye
michisü qhedu lo tsüpukuve cheni.
4. Avelau no Lapuu no angu pesü avi jibolo qhupheve tsüno heqhi pithive
cheni. Tishino akhachebo ashomhi aji külabohu lakhi eno ashileqhi 5 no agho
lakhi ashileqhi 6 no agho lakhi ishi ghono amutolo süno pa kilo puwove cheni.
Qokeu vishi ye amipemi ye chu chemo, tilikhi kumono aji ghi sho chemo.
5. Avi shi ye ghepesü aghami kije ve cheni Aghüle kukelo ishi picheni. O
yamapho, o sülipho, o yamapho, o yama sale, o yama yale ipi picheni.
6. Hitoi shi ighi ighu avi kichiqhi no avi qocheni. Atüghümi O yama sale, ipi
aye athiumino O yama yale, ipi kicheghi avi qocheni. Avi qokelo khuuno
veqhiveni keno axüshu chemo ipi cheni. Tighenguno avi kuqomi ye kutokupui
2024
SUMI (SÜTSAH)
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPHA – A (Akipphi)
1. Hi aqhou yehpuakeu akivishi phino iniji akeu khochile lo:
1. Achine eno apine kümtsü shikhawo avikuqo pine ye kitemi shiuve kethüno
lakhi kini no shilu che. Pine, aphiküsa aghüzakiphe pine lo hutoi Lapuu no
kishekulu shitsü cheni.
2. Thoghiu avi qonike ishino avi sawo akikhala lo ayi tsüküba lo tsüve cheni
Avi qoniye akeu kishelo awukhu pesü no vephove tsü cheni. Ti shino avi sasü
aphu kümtsü homxa qo nani.
3. Avi qoni keghenguno ananu pepu no lashola lono ghuthu lakhi aghüle kuni,
amütasa lono ghuthu lakhi eno kuni, eno chilisa lono ghuthu lakhi aghüle kucheni.
Ti aghüle ku ake ghuloki lo avi kütsü kighi ye timi pukhu no nopesü ngono igha-
ighu avi kichiqhi no qo cheni. Avi qo süsü kükami momu shichu-shisho vekemi
kikhala lo ighi kelo azü pesü avi gilo letepuku tsü cheni. Hitoi qoa püzü avelau ye
michisü qhedu lo tsüpukuve cheni.
4. Avelau no Lapuu no angu pesü avi jibolo qhupheve tsüno heqhi pithive
cheni. Tishino akhachebo ashomhi aji külabohu lakhi eno ashileqhi 5 no agho
lakhi ashileqhi 6 no agho lakhi ishi ghono amutolo süno pa kilo puwove cheni.
Qokeu vishi ye amipemi ye chu chemo, tilikhi kumono aji ghi sho chemo.
5. Avi shi ye ghepesü aghami kije ve cheni Aghüle kukelo ishi picheni. O
yamapho, o sülipho, o yamapho, o yama sale, o yama yale ipi picheni.
6. Hitoi shi ighi ighu avi kichiqhi no avi qocheni. Atüghümi O yama sale, ipi
aye athiumino O yama yale, ipi kicheghi avi qocheni. Avi qokelo khuuno
veqhiveni keno axüshu chemo ipi cheni. Tighenguno avi kuqomi ye kutokupui
Page 47
[2] NB/XII/AEN/1
alache cheni. Ananu pepu veno avi qo cheni. Shitsami eno thaikeqo likhino avi
qocheni.
(a) Kuu ghuloki lono apine hipau shi cheni kea? 1
(i) Achine shimo eno lhothemi qono shicheni
(ii) Achine apine kümtsü shikhawo avi kuqo pine ye kitemi shiuve
kethiuno shi cheni
(iii) Khukhumu shinishi ke lono avikuqo pine shi cheni
(iv) Apu-aza kümütsü no apine hipau shilu cheni
(b) Avi qonikelo kuu pesü kuu lo vepuku paghi cheni kea? 1
(i) Atu pesu avi kishe vepho tsü cheni
(ii) Asü pesü avi kütsü hepho tsü cheni
(iii) Awuku pesu avi qoniye akeu kishe lo vephove tsü cheni
(iv) Aphinhe pesu avi kütsü kha tsü cheni
(c) Avi qoni ke ghenguno ananu pepuveno ghuthu khijehi aghüle kucheni
kea? 1
(i) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 6 aghüle ku cheni
(ii) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 2 aghule ku cheni
(iii) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu lakhi aghüle ku cheni
(iv) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 3 aghüle ku cheni
(d) Aghüle ku ake lo apukhu ye kuu nepe ngo cheni kea? 1
(i) Aghüle ku ake lo apukhu ye avi kütsü kighi nepe ngono
igha cheni
(ii) Apukhuye atuqu shou nepe no igha cheni
(iii) Apukhu ye peqhepe ngono igha cheni
(iv) Apukhu ye avi nepe igha cheni
(e) A-a kümsa lo achipiu tsa pe shepichi ve lo. 1
Avelau no Lapuu no _________ pesü avijibo lo qhupheve tsüno heghi
pithive cheni.
(f) Akütsü lo tsa achipiu kishe tsülo kuu chine kea? 1
(i) Avi kuqo chine
(ii) Amishi kuqo chine
(iii) Awo heqhi keu chine
(iv) Timi no aghüle ku keu chine
(g) Hipaqo ye kuu kea? 1+1=2
(i) Akhachebo
(ii) Ashomhi
alache cheni. Ananu pepu veno avi qo cheni. Shitsami eno thaikeqo likhino avi
qocheni.
(a) Kuu ghuloki lono apine hipau shi cheni kea? 1
(i) Achine shimo eno lhothemi qono shicheni
(ii) Achine apine kümtsü shikhawo avi kuqo pine ye kitemi shiuve
kethiuno shi cheni
(iii) Khukhumu shinishi ke lono avikuqo pine shi cheni
(iv) Apu-aza kümütsü no apine hipau shilu cheni
(b) Avi qonikelo kuu pesü kuu lo vepuku paghi cheni kea? 1
(i) Atu pesu avi kishe vepho tsü cheni
(ii) Asü pesü avi kütsü hepho tsü cheni
(iii) Awuku pesu avi qoniye akeu kishe lo vephove tsü cheni
(iv) Aphinhe pesu avi kütsü kha tsü cheni
(c) Avi qoni ke ghenguno ananu pepuveno ghuthu khijehi aghüle kucheni
kea? 1
(i) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 6 aghüle ku cheni
(ii) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 2 aghule ku cheni
(iii) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu lakhi aghüle ku cheni
(iv) Ananu pepuveno ghuthu 3 aghüle ku cheni
(d) Aghüle ku ake lo apukhu ye kuu nepe ngo cheni kea? 1
(i) Aghüle ku ake lo apukhu ye avi kütsü kighi nepe ngono
igha cheni
(ii) Apukhuye atuqu shou nepe no igha cheni
(iii) Apukhu ye peqhepe ngono igha cheni
(iv) Apukhu ye avi nepe igha cheni
(e) A-a kümsa lo achipiu tsa pe shepichi ve lo. 1
Avelau no Lapuu no _________ pesü avijibo lo qhupheve tsüno heghi
pithive cheni.
(f) Akütsü lo tsa achipiu kishe tsülo kuu chine kea? 1
(i) Avi kuqo chine
(ii) Amishi kuqo chine
(iii) Awo heqhi keu chine
(iv) Timi no aghüle ku keu chine
(g) Hipaqo ye kuu kea? 1+1=2
(i) Akhachebo
(ii) Ashomhi
Page 48
[3] NB/XII/AEN/1
(h) Akhudo 6 akeu aghüle ku igha atüghümi no kishi igha aye athiu nino
kicheghi kishi igha avi qo cheni kea? 2
KOKÜPHA – B (Akiye)
2. Lakhi likhi yelo atsathi 150-200 dolono:
a. Ghili kiye: Asübo shosü no pighi keu lo akhoto jeli yelo.
Momu 6
b. Kiphhimi akiphi kilo munu ighi kelo shikükau no iniju keu lono
aküküpütsa yelo.
3. Hiküma dolo lakhi yelo:
a. Yehkumüzü (copy editing) ghi ngomichi süno yekitheve tsü lo:
Khristou ngo Lajupu pamano shekukulo-a lakhi lo tüghaqu Ghüthisü
lughilo ilopemonike ghenguno pama thiu aghüzümi pelo philu penike
atulo atsa yesü no shosüpe qhivotsü aghüzümiqo pelo kutokupui luve
peniye yepe qhivetsü alaghi tuixau tüghaqu Ghüthisü kighiki ani hiye
akükau laghilo wuchekemi akimithemi ghüzümi pelono kungugha lo
kuwula vezuveno paliche lo kitime vepeni ye akeu lono polu lo.
Momu 4
b. Kuküsü No ye Mughapu/Mughali shino yelo. Nophu lo kiphimi küqhakulu
lo noye akiyetou kiqilono yelo. Ahuna pine kiphimiqo no aküpüghü shino
aghami sasü pini niye akeu lo aghamiqo kusü ghi
A-a, atsala, ado eno peitha kütsüu je ghi yeghi akivishi yelo.
KOKÜPHA – C (Tsayeh eno Pekikide)
4. Jeshe achipiu pe atsajo kümsa lo shepichi tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Pa ye _________ lakhi.
b. Li no aucho ________ chuvea.
c. O shiaji _______ tuchomujolo.
d. Hiye ________ kaku kea?
5. Atsajo küqü akeu shikümüzü tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Akükütsüu no pi, “Itimi kuchopu hilau ighilo”.
b. Aza ye achuqu akusho kughuthi ani.
c. Alhou pelonoghi O kümüghatsü peni.
d. Amu ngo afo küma akilo ighiva .
6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yehlo: 4x1=4
a. Achuwo nhethi
b. Agha-alu toi
c. Alu pekili
(h) Akhudo 6 akeu aghüle ku igha atüghümi no kishi igha aye athiu nino
kicheghi kishi igha avi qo cheni kea? 2
KOKÜPHA – B (Akiye)
2. Lakhi likhi yelo atsathi 150-200 dolono:
a. Ghili kiye: Asübo shosü no pighi keu lo akhoto jeli yelo.
Momu 6
b. Kiphhimi akiphi kilo munu ighi kelo shikükau no iniju keu lono
aküküpütsa yelo.
3. Hiküma dolo lakhi yelo:
a. Yehkumüzü (copy editing) ghi ngomichi süno yekitheve tsü lo:
Khristou ngo Lajupu pamano shekukulo-a lakhi lo tüghaqu Ghüthisü
lughilo ilopemonike ghenguno pama thiu aghüzümi pelo philu penike
atulo atsa yesü no shosüpe qhivotsü aghüzümiqo pelo kutokupui luve
peniye yepe qhivetsü alaghi tuixau tüghaqu Ghüthisü kighiki ani hiye
akükau laghilo wuchekemi akimithemi ghüzümi pelono kungugha lo
kuwula vezuveno paliche lo kitime vepeni ye akeu lono polu lo.
Momu 4
b. Kuküsü No ye Mughapu/Mughali shino yelo. Nophu lo kiphimi küqhakulu
lo noye akiyetou kiqilono yelo. Ahuna pine kiphimiqo no aküpüghü shino
aghami sasü pini niye akeu lo aghamiqo kusü ghi
A-a, atsala, ado eno peitha kütsüu je ghi yeghi akivishi yelo.
KOKÜPHA – C (Tsayeh eno Pekikide)
4. Jeshe achipiu pe atsajo kümsa lo shepichi tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Pa ye _________ lakhi.
b. Li no aucho ________ chuvea.
c. O shiaji _______ tuchomujolo.
d. Hiye ________ kaku kea?
5. Atsajo küqü akeu shikümüzü tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Akükütsüu no pi, “Itimi kuchopu hilau ighilo”.
b. Aza ye achuqu akusho kughuthi ani.
c. Alhou pelonoghi O kümüghatsü peni.
d. Amu ngo afo küma akilo ighiva .
6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yehlo: 4x1=4
a. Achuwo nhethi
b. Agha-alu toi
c. Alu pekili
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[4] NB/XII/AEN/1
d. Anloba küxü
7. Sumi tsahlo pekide suvelo: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
KOKÜPHA – D (Tsaiko)
Kughakiche
8. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 4x1=4
a. Alelu kishilo aghawu liche shiwu kelo akijeu no khuu tsü chekea?
(i) Kükami (ii) Kinimi
(iii) Ayitiu (iv) Akichiu
b. Sümi yeghilo ayelutüghiu pama je yelo.
(i) Jekiqhe eno Inaho (ii) Ghopü ngo Ghüsüna
(iii) Seiliju ngo Kruniju (iv) Dickson ngo George
c. Joyhagor ye kuu keno mütsü mishei pitsülo.
(i) Akighiki (ii) Akupukighe
(iii) Aqoghepukukeu (iv) Ayizükucho
d. Scottish Captain no Ghukhuyi qhiveno wuveni ke ghulokilo kuu gho
pesü Gen. Kaito tsü kea?
(i) Kaku jeli kutomo pa tsü
(ii) 303 Rifle, Japanese Rifle alikathi Kutomo pa tsü
(iii) 304 Rifle eno alikathi kutomo pa tsü
(iv) Asho eno akungo kutomo pa tsü
9. Kalalishi kiqi ye kuu kea? Pama athiazü ye kuu ghenguno kütüta shive kea?1+1=2
10. Ni Sümi khuu no Sümi Paul kiqi lono xü ithughi ke picheni pa ye atüghilo
keuu kümla shi che kea? 2
11. “Kughou timi lakhi ghunguqo dolo, atüghiu momu akiniu no angushuu
momu apighi momu tüghami ilhoni keno Pa ye apah ithithai cheni. Aghungu
aküthüu lono wo 11 no ilhochekeu ghungu ye yivemu lajoluve cheni.”
Hipaqo ye ishi yeghigha lo ye, noye kuchou shi kümüsülu anima, ow
vethakulu lono atsathi 40-50 lono akivishi aghunguno angushuu ilhochekeu
khochile tsü lo. 3
d. Anloba küxü
7. Sumi tsahlo pekide suvelo: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
KOKÜPHA – D (Tsaiko)
Kughakiche
8. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 4x1=4
a. Alelu kishilo aghawu liche shiwu kelo akijeu no khuu tsü chekea?
(i) Kükami (ii) Kinimi
(iii) Ayitiu (iv) Akichiu
b. Sümi yeghilo ayelutüghiu pama je yelo.
(i) Jekiqhe eno Inaho (ii) Ghopü ngo Ghüsüna
(iii) Seiliju ngo Kruniju (iv) Dickson ngo George
c. Joyhagor ye kuu keno mütsü mishei pitsülo.
(i) Akighiki (ii) Akupukighe
(iii) Aqoghepukukeu (iv) Ayizükucho
d. Scottish Captain no Ghukhuyi qhiveno wuveni ke ghulokilo kuu gho
pesü Gen. Kaito tsü kea?
(i) Kaku jeli kutomo pa tsü
(ii) 303 Rifle, Japanese Rifle alikathi Kutomo pa tsü
(iii) 304 Rifle eno alikathi kutomo pa tsü
(iv) Asho eno akungo kutomo pa tsü
9. Kalalishi kiqi ye kuu kea? Pama athiazü ye kuu ghenguno kütüta shive kea?1+1=2
10. Ni Sümi khuu no Sümi Paul kiqi lono xü ithughi ke picheni pa ye atüghilo
keuu kümla shi che kea? 2
11. “Kughou timi lakhi ghunguqo dolo, atüghiu momu akiniu no angushuu
momu apighi momu tüghami ilhoni keno Pa ye apah ithithai cheni. Aghungu
aküthüu lono wo 11 no ilhochekeu ghungu ye yivemu lajoluve cheni.”
Hipaqo ye ishi yeghigha lo ye, noye kuchou shi kümüsülu anima, ow
vethakulu lono atsathi 40-50 lono akivishi aghunguno angushuu ilhochekeu
khochile tsü lo. 3
Page 50
[5] NB/XII/AEN/1
12. a. American Baptist Mission vechewo akikili süghi tsü keqo 4 yelo. 4
Momu
b. Shesü ye li pelimiqo dolo kishi xü chekea? Kidive chekeo külashitsü
che keno yelo. (2+2=4)
13. a. Atsa hipaqo kishekulushi chilu kelo, pa ye ngosümlave, tighenguno
Konyakmi nanu pepuve püzü, Nagami toi akho xapusü Sibsagar lo khilehi
pa nipu küghasawo ghime akeno tipa-a lo ighi. Li jukivishi achekeu hu
juküsa shive aghi keu ithulu. No ye kushiye o kimi ghili pivetsü monohishi
aghime shi ani kea? Li ye likimi michiluve.
(i) Khuu no atsa hipaqo chilu no ngosümlave kea? 1
(ii) Konyakmi nanu pepu no khila wu kea? 1
(iii) Li jukivi kuu toive kea? 1
(iv) Li je ye khuu kea? 1
(v) Li kimi je ye khuu kea? 1
a) Lora b) Raja
c) Godadhar d) Ahom
Momu
b. Nokujo aqhutssü lakhi veqhilu nani ikemu aquh veqhini keu azah kuha, pa
no pa pelo atüghiu shi hawulo ipi . ike pa no amüqü ajeli shino atssü lakhi
kütashi haphe no veqhiluve. Englishimi no akishe küzapu patsü, pa küsau
ye shimlave no aquh veqhivetsü no ighono kujove.
(i) Nokujo ipi akeu pama je yelo. (1)
(ii) Khuu no atüghiu shi hawu kea? (1)
a) Kaito b) Mow
c) Markan d) Zükiye
(iii) Atssü kishiala shino veqhilu keu je khuu kea? (1)
(iv) Khuu no akishe kümzapu khuu tsü kea? (1)
(v) Aquh veqhivetsü keu ye khuu kea? (1)
Leshe
14. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 2x1=2
a. Azüküzü kinnhi leshe lo liye kushiye aghi kuwo shijo cheghi kea?
(i) Li ye küla wu nishi kütü ake
(ii) Li ye atsuni kupu kughashi ke
(iii) Li ye külawunishimo kelau noke
(iv) Li ye alu mula nishimo keu lono ke
b. Ilhoshe papu je ye khuu kea?
(i) Viyishe (ii) Hetoshe
(iii) Vitoshe (iv) Hevishe
12. a. American Baptist Mission vechewo akikili süghi tsü keqo 4 yelo. 4
Momu
b. Shesü ye li pelimiqo dolo kishi xü chekea? Kidive chekeo külashitsü
che keno yelo. (2+2=4)
13. a. Atsa hipaqo kishekulushi chilu kelo, pa ye ngosümlave, tighenguno
Konyakmi nanu pepuve püzü, Nagami toi akho xapusü Sibsagar lo khilehi
pa nipu küghasawo ghime akeno tipa-a lo ighi. Li jukivishi achekeu hu
juküsa shive aghi keu ithulu. No ye kushiye o kimi ghili pivetsü monohishi
aghime shi ani kea? Li ye likimi michiluve.
(i) Khuu no atsa hipaqo chilu no ngosümlave kea? 1
(ii) Konyakmi nanu pepu no khila wu kea? 1
(iii) Li jukivi kuu toive kea? 1
(iv) Li je ye khuu kea? 1
(v) Li kimi je ye khuu kea? 1
a) Lora b) Raja
c) Godadhar d) Ahom
Momu
b. Nokujo aqhutssü lakhi veqhilu nani ikemu aquh veqhini keu azah kuha, pa
no pa pelo atüghiu shi hawulo ipi . ike pa no amüqü ajeli shino atssü lakhi
kütashi haphe no veqhiluve. Englishimi no akishe küzapu patsü, pa küsau
ye shimlave no aquh veqhivetsü no ighono kujove.
(i) Nokujo ipi akeu pama je yelo. (1)
(ii) Khuu no atüghiu shi hawu kea? (1)
a) Kaito b) Mow
c) Markan d) Zükiye
(iii) Atssü kishiala shino veqhilu keu je khuu kea? (1)
(iv) Khuu no akishe kümzapu khuu tsü kea? (1)
(v) Aquh veqhivetsü keu ye khuu kea? (1)
Leshe
14. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 2x1=2
a. Azüküzü kinnhi leshe lo liye kushiye aghi kuwo shijo cheghi kea?
(i) Li ye küla wu nishi kütü ake
(ii) Li ye atsuni kupu kughashi ke
(iii) Li ye külawunishimo kelau noke
(iv) Li ye alu mula nishimo keu lono ke
b. Ilhoshe papu je ye khuu kea?
(i) Viyishe (ii) Hetoshe
(iii) Vitoshe (iv) Hevishe
Page 51
[6] NB/XII/AEN/1
15. Axeu O kujo kulakuwuji ye, …
Atsa kutau ye kügha kevino
Oza ikko ghili kugha alo.
Kushiye leshe kiyeu ye atsa hipaqo pikea? 2
16. Khuu no kithilau no aleh shipo küxümi lau shipuwotsü kea? 2
17. Mütsümishei keu lono atsathi 60-90 dolono kuu pi ani keno akivishi
khochile lo ajo, ajo kiqi lono lakhi yelo: 1x4=4
a. O Lojilimi nono apuh aza kilo kighili kichelo.
Atsüuno amouno kighiliyela O ilosü ye.
O ishe nikhileno azüküzü sholimi ye che aye,
Chhophi chuwo khiunono akithi kumolo
Kumlopu shipua nitsü ye.
b. O hoishe ipuh asüghiuno hayewo,
Ana chule icheli pe,
Asüghiu shitsü yewo,
Ithiu ghi no ye asheshu qho ato,
Ghukhe kivi lono Hokhüli no lau,
Juküsü vilo ye Hevishe papu,
Ikujo apuh assü kümtsaghi
Thukighimi kumo ghoshi wono.
18. a. Lojiliu nono küla kuwu lumoniye
Aghi kuwo shekhani che ala
Nono sheye shekha nike kumo.
Aki lo muchomi no atsala phi
Aghulo phiwo chea ye.
Akütsa shi kutono yewo.
(i) Lojiliu noye kushiye aghi kuwo shecheni kea? 1
(ii) No no sheye shekha lu nani ke shea? 1
(iii) Aki lo muchoni no kuu phi ani pi kea? 1
(iv) Aghulo phi ye kuu kea? 1
(v) Akütsa shi ipi akeu pitsü lo. 1
Momu
b. O hoishe Ninu yekhulinno ye
Küsakusho shelo sakulumi kehu
Yehpipe puzu Ni ki küzü
Nashi pu ani ye kuto aye nguno
Axeu papuh no ateh lau shi wocheaye
Nono woni aye holo wolo pive püzüno
Inheu iqighi annishi sahye.
15. Axeu O kujo kulakuwuji ye, …
Atsa kutau ye kügha kevino
Oza ikko ghili kugha alo.
Kushiye leshe kiyeu ye atsa hipaqo pikea? 2
16. Khuu no kithilau no aleh shipo küxümi lau shipuwotsü kea? 2
17. Mütsümishei keu lono atsathi 60-90 dolono kuu pi ani keno akivishi
khochile lo ajo, ajo kiqi lono lakhi yelo: 1x4=4
a. O Lojilimi nono apuh aza kilo kighili kichelo.
Atsüuno amouno kighiliyela O ilosü ye.
O ishe nikhileno azüküzü sholimi ye che aye,
Chhophi chuwo khiunono akithi kumolo
Kumlopu shipua nitsü ye.
b. O hoishe ipuh asüghiuno hayewo,
Ana chule icheli pe,
Asüghiu shitsü yewo,
Ithiu ghi no ye asheshu qho ato,
Ghukhe kivi lono Hokhüli no lau,
Juküsü vilo ye Hevishe papu,
Ikujo apuh assü kümtsaghi
Thukighimi kumo ghoshi wono.
18. a. Lojiliu nono küla kuwu lumoniye
Aghi kuwo shekhani che ala
Nono sheye shekha nike kumo.
Aki lo muchomi no atsala phi
Aghulo phiwo chea ye.
Akütsa shi kutono yewo.
(i) Lojiliu noye kushiye aghi kuwo shecheni kea? 1
(ii) No no sheye shekha lu nani ke shea? 1
(iii) Aki lo muchoni no kuu phi ani pi kea? 1
(iv) Aghulo phi ye kuu kea? 1
(v) Akütsa shi ipi akeu pitsü lo. 1
Momu
b. O hoishe Ninu yekhulinno ye
Küsakusho shelo sakulumi kehu
Yehpipe puzu Ni ki küzü
Nashi pu ani ye kuto aye nguno
Axeu papuh no ateh lau shi wocheaye
Nono woni aye holo wolo pive püzüno
Inheu iqighi annishi sahye.
Page 52
[7] NB/XII/AEN/1
(i) Khuu no ninu Yekhulinno ye ipi kea? (1)
(ii) Yehpipe püzü ni ki küzü kuu pi anikea? (1)
(iii) Küsakussho ye kuu kea? (1)
(iv) Nashi pu ani ipi akeu kiqi yelo. (1)
(v) Axeu papuh no _______ lau shi wacheaye. (1)
a) Asü b) Apuza
c) Ateh d) Alhothe
Lotsüh Kiyye
19. Santiago ye kuu kümla müla chekea? Pa ye khile zü kelono kuu samo pumolu
kea? 1+1=2
20. Asayelilo azukikhe, amsabo eno aphiki khijeli akea? Kishe kulu shi yelo. 2+1=3
21. a. Appu huye alhikishiu no ida thughini keu kea, Ni ye ishi wovenia,
Iu lo ambe qhükulupu ghükka ani, eno noghi Mecca lo wukulupu
ghükka auva… Niye ojüpe imulo kiqi achene. O kükümsü kivi ghenguno
iw kilhikishi akiviu losüghitsüe. Ikemu Ino ithi ani niye Mecca lo
wumoe, titoi noghi ambe qhüni chemoe.
(i) Appu ye kushiye alhikishiu ithughini keu khea kea? 1
(ii) Iu lo ambe qhükulupu ghükka ani khuu no pi kea? Nno ghi Mecca
lo wukulupu ghükka auva. 2
(iii) O kükümsü kivi ghenguno iw kilhikishi akiviu lo süghitsü
khuu no khuu vilo pi ani kea? 2
Momu
b. Hilulo ipi amuchou no pi, atu miyetsüghoyi keu tsübuyi keu tu pa tsü.
Tiye pa müla küxa lo süpü-a keqo ke. Tipaqo ye “Urim eno Tummim”
Nono kughono angu kühaveno küghatha mlave keu süchedoqo lo hipau
vechewo xakütha shilu eno akuphulu nani. Appu ghi chighi lo saje lakhi
kiqi shi ambe tsügho pe patsü.
(i) Khuu no atu miyetsüghoyi eno tsübuyi keu pe khuu tsü kea? (2)
(ii) Urim eno Thummim kiqi yelo: (1)
a) Akütsü eno akuhuu
b) Akimiye eno atsüla
c) Tsübuyi eno miyetsüghoyi
d) Tsunikuxu eno awunhe
(iii) Appu ye kuu pesü chighi lo saje lakhi kiqi lono khuu tsü kea? (2)
***************************
(i) Khuu no ninu Yekhulinno ye ipi kea? (1)
(ii) Yehpipe püzü ni ki küzü kuu pi anikea? (1)
(iii) Küsakussho ye kuu kea? (1)
(iv) Nashi pu ani ipi akeu kiqi yelo. (1)
(v) Axeu papuh no _______ lau shi wacheaye. (1)
a) Asü b) Apuza
c) Ateh d) Alhothe
Lotsüh Kiyye
19. Santiago ye kuu kümla müla chekea? Pa ye khile zü kelono kuu samo pumolu
kea? 1+1=2
20. Asayelilo azukikhe, amsabo eno aphiki khijeli akea? Kishe kulu shi yelo. 2+1=3
21. a. Appu huye alhikishiu no ida thughini keu kea, Ni ye ishi wovenia,
Iu lo ambe qhükulupu ghükka ani, eno noghi Mecca lo wukulupu
ghükka auva… Niye ojüpe imulo kiqi achene. O kükümsü kivi ghenguno
iw kilhikishi akiviu losüghitsüe. Ikemu Ino ithi ani niye Mecca lo
wumoe, titoi noghi ambe qhüni chemoe.
(i) Appu ye kushiye alhikishiu ithughini keu khea kea? 1
(ii) Iu lo ambe qhükulupu ghükka ani khuu no pi kea? Nno ghi Mecca
lo wukulupu ghükka auva. 2
(iii) O kükümsü kivi ghenguno iw kilhikishi akiviu lo süghitsü
khuu no khuu vilo pi ani kea? 2
Momu
b. Hilulo ipi amuchou no pi, atu miyetsüghoyi keu tsübuyi keu tu pa tsü.
Tiye pa müla küxa lo süpü-a keqo ke. Tipaqo ye “Urim eno Tummim”
Nono kughono angu kühaveno küghatha mlave keu süchedoqo lo hipau
vechewo xakütha shilu eno akuphulu nani. Appu ghi chighi lo saje lakhi
kiqi shi ambe tsügho pe patsü.
(i) Khuu no atu miyetsüghoyi eno tsübuyi keu pe khuu tsü kea? (2)
(ii) Urim eno Thummim kiqi yelo: (1)
a) Akütsü eno akuhuu
b) Akimiye eno atsüla
c) Tsübuyi eno miyetsüghoyi
d) Tsunikuxu eno awunhe
(iii) Appu ye kuu pesü chighi lo saje lakhi kiqi lono khuu tsü kea? (2)
***************************
Page 53
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XII/A/1
2024
AO
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SHILEM – A (Züngang aser langzüang)
1. Agüja aliba olemji junga züngang asu tasüng dangba temji langzüang:
Mapang ka nung jala yutsür tetsü süadok. Kobi melii tebui tangar
tetsür ka aginü. Saka lai ashi, “Ner jala anirbo ana malitsü” . Anungji tebui mapa
tamajung inyaktsü mebilemi tashi angaa anidaka ao. Arem tonger jala dang iba
meta ya nai angu asü mangu ta maneni asüngdanga arem tesem balala nung nema
anir senzü. Jalai anguba tashi nung maneni anir aser kodang iba tesem yabo mangu
ta ashi, idangji tebui iba tesem nung anen. “Tenü na yagi ataa liang, obala khen or
arua na anir tugutsü” ta shia la yangji yutsür yimdaki tugu. Ammang aru tashi
nungbo laji yangji kanga azüngmeyaka, tsübuseta jeba nemzüdang ajungbena yim
kati nemteta tugu. Ibaji takatsür kati ngua temulung nung aria bilema lar kidangi
aniketa alar ama mesü. Lia lia laji iba yimtak tobur tajungtila küma yimtak takar
jabaso kii oa ali. Kibong kümer tebuba tena kanga küma kikasüchir nüngtugu
küma par akaba ayimsünga ao.
Iba mapang nungji tebu nunger yimtak ayawara tuluka aru. Tebu O
tetsütanutsü naji kanga okronga sensaka timatem. Joko timtem marem nung jalar
yimtsüngi laji bushia aotsü shisatet. Pai inyakba mapa to amadoker sotzü marok ka
bener jala aliba yimji bushia apuso. Anogo aika jajar, tesüsa iba yimji nikongtsütsü
atong. ‘Kü jalar ki koba? Kong lir? Ta senzüdang, chitentsür kati ken ka yamai
tenloktsü”, “Ner jala ki, kilangbang nung zülu yoker tenük koda mesaklokteter”.
Tesüsa jalar kiji tonga ayaketdang aakba agi sotzü marokji semjak nung yutsür atu
aser aakseta amen. Idangji azüi raktepa tzüin sotzü marok ayubato achiba angashia
jalai, na tzüin nung kechi yur atu ta asüngdang. Saka aakba agi kecha mayu ta
langzü. “Na lenmang talang nungi aruji yaa alitsü, chiyungang” ta mejemtzü
tajung agi teka metsükdaktsü. Aya mejemtzü agi teka metsüktsü na?” odang
metsükang chiyungerbo tajungtiba jemdaktsütsü” ta lai ashi. Saka chiyungerbo
mejemtzü tasen jemdaktsü. Idangji tebui ashi, “tekabo mejemtzü tajung agi
metsükdaktsü saka tajemtsü agütsüba yabo tasenato!” Idangji lai ashi, “Oba
2024
AO
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SHILEM – A (Züngang aser langzüang)
1. Agüja aliba olemji junga züngang asu tasüng dangba temji langzüang:
Mapang ka nung jala yutsür tetsü süadok. Kobi melii tebui tangar
tetsür ka aginü. Saka lai ashi, “Ner jala anirbo ana malitsü” . Anungji tebui mapa
tamajung inyaktsü mebilemi tashi angaa anidaka ao. Arem tonger jala dang iba
meta ya nai angu asü mangu ta maneni asüngdanga arem tesem balala nung nema
anir senzü. Jalai anguba tashi nung maneni anir aser kodang iba tesem yabo mangu
ta ashi, idangji tebui iba tesem nung anen. “Tenü na yagi ataa liang, obala khen or
arua na anir tugutsü” ta shia la yangji yutsür yimdaki tugu. Ammang aru tashi
nungbo laji yangji kanga azüngmeyaka, tsübuseta jeba nemzüdang ajungbena yim
kati nemteta tugu. Ibaji takatsür kati ngua temulung nung aria bilema lar kidangi
aniketa alar ama mesü. Lia lia laji iba yimtak tobur tajungtila küma yimtak takar
jabaso kii oa ali. Kibong kümer tebuba tena kanga küma kikasüchir nüngtugu
küma par akaba ayimsünga ao.
Iba mapang nungji tebu nunger yimtak ayawara tuluka aru. Tebu O
tetsütanutsü naji kanga okronga sensaka timatem. Joko timtem marem nung jalar
yimtsüngi laji bushia aotsü shisatet. Pai inyakba mapa to amadoker sotzü marok ka
bener jala aliba yimji bushia apuso. Anogo aika jajar, tesüsa iba yimji nikongtsütsü
atong. ‘Kü jalar ki koba? Kong lir? Ta senzüdang, chitentsür kati ken ka yamai
tenloktsü”, “Ner jala ki, kilangbang nung zülu yoker tenük koda mesaklokteter”.
Tesüsa jalar kiji tonga ayaketdang aakba agi sotzü marokji semjak nung yutsür atu
aser aakseta amen. Idangji azüi raktepa tzüin sotzü marok ayubato achiba angashia
jalai, na tzüin nung kechi yur atu ta asüngdang. Saka aakba agi kecha mayu ta
langzü. “Na lenmang talang nungi aruji yaa alitsü, chiyungang” ta mejemtzü
tajung agi teka metsükdaktsü. Aya mejemtzü agi teka metsüktsü na?” odang
metsükang chiyungerbo tajungtiba jemdaktsütsü” ta lai ashi. Saka chiyungerbo
mejemtzü tasen jemdaktsü. Idangji tebui ashi, “tekabo mejemtzü tajung agi
metsükdaktsü saka tajemtsü agütsüba yabo tasenato!” Idangji lai ashi, “Oba
Page 54
[2] NB/XII/A/1
mejemtzü ya piya nungi adoker, yamaji nia ne dak nungi jakzük, saka rapitsür ka
atema nai ni agi teka metsükdok. Anungji na asoshibo mejemtzüji nüngdak mali.
Aji angashia tebuji tenük nungi nüktzü alua temulung raksa tenük anetshi. Anogo
ishika lir, tebu aodang chiyungtsü renema bendaktsür”, oba oja tanutsüa mesü lira
khenübo anir arung” ta shir yok.
Anogo ishika lir tebui kinungtsü anir jala aliba yim jagi aru. Anogo
ishika jangratema chiyunga jema amung. Tena yim bushia aonep lai khu balala
oshitsü. Tebu khu nung chi tanük aser shiret enoka renemtsü. Saka tetsü tanutsü
khu nungbo chilong aser shilong enoka renemtsür apusodaktsü. Tepiladang lai
yamia ashi; Ozü azü tesashi, anungji aoksa nena aria arura khu nung aliba chi aser
shi proka jenang ta shir yok. Tenaji azüi aria arudang ashiba amaji inyak. Tebui
endokba chi tanük prokshia aser shiret endoka ao. Aji menakshia shiretji
ngushidang tebu jenbu. Saka tetsü tanutsüjibo chia chilong aser shia shilong
asünung azüi angüba chir laji menepa nguset.
Tasüngdangbatem:
Agüja aliba nungi shitak ojang shitak shimteta langzüang: 4x1=4
(a) Piya nungi kechi adoker?
(i) yi (ii) mejemtzü
(iii) mejemtsü (iv) tzü
(b) Tebui sotzü marokji kong yutsü?
(i) semki (ii) tzüin
(iii) taktang (iv) semjak
(c) “Kütsütanutsüa mesüi lira khenbo anir arungma” shibai jembi?
(i) tebu (ii) jala
(iii) takartsürla (iv) rapitsürla
(d) Shibai jala aria bilem?
(i) tebui (ii) rapitsürlai
(iii) takatsürlai (iv) tetsüi
(e) Jala ajurutsü aodang tebui kechi bener apuso? 1
(f) Tetsütanutsü khu nung kechi enoka renemtsü? 1
(g) Iba otsü nung takartsürlai kechi inyak? 2
(h) Kechiba jalai mejemtzü tasen jemdaktsü? 2
mejemtzü ya piya nungi adoker, yamaji nia ne dak nungi jakzük, saka rapitsür ka
atema nai ni agi teka metsükdok. Anungji na asoshibo mejemtzüji nüngdak mali.
Aji angashia tebuji tenük nungi nüktzü alua temulung raksa tenük anetshi. Anogo
ishika lir, tebu aodang chiyungtsü renema bendaktsür”, oba oja tanutsüa mesü lira
khenübo anir arung” ta shir yok.
Anogo ishika lir tebui kinungtsü anir jala aliba yim jagi aru. Anogo
ishika jangratema chiyunga jema amung. Tena yim bushia aonep lai khu balala
oshitsü. Tebu khu nung chi tanük aser shiret enoka renemtsü. Saka tetsü tanutsü
khu nungbo chilong aser shilong enoka renemtsür apusodaktsü. Tepiladang lai
yamia ashi; Ozü azü tesashi, anungji aoksa nena aria arura khu nung aliba chi aser
shi proka jenang ta shir yok. Tenaji azüi aria arudang ashiba amaji inyak. Tebui
endokba chi tanük prokshia aser shiret endoka ao. Aji menakshia shiretji
ngushidang tebu jenbu. Saka tetsü tanutsüjibo chia chilong aser shia shilong
asünung azüi angüba chir laji menepa nguset.
Tasüngdangbatem:
Agüja aliba nungi shitak ojang shitak shimteta langzüang: 4x1=4
(a) Piya nungi kechi adoker?
(i) yi (ii) mejemtzü
(iii) mejemtsü (iv) tzü
(b) Tebui sotzü marokji kong yutsü?
(i) semki (ii) tzüin
(iii) taktang (iv) semjak
(c) “Kütsütanutsüa mesüi lira khenbo anir arungma” shibai jembi?
(i) tebu (ii) jala
(iii) takartsürla (iv) rapitsürla
(d) Shibai jala aria bilem?
(i) tebui (ii) rapitsürlai
(iii) takatsürlai (iv) tetsüi
(e) Jala ajurutsü aodang tebui kechi bener apuso? 1
(f) Tetsütanutsü khu nung kechi enoka renemtsü? 1
(g) Iba otsü nung takartsürlai kechi inyak? 2
(h) Kechiba jalai mejemtzü tasen jemdaktsü? 2
Page 55
[3] NB/XII/A/1
SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 150-200 tashi nung langzüang:
a. ‘Yangersem’. Iba onük nung rajem zülu ka züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. ‘Saisabong balalanung shilem agiba tajangzük’ indang ner medemer
nena tsüngda sensaksem ka züluang.
3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta langzüang:
a. Agüja aliba pongtem ya lirumedema yangluang:
Ao kine amshiba awashi lajung rongmung kaji topat jayajakoba ya lir. Ibai
kanga tajung aser tanganutsuka lir Jayajaokba tetezü nisung ka tenung teta
mejae danga oajng ka amshia ajoba aser jempiba dang ajar. Tatishitsü agi
anuk aku, temba odi, oja tanutsü ta jatepba dang tapet jayajako ta ajar. Iba
Aor lokti rajem nung sentakba maparen tajung ka lir.
Mesüra 4
b. Na Alemla/Alemba, school Captain. Taküm ner school saisabong sentong
nung tesüiba mapang azüngertem jaokba shiti ka züluang.
SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang: 12x1=12
a. Tejashi, tesangwa, tanak. Ya kechi nüngja?
b. Manendong oti ratetjang.
c. Pai pa sasa mapumalem aser tanü met yimtsür. (Koba meyongja)
d. Nenok ________ teimla kecha mangur. (Pular enokjang)
e. Narolai ki junga okdagi. (Koba mapanglem)
f. Anong, anong (Tetezü balala adok dakja oren k aka yangluang)
g. Nenoki ashiba osangji shitak lir. (Koba oren nung aden)
h. ‘Motettsü’(Rasem, ojangra aser ralok sayuang)
i. (Mapang/mabang) shitak nung osang angashi. (Ojang kobala shitak)
j. Oren jinutepyim kechi dang ajar?
k. Tan mapang nung oren ka yangluang.
l. Pukpa teratet shiang.
5. Itemi Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 150-200 tashi nung langzüang:
a. ‘Yangersem’. Iba onük nung rajem zülu ka züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. ‘Saisabong balalanung shilem agiba tajangzük’ indang ner medemer
nena tsüngda sensaksem ka züluang.
3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta langzüang:
a. Agüja aliba pongtem ya lirumedema yangluang:
Ao kine amshiba awashi lajung rongmung kaji topat jayajakoba ya lir. Ibai
kanga tajung aser tanganutsuka lir Jayajaokba tetezü nisung ka tenung teta
mejae danga oajng ka amshia ajoba aser jempiba dang ajar. Tatishitsü agi
anuk aku, temba odi, oja tanutsü ta jatepba dang tapet jayajako ta ajar. Iba
Aor lokti rajem nung sentakba maparen tajung ka lir.
Mesüra 4
b. Na Alemla/Alemba, school Captain. Taküm ner school saisabong sentong
nung tesüiba mapang azüngertem jaokba shiti ka züluang.
SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang: 12x1=12
a. Tejashi, tesangwa, tanak. Ya kechi nüngja?
b. Manendong oti ratetjang.
c. Pai pa sasa mapumalem aser tanü met yimtsür. (Koba meyongja)
d. Nenok ________ teimla kecha mangur. (Pular enokjang)
e. Narolai ki junga okdagi. (Koba mapanglem)
f. Anong, anong (Tetezü balala adok dakja oren k aka yangluang)
g. Nenoki ashiba osangji shitak lir. (Koba oren nung aden)
h. ‘Motettsü’(Rasem, ojangra aser ralok sayuang)
i. (Mapang/mabang) shitak nung osang angashi. (Ojang kobala shitak)
j. Oren jinutepyim kechi dang ajar?
k. Tan mapang nung oren ka yangluang.
l. Pukpa teratet shiang.
5. Itemi Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
Page 56
[4] NB/XII/A/1
SHILEM – D (Kaket keno zülu)
Otsü
6. Agüja aliba nungi ojang shitak shimteta langzuang: 4x1=4
a. Alu nuung metsüjangnatsü yoker külen , temoatsü meshia anungba
dang kechi ajar?
(i) Lijaba mung (ii) Tsüngrem mung
(iii) Moatsü mung (iv) Benjong mung
b. ‘Endoktsü’ file nung nisung kwi temerem agi endoktsü ta zülur liasü?
(i) 6 (ii) 11
(iii) 17 (iv) 19
c. Temeim agi awaa oa inyakba dang kechi ajar?
(i) yimli (ii) akhümbangba
(iii) awashi (iv) yimya
d. Rongsen rongnung tulutibaji
(i) hon aser tariba (ii) nisung taküm
(iii) sen (iv) rongsen
7. Aamtokamsü kechi dang ajar? 2
8. Komala kibalenbuba dang Lenbu tazük ta ajar? 2
9. Tebur tsütsü tetsür takok mapa aser khonangji kechi? Teburi tetsür nem komala
senmang agütsütsü tim, rasaa shiang. 1+2=3
10. a. Nai nangzükba ama Bible school masü,
Saka linükang tenzüktsü arung,
(i) Ya shibai shiba dangi zülu? 2
(ii) Kechiba zülu rasaa shiang? 2
Mesüra
b. Yimtsüng tejakleni aotsü atema yimteni kechisa inyaktsü tim tapu pezü
shiang. (4)
11. a. Pungmang nungji lai per tanak ana mori ana nung metsüa ayu. Aji
teshinem menemba süjen rüja tanak agi meyibanga ayu. Nokdensang aser
tebutsü tena Yarla ki tonga marudang Lijabai tenu tena nem ali chipo ana
agütsür liasü, kaji mepet chipo aser kaji temetaktsü ninang chipo ta liasü.
(i) Lijabaya shiba? 1
(ii) Shibai pungmangba indang ashir. 1
(iii) Pungmang nung kechi agi shiruru tila ajak menaka chima? 1
SHILEM – D (Kaket keno zülu)
Otsü
6. Agüja aliba nungi ojang shitak shimteta langzuang: 4x1=4
a. Alu nuung metsüjangnatsü yoker külen , temoatsü meshia anungba
dang kechi ajar?
(i) Lijaba mung (ii) Tsüngrem mung
(iii) Moatsü mung (iv) Benjong mung
b. ‘Endoktsü’ file nung nisung kwi temerem agi endoktsü ta zülur liasü?
(i) 6 (ii) 11
(iii) 17 (iv) 19
c. Temeim agi awaa oa inyakba dang kechi ajar?
(i) yimli (ii) akhümbangba
(iii) awashi (iv) yimya
d. Rongsen rongnung tulutibaji
(i) hon aser tariba (ii) nisung taküm
(iii) sen (iv) rongsen
7. Aamtokamsü kechi dang ajar? 2
8. Komala kibalenbuba dang Lenbu tazük ta ajar? 2
9. Tebur tsütsü tetsür takok mapa aser khonangji kechi? Teburi tetsür nem komala
senmang agütsütsü tim, rasaa shiang. 1+2=3
10. a. Nai nangzükba ama Bible school masü,
Saka linükang tenzüktsü arung,
(i) Ya shibai shiba dangi zülu? 2
(ii) Kechiba zülu rasaa shiang? 2
Mesüra
b. Yimtsüng tejakleni aotsü atema yimteni kechisa inyaktsü tim tapu pezü
shiang. (4)
11. a. Pungmang nungji lai per tanak ana mori ana nung metsüa ayu. Aji
teshinem menemba süjen rüja tanak agi meyibanga ayu. Nokdensang aser
tebutsü tena Yarla ki tonga marudang Lijabai tenu tena nem ali chipo ana
agütsür liasü, kaji mepet chipo aser kaji temetaktsü ninang chipo ta liasü.
(i) Lijabaya shiba? 1
(ii) Shibai pungmangba indang ashir. 1
(iii) Pungmang nung kechi agi shiruru tila ajak menaka chima? 1
Page 57
[5] NB/XII/A/1
(a) Ninang (b) Per
(c) Sorak (d) Bangchi
(iv) Asangsang nung Nokdensang aser tebutsü dak kechi atalok? 2
Mesüra
b. Naga kin ajak meyokteper akümba yimden latet tasen, Naga nunger
sobalibaren, tamangbaren, alima rongsentsütsü terenlak inyaksangshiren,
item ajakji alima kin balala atema tenükshitsü aser tangazüknütsü ka
moluteta aotsü baji tarutsü Naga nunger nükla aser Naga nungeri
nüngdakba mapa ka lir. Lanur shiai ‘nia ozü lima atema kechi inyaktettsü;
ta bilema taküm runema atatsüla.
(i) Shirnok dang ‘Naga nunger’ ta ajatsü akok? (1)
(ii) Naga nunger tarutsü nüklaji kechisa angur ana shiang. (2)
(iii) Naia Naga kin atema kechi mapa tajungtemsa inyaktettsü akok? (2)
Sangro
12. Item tasüngdangbatem nungi shitak shimteta langzüang: 2x1=2
a. Shientsüzü kechi dang ajar?
(i) azü (ii) tsükchir
(iii) mangko (iv) shiruru
b. Yimtabena süngkhüm nung kechi alenlok?
(i) auh (ii) kor yongrak
(iii) anembong süngo (iv) jabili
13. Kechiba takarsangi tsük küm metsü bendena ayu? 2
14. Kinü tanur tetezü kechi? Pa tabang nungi metzü yanga alubaji kechi agi
atishi? 1+1=2
15. a. Takarsangi sensaker dang koma inyak rasaa züluang, tatem nung pa
dak kechi atalok? 4
Mesüra
b. Kinü Lima sangro shibai mejem? Kechiba kinü tanur jagi kecha
metsübur. (1+3=4)
16. a. Pentobai ashi; “Nüburi mulungba nung taküm tembangtsüji taküm
aliba dang taoba”.
(i) Koba sangro aser shibai mejem? 1
(ii) Pentobaji shiba? 1
(iii) Agüja aliba olungji rateta züluang. 3
Mesüra
b. Züngar den medensemertem,
Miyang nung mener katidaktsür,
(a) Ninang (b) Per
(c) Sorak (d) Bangchi
(iv) Asangsang nung Nokdensang aser tebutsü dak kechi atalok? 2
Mesüra
b. Naga kin ajak meyokteper akümba yimden latet tasen, Naga nunger
sobalibaren, tamangbaren, alima rongsentsütsü terenlak inyaksangshiren,
item ajakji alima kin balala atema tenükshitsü aser tangazüknütsü ka
moluteta aotsü baji tarutsü Naga nunger nükla aser Naga nungeri
nüngdakba mapa ka lir. Lanur shiai ‘nia ozü lima atema kechi inyaktettsü;
ta bilema taküm runema atatsüla.
(i) Shirnok dang ‘Naga nunger’ ta ajatsü akok? (1)
(ii) Naga nunger tarutsü nüklaji kechisa angur ana shiang. (2)
(iii) Naia Naga kin atema kechi mapa tajungtemsa inyaktettsü akok? (2)
Sangro
12. Item tasüngdangbatem nungi shitak shimteta langzüang: 2x1=2
a. Shientsüzü kechi dang ajar?
(i) azü (ii) tsükchir
(iii) mangko (iv) shiruru
b. Yimtabena süngkhüm nung kechi alenlok?
(i) auh (ii) kor yongrak
(iii) anembong süngo (iv) jabili
13. Kechiba takarsangi tsük küm metsü bendena ayu? 2
14. Kinü tanur tetezü kechi? Pa tabang nungi metzü yanga alubaji kechi agi
atishi? 1+1=2
15. a. Takarsangi sensaker dang koma inyak rasaa züluang, tatem nung pa
dak kechi atalok? 4
Mesüra
b. Kinü Lima sangro shibai mejem? Kechiba kinü tanur jagi kecha
metsübur. (1+3=4)
16. a. Pentobai ashi; “Nüburi mulungba nung taküm tembangtsüji taküm
aliba dang taoba”.
(i) Koba sangro aser shibai mejem? 1
(ii) Pentobaji shiba? 1
(iii) Agüja aliba olungji rateta züluang. 3
Mesüra
b. Züngar den medensemertem,
Miyang nung mener katidaktsür,
Page 58
[6] NB/XII/A/1
Merok mibang atepertembo,
Oh, jentoka lir mekütlen.
(i) Koba sangro nungi, shibai mejem? (1)
(ii) Orentemji ratetjang. (4)
Yimdangjem
17. Etiben tsüraburi senmen atema ashidang Tenyuri kechi langzü? 2
18. Nai awa bushitsüla.
(i) Shibai shiba dang awa bushitsü ashi? 1
(ii) Awa koma agizüktsü ashi rasaa züluang. 2
19. a. “Masü, aji temeim agi agutsü.”
Ya shibai kechi tensa ka nung jembiba, otsüji rasaa shiang.
Mesüra 5
b. Etiben sür Jinai atenba ken tetezü züluang Etiben asüba osang nisungtemi
koma agizük aser yimertemi la asoshi kechi inyak?
***************************
Merok mibang atepertembo,
Oh, jentoka lir mekütlen.
(i) Koba sangro nungi, shibai mejem? (1)
(ii) Orentemji ratetjang. (4)
Yimdangjem
17. Etiben tsüraburi senmen atema ashidang Tenyuri kechi langzü? 2
18. Nai awa bushitsüla.
(i) Shibai shiba dang awa bushitsü ashi? 1
(ii) Awa koma agizüktsü ashi rasaa züluang. 2
19. a. “Masü, aji temeim agi agutsü.”
Ya shibai kechi tensa ka nung jembiba, otsüji rasaa shiang.
Mesüra 5
b. Etiben sür Jinai atenba ken tetezü züluang Etiben asüba osang nisungtemi
koma agizük aser yimertemi la asoshi kechi inyak?
***************************
Page 59
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XII/L/1
2024
LOTHA
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
CHIRO – A (Ekhao)
1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana :
1. Nkolo eran reni oyan motsünga, lo ompoe vancho. Osi onina tsolo tsüka
tsokhying tsüka to tae vana ompoe hata chüi siracho. Küma ompayi ji elümoto
emhok-nungra sükhyingo tssoe sicho. Tolia ota jina oka ji heto ezocho. Aka Apo
ha Ayo onina mpa esisi yi-silia ntia ntssoka to phyota vancho. Osi tsüngon
motsüngalo jo oka jina ota ji, “Ata enio ntio tsotavü meka eni ha oli terivü tae lia
jontavüka” to ezoa jontacho. Küma tsüngona lo jo ompayi na oli wotale ochona
sana oni li ji joni licho. Hoji tsükona otana oyan jilo oki akvü ntena Aka eni li ji
ejonicho alo to engathechia wocho. Tole oki akvüna e-li tia nkhyovü vanka ena
meka to janlancho. Tolia hojito ompayi li ji ochona sana joni tae licho.
2. Küma tsüngonalo jo otana oka thüngi “Aka eni li ji ochoang na ejonia sana
owo chetavü ka to ezoa owo cheta vanle, Opo ha Oyo onina echü-lina Chiro oni li
ji, Aka ha Ango oni li shiji lichung ero to ti-ntayile” to okhen nsia khfüta jonta
vancho. Hoji süi jo onina heto phyotacho, “Aka okhanalia nino Ayo sükhümjo jilo
tsokthe khe, ayio Apo sükhümjo jilo tsokthevü ka” to ezocho. Osi onina cheta
vantasi mmyuale oka jo oyo sükhümjo jilo tsokthele sükhümjo ji nri küma elachoe
sicho. Osi Opo jo sükhümjo ji ericho saküma ntia ntssona echülikvüi sosi
rheyicho. Hojitolyui oka ji ompvüti tssoe sio jina elümoto nungra-tsünga, Ayio
apoti ka je, Ata jo echü-likvüi Apo ha Ayo oni phana rheyithaka je to phyoa
ompvüti yingsüyingloa vancho. Hoji esüa otana ha oka ji nchümi zesi elümoto
nungra nchümcho. Osi ombona opo thüngi ayio nchüngo chümpoe yipvüka to
phyole opo na Ango chümpoe jo nikyuvüka chongo tiyipa to ezocho. Tole ngaro
jina ntia ntssoka to ezoa chümpoe chongocho. Osi ombona chümpoe echüi jiang
na bhari, loksa tükta okhen nsita vamo jiang zeta vancho. Osi müngale peno
kümkhani Tvü…Tvü…to khfüta kokhüng jiang lo pyakae yiprae sirasi omboti
kümi siajo elümoto ombo kyua opo thüngi yile, opona ana ni ezontsachola nibobo
yanchoka to ezocho.
2024
LOTHA
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
CHIRO – A (Ekhao)
1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana :
1. Nkolo eran reni oyan motsünga, lo ompoe vancho. Osi onina tsolo tsüka
tsokhying tsüka to tae vana ompoe hata chüi siracho. Küma ompayi ji elümoto
emhok-nungra sükhyingo tssoe sicho. Tolia ota jina oka ji heto ezocho. Aka Apo
ha Ayo onina mpa esisi yi-silia ntia ntssoka to phyota vancho. Osi tsüngon
motsüngalo jo oka jina ota ji, “Ata enio ntio tsotavü meka eni ha oli terivü tae lia
jontavüka” to ezoa jontacho. Küma tsüngona lo jo ompayi na oli wotale ochona
sana oni li ji joni licho. Hoji tsükona otana oyan jilo oki akvü ntena Aka eni li ji
ejonicho alo to engathechia wocho. Tole oki akvüna e-li tia nkhyovü vanka ena
meka to janlancho. Tolia hojito ompayi li ji ochona sana joni tae licho.
2. Küma tsüngonalo jo otana oka thüngi “Aka eni li ji ochoang na ejonia sana
owo chetavü ka to ezoa owo cheta vanle, Opo ha Oyo onina echü-lina Chiro oni li
ji, Aka ha Ango oni li shiji lichung ero to ti-ntayile” to okhen nsia khfüta jonta
vancho. Hoji süi jo onina heto phyotacho, “Aka okhanalia nino Ayo sükhümjo jilo
tsokthe khe, ayio Apo sükhümjo jilo tsokthevü ka” to ezocho. Osi onina cheta
vantasi mmyuale oka jo oyo sükhümjo jilo tsokthele sükhümjo ji nri küma elachoe
sicho. Osi Opo jo sükhümjo ji ericho saküma ntia ntssona echülikvüi sosi
rheyicho. Hojitolyui oka ji ompvüti tssoe sio jina elümoto nungra-tsünga, Ayio
apoti ka je, Ata jo echü-likvüi Apo ha Ayo oni phana rheyithaka je to phyoa
ompvüti yingsüyingloa vancho. Hoji esüa otana ha oka ji nchümi zesi elümoto
nungra nchümcho. Osi ombona opo thüngi ayio nchüngo chümpoe yipvüka to
phyole opo na Ango chümpoe jo nikyuvüka chongo tiyipa to ezocho. Tole ngaro
jina ntia ntssoka to ezoa chümpoe chongocho. Osi ombona chümpoe echüi jiang
na bhari, loksa tükta okhen nsita vamo jiang zeta vancho. Osi müngale peno
kümkhani Tvü…Tvü…to khfüta kokhüng jiang lo pyakae yiprae sirasi omboti
kümi siajo elümoto ombo kyua opo thüngi yile, opona ana ni ezontsachola nibobo
yanchoka to ezocho.
Page 60
[2] NB/XII/L/1
3. Osi ochyua enyathüng to jo opo ha oyo onina live tona woko chü tona hono
chü to tseni pia, heto ezocho “Echüi tona eküm to zükhfü lio ji yakchi sanati
lanphei tsokhe” to ezoa echüi metae na eküm metae chiyitokcho. Tole ombona
otsotso ntio kvtüvü tseni apicho sana to nchüma zehüngo ji tsükona echüi metae
na lanphei zele live tona woko chü, hono chü to tae tssocho. Küma elani tsenlani
hansi eküm metae na chiyi lanphei zele otsi tona wokoso, honoso to tssoajo
olanina tsosi oka thüngi oyi, “Aka echüi metae jo nmhonka enina vana evamo
eküm meta shilo mmhomoka” to rüa ezocho to motsü rütala.
Engoa shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi erana: 4x1=4
(a) Sükhümjo jo __________ ha tona hanala.
(i) eboe (ii) eloe
(iii) eboe ha eloe (iv) eran na
(b) ‘Ompayi’ shi yichak jo wopan ji lo.
(i) Eboe tsüka tona eloe tsüka to
(ii) Eboe nchyu eni
(iii) Eloe nchyu eni
(iv) Opo tona otsoe to
(c) ‘Nkolo’ shi yichak jo
(i) Enhünga (ii) Yithako jilo
(iii) Yuta yithako ji lo (iv) Eranmoreni
(d) Yitsüng ‘loksa’ shi jo
(i) Tssoyioyi (ii) Myingthong
(iii) Tepfüyi (iv) myingtsayi
(e) Ompayi lo ha ocho na opo sükhümjo lo tsokthecho la? 1
(f) Ompayi li ji ochoang na joni vayicho la? 1
(g) Ompayi lo ha ntio tsso ji na eloeroro ji na nungracho la? 1
(h) Echüi jiang na müngale ntio kümkhani sicho la? 1
(i) Opo ha opvü oni na tsokhying ji thüngi ntio ntio tseni picho sana erana. 1
(j) Motsü ji yizen ji erana. 1
CHIRO – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga (1) yitsüng 150-200 na epemo
erana:
a. Yiphongran: Püngnoe etümthae nchyua (An Ideal Teacher)
Mekana 6
b. Thyutasanta/jantasanta shi erana:
3. Osi ochyua enyathüng to jo opo ha oyo onina live tona woko chü tona hono
chü to tseni pia, heto ezocho “Echüi tona eküm to zükhfü lio ji yakchi sanati
lanphei tsokhe” to ezoa echüi metae na eküm metae chiyitokcho. Tole ombona
otsotso ntio kvtüvü tseni apicho sana to nchüma zehüngo ji tsükona echüi metae
na lanphei zele live tona woko chü, hono chü to tae tssocho. Küma elani tsenlani
hansi eküm metae na chiyi lanphei zele otsi tona wokoso, honoso to tssoajo
olanina tsosi oka thüngi oyi, “Aka echüi metae jo nmhonka enina vana evamo
eküm meta shilo mmhomoka” to rüa ezocho to motsü rütala.
Engoa shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi erana: 4x1=4
(a) Sükhümjo jo __________ ha tona hanala.
(i) eboe (ii) eloe
(iii) eboe ha eloe (iv) eran na
(b) ‘Ompayi’ shi yichak jo wopan ji lo.
(i) Eboe tsüka tona eloe tsüka to
(ii) Eboe nchyu eni
(iii) Eloe nchyu eni
(iv) Opo tona otsoe to
(c) ‘Nkolo’ shi yichak jo
(i) Enhünga (ii) Yithako jilo
(iii) Yuta yithako ji lo (iv) Eranmoreni
(d) Yitsüng ‘loksa’ shi jo
(i) Tssoyioyi (ii) Myingthong
(iii) Tepfüyi (iv) myingtsayi
(e) Ompayi lo ha ocho na opo sükhümjo lo tsokthecho la? 1
(f) Ompayi li ji ochoang na joni vayicho la? 1
(g) Ompayi lo ha ntio tsso ji na eloeroro ji na nungracho la? 1
(h) Echüi jiang na müngale ntio kümkhani sicho la? 1
(i) Opo ha opvü oni na tsokhying ji thüngi ntio ntio tseni picho sana erana. 1
(j) Motsü ji yizen ji erana. 1
CHIRO – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga (1) yitsüng 150-200 na epemo
erana:
a. Yiphongran: Püngnoe etümthae nchyua (An Ideal Teacher)
Mekana 6
b. Thyutasanta/jantasanta shi erana:
Page 61
[3] NB/XII/L/1
Nio Ekhyo/Ekhyolo. Nipo jo Lotha osi niyo jo jipopoe. Hoji tsükona niyo
nini Oyo yi (mother tongue) jijo kvütata opvü sana chakcheta thyutasantao
ji erana.
3. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lona ni lümcho motsünga erana:
a. Yiren pio elio shi khae zesi elanchoe eranchoa (copy-editing):
Oküm nzyu tsunglan eng ezhü ethük osi vanlanyilan tongphia yio ji
yikchia, oküm jiang ha tongphia la. Hoji lo tsünglan eng ezhü ethük
osi vanlanyilan tongphia yio ji aphani na nzyua ji lo oküm mezhü,
tsüngkhying, nzyu, vamo, tona etssük to chitae vanlanyilantala.
Mekana 4
b. Etsa kako yitsüng 50 harüma erana:
Nio khapheni khvüringashü lo esopvüi ji. Khaphen kvütata licho sana
nchüküm nzyu jo zhütüngshi (football) nshütaji, nte khapheni na nshütav
tsükona khapheni kvüri jiang thüngi etsa kako erana.
CHIRO – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)
4. Shiang janlana:
a. Etümtokyi olan jiang lona mezhü erana. 2
b. Ntio eyieton sana erana: 1+1=2
(i) Ombo na a enga lia ana jo nvani
(ii) Olani rümphia wotav kalo
c. Yitsünga tae na janlana: 1+1=2
(i) Nti lona ha khetitacho nlio tsütsailan
(ii) Hepiwoe la mek hepiwoe la mek to yuta lo pephia evamo jiang.
5. Etssyuchi epio ji ephan janlana:
a. Ombo ha ete yamo alo? (Yiren shi yintüp kümtoka) 1
b. Ayio ombo ________ elhi tssoala. (Mhachungyi khi pyingtoka) 1
c. Shijo nonghori mmhom nchyua. (Tüngsochioyi kümtoka) 1
d. Yitsüng ‘ezüp’ shina past tense tona future tense to kümtoka. 1
e. Yitsüng ‘ethünga’ shi yichak esütao tvü pia. 1
f. Ompvü na osü shiang tükcho. (Owon tongphia) 1
6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
Nio Ekhyo/Ekhyolo. Nipo jo Lotha osi niyo jo jipopoe. Hoji tsükona niyo
nini Oyo yi (mother tongue) jijo kvütata opvü sana chakcheta thyutasantao
ji erana.
3. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lona ni lümcho motsünga erana:
a. Yiren pio elio shi khae zesi elanchoe eranchoa (copy-editing):
Oküm nzyu tsunglan eng ezhü ethük osi vanlanyilan tongphia yio ji
yikchia, oküm jiang ha tongphia la. Hoji lo tsünglan eng ezhü ethük
osi vanlanyilan tongphia yio ji aphani na nzyua ji lo oküm mezhü,
tsüngkhying, nzyu, vamo, tona etssük to chitae vanlanyilantala.
Mekana 4
b. Etsa kako yitsüng 50 harüma erana:
Nio khapheni khvüringashü lo esopvüi ji. Khaphen kvütata licho sana
nchüküm nzyu jo zhütüngshi (football) nshütaji, nte khapheni na nshütav
tsükona khapheni kvüri jiang thüngi etsa kako erana.
CHIRO – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)
4. Shiang janlana:
a. Etümtokyi olan jiang lona mezhü erana. 2
b. Ntio eyieton sana erana: 1+1=2
(i) Ombo na a enga lia ana jo nvani
(ii) Olani rümphia wotav kalo
c. Yitsünga tae na janlana: 1+1=2
(i) Nti lona ha khetitacho nlio tsütsailan
(ii) Hepiwoe la mek hepiwoe la mek to yuta lo pephia evamo jiang.
5. Etssyuchi epio ji ephan janlana:
a. Ombo ha ete yamo alo? (Yiren shi yintüp kümtoka) 1
b. Ayio ombo ________ elhi tssoala. (Mhachungyi khi pyingtoka) 1
c. Shijo nonghori mmhom nchyua. (Tüngsochioyi kümtoka) 1
d. Yitsüng ‘ezüp’ shina past tense tona future tense to kümtoka. 1
e. Yitsüng ‘ethünga’ shi yichak esütao tvü pia. 1
f. Ompvü na osü shiang tükcho. (Owon tongphia) 1
6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3
Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland. Snow clad throughout winter and
located on the Nagaland – Myanmar border, it traces a beautiful climb dotted
with Rhododendrons along its path. Saramati is a three day trek from either
Pungro or Salomi.
Page 62
[4] NB/XII/L/1
CHIRO – D (Motsüran Ekhao)
7. Engao shiang akvü lona elamo ji ethüngi erana: 4x1=4
a. Jübonlo jo chüchen kvüta chücho la?
(i) Ethüm (ii) Eni
(iii) Yenjoa (iv) Mezhü
b. Ntio choro nzyu lo Geneva lona sanrhyu ovüngo ji khitacho la ?
(i) Rongorongi, 1683 (ii) Rongorongi, 1853
(iii) Rongorongi, 1863 (iv) Rongorongi, 1963
c. Albatross jo ntio la?
(i) Ngotsü (ii) Orae ekümrümo
(iii) Worotsü (iv) Oshyu
d. Amminadab opo jo ocho la?
(i) Nashon (ii) Ram
(iii) Salman (iv) Herson
8. Ronald Ross na elhi tsüphov tssothako ji tsükona tssayimyingthüng osi
thanthüng pio jiang lona eni erana. 2
9. Henry Dunant na kvütolyui ritsso lo tssatssoe vamo jiang nzanchicho la? 2
10. “Ana phe to phechi nte piv khatolia.” Shi jo ocho na ochoang ezocho la? Ntio
phe to phechi onte piv ezocho la? Osi ntio man phechi piv ezocho la? 1+1+1=3
11. a. Nkoloreni jo loroe jo kvüto loji longata rocho sana erana.
Mekana 4
b. Ronald Ross na ombo nonghothüng nchümchekhoko jiang erana.
12. a. A tsolov ni tsükona ni tssochyua tvü, ana oki motsünga ni yaniv ekhyo
ni ntssoyiv ke?
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(ii) Boaz na kvütolyui Ruth soa vancho sana erana. 4
Mekana
b. Ntio tssona ete echungo ekhyoekhüng elhi mmhom panthia evamo jiang
ntsütsata na, sasi na tsorotokvü ekachi onte siv la?
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
(ii) Yiren shi Henry Dunant ekümo rakata erana. (4)
CHIRO – D (Motsüran Ekhao)
7. Engao shiang akvü lona elamo ji ethüngi erana: 4x1=4
a. Jübonlo jo chüchen kvüta chücho la?
(i) Ethüm (ii) Eni
(iii) Yenjoa (iv) Mezhü
b. Ntio choro nzyu lo Geneva lona sanrhyu ovüngo ji khitacho la ?
(i) Rongorongi, 1683 (ii) Rongorongi, 1853
(iii) Rongorongi, 1863 (iv) Rongorongi, 1963
c. Albatross jo ntio la?
(i) Ngotsü (ii) Orae ekümrümo
(iii) Worotsü (iv) Oshyu
d. Amminadab opo jo ocho la?
(i) Nashon (ii) Ram
(iii) Salman (iv) Herson
8. Ronald Ross na elhi tsüphov tssothako ji tsükona tssayimyingthüng osi
thanthüng pio jiang lona eni erana. 2
9. Henry Dunant na kvütolyui ritsso lo tssatssoe vamo jiang nzanchicho la? 2
10. “Ana phe to phechi nte piv khatolia.” Shi jo ocho na ochoang ezocho la? Ntio
phe to phechi onte piv ezocho la? Osi ntio man phechi piv ezocho la? 1+1+1=3
11. a. Nkoloreni jo loroe jo kvüto loji longata rocho sana erana.
Mekana 4
b. Ronald Ross na ombo nonghothüng nchümchekhoko jiang erana.
12. a. A tsolov ni tsükona ni tssochyua tvü, ana oki motsünga ni yaniv ekhyo
ni ntssoyiv ke?
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(ii) Boaz na kvütolyui Ruth soa vancho sana erana. 4
Mekana
b. Ntio tssona ete echungo ekhyoekhüng elhi mmhom panthia evamo jiang
ntsütsata na, sasi na tsorotokvü ekachi onte siv la?
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
(ii) Yiren shi Henry Dunant ekümo rakata erana. (4)
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[5] NB/XII/L/1
Chungiyi
13. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 2x1=2
a. Yamo khyinroe khonben emen lo tssothio jo
(i) Tizü pofü yenyi fükai
(ii) Tiyi süngro koi khicho
(iii) Tssikya phonglan koi hicho
(iv) shaki tona Phiro to koi hicho
b. Ponghanro jina ocho püngnocho nzocho la ?
(i) Opo oyo (ii) Opyae den
(iii) Eramoeden (iv) Opyem omoeden
14. Chungiyi ‘Loroe Kangtsücho Merangcho’ jilo loroe jijo kvütvü tssocho la?
Osi kvülo evan la? 1+1=2
15. ‘Randan Teriv’ chungiyi jilo okhen engopvüo jina eküm ji ntio lo ejyukata
eranchola? 2
16. a. Chungiyi ‘Yihata etsso ji jo etho’ ji lo orae odong motsünga tae
ezoa ji tona khosha ezao ji to kyon ekümo rakata erana.
Mekana 4
b. Chungiyi ‘Loroe Kangtsücho Merangcho’ ji lo khyingroe jina loroe ji
kvüto ezoa merangcho sana erana.
17. a. Yamo khyingroe rüjüngden to thichei khi,
Yamo loroe wosenden to thichei khi,
Mongjemojü mmhomvü na nchichancho
Yantaro tssoa yicho sayi.
Yiren shiang eroroa. 5
Mekana
b. Kio opvü na kio opo sochia tsa,
Tsoloyilo na kio opo sochia tsa,
Echümpvü na kio opo sochia tsa,
Ni rünyucho enhüngo zothev kila,
Yamo hanpong khfüa to e randan nia.
Therolani yanthanshanri mmhayi le to a randania.
(i) Chungiyi Jancho nzoe shi jo ocho na erancho la? (1)
(ii) Rünyucho to ephyo ji yichak jo ntio la? (1)
(iii) Jancho nzoe ji na opo chü sanati kvüto opo khi randaniv
jonjicho la? (2)
(iv) ‘Jancho Nzoe ji na ntio yuta lo lümbüm khophicho la? (1)
Chungiyi
13. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 2x1=2
a. Yamo khyinroe khonben emen lo tssothio jo
(i) Tizü pofü yenyi fükai
(ii) Tiyi süngro koi khicho
(iii) Tssikya phonglan koi hicho
(iv) shaki tona Phiro to koi hicho
b. Ponghanro jina ocho püngnocho nzocho la ?
(i) Opo oyo (ii) Opyae den
(iii) Eramoeden (iv) Opyem omoeden
14. Chungiyi ‘Loroe Kangtsücho Merangcho’ jilo loroe jijo kvütvü tssocho la?
Osi kvülo evan la? 1+1=2
15. ‘Randan Teriv’ chungiyi jilo okhen engopvüo jina eküm ji ntio lo ejyukata
eranchola? 2
16. a. Chungiyi ‘Yihata etsso ji jo etho’ ji lo orae odong motsünga tae
ezoa ji tona khosha ezao ji to kyon ekümo rakata erana.
Mekana 4
b. Chungiyi ‘Loroe Kangtsücho Merangcho’ ji lo khyingroe jina loroe ji
kvüto ezoa merangcho sana erana.
17. a. Yamo khyingroe rüjüngden to thichei khi,
Yamo loroe wosenden to thichei khi,
Mongjemojü mmhomvü na nchichancho
Yantaro tssoa yicho sayi.
Yiren shiang eroroa. 5
Mekana
b. Kio opvü na kio opo sochia tsa,
Tsoloyilo na kio opo sochia tsa,
Echümpvü na kio opo sochia tsa,
Ni rünyucho enhüngo zothev kila,
Yamo hanpong khfüa to e randan nia.
Therolani yanthanshanri mmhayi le to a randania.
(i) Chungiyi Jancho nzoe shi jo ocho na erancho la? (1)
(ii) Rünyucho to ephyo ji yichak jo ntio la? (1)
(iii) Jancho nzoe ji na opo chü sanati kvüto opo khi randaniv
jonjicho la? (2)
(iv) ‘Jancho Nzoe ji na ntio yuta lo lümbüm khophicho la? (1)
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[6] NB/XII/L/1
Nchümntan Motsü
18. Ntio lanka lona kyon jo ekümrüm lona mmhonkata to Zikao na phyocho la? 2
19. Zikao opvü ha opo onio ntio kvütvü kyon sana erana. 3
20. a. Zikao na kvüthüng khyocheta yicho sana opvü ha opo oni na mman
mmyoe tsotokvü tsükona oyam ngaro pvülo wotokcho.
(i) Zikao na nzyu kvüta tssoathüng oyam ngaro pvü lo wochola? 1
(ii) Ntio tsso jina ngaro ji opvü opoang na Zikao ji elümoto nzana
vantok cho la? 2
(iii) Ntio yantso ngaro ji pvü opoang na Zikao picho la? Osi oki
yiathüng olan ni ntio tssocho la? 2
Mekana
b. Khapheni woa thüng ekhae thanpo jiang esüa thakzak mozaka
vahüngcho. Tolia ombo mpensü elani vanlanyilan jiang zesi lümetsson
matarocho.
(i) Zikao na ombo nzyu kvüta tssoa thüng khapheni wocho la? (1)
(ii) Chungiyi lona merangta khitao ji Zikao na vanphen kvütao
ji khicho la? (1)
(iii) Zikao na yantso teriv hungo ji thüng kvüto nchümcho la? (1)
(iv) Püngnoe jiang na Zikao ji ntio tsso ji na ekyo erong picho la? (1)
(v) Mmhona khasi potsow lüm erüng lia tssona ntio kümvü to Zikao
na nchümcho la? (1)
***************************
Nchümntan Motsü
18. Ntio lanka lona kyon jo ekümrüm lona mmhonkata to Zikao na phyocho la? 2
19. Zikao opvü ha opo onio ntio kvütvü kyon sana erana. 3
20. a. Zikao na kvüthüng khyocheta yicho sana opvü ha opo oni na mman
mmyoe tsotokvü tsükona oyam ngaro pvülo wotokcho.
(i) Zikao na nzyu kvüta tssoathüng oyam ngaro pvü lo wochola? 1
(ii) Ntio tsso jina ngaro ji opvü opoang na Zikao ji elümoto nzana
vantok cho la? 2
(iii) Ntio yantso ngaro ji pvü opoang na Zikao picho la? Osi oki
yiathüng olan ni ntio tssocho la? 2
Mekana
b. Khapheni woa thüng ekhae thanpo jiang esüa thakzak mozaka
vahüngcho. Tolia ombo mpensü elani vanlanyilan jiang zesi lümetsson
matarocho.
(i) Zikao na ombo nzyu kvüta tssoa thüng khapheni wocho la? (1)
(ii) Chungiyi lona merangta khitao ji Zikao na vanphen kvütao
ji khicho la? (1)
(iii) Zikao na yantso teriv hungo ji thüng kvüto nchümcho la? (1)
(iv) Püngnoe jiang na Zikao ji ntio tsso ji na ekyo erong picho la? (1)
(v) Mmhona khasi potsow lüm erüng lia tssona ntio kümvü to Zikao
na nchümcho la? (1)
***************************
Page 65
Total number of printed pages:5 NB/XII/HIS/I
2024
HISTORY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative: 10x1=10
1. Consider the following statements 1
i. Women were not expected to give up their father’s gotra on marrying.
ii. The members of the same gotra could not marry.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true (b) Only (i) is true
(c) Only (ii) is true (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
2 Which of the following is correctly matched? 1
(a) Vamsha – Marriage outside the social unit
(b) Kula - marriage
(c) Monoandry – two husbands at one time
(d) Vamsha - lineage
3. “The real message is to be found in the first sermon which he delivered
at the Deer Park at Benaras”. Who is ‘he’ referred to ? 1
(a) Mahavira (b) Kabir
(c) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (d) Buddha
4. Complete the following with the correct option; Polaj-annually cultivated,
Parati-occasionally left fallow; Chachar-fallow for about four years,
Banjar - ___ 1
1. Out of cultivation for more than ten years.
2. Out of cultivation for more than five years.
3. Out of cultivation for more than two years
4. Out of cultivation for more than one year.
2024
HISTORY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative: 10x1=10
1. Consider the following statements 1
i. Women were not expected to give up their father’s gotra on marrying.
ii. The members of the same gotra could not marry.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true (b) Only (i) is true
(c) Only (ii) is true (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
2 Which of the following is correctly matched? 1
(a) Vamsha – Marriage outside the social unit
(b) Kula - marriage
(c) Monoandry – two husbands at one time
(d) Vamsha - lineage
3. “The real message is to be found in the first sermon which he delivered
at the Deer Park at Benaras”. Who is ‘he’ referred to ? 1
(a) Mahavira (b) Kabir
(c) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (d) Buddha
4. Complete the following with the correct option; Polaj-annually cultivated,
Parati-occasionally left fallow; Chachar-fallow for about four years,
Banjar - ___ 1
1. Out of cultivation for more than ten years.
2. Out of cultivation for more than five years.
3. Out of cultivation for more than two years
4. Out of cultivation for more than one year.
Page 66
-2- NB/XII/HIS/I
5. One of the most important chronicles of the Mughals is 1
(a) Aranayakas (b) Tazikaras
(c) Malfuzat (d) Ain-i-Akbari
6. Identify the wrong match from the following 1
(a) Amara Nayaka System – Vijayanagara Dynasty
(b) Virupaksha temple - Orissa
(C) Harihara and Bukka Raya – founder of Vijayanagara Dynasty
(d) Iqta system – Delhi Sultanate
7. Arrange the following dynasty in chronological order;
i. Saluva ii. Sangama iii. Aravidu iv. Taluva 1
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) iv, iii, ii, i (d) ii, i, iii, iv
8. Complete the following with the correct option: Ibn Batutta-Moroccan
traveler, Niccolo Conti-Italian traveler, Marco Polo - _____ 1
(a) Venetian traveler (b) Chinese traveler
(c) Portuguese traveler (d) Persian traveler
9. Find the correct match from the following. 1
(a) Permanent Settlement-1875 (b) Santhal Rebellion-1793
(c) Deccan Riot-1855 (d) Treaty Allahabad-1765
10. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal? 1
(a) Lord Warren Hastings (b) Lord Corwallis
(c) Lord Willington (d) Lord Canning
11. Mention two reasons why Magadha rose to prominence. 2
12. Give two arguments in favour of the authenticity of the Mahabharata. 2
13. Why is social history called the ‘grassroots history’? 2
14. State any two functions of the village Panchayat. 2
15. The agrarian society considered women as an important source. Justify. 2
16. “He completed his great work “Rihla” and died at the age of seventy three”.
Identify the writer and the year of completion. 2
17. When did the Deccan Riots Commission present its report? According to
the report, what was the chief cause of the riot? 2
18. When was the constitution drafting committee formed? Who was its
Chairman? 2
5. One of the most important chronicles of the Mughals is 1
(a) Aranayakas (b) Tazikaras
(c) Malfuzat (d) Ain-i-Akbari
6. Identify the wrong match from the following 1
(a) Amara Nayaka System – Vijayanagara Dynasty
(b) Virupaksha temple - Orissa
(C) Harihara and Bukka Raya – founder of Vijayanagara Dynasty
(d) Iqta system – Delhi Sultanate
7. Arrange the following dynasty in chronological order;
i. Saluva ii. Sangama iii. Aravidu iv. Taluva 1
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) iv, iii, ii, i (d) ii, i, iii, iv
8. Complete the following with the correct option: Ibn Batutta-Moroccan
traveler, Niccolo Conti-Italian traveler, Marco Polo - _____ 1
(a) Venetian traveler (b) Chinese traveler
(c) Portuguese traveler (d) Persian traveler
9. Find the correct match from the following. 1
(a) Permanent Settlement-1875 (b) Santhal Rebellion-1793
(c) Deccan Riot-1855 (d) Treaty Allahabad-1765
10. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal? 1
(a) Lord Warren Hastings (b) Lord Corwallis
(c) Lord Willington (d) Lord Canning
11. Mention two reasons why Magadha rose to prominence. 2
12. Give two arguments in favour of the authenticity of the Mahabharata. 2
13. Why is social history called the ‘grassroots history’? 2
14. State any two functions of the village Panchayat. 2
15. The agrarian society considered women as an important source. Justify. 2
16. “He completed his great work “Rihla” and died at the age of seventy three”.
Identify the writer and the year of completion. 2
17. When did the Deccan Riots Commission present its report? According to
the report, what was the chief cause of the riot? 2
18. When was the constitution drafting committee formed? Who was its
Chairman? 2
Page 67
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19. Summarise the central teachings of Jainism. 4
20. Describe Al-Biruni’s account of the social condition of India. 4
21. Illustrate the ideals expressed in the Objective Resolution. 4
22. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Hampi Bazaar
Portuguese travellers Paes and Nuntiz visited Hampi in the mid-1500’s.
They gave an account of the Hampi Bazaar thus, “In this street lived many
merchants and there you will find all sorts of rubies, diamonds and emeralds,
pearls and seed pearls, and cloths that you may wish to buy”. They also
describe the life of some of the inhabitants of the city and how they are laden in
all their finery. “Who is he that could tell of the costliness and the value of
what each of these women carries on her person? So great is the weight of the
bracelets and gold and jewels carried by them that many of them cannot
support themselves, and other women accompany them assisting by supporting
their arms”. But today the bazaar and the people cut quite a different image.
Although coconuts and cheap drinks have replaced the pearls and diamonds,
the decay of the city afterwards has not eclipsed the glory of yesterday.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in Indian History
a. What commodities were sold in the bazaar? (1)
b. What is the condition of Hampi Bazaar today? (1)
c. Based on the source; how was the life condition of some inhabitants? (2)
23. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Periplus of the Erythraean sea
An anonymous Greek sailor wrote in his book ‘Periplus of the Erythraean sea’
about the significant centres of trade and commerce on Malabar coast in
southern India in ancient times. He writes “They send large ships to these
market-towns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and
malabathrum. There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of
coin: topaz … antimony, coral, crude, glass, copper, tin, lead … There is
exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these
markets … Besides this, there are exported great quantities of fine pearls,
ivory, silks cloths … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires,
and tortoise shell”
Source: Raghunath: Themes in Indian History
a. What does the anonymous Greek sailor write in his book ‘Periplus of
the Erythraean sea’? (2)
b. Identify the trading activities of south India. (2)
19. Summarise the central teachings of Jainism. 4
20. Describe Al-Biruni’s account of the social condition of India. 4
21. Illustrate the ideals expressed in the Objective Resolution. 4
22. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Hampi Bazaar
Portuguese travellers Paes and Nuntiz visited Hampi in the mid-1500’s.
They gave an account of the Hampi Bazaar thus, “In this street lived many
merchants and there you will find all sorts of rubies, diamonds and emeralds,
pearls and seed pearls, and cloths that you may wish to buy”. They also
describe the life of some of the inhabitants of the city and how they are laden in
all their finery. “Who is he that could tell of the costliness and the value of
what each of these women carries on her person? So great is the weight of the
bracelets and gold and jewels carried by them that many of them cannot
support themselves, and other women accompany them assisting by supporting
their arms”. But today the bazaar and the people cut quite a different image.
Although coconuts and cheap drinks have replaced the pearls and diamonds,
the decay of the city afterwards has not eclipsed the glory of yesterday.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in Indian History
a. What commodities were sold in the bazaar? (1)
b. What is the condition of Hampi Bazaar today? (1)
c. Based on the source; how was the life condition of some inhabitants? (2)
23. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Periplus of the Erythraean sea
An anonymous Greek sailor wrote in his book ‘Periplus of the Erythraean sea’
about the significant centres of trade and commerce on Malabar coast in
southern India in ancient times. He writes “They send large ships to these
market-towns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and
malabathrum. There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of
coin: topaz … antimony, coral, crude, glass, copper, tin, lead … There is
exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these
markets … Besides this, there are exported great quantities of fine pearls,
ivory, silks cloths … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires,
and tortoise shell”
Source: Raghunath: Themes in Indian History
a. What does the anonymous Greek sailor write in his book ‘Periplus of
the Erythraean sea’? (2)
b. Identify the trading activities of south India. (2)
Page 68
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24. a. Describe any six features of Sufism.
Or 6
b. Describe the religious effects of the Bhakti Movement.
25. a. Discuss the aims and programmes of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Or 6
b. Describe Gandhiji’s Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha.
26. a. Describe the story of discovery of Harappan Civilization up to the
present times.
Or 8
b. Describe the history of early urban centres of the Harappan Civilization.
27. a. Give an arguments in favour of the view that the Revolt of 1857 was a
sepoy mutiny.
Or 8
b. Describe the main events of the uprising of 1857 at Lucknow.
28. On the map given below, 6 (six) areas have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 and 6. Name these numbered places which represent the
following: 6x1=6
24. a. Describe any six features of Sufism.
Or 6
b. Describe the religious effects of the Bhakti Movement.
25. a. Discuss the aims and programmes of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Or 6
b. Describe Gandhiji’s Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha.
26. a. Describe the story of discovery of Harappan Civilization up to the
present times.
Or 8
b. Describe the history of early urban centres of the Harappan Civilization.
27. a. Give an arguments in favour of the view that the Revolt of 1857 was a
sepoy mutiny.
Or 8
b. Describe the main events of the uprising of 1857 at Lucknow.
28. On the map given below, 6 (six) areas have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 and 6. Name these numbered places which represent the
following: 6x1=6
Page 69
-5- NB/XII/HIS/I
(a) Dockyard (Harappa)
(b) Capital of Magadha
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(d) Amaravati Stupa
(e) Origin of the Revolt of 1857
(f) INC’s session 1885
Question for visually impaired students
(a) Where was the Dockyard discovered in Harappan Civilisation? (1)
(b) What was the Capital of Magadha? (1)
(c) Where did the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre take place? (1)
(d) Where is Amaravati Stupa located? (1)
(e) Name the place where the Revolt of 1857 originated. (1)
(f) Where was the INC session of 1885 held? (1)
***********************
(a) Dockyard (Harappa)
(b) Capital of Magadha
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(d) Amaravati Stupa
(e) Origin of the Revolt of 1857
(f) INC’s session 1885
Question for visually impaired students
(a) Where was the Dockyard discovered in Harappan Civilisation? (1)
(b) What was the Capital of Magadha? (1)
(c) Where did the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre take place? (1)
(d) Where is Amaravati Stupa located? (1)
(e) Name the place where the Revolt of 1857 originated. (1)
(f) Where was the INC session of 1885 held? (1)
***********************
Page 70
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XII/ACC/1
2024
ACCOUNTANCY
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximatley 15 mintues is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper contains 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Partnership Deed is also called___________________. 1
a) Prospectus b) Articles of Association
c) Principles of Partnership d) Articles of Partnership.
2. In the absence of Partnership Deed, the interest is allowed on partner’s capital
@ ___________________. 1
a) 10% per annum b) 12% per annum
c) 6% per annum d) No interest.
3. A and B were partners in the firm sharing profits or losses equally. With effect
from 1st April 2019, they agreed to share profits in the ratio of 4:3. Due to change
in profit sharing ratio, B’s gain or sacrifice will be____________. 1
a) Gain 1/14 b) Sacrifice 1/14
c) Gain 4/7 d) Sacrifice 3/7.
4. On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be
prepared last? 1
a) Realisation A/C b) Partner’s Capital A/C
c) Cash A/C d) Partner’s Loan A/C.
5. Authorised capital of a company is mentioned in _______________. 1
a) Memorandum of Association b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus d) Statement in lieu of Prospectus.
2024
ACCOUNTANCY
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximatley 15 mintues is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper contains 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Partnership Deed is also called___________________. 1
a) Prospectus b) Articles of Association
c) Principles of Partnership d) Articles of Partnership.
2. In the absence of Partnership Deed, the interest is allowed on partner’s capital
@ ___________________. 1
a) 10% per annum b) 12% per annum
c) 6% per annum d) No interest.
3. A and B were partners in the firm sharing profits or losses equally. With effect
from 1st April 2019, they agreed to share profits in the ratio of 4:3. Due to change
in profit sharing ratio, B’s gain or sacrifice will be____________. 1
a) Gain 1/14 b) Sacrifice 1/14
c) Gain 4/7 d) Sacrifice 3/7.
4. On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be
prepared last? 1
a) Realisation A/C b) Partner’s Capital A/C
c) Cash A/C d) Partner’s Loan A/C.
5. Authorised capital of a company is mentioned in _______________. 1
a) Memorandum of Association b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus d) Statement in lieu of Prospectus.
Page 71
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6. A company issued 50,000 shares of `20 each at 5% premium. `10 were payable
on application and balance on allotment. What will be the allotment amount? 1
a) `5,00,000 b) `4,75,000
c) `5,50,000 d) `5,25,000.
7. Debenture issued as collaterial security will be debited to____________. 1
a) Bank A/C b) Debenture Suspense A/C
c) Debenture A/C d) Bank Loan A/C.
8. Where is ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve’ transferred after redemption of all
debentures? 1
a) Capital Reserve A/C b) General Reserve A/C
c) Statement of Profit & Loss d) Sinking Fund A/C.
9. ‘Loose tools’ appear in the Company’s Balance Sheet under the
head/ sub head______________. 1
a) Inventory b) Non- Current Assets
c) Other Current Assets d) Stores and spare parts.
10. Standard current ratio is _____. 1
a) 2:1 b) 3:1
c) 1:2 d) 1:1.
11. State two classification of goodwill. 2
12. Give the journal entry to distribute ‘Workmen Compensation Reserve’ of `70,000
at the time of retirement of B when there is a claim of `25,000 against it. The firm
has three partners A, B and C. 2
13. Satyam Limited invited applications for issuing 10,000 equity shares of `100 each
at a premium of `20 per share.The whole amount was payable on application. The
issue was fully subscribed. Pass the necessary journal entries. 2
14. Write in brief any two methods of redumption of debentures. 2
15. State any two uses of financial analysis. 2
16. Compute total assets to debt ratio from the following information: 2
`
Fixed Assets 16,00,000
Non-Current Investment 2,00,000
Current Assets 7,60,000
Long Term Debt 16,00,000
6. A company issued 50,000 shares of `20 each at 5% premium. `10 were payable
on application and balance on allotment. What will be the allotment amount? 1
a) `5,00,000 b) `4,75,000
c) `5,50,000 d) `5,25,000.
7. Debenture issued as collaterial security will be debited to____________. 1
a) Bank A/C b) Debenture Suspense A/C
c) Debenture A/C d) Bank Loan A/C.
8. Where is ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve’ transferred after redemption of all
debentures? 1
a) Capital Reserve A/C b) General Reserve A/C
c) Statement of Profit & Loss d) Sinking Fund A/C.
9. ‘Loose tools’ appear in the Company’s Balance Sheet under the
head/ sub head______________. 1
a) Inventory b) Non- Current Assets
c) Other Current Assets d) Stores and spare parts.
10. Standard current ratio is _____. 1
a) 2:1 b) 3:1
c) 1:2 d) 1:1.
11. State two classification of goodwill. 2
12. Give the journal entry to distribute ‘Workmen Compensation Reserve’ of `70,000
at the time of retirement of B when there is a claim of `25,000 against it. The firm
has three partners A, B and C. 2
13. Satyam Limited invited applications for issuing 10,000 equity shares of `100 each
at a premium of `20 per share.The whole amount was payable on application. The
issue was fully subscribed. Pass the necessary journal entries. 2
14. Write in brief any two methods of redumption of debentures. 2
15. State any two uses of financial analysis. 2
16. Compute total assets to debt ratio from the following information: 2
`
Fixed Assets 16,00,000
Non-Current Investment 2,00,000
Current Assets 7,60,000
Long Term Debt 16,00,000
Page 72
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17. State which of the following would result inflow, outflow or no flow of cash: 2
i) Purchase of inventory for cash.
ii) Sale of goods costing `10,000 for `12,000 for cash.
iii) Shares issued for cash.
iv) Cash deposited into bank.
18. Calculate the interest on drawings of Mr.Aditya @8% per annum for the year ended
31st March 2021,in each of the following alternative cases: 2+2=4
i) If he withdrew `5,000 in the beginning of each quarter.
ii) If he withdrew `6,000 at the end of each quarter.
19. Write any four points of difference between firm’s debts and private debts. 4
20. Explain any four features of company. 4
21. a) A Limited Company offered for subscription 10,000 equity shares of `10 each
at a premium of `2 per share and 5,000, 10% Preference shares of ` 10 each at par.
The amount on equity shares was payable as follows:
On Application `3 per share
On Allotment `5 per share( including premium)
On 1st call `4 per share
The amount of preference shares was payable as follows:
On Application `3 per share
On Allotment `4 per share
On 1st call `3 per share
All the shares were fully subscribed, called up and paid.
Record these transactions in the jounal and cash book of the company.
Or 6
b) Alpha Limited issued 5,000 shares of `100 each at par. The amount payable
was as under:
`25 on Application
`25 on Allotment
`20 on 1st call and
`30 on final call.
The company did not make final call. X, a holder of 100 shares failed to pay
allotment and 1st call money. Directors forfeited his shares.
Pass journal entries in the books of the company.
22. a) Write any six points of difference between a share and a debenture.
Or 6
b) A company purchased assets of the book value of ` 9,90,000 from another
company. It was agreed that the purchase consideration be paid by issuing
11% debentures of `100 each. Assume that the debentures have been issued
(i) at par (ii) at a premium of 10% and (iii) at a discount of 10%.
Write necessary journal entries in the books of purchasing company.
17. State which of the following would result inflow, outflow or no flow of cash: 2
i) Purchase of inventory for cash.
ii) Sale of goods costing `10,000 for `12,000 for cash.
iii) Shares issued for cash.
iv) Cash deposited into bank.
18. Calculate the interest on drawings of Mr.Aditya @8% per annum for the year ended
31st March 2021,in each of the following alternative cases: 2+2=4
i) If he withdrew `5,000 in the beginning of each quarter.
ii) If he withdrew `6,000 at the end of each quarter.
19. Write any four points of difference between firm’s debts and private debts. 4
20. Explain any four features of company. 4
21. a) A Limited Company offered for subscription 10,000 equity shares of `10 each
at a premium of `2 per share and 5,000, 10% Preference shares of ` 10 each at par.
The amount on equity shares was payable as follows:
On Application `3 per share
On Allotment `5 per share( including premium)
On 1st call `4 per share
The amount of preference shares was payable as follows:
On Application `3 per share
On Allotment `4 per share
On 1st call `3 per share
All the shares were fully subscribed, called up and paid.
Record these transactions in the jounal and cash book of the company.
Or 6
b) Alpha Limited issued 5,000 shares of `100 each at par. The amount payable
was as under:
`25 on Application
`25 on Allotment
`20 on 1st call and
`30 on final call.
The company did not make final call. X, a holder of 100 shares failed to pay
allotment and 1st call money. Directors forfeited his shares.
Pass journal entries in the books of the company.
22. a) Write any six points of difference between a share and a debenture.
Or 6
b) A company purchased assets of the book value of ` 9,90,000 from another
company. It was agreed that the purchase consideration be paid by issuing
11% debentures of `100 each. Assume that the debentures have been issued
(i) at par (ii) at a premium of 10% and (iii) at a discount of 10%.
Write necessary journal entries in the books of purchasing company.
Page 73
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23. a. Prepare Common size Balance Sheet of Vishal Paper Limited from the
following information:
Particulars 31.3.2022 31.3.2021
( `) ( `)
Share Capital 21,00,000 21,00,000
Reserves and Surplus 9,10,000 6,00,000
Non- Current Liabilities 24,45,000 20,40,000
Current Liabilities 15,45,000 12,60,000
Non-Current Assets 43,40,000 36,00,000
Current Assets 26,60,000 24,00,000
Or 6
b. From the following information obtained from the books of Raja Limited,
calculate:
i) Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio, and
ii) Trade Payable Turnover Ratio
Information: (`)
Revenue from operations 15,00,000
Creditors 2,00,000
Bills Receivable 79,000
Bills Payable 87,000
Debtors 2,21,000
Purchases 11,48,000
24. a. A and B shares the profits of a business in the ratio of 5:3. They admit C into the
firm for 1/4th share in the profits to be contributed equally by A and B. On the date
of admission of C, the Balance Sheet of the firm was as follows:
Liabilities ` Assets `
A’s Capital 3,00,000 Machinery 2,60,000
B’s Capital 2,00,000 Furniture 1,60,000
Workmen’s Compensation Stock 1,20,000
Reserve 40,000 Debtors 80,000
Bank Loan 1,20,000 Bank 60,000
Creditors 20,000
6,80,000 6,80,000
Terms of C’s admission were as follows:
i) C will bring `3,30,000 for his share of capital and goodwill.
ii) Goodwill of the firm has been valued at 4 years purchase of the average super
profits of last three years. Average profits of the last three years are ` 2,20,000
while the normal profits that can be earned with the capital employed are
`1,40,000.
iii) Furniture is to be appreciated by `60,000 and the value of stock is to be reduced
by `20,000.
23. a. Prepare Common size Balance Sheet of Vishal Paper Limited from the
following information:
Particulars 31.3.2022 31.3.2021
( `) ( `)
Share Capital 21,00,000 21,00,000
Reserves and Surplus 9,10,000 6,00,000
Non- Current Liabilities 24,45,000 20,40,000
Current Liabilities 15,45,000 12,60,000
Non-Current Assets 43,40,000 36,00,000
Current Assets 26,60,000 24,00,000
Or 6
b. From the following information obtained from the books of Raja Limited,
calculate:
i) Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio, and
ii) Trade Payable Turnover Ratio
Information: (`)
Revenue from operations 15,00,000
Creditors 2,00,000
Bills Receivable 79,000
Bills Payable 87,000
Debtors 2,21,000
Purchases 11,48,000
24. a. A and B shares the profits of a business in the ratio of 5:3. They admit C into the
firm for 1/4th share in the profits to be contributed equally by A and B. On the date
of admission of C, the Balance Sheet of the firm was as follows:
Liabilities ` Assets `
A’s Capital 3,00,000 Machinery 2,60,000
B’s Capital 2,00,000 Furniture 1,60,000
Workmen’s Compensation Stock 1,20,000
Reserve 40,000 Debtors 80,000
Bank Loan 1,20,000 Bank 60,000
Creditors 20,000
6,80,000 6,80,000
Terms of C’s admission were as follows:
i) C will bring `3,30,000 for his share of capital and goodwill.
ii) Goodwill of the firm has been valued at 4 years purchase of the average super
profits of last three years. Average profits of the last three years are ` 2,20,000
while the normal profits that can be earned with the capital employed are
`1,40,000.
iii) Furniture is to be appreciated by `60,000 and the value of stock is to be reduced
by `20,000.
Page 74
-5- NB/XII/ACC/1
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Account and the New Balance Sheet of A, B
and C.
Or 8
b. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Their Balance
Sheet as at 31st March, 2020 was as follows:
Balance Sheet of A,B and C as at 31st March 2020
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 70,000 Bank 44,000
A’s Capital 90,000 Debtors 24,000
B’s Capital 56,000 Stock 60,000
C’s Capital 60,000 Building 1,40,000
Profit & Loss Account 8,000
2,76,000 2,76,000
On 1st April 2020, B retired on the following terms:
i) Building was to be depreciated by `10,000.
ii) A provision of 5% was to be made on debtors for doubtful debts.
iii) Salary outstanding was `4,800.
iv) Goodwill of the firm was valued at `1,40,000.
v) B was to be paid `20,800 through cheque and the balance was to be paid in two
equal quaterly instalments (starting from 30th June 2020) along with interest @
10% per annum.
Prepare Revaluation Account, B’s Capital Account and B’s Loan Account till
finally paid.
25. a. Prepare a Cash Flow Statement on the basis of the information given in the
Balance Sheets of ABC Limited as at 31st March 2022 and 2021.
Balance Sheets of ABC Limited as at 31.03.2022 &2021
Particulars 31.3.2022 31.3.2021
` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
a) Share Capital 70,000 60,000
b) Reserves & Surplus 44,000 8,000
ii) Non-Current Liabilities:
a) Long-term borrowing(debentures) 50,000 50,000
iii) Current Liabilities:
a) Trade payables 25,000 9,000
Total 1,89,000 1,27,000
II. Assets
i) Non-Current Assets:
a) Fixed Assets:
-Tangible Fixed Assets 98,000 84,000
b) Non-Current Investments 16,000 6,000
ii) Current Assets:
a) Current Investments 18,000 20,000
b) Inventories 49,000 12,000
c) Cash & Bank balances 8,000 5,000
Total 1,89,000 1,27,000
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Account and the New Balance Sheet of A, B
and C.
Or 8
b. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Their Balance
Sheet as at 31st March, 2020 was as follows:
Balance Sheet of A,B and C as at 31st March 2020
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 70,000 Bank 44,000
A’s Capital 90,000 Debtors 24,000
B’s Capital 56,000 Stock 60,000
C’s Capital 60,000 Building 1,40,000
Profit & Loss Account 8,000
2,76,000 2,76,000
On 1st April 2020, B retired on the following terms:
i) Building was to be depreciated by `10,000.
ii) A provision of 5% was to be made on debtors for doubtful debts.
iii) Salary outstanding was `4,800.
iv) Goodwill of the firm was valued at `1,40,000.
v) B was to be paid `20,800 through cheque and the balance was to be paid in two
equal quaterly instalments (starting from 30th June 2020) along with interest @
10% per annum.
Prepare Revaluation Account, B’s Capital Account and B’s Loan Account till
finally paid.
25. a. Prepare a Cash Flow Statement on the basis of the information given in the
Balance Sheets of ABC Limited as at 31st March 2022 and 2021.
Balance Sheets of ABC Limited as at 31.03.2022 &2021
Particulars 31.3.2022 31.3.2021
` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
a) Share Capital 70,000 60,000
b) Reserves & Surplus 44,000 8,000
ii) Non-Current Liabilities:
a) Long-term borrowing(debentures) 50,000 50,000
iii) Current Liabilities:
a) Trade payables 25,000 9,000
Total 1,89,000 1,27,000
II. Assets
i) Non-Current Assets:
a) Fixed Assets:
-Tangible Fixed Assets 98,000 84,000
b) Non-Current Investments 16,000 6,000
ii) Current Assets:
a) Current Investments 18,000 20,000
b) Inventories 49,000 12,000
c) Cash & Bank balances 8,000 5,000
Total 1,89,000 1,27,000
Page 75
-6- NB/XII/ACC/1
Additional information:
i) Depreciation provided on tangible assets (Machinery) during the year `8,000.
ii) Interest paid on debenture `5,000.
Or 8
b. Following are the Balance Sheets of Krishtec Limited as at 31st March, 2022 and
31st March, 2021:
Balance Sheets of Krishtec Limited as at 31st March 2022 & 2021
31.3.2022 31.3.2021
Particulars ` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
a) Share Capital 12,00,000 8,00,000
b)Reserves & Surplus(Profit & Loss
Balance) 3,50,000 4,00,000
ii) Non-Current Liabilities:
Long-term borrowings 4,40,000 3,50,000
iii) Current Liabilities:
Trade payables 60,000 50,000
Total 20,50,000 16,00,000
II. Assets
i) Non-Current Assets:
a) Tangible Fixed Assets 12,00,000 9,00,000
ii) Current Assets:
a) Inventories 2,00,000 1,00,000
b) Trade Receivables 3,10,000 2,30,000
c) Cash & cash equivalents 3,40,000 3,70,000
Total 20,50,000 16,00,000
Prepare a Cash Flow Statement after taking into account the following adjustments:
i) The company paid interest `36,000 on its long term borrowings.
ii) Depreciation charged on tangible fixed assets was `1,20,000.
***************************
Additional information:
i) Depreciation provided on tangible assets (Machinery) during the year `8,000.
ii) Interest paid on debenture `5,000.
Or 8
b. Following are the Balance Sheets of Krishtec Limited as at 31st March, 2022 and
31st March, 2021:
Balance Sheets of Krishtec Limited as at 31st March 2022 & 2021
31.3.2022 31.3.2021
Particulars ` `
I. Equity & Liabilities
i) Shareholders’ Funds:
a) Share Capital 12,00,000 8,00,000
b)Reserves & Surplus(Profit & Loss
Balance) 3,50,000 4,00,000
ii) Non-Current Liabilities:
Long-term borrowings 4,40,000 3,50,000
iii) Current Liabilities:
Trade payables 60,000 50,000
Total 20,50,000 16,00,000
II. Assets
i) Non-Current Assets:
a) Tangible Fixed Assets 12,00,000 9,00,000
ii) Current Assets:
a) Inventories 2,00,000 1,00,000
b) Trade Receivables 3,10,000 2,30,000
c) Cash & cash equivalents 3,40,000 3,70,000
Total 20,50,000 16,00,000
Prepare a Cash Flow Statement after taking into account the following adjustments:
i) The company paid interest `36,000 on its long term borrowings.
ii) Depreciation charged on tangible fixed assets was `1,20,000.
***************************
Page 76
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/PHY/1
2024
PHYSICS
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point.
The potential energy of a test charge will 1
(a) remain the same (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) becomes zero.
2. The current I in the following circuit given below is 1
(a) 1.7 A (b) 3.7 A
(c) 1.3 A (d) 1A
3. A magnetic needle is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, it experiences 1
(a) a force and a torque (b) a force but not torque
(c) a torque but not a force (d) neither a torque nor a force
4. Eddy currents are produced in 1
(a) induction furnace (b) electromagnetic brakes
(c) speedometer (d) all of these.
5. Which one among the following does not represent Maxwell’s equation? 1
q
(a) E.d A (b) B.d A 0
0
dB d
E
(c) E.dl (d) B.dl 0 I C 0 E0 .
dt dt
2024
PHYSICS
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point.
The potential energy of a test charge will 1
(a) remain the same (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) becomes zero.
2. The current I in the following circuit given below is 1
(a) 1.7 A (b) 3.7 A
(c) 1.3 A (d) 1A
3. A magnetic needle is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, it experiences 1
(a) a force and a torque (b) a force but not torque
(c) a torque but not a force (d) neither a torque nor a force
4. Eddy currents are produced in 1
(a) induction furnace (b) electromagnetic brakes
(c) speedometer (d) all of these.
5. Which one among the following does not represent Maxwell’s equation? 1
q
(a) E.d A (b) B.d A 0
0
dB d
E
(c) E.dl (d) B.dl 0 I C 0 E0 .
dt dt
Page 77
-2- NB/XII/PHY/1
6. When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then 1
(a) its frequency and velocity change.
(b) only frequency changes
(c) its frequency and wavelength changes
(d) its frequency does not change.
7. If we consider electrons and photons of same wavelength, then they will
have same 1
(a) energy (b) velocity
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
8. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1:3, the ratio of the nuclear
densities are 1
(a) 3:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:9 (d) 1:3
9. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and
conduction band is of the order of 1
(a) 5 eV (b) 1 eV (c) 2 MeV (d) 10-3eV
10. Which of the following is not a transducer? 1
(a) Loudspeaker (b) Amplifier
(c) Microphone (d) All of these.
11. What does q1 q2 0 signify in electrostatics? 1
12. How can a resistance of 3700 10% be represented by colour code? 1
13. The electric current in a wire in the direction from B to A is increasing.
What is the direction of induced current in the metallic loop kept above
the wire as shown in figure? 1
14. Define binding energy of a nucleus. 1
15. Pure Si at 300K has equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentration of
1.5 1016 m 3 . Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 10 22 m 3 .
Calculate ne in the doped silicon. 1
16. What is meant by bandwidth in communication ? 1
17. Give two properties of equipotential surface. 2
6. When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then 1
(a) its frequency and velocity change.
(b) only frequency changes
(c) its frequency and wavelength changes
(d) its frequency does not change.
7. If we consider electrons and photons of same wavelength, then they will
have same 1
(a) energy (b) velocity
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
8. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1:3, the ratio of the nuclear
densities are 1
(a) 3:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:9 (d) 1:3
9. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and
conduction band is of the order of 1
(a) 5 eV (b) 1 eV (c) 2 MeV (d) 10-3eV
10. Which of the following is not a transducer? 1
(a) Loudspeaker (b) Amplifier
(c) Microphone (d) All of these.
11. What does q1 q2 0 signify in electrostatics? 1
12. How can a resistance of 3700 10% be represented by colour code? 1
13. The electric current in a wire in the direction from B to A is increasing.
What is the direction of induced current in the metallic loop kept above
the wire as shown in figure? 1
14. Define binding energy of a nucleus. 1
15. Pure Si at 300K has equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentration of
1.5 1016 m 3 . Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 10 22 m 3 .
Calculate ne in the doped silicon. 1
16. What is meant by bandwidth in communication ? 1
17. Give two properties of equipotential surface. 2
Page 78
-3- NB/XII/PHY/1
18. a. An element l xiˆ is placed at the origin and carries a large current
I 10 A . What is the magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of
0.5m. x 1cm .
Or 2
b. A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10cm carries a
current of 3.2A. The coil is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 2T in the direction of the field. The coil rotates through
an angle 90 under the influence of the field. What is the magnetic
moment of the coil and the magnitude of the torque acting on the coil?
19. Prove Ampere’s circuital law for a circular path around a long current
carrying conductor. 2
20. a. Show that the ratio of electric and magnetic fields is always constant
and is equal to the speed of electromagnetic waves.
Or 2
b. What is electromagnetic spectrum? Name the electromagnetic waves
that have frequencies greater than those of ultra-violet light but less
than those of gamma rays.
21. Calculate the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral
lines. 2
22. The audio signal cannot be transmitted directly into the space. Why? 2
23. a. Find the electric potential at any point due to an electric dipole.
Or 3
b. Obtain the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. What is the
function of a dielectric in a capacitor?
18. a. An element l xiˆ is placed at the origin and carries a large current
I 10 A . What is the magnetic field on the y-axis at a distance of
0.5m. x 1cm .
Or 2
b. A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10cm carries a
current of 3.2A. The coil is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 2T in the direction of the field. The coil rotates through
an angle 90 under the influence of the field. What is the magnetic
moment of the coil and the magnitude of the torque acting on the coil?
19. Prove Ampere’s circuital law for a circular path around a long current
carrying conductor. 2
20. a. Show that the ratio of electric and magnetic fields is always constant
and is equal to the speed of electromagnetic waves.
Or 2
b. What is electromagnetic spectrum? Name the electromagnetic waves
that have frequencies greater than those of ultra-violet light but less
than those of gamma rays.
21. Calculate the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral
lines. 2
22. The audio signal cannot be transmitted directly into the space. Why? 2
23. a. Find the electric potential at any point due to an electric dipole.
Or 3
b. Obtain the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. What is the
function of a dielectric in a capacitor?
Page 79
-4- NB/XII/PHY/1
24. An electric dipole of dipole moment 20 10 6 cm is enclosed in a
Gaussian surface. What is the net charge enclosed by the surface? If the
radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled, how much flux would pass
through the surface? Give the SI unit of electric flux. 3
25. a. Find the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor when an
electric field is applied across the ends of the conductor. What
happens to drift velocity, if length of the conductor is doubled?
Or 3
b. Deduce the expression for equivalent emf of two cells connected in
parallel having different emfs and different internal resistances.
26. Derive an expression for the force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic fields. Under what condition this force
is zero? 3
27. A very small circular loop of area 5 10 4 m 2 , resistance 2 and negligible
inductance is initially coplanar and concentric with a much larger fixed
circular loop of radius 0.1m. A constant current of 1A is passed in the
bigger loop and the smaller loop is rotated with angular velocity rads 1
about a diameter. Calculate
i) the flux linked with the smaller loop ii) induced emf and
iii) induced current in the smaller loop, as a function of time. 3
28. a. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth
of the needle lying at the bottom of the tank is measured by a
microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the refractive index of water? If
water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same
height, by what distance would the microscope have to be moved to
focus on the needle again?
Or 3
b. Find the position of the image formed by the lens combination given
in the figure.
24. An electric dipole of dipole moment 20 10 6 cm is enclosed in a
Gaussian surface. What is the net charge enclosed by the surface? If the
radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled, how much flux would pass
through the surface? Give the SI unit of electric flux. 3
25. a. Find the drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor when an
electric field is applied across the ends of the conductor. What
happens to drift velocity, if length of the conductor is doubled?
Or 3
b. Deduce the expression for equivalent emf of two cells connected in
parallel having different emfs and different internal resistances.
26. Derive an expression for the force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic fields. Under what condition this force
is zero? 3
27. A very small circular loop of area 5 10 4 m 2 , resistance 2 and negligible
inductance is initially coplanar and concentric with a much larger fixed
circular loop of radius 0.1m. A constant current of 1A is passed in the
bigger loop and the smaller loop is rotated with angular velocity rads 1
about a diameter. Calculate
i) the flux linked with the smaller loop ii) induced emf and
iii) induced current in the smaller loop, as a function of time. 3
28. a. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth
of the needle lying at the bottom of the tank is measured by a
microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the refractive index of water? If
water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same
height, by what distance would the microscope have to be moved to
focus on the needle again?
Or 3
b. Find the position of the image formed by the lens combination given
in the figure.
Page 80
-5- NB/XII/PHY/1
29. Derive a relation between focal length of a double convex lens and its radii
of curvature. 3
30. Draw a graph to show the variation of stopping potential with frequency of
radiations incident on a metal plate. How can the value of Plank’s constant
be determined from this graph? 3
31. Using postulates of Bohr’s theory of H-atom, show that the radii of the
orbits in hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is the principal quantum
number of the atom. 3
32. a. Explain the principle and construction of an AC generator with a
labelled diagram. Also, find the expression for the instantaneous
emf produced by it.
Or 5
b. With the help of a phasor diagram, obtain the relation for impedance
and phase angle of an AC series LCR circuit.
33. Draw a ray diagram of a compound microscope when the image is formed
at near point of the eye. Deduce an expression for its magnifying power.
How can the magnifying power be increased? 5
34. a. What is an intrinsic semiconductor?
Explain, how an intrinsic semiconductor can be converted into
i) n-type and ii). p-type semiconductor with a diagram.
How does the addition of impurity affect the energy band gap in
a semi-conductor?
Or 5
b. Explain the working of an n-p-n transistor as an amplifier in
common emitter configuration with a circuit diagram. Also, find
the power gain of the amplifier.
**********************
29. Derive a relation between focal length of a double convex lens and its radii
of curvature. 3
30. Draw a graph to show the variation of stopping potential with frequency of
radiations incident on a metal plate. How can the value of Plank’s constant
be determined from this graph? 3
31. Using postulates of Bohr’s theory of H-atom, show that the radii of the
orbits in hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is the principal quantum
number of the atom. 3
32. a. Explain the principle and construction of an AC generator with a
labelled diagram. Also, find the expression for the instantaneous
emf produced by it.
Or 5
b. With the help of a phasor diagram, obtain the relation for impedance
and phase angle of an AC series LCR circuit.
33. Draw a ray diagram of a compound microscope when the image is formed
at near point of the eye. Deduce an expression for its magnifying power.
How can the magnifying power be increased? 5
34. a. What is an intrinsic semiconductor?
Explain, how an intrinsic semiconductor can be converted into
i) n-type and ii). p-type semiconductor with a diagram.
How does the addition of impurity affect the energy band gap in
a semi-conductor?
Or 5
b. Explain the working of an n-p-n transistor as an amplifier in
common emitter configuration with a circuit diagram. Also, find
the power gain of the amplifier.
**********************
Page 81
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/SGY/I
2024
SOCIOLOGY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives from questions 1 to 10.
1. Blind loyalty to one’s own religious community. 1
(a) Communalism (b) Fanaticism (c) Fundamentalism (d) Regionalism
2. How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule at present? 1
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 28
3. Infant mortality is the death of children who have not completed the age of: 1
(a) 0 to 1 year (b) 1 to 2 years (c) 2 to 3 years (d) 3 to 4 years
4. What does KAP stand for? 1
(a) Knowledge, Agriculture and Programme (b) Knowledge, Attitude and Programme
(c) Knowledge, Application and Practice (d) Knowledge Attitude and Practice
5. If the family’s descendant is traced through both the male and the female line, what descent
is it called? 1
(a) Patrilineal (b) Matrilineal (c) Bilineal (d) Unilineal
6. Which of the following is not a form of Hindu marriage? 1
(a) Diava (b) Arsha (c) Sahi (d) Asura
7. What is the significance of observing Genna days? 1
(a) During birth of a child (b) Before going on a hunting expedition
(c) To avert calamities caused by the spirits (d) To please the good spirits.
8. Which type of farming is not a form of shifting cultivation? 1
(a) Jhum cultivation (b) Terrace cultivation(c) Slash and burn (d) Swidden
9. Who is the author of “Modernization of Indian Tradition”? 1
(a) M.N Srinivas (b) Yogendra Singh (c) G.S Ghurye (d) R.K Mukherjee
2024
SOCIOLOGY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives from questions 1 to 10.
1. Blind loyalty to one’s own religious community. 1
(a) Communalism (b) Fanaticism (c) Fundamentalism (d) Regionalism
2. How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule at present? 1
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 28
3. Infant mortality is the death of children who have not completed the age of: 1
(a) 0 to 1 year (b) 1 to 2 years (c) 2 to 3 years (d) 3 to 4 years
4. What does KAP stand for? 1
(a) Knowledge, Agriculture and Programme (b) Knowledge, Attitude and Programme
(c) Knowledge, Application and Practice (d) Knowledge Attitude and Practice
5. If the family’s descendant is traced through both the male and the female line, what descent
is it called? 1
(a) Patrilineal (b) Matrilineal (c) Bilineal (d) Unilineal
6. Which of the following is not a form of Hindu marriage? 1
(a) Diava (b) Arsha (c) Sahi (d) Asura
7. What is the significance of observing Genna days? 1
(a) During birth of a child (b) Before going on a hunting expedition
(c) To avert calamities caused by the spirits (d) To please the good spirits.
8. Which type of farming is not a form of shifting cultivation? 1
(a) Jhum cultivation (b) Terrace cultivation(c) Slash and burn (d) Swidden
9. Who is the author of “Modernization of Indian Tradition”? 1
(a) M.N Srinivas (b) Yogendra Singh (c) G.S Ghurye (d) R.K Mukherjee
Page 82
-2- NB/XII/SGY/I
10. What term was used by M.N Srinivas to describe the Western impact on Indian culture? 1
(a) Globalisation (b) Urbanisation (c) Westernisation (d) Secularisation
11. Write the two aspects of religion. 2
12. Why is social and occupational mobility limited in the villages as compared to urban
centres? 2
13. Social change as a process has two major dimensions. Name them. 2
14. Mention two factors that has led to the decline in importance of religion in public affairs. 2
15. Give the full form of HYVP and SFDA. 2
16. Highlight the distinctions between print media and audio-visual media. 2
17. What is meant by personality and values? 2
18. Who founded the Indian Sociological Society and when? 2
19. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. 2+2=4
Unity in diversity is a part of India’s self-identity. There is a great amount of diversity in
Indian society in terms of geography, race, religion, language, community and culture.
In Nagaland ‘Unity in diversity’ is well exemplified through the harmonious co-
existence of its diverse tribes, languages, cultures and traditions. These tribes carry certain
folklores depicting the gallant acts of their ancestors. Each tribe is unique with its customs,
dialect, cuisine and more. Their costumes aptly display the ancestral lineage. The design of
shawl denotes the social status of the wearer. The attire worn by the males include a conical
red headgear decorated with hornbill’s black and white feathers and wild boar’s canine teeth.
Also, one cannot overlook the necklaces, the bangles and the tattoos which are reminiscent
of the old age war and sacrifices. In the structure of Naga society, there is no class or caste.
Socially, a tribe consist of subdivisions called clans. Thus, Nagaland is known for its diverse
culture and traditions.
(a) How is ‘Unity in Diversity’ exemplified in Nagaland?
(b) How does different tribes show cast their folklores and ancestral lineage through their
costumes?
20. Write any four features of urban community. 4
21. “The process of Sanskritisation is beneficial for the lower Caste”. Discuss. 4
22. What are the features of social movements? 4
23. How does Yogendra Singh analyse the modernisation of Indian tradition? 4
10. What term was used by M.N Srinivas to describe the Western impact on Indian culture? 1
(a) Globalisation (b) Urbanisation (c) Westernisation (d) Secularisation
11. Write the two aspects of religion. 2
12. Why is social and occupational mobility limited in the villages as compared to urban
centres? 2
13. Social change as a process has two major dimensions. Name them. 2
14. Mention two factors that has led to the decline in importance of religion in public affairs. 2
15. Give the full form of HYVP and SFDA. 2
16. Highlight the distinctions between print media and audio-visual media. 2
17. What is meant by personality and values? 2
18. Who founded the Indian Sociological Society and when? 2
19. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. 2+2=4
Unity in diversity is a part of India’s self-identity. There is a great amount of diversity in
Indian society in terms of geography, race, religion, language, community and culture.
In Nagaland ‘Unity in diversity’ is well exemplified through the harmonious co-
existence of its diverse tribes, languages, cultures and traditions. These tribes carry certain
folklores depicting the gallant acts of their ancestors. Each tribe is unique with its customs,
dialect, cuisine and more. Their costumes aptly display the ancestral lineage. The design of
shawl denotes the social status of the wearer. The attire worn by the males include a conical
red headgear decorated with hornbill’s black and white feathers and wild boar’s canine teeth.
Also, one cannot overlook the necklaces, the bangles and the tattoos which are reminiscent
of the old age war and sacrifices. In the structure of Naga society, there is no class or caste.
Socially, a tribe consist of subdivisions called clans. Thus, Nagaland is known for its diverse
culture and traditions.
(a) How is ‘Unity in Diversity’ exemplified in Nagaland?
(b) How does different tribes show cast their folklores and ancestral lineage through their
costumes?
20. Write any four features of urban community. 4
21. “The process of Sanskritisation is beneficial for the lower Caste”. Discuss. 4
22. What are the features of social movements? 4
23. How does Yogendra Singh analyse the modernisation of Indian tradition? 4
Page 83
-3- NB/XII/SGY/I
24. (a) Explain marriage from a Christian perspective and elaborate the procedure that follows
for a valid Christian marriage. 6
Or
(b) Explain how North Indian kinship differs from South Indian kinship.
25. (a) Shifting cultivation is not merely a way of growing food; it is a way of life. How is shifting
cultivation associated with communal ownership or jurisdiction?
Or 6
(b) Write an account on the emergence of Nagaland as a State.
26. (a) Elaborate the meaning of the terms ‘mass’ and ‘media’. What are the positive impacts of
mass media? 2+4=6
Or
(b) Discuss the changes brought about in the Indian education system during the British rule. (6)
27. (a) Which section of the Caste is termed OBC? Discuss the problems of the OBCs.
Or 2+6=8
(b) Which section of the community belongs to the minorities? Explain the Constitutional
Provision for the minorities.
28. (a) What is meant by Green Revolution? Has the Green Revolution been beneficial to all the
sections of the farming community? 2+6=8
Or
(b) Explain any four implications of Globalisation. (8)
***********************
24. (a) Explain marriage from a Christian perspective and elaborate the procedure that follows
for a valid Christian marriage. 6
Or
(b) Explain how North Indian kinship differs from South Indian kinship.
25. (a) Shifting cultivation is not merely a way of growing food; it is a way of life. How is shifting
cultivation associated with communal ownership or jurisdiction?
Or 6
(b) Write an account on the emergence of Nagaland as a State.
26. (a) Elaborate the meaning of the terms ‘mass’ and ‘media’. What are the positive impacts of
mass media? 2+4=6
Or
(b) Discuss the changes brought about in the Indian education system during the British rule. (6)
27. (a) Which section of the Caste is termed OBC? Discuss the problems of the OBCs.
Or 2+6=8
(b) Which section of the community belongs to the minorities? Explain the Constitutional
Provision for the minorities.
28. (a) What is meant by Green Revolution? Has the Green Revolution been beneficial to all the
sections of the farming community? 2+6=8
Or
(b) Explain any four implications of Globalisation. (8)
***********************
Page 84
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/BS/I
2024
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full mark: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not the personal objective of management? 1
a) Financial needs like salaries, perks and other monetary benefits
b) Social needs like recognition in the organization
c) Providing quality goods and services at reasonable prices
d) Higher level needs which include personal growth and development.
2. In an organization, employees are happy and satisfied, there is no chaos and the
effect of management is noticeable. This statement indicates that, management
is_________. 1
a) An intangible force b) A multi-dimensional activity
c) A group activity d) A dynamic function.
3. To see whether plans are implemented and activities are being performed according
to schedule is a step of planning process. Identify the step. 1
a) Developing process b) Identifying alternative course of action
c) Implementing the plan d) Follow up action.
4. When did the Government of India announced the demonitisation of all `500 and
`1,000 bank notes? 1
a) 8 November 2015 b) 8 November 2016
c) 8 November 2018 d) 8 November 2018.
2024
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full mark: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not the personal objective of management? 1
a) Financial needs like salaries, perks and other monetary benefits
b) Social needs like recognition in the organization
c) Providing quality goods and services at reasonable prices
d) Higher level needs which include personal growth and development.
2. In an organization, employees are happy and satisfied, there is no chaos and the
effect of management is noticeable. This statement indicates that, management
is_________. 1
a) An intangible force b) A multi-dimensional activity
c) A group activity d) A dynamic function.
3. To see whether plans are implemented and activities are being performed according
to schedule is a step of planning process. Identify the step. 1
a) Developing process b) Identifying alternative course of action
c) Implementing the plan d) Follow up action.
4. When did the Government of India announced the demonitisation of all `500 and
`1,000 bank notes? 1
a) 8 November 2015 b) 8 November 2016
c) 8 November 2018 d) 8 November 2018.
Page 85
-2- NB/XII/BS/I
5. Shubham wants to increase the sales of his business by 20% and return on investment
by 10% in the next quarter. Identify the types of plan being described in the above line.
1
a) Method b) Objective
c) Strategy d) Programme.
6. Sharda Limited is pursuing diversified activities and operations which require a high
degree of specialization. Identify the type of structure that should be followed by
Sharda Limited. 1
a) Functional structure b) Divisional structure
c) Decentralised structure d) Informal structure.
7. Which standard is associated with production? 1
a) Flow of cash b) Volume of sales
c) Labour turnover d) Quantity and quality.
8. Pnagya bought an iron of a reputed brand for `1,500, but it caused an electric shock
while it was being used. Pnagya wants to exercise her ‘right’. Identify the ‘right’
under which she can be protected. 1
a) Right to choose b) Right to be informed
b) Right to safety d) Right to consumer education.
9. Which of the following is not an element of delegation? 1
a) Responsibility b) Authority
c) Accountability d) Decentralisation.
10. Who can file a complaint? 1
a) Any consumer
b) Registered consumer association
c) A legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer
d) All of the above.
11. What is meant by ‘Effectiveness’ and ‘Efficiency’? 2
12. Pradeep is working in a sugar factory (Sweet India Limited). The management
asked him to work overtime so as to produce more in order to meet increasing
demand in the market. But he was not paid adequate wages for extra time worked.
He felt dissatisfied all the time and never contributed to his maximum.
i) Which principle of Fayol is violated in the above case? 1
ii) State the principle. 1
13. Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction. 2
5. Shubham wants to increase the sales of his business by 20% and return on investment
by 10% in the next quarter. Identify the types of plan being described in the above line.
1
a) Method b) Objective
c) Strategy d) Programme.
6. Sharda Limited is pursuing diversified activities and operations which require a high
degree of specialization. Identify the type of structure that should be followed by
Sharda Limited. 1
a) Functional structure b) Divisional structure
c) Decentralised structure d) Informal structure.
7. Which standard is associated with production? 1
a) Flow of cash b) Volume of sales
c) Labour turnover d) Quantity and quality.
8. Pnagya bought an iron of a reputed brand for `1,500, but it caused an electric shock
while it was being used. Pnagya wants to exercise her ‘right’. Identify the ‘right’
under which she can be protected. 1
a) Right to choose b) Right to be informed
b) Right to safety d) Right to consumer education.
9. Which of the following is not an element of delegation? 1
a) Responsibility b) Authority
c) Accountability d) Decentralisation.
10. Who can file a complaint? 1
a) Any consumer
b) Registered consumer association
c) A legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer
d) All of the above.
11. What is meant by ‘Effectiveness’ and ‘Efficiency’? 2
12. Pradeep is working in a sugar factory (Sweet India Limited). The management
asked him to work overtime so as to produce more in order to meet increasing
demand in the market. But he was not paid adequate wages for extra time worked.
He felt dissatisfied all the time and never contributed to his maximum.
i) Which principle of Fayol is violated in the above case? 1
ii) State the principle. 1
13. Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction. 2
Page 86
-3- NB/XII/BS/I
14. Mention any two features of motivation. 2
15. “Advertising confuses rather than helps”. Give two reasons in favour to this statement.2
16. List any four functions of packaging. 2
17. State any two remedies available to a consumer under Consumer Protection Act. 2
18. Mr. Piyush purchased one laptop for `70,000 from ABC Electronics. After few
days of operating the laptop, Mr. Piyush found the keyboard of the laptop
is defective. He filed his complaint to ABC Electronics. Despite many complaints,
the defect was not rectified:
i) Where can he file his complaint? 1
ii) State the period within which the complaint can be filed. 1
19. Monika, Rashmi and Garima are childhood friends. After completing their education,
Monika joined a school as a teacher. Rashmi joined a firm as a Chartered Accountant
and Garima as a General Manager in Multi National Company. After a long time in a
re-union function of the school, they met each other. Rashmi said that they were all
professionals now. Garima told Rashmi that she can say this about Monika and
Rashmi but not about her.
i) Why did Garima say that she was not a professional? 1
ii) State any three points in support to your answer. 3
20. Explain any four nature of Principles of Management. 4
21. Explain any four advantages of demonetization. 4
22. Explain any four importance of controlling. 4
23. Maruti Suzuki Limited, sold their car at a discount of `20,000 for a limited period
to clear off excess stock, while Hyundai started with a scheme of giving a radio with
every purchase of their car.
i) Which promotional tool was used by both the companies? 1
ii) What promotional technique of promotion did Maruti apply? 1
iii) What promotional technique did hyundai apply? 1
iv) What is the basic purpose of both the companies? 1
24. a) Distinguish between objective and policy.
Or 6
b) Distinguish between policy and procedure.
14. Mention any two features of motivation. 2
15. “Advertising confuses rather than helps”. Give two reasons in favour to this statement.2
16. List any four functions of packaging. 2
17. State any two remedies available to a consumer under Consumer Protection Act. 2
18. Mr. Piyush purchased one laptop for `70,000 from ABC Electronics. After few
days of operating the laptop, Mr. Piyush found the keyboard of the laptop
is defective. He filed his complaint to ABC Electronics. Despite many complaints,
the defect was not rectified:
i) Where can he file his complaint? 1
ii) State the period within which the complaint can be filed. 1
19. Monika, Rashmi and Garima are childhood friends. After completing their education,
Monika joined a school as a teacher. Rashmi joined a firm as a Chartered Accountant
and Garima as a General Manager in Multi National Company. After a long time in a
re-union function of the school, they met each other. Rashmi said that they were all
professionals now. Garima told Rashmi that she can say this about Monika and
Rashmi but not about her.
i) Why did Garima say that she was not a professional? 1
ii) State any three points in support to your answer. 3
20. Explain any four nature of Principles of Management. 4
21. Explain any four advantages of demonetization. 4
22. Explain any four importance of controlling. 4
23. Maruti Suzuki Limited, sold their car at a discount of `20,000 for a limited period
to clear off excess stock, while Hyundai started with a scheme of giving a radio with
every purchase of their car.
i) Which promotional tool was used by both the companies? 1
ii) What promotional technique of promotion did Maruti apply? 1
iii) What promotional technique did hyundai apply? 1
iv) What is the basic purpose of both the companies? 1
24. a) Distinguish between objective and policy.
Or 6
b) Distinguish between policy and procedure.
Page 87
-4- NB/XII/BS/I
25. a) Due to spread of COVID -19 pandemic, employees of almost all the companies
were working online from their homes. In 2022 when most of the companies called
them back to their office and start working offline, ‘Taty Software Limited’ asked
their employees to work from home. Because of this, employees of ‘Taty Software
Limited’ were feeling bored, hence for recreation, they formed a cricket club. They
started meeting every Saturday and Sunday on a ground near their office building.
i) Identify and write the meaning, the type of organization formed
by the employees of ‘Taty Software Limited’. 2
ii) Also state any two advantages and two limitations of the type of
organization identified in (i) above. 2+2=4
Or
b) Explain any six importance of organizing. (6)
26. a) Mr. Charan, a production manager of Guru Kirpa Textile Limited is not
able to communicate and provide guidance to the workers of a factory
due to overload of the work. So, he decides to appoint a person who
will be able to spend more time with the workers.
(i) Identify which function of directing helps the production manager to reduce
his work load. 1
(ii) What role will the appointed person play? 3
(iii) How come he will act as a link between management and workers? 2
Or
b) Explain any six functions of supervisor. (6)
27. a) Feline Square Limited has 10 sales executives for selling its goods in a
district. Now the company desires to sell its goods in two more districts.
It needs 20 additional sales executives. If 5 sales executives already
working are due to retire shortly, then 5 more sales executives will have
to be appointed in their place. Thus in all, 25 sales executives will be needed
by the company. The company has reserved additional requirement for women.
i) In the above case, the management functions has been highlighted. Identify the
management function. 1
ii) Enumerate the process of the above function of management. 4
iii) Which value is being identified above? 1
iv) Write any two aspects of importance of staffing. 2
Or
b) In order to improve the quality and quantity of output and provide job
satisfaction to the employees Essence Limited adopted various training as
follows:
i) Mr. Joy was provided a dummy model of machinery to do practice on it.
ii) Mr. Rahim was shifted from purchase department to production department for
a short interval of time.
25. a) Due to spread of COVID -19 pandemic, employees of almost all the companies
were working online from their homes. In 2022 when most of the companies called
them back to their office and start working offline, ‘Taty Software Limited’ asked
their employees to work from home. Because of this, employees of ‘Taty Software
Limited’ were feeling bored, hence for recreation, they formed a cricket club. They
started meeting every Saturday and Sunday on a ground near their office building.
i) Identify and write the meaning, the type of organization formed
by the employees of ‘Taty Software Limited’. 2
ii) Also state any two advantages and two limitations of the type of
organization identified in (i) above. 2+2=4
Or
b) Explain any six importance of organizing. (6)
26. a) Mr. Charan, a production manager of Guru Kirpa Textile Limited is not
able to communicate and provide guidance to the workers of a factory
due to overload of the work. So, he decides to appoint a person who
will be able to spend more time with the workers.
(i) Identify which function of directing helps the production manager to reduce
his work load. 1
(ii) What role will the appointed person play? 3
(iii) How come he will act as a link between management and workers? 2
Or
b) Explain any six functions of supervisor. (6)
27. a) Feline Square Limited has 10 sales executives for selling its goods in a
district. Now the company desires to sell its goods in two more districts.
It needs 20 additional sales executives. If 5 sales executives already
working are due to retire shortly, then 5 more sales executives will have
to be appointed in their place. Thus in all, 25 sales executives will be needed
by the company. The company has reserved additional requirement for women.
i) In the above case, the management functions has been highlighted. Identify the
management function. 1
ii) Enumerate the process of the above function of management. 4
iii) Which value is being identified above? 1
iv) Write any two aspects of importance of staffing. 2
Or
b) In order to improve the quality and quantity of output and provide job
satisfaction to the employees Essence Limited adopted various training as
follows:
i) Mr. Joy was provided a dummy model of machinery to do practice on it.
ii) Mr. Rahim was shifted from purchase department to production department for
a short interval of time.
Page 88
-5- NB/XII/BS/I
iii) Mr. Rahul was doing training away from actual place of work.
iv) Mr. Dilip was practicing medical training.
v) Mr. Aakash was asked to work with an expert for a specific period of time
so that he learns by observation.
vi) Mr. Sarbjit was provided the study material so that he goes through these
units by answering the questions and filling in the blanks.
vii) Mr. Gagan was in the company so that he practice the theoretical
knowledge acquired by him from his college.
viii) Mr. Tay was asked to undergo training for a period of 1 year and it may
extend to 2 years basing on his performance.
Identify which techniques of training were used by Essence Limited on all
the above eight cases. (1x8 =8)
28. a) Define financial planning. Explain the importance of financial planning. 1+7=8
Or
b) Explain any eight factors affecting dividend decision. (8)
**********************
iii) Mr. Rahul was doing training away from actual place of work.
iv) Mr. Dilip was practicing medical training.
v) Mr. Aakash was asked to work with an expert for a specific period of time
so that he learns by observation.
vi) Mr. Sarbjit was provided the study material so that he goes through these
units by answering the questions and filling in the blanks.
vii) Mr. Gagan was in the company so that he practice the theoretical
knowledge acquired by him from his college.
viii) Mr. Tay was asked to undergo training for a period of 1 year and it may
extend to 2 years basing on his performance.
Identify which techniques of training were used by Essence Limited on all
the above eight cases. (1x8 =8)
28. a) Define financial planning. Explain the importance of financial planning. 1+7=8
Or
b) Explain any eight factors affecting dividend decision. (8)
**********************
Page 89
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/GEO/1
2024
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
15 and 30. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section –A
1. Who wrote the book ‘Anthropogeographie’? 1
(a) Ellen Semple (c) Vedal de la Blache
(b) Friedrich Ratzel (d) Griffith Taylor
2. I) Secondary activities are those activities which convert primary products into
more useful commodities.
II) All manufacturing industries are included in secondary activities. 1
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct and related to one another
(d) Both statements are correct but not related to one another
3. Which one of the following industries is not affected by transport and capital?1
(a) Cottage industries (c) Heavy industries
(b) Small scale industry (d) Large scale industries
4. ______ is the exchange of goods and services among different countries across
the national boundaries. 1
(a) National trade (c) Domestic trade
(b) International trade (d) Free trade
5. The Trans-Continental Stuart Highway runs between 1
(a) Darwin and Melbourne (c) Edmonton and Anchorage
(b) Vancouver and St. John’s City (d) Chengdu and Lhasa
2024
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
15 and 30. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section –A
1. Who wrote the book ‘Anthropogeographie’? 1
(a) Ellen Semple (c) Vedal de la Blache
(b) Friedrich Ratzel (d) Griffith Taylor
2. I) Secondary activities are those activities which convert primary products into
more useful commodities.
II) All manufacturing industries are included in secondary activities. 1
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct and related to one another
(d) Both statements are correct but not related to one another
3. Which one of the following industries is not affected by transport and capital?1
(a) Cottage industries (c) Heavy industries
(b) Small scale industry (d) Large scale industries
4. ______ is the exchange of goods and services among different countries across
the national boundaries. 1
(a) National trade (c) Domestic trade
(b) International trade (d) Free trade
5. The Trans-Continental Stuart Highway runs between 1
(a) Darwin and Melbourne (c) Edmonton and Anchorage
(b) Vancouver and St. John’s City (d) Chengdu and Lhasa
Page 90
-2- NB/XII/GEO/1
6. What is meant by environmental determinism? 2
7. Give two reasons for countries with low index value of human development. 2
8. How is retail trading service different from wholesale trading services? 2
9. Differentiate between positive growth of population and negative growth of
population. 3
10. What is Geographical Information System (GIS)? Write two major fields in
which GIS plays an important role. 3
11. Define port. What is the main function of a port? 3
12. a. What is meant by transport? Explain the factors affecting transport services.
Or 3
b. Define the terms:
i) Subsistence agriculture
ii) Mixed farming
iii) Primary activities
13. a. Write any five characteristic features of dairy farming.
Or 5
b. What is an industry? Explain in brief, three geographical factors affecting
location of industries.
14. a. Write five necessary conditions for development of inland waterways.
Or 5
b. Why do international trade exist? Give three reasons why difference in
natural resources of different countries form the basis of international trade.
15. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below. 1+1=2
a. Zaire Basin
b. Suez canal
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.15
a. In which continent is Zaire Basin located?
b. Which two seas are linked by the Suez Canal?
6. What is meant by environmental determinism? 2
7. Give two reasons for countries with low index value of human development. 2
8. How is retail trading service different from wholesale trading services? 2
9. Differentiate between positive growth of population and negative growth of
population. 3
10. What is Geographical Information System (GIS)? Write two major fields in
which GIS plays an important role. 3
11. Define port. What is the main function of a port? 3
12. a. What is meant by transport? Explain the factors affecting transport services.
Or 3
b. Define the terms:
i) Subsistence agriculture
ii) Mixed farming
iii) Primary activities
13. a. Write any five characteristic features of dairy farming.
Or 5
b. What is an industry? Explain in brief, three geographical factors affecting
location of industries.
14. a. Write five necessary conditions for development of inland waterways.
Or 5
b. Why do international trade exist? Give three reasons why difference in
natural resources of different countries form the basis of international trade.
15. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below. 1+1=2
a. Zaire Basin
b. Suez canal
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.15
a. In which continent is Zaire Basin located?
b. Which two seas are linked by the Suez Canal?
Page 91
-3- NB/XII/GEO/1
Section - B
16. The main use of ground water is for 1
(a) domestic use (c) industrial use
(b) irrigation (d) electricity
17. Which state produce the largest tea in India? 1
(a) West Bengal (c) Assam
(b) Nagaland (d) Karnataka
18. The most polluted river in India is 1
(a) Brahmaputra (c) Ganga
(b) Yamuna (d) Godavari
19. Push and pull factors are responsible for 1
(a) land pollution (c) water pollution
(b) air pollution (d) migration
20. Statement I - Compact settlements are normally found in fertile plain or river
valleys.
Statement II - The main occupation in compact settlement is agriculture. 1
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
Section - B
16. The main use of ground water is for 1
(a) domestic use (c) industrial use
(b) irrigation (d) electricity
17. Which state produce the largest tea in India? 1
(a) West Bengal (c) Assam
(b) Nagaland (d) Karnataka
18. The most polluted river in India is 1
(a) Brahmaputra (c) Ganga
(b) Yamuna (d) Godavari
19. Push and pull factors are responsible for 1
(a) land pollution (c) water pollution
(b) air pollution (d) migration
20. Statement I - Compact settlements are normally found in fertile plain or river
valleys.
Statement II - The main occupation in compact settlement is agriculture. 1
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
Page 92
-4- NB/XII/GEO/1
(c) Both statements are correct and statement II correctly explain statement I
(d) Both statements are correct but not related to each other
21. Mention two challenges faced by Indian concerning adolescents. 2
22. Write a short note on any two non-conventional sources of energy. 2
23. Write any two disadvantages of road in India. 2
24. What is meant by slums? 2
25. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The proportion of workers in a population is expressed by a rate called
Participation rate. It shows the proportion of workers (main workers + marginal
workers) in the total population in percentage. Participation rates may be
calculated for males and females separately.
In India, 30.4 per cent of the people are main workers, 8.7 per cent marginal
workers and 60.9 per cent non-workers. Thus, there is high dependency rate in
India. It reflects an underdeveloped state in economy which means large scale
underemployment and unemployment. 3
a) How does the population rate express the worker proportions?
b) Why is there high dependency rate in India?
c) What does the high dependency rate reflect?
26. “What is urbanization? Which two areas are considered the most urbanized
areas in India? 3
27. a. Mention three steps necessary for conservation of water resources.
Or 3
b. Why is there demand of water for irrigation in Indian agriculture? Briefly
explain with three reasons.
28. a. Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Or 5
b. Explain in brief any five major problems related to Indian agriculture.
29. a. Write three advantages and two disadvantages of oil and gas pipelines.
Or 5
b. What is an airport? Mention the four groups of airport in India.
(c) Both statements are correct and statement II correctly explain statement I
(d) Both statements are correct but not related to each other
21. Mention two challenges faced by Indian concerning adolescents. 2
22. Write a short note on any two non-conventional sources of energy. 2
23. Write any two disadvantages of road in India. 2
24. What is meant by slums? 2
25. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The proportion of workers in a population is expressed by a rate called
Participation rate. It shows the proportion of workers (main workers + marginal
workers) in the total population in percentage. Participation rates may be
calculated for males and females separately.
In India, 30.4 per cent of the people are main workers, 8.7 per cent marginal
workers and 60.9 per cent non-workers. Thus, there is high dependency rate in
India. It reflects an underdeveloped state in economy which means large scale
underemployment and unemployment. 3
a) How does the population rate express the worker proportions?
b) Why is there high dependency rate in India?
c) What does the high dependency rate reflect?
26. “What is urbanization? Which two areas are considered the most urbanized
areas in India? 3
27. a. Mention three steps necessary for conservation of water resources.
Or 3
b. Why is there demand of water for irrigation in Indian agriculture? Briefly
explain with three reasons.
28. a. Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Or 5
b. Explain in brief any five major problems related to Indian agriculture.
29. a. Write three advantages and two disadvantages of oil and gas pipelines.
Or 5
b. What is an airport? Mention the four groups of airport in India.
Page 93
-5- NB/XII/GEO/1
30. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
a. Largest metropolis in North India
b. Neyveli coal field
c. Narmada river
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.30
a. Name the largest metropolitan city in North India.
b. In which state is Neyveli coal field located?
c. Name the sea in which Narmada river flows into.
30. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
a. Largest metropolis in North India
b. Neyveli coal field
c. Narmada river
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.30
a. Name the largest metropolitan city in North India.
b. In which state is Neyveli coal field located?
c. Name the sea in which Narmada river flows into.
Page 94
Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-XII/MS/1
2024
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Write the middle C on tenor and alto clefs. 1
2. Draw demisemiquavers that equal a dotted crotchet. 1
3. What is the main beat in time? 1
4. Spell the C pentatonic major scale. 1
5. Write the enharmonic equivalents of F and C . 1
6. Which minor key has five sharps in its key signature? 1
7. What are primary chords? 1
8. Define accented passing notes. 1
9. Name two cadences that end on the tonic chord. 1
10. How do composers create contrast to add interest to the listener? 1
11. Name any two forms of music used for song writing. 1
12. Give two other names for the monophonic chant. 1
2024
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Write the middle C on tenor and alto clefs. 1
2. Draw demisemiquavers that equal a dotted crotchet. 1
3. What is the main beat in time? 1
4. Spell the C pentatonic major scale. 1
5. Write the enharmonic equivalents of F and C . 1
6. Which minor key has five sharps in its key signature? 1
7. What are primary chords? 1
8. Define accented passing notes. 1
9. Name two cadences that end on the tonic chord. 1
10. How do composers create contrast to add interest to the listener? 1
11. Name any two forms of music used for song writing. 1
12. Give two other names for the monophonic chant. 1
Page 95
(2) NB-XII/MS/1
13. Rewrite the tunes into tenor clef so that they sound at the same pitch. 2
14. Add bar lines to agree with the time signature : 1+1=2
15. Write a tune for the violin using the first five degrees of G minor
scale to the given rhythm. Use a key signature and finish on the tonic. 2
on the bass stave, ascending then descending in the key of B major.
16. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the given rhythm, using key signature
2
17. Label the following : 1+1=2
a)
b)
18. Work out the keys of the following music : 1+1=2
a)
b)
13. Rewrite the tunes into tenor clef so that they sound at the same pitch. 2
14. Add bar lines to agree with the time signature : 1+1=2
15. Write a tune for the violin using the first five degrees of G minor
scale to the given rhythm. Use a key signature and finish on the tonic. 2
on the bass stave, ascending then descending in the key of B major.
16. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the given rhythm, using key signature
2
17. Label the following : 1+1=2
a)
b)
18. Work out the keys of the following music : 1+1=2
a)
b)
Page 96
(3) NB-XII/MS/1
19. Add auxiliary notes below the asterisks (*) . 2
20. Draw an imperfect cadence using minims in the key of E major.
Use 4-part chords. 2
21. Write the inversions of the given intervals and name the new intervals. 1+1=2
22. Define the word baroque. How is baroque music characterised? 1+1=2
Answer any five from questions 23-29.
23. Using semiquaver triplets, write a broken chord using the given triad.
Finish no less than two leger lines above or below the stave. Insert
key signature 4
Chord V in A major, ascending on tenor clef. (Start on the first space
of the stave)
24. Continue the following rhythms to fit the following phrases. 4
Write the words correctly below.
I wonder why you keep me waiting
Charmaine cries in vain,
I wonder when black birds are singing
If you’ll come back again.
I won-der why you
19. Add auxiliary notes below the asterisks (*) . 2
20. Draw an imperfect cadence using minims in the key of E major.
Use 4-part chords. 2
21. Write the inversions of the given intervals and name the new intervals. 1+1=2
22. Define the word baroque. How is baroque music characterised? 1+1=2
Answer any five from questions 23-29.
23. Using semiquaver triplets, write a broken chord using the given triad.
Finish no less than two leger lines above or below the stave. Insert
key signature 4
Chord V in A major, ascending on tenor clef. (Start on the first space
of the stave)
24. Continue the following rhythms to fit the following phrases. 4
Write the words correctly below.
I wonder why you keep me waiting
Charmaine cries in vain,
I wonder when black birds are singing
If you’ll come back again.
I won-der why you
Page 97
(4) NB-XII/MS/1
25. Complete the following: 2+2=4
a) Write the melody line. Add passing notes or auxiliary notes. Use
notes from each chord shown by the roman numerals.
I Ib IV V I
b) Write a bass line for the given tune. Add repeated notes or octaves.
i V7 i Vb i V7 i
26. Write a 4-bar melody using the G pentatonic scale. Write it in 2-bar
phrases, the first phrase ending on D, the second phrase on G. Use
time signature, on the bass stave. 4
G harmonic minor scale on the treble stave, ascending and
27. Construct the following scales using minims, as directed. 2+2=4
a)
D major scale on the tenor stave, descending and ascending,
descending, with key signature.
b)
without key signature.
28. Label the chords with roman numerals below and chord symbols
above the stave to show the chord progression. 4
25. Complete the following: 2+2=4
a) Write the melody line. Add passing notes or auxiliary notes. Use
notes from each chord shown by the roman numerals.
I Ib IV V I
b) Write a bass line for the given tune. Add repeated notes or octaves.
i V7 i Vb i V7 i
26. Write a 4-bar melody using the G pentatonic scale. Write it in 2-bar
phrases, the first phrase ending on D, the second phrase on G. Use
time signature, on the bass stave. 4
G harmonic minor scale on the treble stave, ascending and
27. Construct the following scales using minims, as directed. 2+2=4
a)
D major scale on the tenor stave, descending and ascending,
descending, with key signature.
b)
without key signature.
28. Label the chords with roman numerals below and chord symbols
above the stave to show the chord progression. 4
Page 98
(5) NB-XII/MS/1
29. Using minims, write 4-part chords using the chords shown by the roman
numerals. Double the root in each case. Use key signature. 2+2=4
a) A minor V b
b) E major ii c
A nsw er any three from questions 30-34.
30. Transpose the given melodies: 3+3=6
a) down a minor second.
b) up a perfect fifth.
31. On the following scales, write the tonic, super-tonic, sub-dominant and
dominant 7th triads. Label them with roman numerals below and chord
symbols above. Use key signatures and necessary accidentals. 3+3=6
a)
b)
D melodic minor scale, descending, treble clef.
C harmonic minor scale, ascending, alto clef.
32. Work out the following modulations : 3+3=6
a)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______
The perfect cadence is in the ______
b)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______
The perfect cadence is in the ______
29. Using minims, write 4-part chords using the chords shown by the roman
numerals. Double the root in each case. Use key signature. 2+2=4
a) A minor V b
b) E major ii c
A nsw er any three from questions 30-34.
30. Transpose the given melodies: 3+3=6
a) down a minor second.
b) up a perfect fifth.
31. On the following scales, write the tonic, super-tonic, sub-dominant and
dominant 7th triads. Label them with roman numerals below and chord
symbols above. Use key signatures and necessary accidentals. 3+3=6
a)
b)
D melodic minor scale, descending, treble clef.
C harmonic minor scale, ascending, alto clef.
32. Work out the following modulations : 3+3=6
a)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______
The perfect cadence is in the ______
b)
Tonic chord in _______ Perfect cadence in ______
The perfect cadence is in the ______
Page 99
(6) NB-XII/MS/1
33. Discuss the music of the romantic period. 6
34. Look at the music and answer the following questions. 6x1=6
RISOLUTO
a) What is the tonic note in this music?
b) What does the time signature indicate?
c) What is the meaning of Risoluto?
d) Name the ornaments seen in bars 4 and 5 (voice part).
e) What is the final cadence?
f) Name the accidental in bar 2 (piano part).
*********************************************
33. Discuss the music of the romantic period. 6
34. Look at the music and answer the following questions. 6x1=6
RISOLUTO
a) What is the tonic note in this music?
b) What does the time signature indicate?
c) What is the meaning of Risoluto?
d) Name the ornaments seen in bars 4 and 5 (voice part).
e) What is the final cadence?
f) Name the accidental in bar 2 (piano part).
*********************************************
Page 100
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XII/PSC/1
2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on
the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 10 (1x10=10)
1. ‘It is as much the duty of an opposition to criticize as it is of a government to govern’.
Who said this?
(a) R.G. Gettel (b) Allan Ball
(c) Roland Young (d) Edmund Burke
2. Which Amendment Act added a new chapter on Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Constitution?
(a) 41st Amendment Act, 1976 (b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
rd
(c) 43 Amendment Act, 1977 (d) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
3. How many indicators were used by Mandal Commission to identify social,
educational and economic backwardness?
(a) 14 (b) 13
(c) 12 (d) 11
4. NDA is led by
(a) BJP (b) INC
(c) TMC (d) NCP
5. Which is the first ever country where the citizens had the right to work?
(a) USA (b) Soviet Union
(c) China (d) France
6. Which of the following are not correct in regard to the four modernization
programme of the Chinese Prime Minister, Chou En Lai?
(i) Agriculture (ii) Primary education
(iii) Industry (iv) Special Economic Zone
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
7. Which of the following principal organs of the UN has become obsolete?
(a) Trusteeship Council (b) Economic and Social Council
(c) International Court of Justice (d) The General Assembly
2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on
the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 10 (1x10=10)
1. ‘It is as much the duty of an opposition to criticize as it is of a government to govern’.
Who said this?
(a) R.G. Gettel (b) Allan Ball
(c) Roland Young (d) Edmund Burke
2. Which Amendment Act added a new chapter on Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Constitution?
(a) 41st Amendment Act, 1976 (b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
rd
(c) 43 Amendment Act, 1977 (d) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
3. How many indicators were used by Mandal Commission to identify social,
educational and economic backwardness?
(a) 14 (b) 13
(c) 12 (d) 11
4. NDA is led by
(a) BJP (b) INC
(c) TMC (d) NCP
5. Which is the first ever country where the citizens had the right to work?
(a) USA (b) Soviet Union
(c) China (d) France
6. Which of the following are not correct in regard to the four modernization
programme of the Chinese Prime Minister, Chou En Lai?
(i) Agriculture (ii) Primary education
(iii) Industry (iv) Special Economic Zone
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
7. Which of the following principal organs of the UN has become obsolete?
(a) Trusteeship Council (b) Economic and Social Council
(c) International Court of Justice (d) The General Assembly
Page 101
-2- NB/XII/PSC/1
8. Which of the following does not come under military alliance?
(i) North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(ii) Biological Weapons Convention
(iii) Warsaw Pact
(iv) Chemical Weapons Convention
Codes
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
9. Which of the following is a UN agency that help in protecting human rights?
(a) Interpol (b) UNICEF
(c) Amnesty International (d) UN Peace Keeping Force
10. Why did the Government of India announce a new industrial policy in 1991?
(i) To promote globalization
(ii) To start the process of transferring state-owned enterprises to the private
sector
(iii) Linking Indian economy to the global market
(iv) To extract natural resources from other countries
Codes
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer the questions in about 50 words 2x8=16
11. Mention any two measures that were taken to rehabilitate the refugees after
the partition of India. (2)
12. Why was the second General Election (1957) found to be both cumbersome and
defective? (2)
13. Give two reasons why the early 1970’s was marked by considerable economic
discontent. (2)
14. Write any two main provisions of the Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1968. (2)
15. What is bipolar world? How did bipolarity ended? (1+1=2)
16. What is South Asia? Name any two member countries. (1+1=2)
17. Write any two measures to combat terrorism. (2)
18. State any two reasons as to why the Leftists opposed globalization in India. (2)
Answer the questions in about 100 words 4x5=20
19. Mention any four provisions of Tashkent Declaration. (4)
20. Describe any four relevance of Non-Aligned Movement. (4)
21. Analyze any four economic influence of the European Union. (4)
22. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(1+1+2=4)
th
At the hour of midnight on 14 August, 1947, India attained independence. Jawaharlal
Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India who addressed a special session of the
Constituent Assembly with his famous speech.
India was born in a very difficult circumstances as freedom came with partition of the
country which made people homeless. Partition was marked with large scale communal
8. Which of the following does not come under military alliance?
(i) North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(ii) Biological Weapons Convention
(iii) Warsaw Pact
(iv) Chemical Weapons Convention
Codes
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
9. Which of the following is a UN agency that help in protecting human rights?
(a) Interpol (b) UNICEF
(c) Amnesty International (d) UN Peace Keeping Force
10. Why did the Government of India announce a new industrial policy in 1991?
(i) To promote globalization
(ii) To start the process of transferring state-owned enterprises to the private
sector
(iii) Linking Indian economy to the global market
(iv) To extract natural resources from other countries
Codes
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer the questions in about 50 words 2x8=16
11. Mention any two measures that were taken to rehabilitate the refugees after
the partition of India. (2)
12. Why was the second General Election (1957) found to be both cumbersome and
defective? (2)
13. Give two reasons why the early 1970’s was marked by considerable economic
discontent. (2)
14. Write any two main provisions of the Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1968. (2)
15. What is bipolar world? How did bipolarity ended? (1+1=2)
16. What is South Asia? Name any two member countries. (1+1=2)
17. Write any two measures to combat terrorism. (2)
18. State any two reasons as to why the Leftists opposed globalization in India. (2)
Answer the questions in about 100 words 4x5=20
19. Mention any four provisions of Tashkent Declaration. (4)
20. Describe any four relevance of Non-Aligned Movement. (4)
21. Analyze any four economic influence of the European Union. (4)
22. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(1+1+2=4)
th
At the hour of midnight on 14 August, 1947, India attained independence. Jawaharlal
Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India who addressed a special session of the
Constituent Assembly with his famous speech.
India was born in a very difficult circumstances as freedom came with partition of the
country which made people homeless. Partition was marked with large scale communal
Page 102
-3- NB/XII/PSC/1
violence, mass migration, genocide etc. The first challenge was to shape a nation that was
united, yet accommodative of the diversity existing in the society and eradication of
poverty and unemployment. The second challenge was to establish democracy and the
third challenge was to ensure the development and well-being of the entire society and not
only of some sections. (Internet source)
i. What is the famous speech delivered by Nehru on the eve of India’s
independence known as?
ii. What is meant by communal violence?
iii. Mention any two agendas of nation-building according to Nehru and the other
national leaders.
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1+1+1+1=4)
Besides political and economic consequences, globalization has even affected culture.
It has affected our domestic life, food, drink, dress and ideas. It has even affected
people’s preferences leading to the fear that it threatens world cultures. This fear is
true to some extent as globalization has led to rise of a uniform culture known as
cultural homogenization. The rise of such a culture does not mean the emergence of a
global culture. In reality, it is the imposition of the western culture on the rest of the
world. Since United State is the most advanced capitalist society in the world,
globalization resulted in the domination of western (especially American) culture and
American way of life over the rest of the world, from big MC Donalds to Mickey
Mouse and from jeans to Jackson. But there is no danger that cultures of some nation
would be swallowed by that of USA. It is a fact that the jeans culture expanded, but at
the same time the demand for Indian Kurtas and Khadi wears in USA, England and
Germany also has increased considerably. In brief, the fear of the local cultures being
wiped out is illusory. Globalization led to cultural heterogenization in many ways.
Along with the fast foods of the western world, South Indian Masala-dosa and
Chinese noodles are also highly popular in the world. (Internet source).
i. Which of the following could be the negative impact of cultural globalization?
(a) Cultural homogenization (b) Supremacy of western culture
(c) Cultural hates (d) Local culture being wiped out
ii. What are the major areas where the consequences of the globalization can be
seen heavily?
(a) Political, Economic and Social
(b) Political, Economic and Cultural
(c) Political, Social and Cultural
(d) Economic, Social and Cultural
iii. Which of the following is true about cultural heterogenization?
(a) Creation of uniform culture (b) Creation of superior culture
(c) Creation of mixed culture (d) Creation of western culture
violence, mass migration, genocide etc. The first challenge was to shape a nation that was
united, yet accommodative of the diversity existing in the society and eradication of
poverty and unemployment. The second challenge was to establish democracy and the
third challenge was to ensure the development and well-being of the entire society and not
only of some sections. (Internet source)
i. What is the famous speech delivered by Nehru on the eve of India’s
independence known as?
ii. What is meant by communal violence?
iii. Mention any two agendas of nation-building according to Nehru and the other
national leaders.
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1+1+1+1=4)
Besides political and economic consequences, globalization has even affected culture.
It has affected our domestic life, food, drink, dress and ideas. It has even affected
people’s preferences leading to the fear that it threatens world cultures. This fear is
true to some extent as globalization has led to rise of a uniform culture known as
cultural homogenization. The rise of such a culture does not mean the emergence of a
global culture. In reality, it is the imposition of the western culture on the rest of the
world. Since United State is the most advanced capitalist society in the world,
globalization resulted in the domination of western (especially American) culture and
American way of life over the rest of the world, from big MC Donalds to Mickey
Mouse and from jeans to Jackson. But there is no danger that cultures of some nation
would be swallowed by that of USA. It is a fact that the jeans culture expanded, but at
the same time the demand for Indian Kurtas and Khadi wears in USA, England and
Germany also has increased considerably. In brief, the fear of the local cultures being
wiped out is illusory. Globalization led to cultural heterogenization in many ways.
Along with the fast foods of the western world, South Indian Masala-dosa and
Chinese noodles are also highly popular in the world. (Internet source).
i. Which of the following could be the negative impact of cultural globalization?
(a) Cultural homogenization (b) Supremacy of western culture
(c) Cultural hates (d) Local culture being wiped out
ii. What are the major areas where the consequences of the globalization can be
seen heavily?
(a) Political, Economic and Social
(b) Political, Economic and Cultural
(c) Political, Social and Cultural
(d) Economic, Social and Cultural
iii. Which of the following is true about cultural heterogenization?
(a) Creation of uniform culture (b) Creation of superior culture
(c) Creation of mixed culture (d) Creation of western culture
Page 103
-4- NB/XII/PSC/1
iv. Which among the following is the best example of US hegemony in various
cultures due to globalization?
(a) Gamer culture (b) K- Pop culture
(c) Jean culture (d) Music culture
Answers the questions in about 200 words. 6x3=18
24. (a) Examine any six roles and functions of the political parties.
Or (6)
(b) Analyze the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three General
Elections.
25. (a) Examine the main differences between the Planning Commission and
the NITI Aayog. (6)
Or
(b) With reference to the legacy of the Emergency between 1975 and 1977,
examine the following: (3+3=6)
i. Issues of the welfare of Backward Castes
ii. Role of mass protests and CLOs in a democracy.
26. (a) Describe the significance of ASEAN as: (2x3=6)
i. A Security Community
ii. An Economic Community
iii. A Socio-Cultural Community
Or
(b) What are the factors that led to the formation of SAARC? Examine the main
limitations or failures of SAARC at present. (2+4=6)
Answer the questions in about 300 words 8x2=16
27. (a) Examine any four nature and characteristics of the Pressure Groups. (8)
Or
(b) Examine any two factors responsible for the emergence of regional parties
and two increasing roles of regional parties in national politics in India.
(4+4=8)
28. (a) How democratic and accountable are the new international economic
organizations of global governance? Answer the questions with reference to:
(4+4=8)
i. International Monetary Fund
ii. World Bank
Or
(b) Examine any four things that the non-traditional notion of security included.
(8)
************************
iv. Which among the following is the best example of US hegemony in various
cultures due to globalization?
(a) Gamer culture (b) K- Pop culture
(c) Jean culture (d) Music culture
Answers the questions in about 200 words. 6x3=18
24. (a) Examine any six roles and functions of the political parties.
Or (6)
(b) Analyze the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three General
Elections.
25. (a) Examine the main differences between the Planning Commission and
the NITI Aayog. (6)
Or
(b) With reference to the legacy of the Emergency between 1975 and 1977,
examine the following: (3+3=6)
i. Issues of the welfare of Backward Castes
ii. Role of mass protests and CLOs in a democracy.
26. (a) Describe the significance of ASEAN as: (2x3=6)
i. A Security Community
ii. An Economic Community
iii. A Socio-Cultural Community
Or
(b) What are the factors that led to the formation of SAARC? Examine the main
limitations or failures of SAARC at present. (2+4=6)
Answer the questions in about 300 words 8x2=16
27. (a) Examine any four nature and characteristics of the Pressure Groups. (8)
Or
(b) Examine any two factors responsible for the emergence of regional parties
and two increasing roles of regional parties in national politics in India.
(4+4=8)
28. (a) How democratic and accountable are the new international economic
organizations of global governance? Answer the questions with reference to:
(4+4=8)
i. International Monetary Fund
ii. World Bank
Or
(b) Examine any four things that the non-traditional notion of security included.
(8)
************************
Page 104
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XII/CHE/1
2024
CHEMISTRY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
1. The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl,NaCl,K2SO4 respectively are 1
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2,2 and 3
(c) 1,1 and 2 (d) 1,1 and 1
2. SI unit of conductance is 1
(a) Sm (b) m2 (c) Siemens (d) Sm -1
3. Identify the reaction order from the value of rate constant K 5 10 3 mol 1 LS 1 1
(a) 1 st order (b) zero order
nd
c) 2 order (d) 3rd order
4. Which of the following statement about transition element is not correct? 1
(a) They show variable oxidation states
(b) They exhibit diamagnetic and paramagnetic properties
(c) All ions are coloured
(d) They exhibit catalytic property.
5. Which of the following is - acid ligand? 1
(a) NH3 (b) CO (c) F− (d) en
6. Full form of DDT is 1
(a) dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(b) dichlorodiphenyltrichloromethane
(c) diphenyldichlorotrifluoroethane
(d) diphenyldifluorotrichloroethane
7. The IUPAC name of p-cresol is 1
(a) 4- methylphenol (b) 3-methylphenol
(c) 3-chlorophenol (d) methoxybenzene
2024
CHEMISTRY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
1. The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl,NaCl,K2SO4 respectively are 1
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2,2 and 3
(c) 1,1 and 2 (d) 1,1 and 1
2. SI unit of conductance is 1
(a) Sm (b) m2 (c) Siemens (d) Sm -1
3. Identify the reaction order from the value of rate constant K 5 10 3 mol 1 LS 1 1
(a) 1 st order (b) zero order
nd
c) 2 order (d) 3rd order
4. Which of the following statement about transition element is not correct? 1
(a) They show variable oxidation states
(b) They exhibit diamagnetic and paramagnetic properties
(c) All ions are coloured
(d) They exhibit catalytic property.
5. Which of the following is - acid ligand? 1
(a) NH3 (b) CO (c) F− (d) en
6. Full form of DDT is 1
(a) dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(b) dichlorodiphenyltrichloromethane
(c) diphenyldichlorotrifluoroethane
(d) diphenyldifluorotrichloroethane
7. The IUPAC name of p-cresol is 1
(a) 4- methylphenol (b) 3-methylphenol
(c) 3-chlorophenol (d) methoxybenzene
Page 105
-2- NB/XII/CHE/1
8. Which one of the following is the strongest acid? 1
(a) ICH2COOH (b) ClCH2COOH
(c) FCH2COOH (d) BrCH2COOH
9. Treatment of phenol with benzene diazonium chloride in presence of base
is known as 1
(a) Gatterman reaction (b) Coupling reaction
(c) Sulphonation reaction (d) Acylation reaction
10. Xeropthalmia is caused due to deficiency of 1
(a) vitamin C (b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin A (d) vitamin E
11. What is boiling point? 1
12. Write the IUPAC name of Pt ( NH 3 ) 2 ( H 2 O) 2 2 1
13. Why is tert-butylbromide more reactive towards SN1 reaction? 1
14. Draw the structures of the possible enantiomers of 3- methylpent-1-ene. 1
15. What is the name of the reagent used in Friedel-Craft alkylation of anisole? 1
16. Arrange the following in order of increasing order of their boiling points: 1
CH3CHO, CH3CH2 OH, CH3-CH2-CH3
17. Differentiate between solution showing positive and negative deviation
from Raoult’s law. 2
18. Write the rate equation for the reaction A2 3B 2 3C , if the overall
order of the reaction is zero. 2
19. Cresol is a weaker acid than phenol. Explain. 2
20. Convert benzene to benzaldehyde. 2
21. a. Identify A and B in the reaction.
NaCN Re duction
CH 3CH 2 Cl A B
Ni| H 2
Or 2
Fe / HCl NaNO2 HCl
b. Complete the reaction: C6 H 5 NO2 A
B
0 5 o C
8. Which one of the following is the strongest acid? 1
(a) ICH2COOH (b) ClCH2COOH
(c) FCH2COOH (d) BrCH2COOH
9. Treatment of phenol with benzene diazonium chloride in presence of base
is known as 1
(a) Gatterman reaction (b) Coupling reaction
(c) Sulphonation reaction (d) Acylation reaction
10. Xeropthalmia is caused due to deficiency of 1
(a) vitamin C (b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin A (d) vitamin E
11. What is boiling point? 1
12. Write the IUPAC name of Pt ( NH 3 ) 2 ( H 2 O) 2 2 1
13. Why is tert-butylbromide more reactive towards SN1 reaction? 1
14. Draw the structures of the possible enantiomers of 3- methylpent-1-ene. 1
15. What is the name of the reagent used in Friedel-Craft alkylation of anisole? 1
16. Arrange the following in order of increasing order of their boiling points: 1
CH3CHO, CH3CH2 OH, CH3-CH2-CH3
17. Differentiate between solution showing positive and negative deviation
from Raoult’s law. 2
18. Write the rate equation for the reaction A2 3B 2 3C , if the overall
order of the reaction is zero. 2
19. Cresol is a weaker acid than phenol. Explain. 2
20. Convert benzene to benzaldehyde. 2
21. a. Identify A and B in the reaction.
NaCN Re duction
CH 3CH 2 Cl A B
Ni| H 2
Or 2
Fe / HCl NaNO2 HCl
b. Complete the reaction: C6 H 5 NO2 A
B
0 5 o C
Page 106
-3- NB/XII/CHE/1
22. a. Why vitamin C cannot be stored in our body?
Or 2
b. What are the products of the hydrolysis of sucrose?
23. a. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving
25 mg of K2SO4 in 2L of water at 25 C assuming that is completely
dissociated. [Given R=0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1].
Or 3
b. Calculate the boiling point of solution when 2g of Na2SO4(Molar
mass=142 gmol-1) was dissolved in 50g of water, assuming Na2SO4
undergoes complete ionization.[Kb for water=0.52K Kg mol-1].
24. What type of battery is lead storage battery? Write the anode and cathode
reaction, also the overall cell reaction occurring in the operation of a lead
storage battery. 3
25. a. The rate of reaction, 2 NO Cl 2 2 NOCl is doubled when
concentration of Cl2 is doubled and it becomes eight times when
concentration of both NO and Cl2 are doubled. Write the order
of the reaction.
Or 3
b. The decomposition of Cl2O7 at 400K in the gas phase to Cl2 and
O2 is of 1st order reaction. After 55 seconds at 400K the pressure
of Cl2O7 falls from 0.602 atm to 0.301 atm. Calculate the rate
constant.
26. Why do transition elements show variable oxidation state? How is the
variability in oxidation state of d-block differ from p-block elements? 3
27. Cr NH is paramagnetic while NiCN is diamagnetic. Explain.
3 6
3
4
2
3
28. What is Fittig reaction? Write suitable reaction. 3
29. a. Write the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to
yield ethene.
Or 3
b. How can primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols be prepared from
Grignard reagent?
30. Explain Gabriel phthalimide synthesis with proper reaction. 3
31. Draw the pyranose structure of glucose. 3
22. a. Why vitamin C cannot be stored in our body?
Or 2
b. What are the products of the hydrolysis of sucrose?
23. a. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving
25 mg of K2SO4 in 2L of water at 25 C assuming that is completely
dissociated. [Given R=0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1].
Or 3
b. Calculate the boiling point of solution when 2g of Na2SO4(Molar
mass=142 gmol-1) was dissolved in 50g of water, assuming Na2SO4
undergoes complete ionization.[Kb for water=0.52K Kg mol-1].
24. What type of battery is lead storage battery? Write the anode and cathode
reaction, also the overall cell reaction occurring in the operation of a lead
storage battery. 3
25. a. The rate of reaction, 2 NO Cl 2 2 NOCl is doubled when
concentration of Cl2 is doubled and it becomes eight times when
concentration of both NO and Cl2 are doubled. Write the order
of the reaction.
Or 3
b. The decomposition of Cl2O7 at 400K in the gas phase to Cl2 and
O2 is of 1st order reaction. After 55 seconds at 400K the pressure
of Cl2O7 falls from 0.602 atm to 0.301 atm. Calculate the rate
constant.
26. Why do transition elements show variable oxidation state? How is the
variability in oxidation state of d-block differ from p-block elements? 3
27. Cr NH is paramagnetic while NiCN is diamagnetic. Explain.
3 6
3
4
2
3
28. What is Fittig reaction? Write suitable reaction. 3
29. a. Write the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to
yield ethene.
Or 3
b. How can primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols be prepared from
Grignard reagent?
30. Explain Gabriel phthalimide synthesis with proper reaction. 3
31. Draw the pyranose structure of glucose. 3
Page 107
-4- NB/XII/CHE/1
32. a. A voltaic cell is set up at 25 C with the following half cells:
Al | Al 3 (0.001M ) and Ni | Ni 2 (0.50 M )
Calculate Ecell. [Given, E Ni | Ni 0. 25V
2
E Al 3 / Al 1.66V ]
Or 5
b. Calculate E cell for the reaction at 298 K.
2 Al ( s) 3Cu 2 (0.01M ) 2 Al 3 (0.01M ) 3Cu( s)
Given, Ecell=1.98V.
33. i. What are inner transitional elements?
ii. Write the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
iii. Why do TiCl3 act as good reducing agent? 5
34. a. i. Write the 1UPAC name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO.
ii. What happens when ethanal reacts with Tollen’s reagent ?
Write a complete reaction.
iii. Chloroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid. Why?
Or 5
b. Give reasons for the following;
i. Ethanal is more reactive than acetone towards nucleophilic
addition reaction.
ii. (CH3)3C-CHO does not undergo aldol condensation.
iii. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than alcohols.
**********************
32. a. A voltaic cell is set up at 25 C with the following half cells:
Al | Al 3 (0.001M ) and Ni | Ni 2 (0.50 M )
Calculate Ecell. [Given, E Ni | Ni 0. 25V
2
E Al 3 / Al 1.66V ]
Or 5
b. Calculate E cell for the reaction at 298 K.
2 Al ( s) 3Cu 2 (0.01M ) 2 Al 3 (0.01M ) 3Cu( s)
Given, Ecell=1.98V.
33. i. What are inner transitional elements?
ii. Write the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
iii. Why do TiCl3 act as good reducing agent? 5
34. a. i. Write the 1UPAC name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO.
ii. What happens when ethanal reacts with Tollen’s reagent ?
Write a complete reaction.
iii. Chloroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid. Why?
Or 5
b. Give reasons for the following;
i. Ethanal is more reactive than acetone towards nucleophilic
addition reaction.
ii. (CH3)3C-CHO does not undergo aldol condensation.
iii. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than alcohols.
**********************
Page 108
Total no of printed pages: 5 NB/XII/FBM/1
2024
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
iv) Questions 11 to 18 carry 2 marks each.
v) Questions 19 to 23 carry 4 marks each.
vi) Questions 24 to 26 carry 6 marks each.
vii) Questions 27 and 28 carry 8 marks each.
viii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. If A={ 2,3,4} and B={3,5}, then AUB will be _____________. 1
a) {3,5} b)
c) {2,3,4,5} d) {3}
2 3 1
2. If A= 5 2 6 , then the value of a21+A21 is _________. 1
7 3 2
a) b)
c) 3 d)
3 x 7 5 0 y - 2
3. Find the value of x and y if is___________. 1
y 1 2 - 3 x 8 4
a) x 13 , y 7 b) y 2 3 , x 13
c) y 7, x 2 3 d) Not possible to find.
4. If A and B are two matrices of order 3× m and 3× n respectively, then the order of
the matrix (5A-2B) is_______________. 1
a) m 3 b) 3 3
c) m n d) 3 n
2024
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
iv) Questions 11 to 18 carry 2 marks each.
v) Questions 19 to 23 carry 4 marks each.
vi) Questions 24 to 26 carry 6 marks each.
vii) Questions 27 and 28 carry 8 marks each.
viii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. If A={ 2,3,4} and B={3,5}, then AUB will be _____________. 1
a) {3,5} b)
c) {2,3,4,5} d) {3}
2 3 1
2. If A= 5 2 6 , then the value of a21+A21 is _________. 1
7 3 2
a) b)
c) 3 d)
3 x 7 5 0 y - 2
3. Find the value of x and y if is___________. 1
y 1 2 - 3 x 8 4
a) x 13 , y 7 b) y 2 3 , x 13
c) y 7, x 2 3 d) Not possible to find.
4. If A and B are two matrices of order 3× m and 3× n respectively, then the order of
the matrix (5A-2B) is_______________. 1
a) m 3 b) 3 3
c) m n d) 3 n
Page 109
-2- NB/XII/FBM/1
5. If the capitals of the partners are contributed for different lengths of time, then
the partnership is called_____________. 1
a) Simple b) Compound
b) Working d) Sleeping.
6. If a bill of `5,000 is drawn on 01-05-1990 payable for 6 months, then the legal
due date of the bill is ___________. 1
a) 1st October, 1990 b) 1st November, 1990
c) 4th October, 1990 d) 4th November, 1990.
7. Any fraction occurring in equated time of payment is to be ignored in favour
of_______. 1
a) Creditor b) Debtor
c) Lender d) Borrower.
8. The cost of `4,000 stock, 4% stock at 90 is_________. 1
a) `3,500 b) `3,550
c) `3,600 d) `3,570.
9. The minimum value of Z=3x+4y subject to constraints
x y 4, x 0, y 0 , is ____________. 1
a) 12 b) 14
c) 16 d) None of the above.
10. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of teas at `60 and `80 per kg. Then the ratio
of the mixture will be_________ when the cost price of the mixture is `75. 1
a) 3:1 b) 1:3
c) 2:3 d) 1:1.
11. Using set operation, find the HCF of the following 3 numbers 15, 40 and 80.2
12. Write the co-factor of elements of second column of the determinant 2
5 6 7
3 4 1
1 16 7
3 4 3
13. Evaluate 7 8
2
5 2 1
3 2
14. Find the matrix B such that AB I 2 , where A 2
5 3
5. If the capitals of the partners are contributed for different lengths of time, then
the partnership is called_____________. 1
a) Simple b) Compound
b) Working d) Sleeping.
6. If a bill of `5,000 is drawn on 01-05-1990 payable for 6 months, then the legal
due date of the bill is ___________. 1
a) 1st October, 1990 b) 1st November, 1990
c) 4th October, 1990 d) 4th November, 1990.
7. Any fraction occurring in equated time of payment is to be ignored in favour
of_______. 1
a) Creditor b) Debtor
c) Lender d) Borrower.
8. The cost of `4,000 stock, 4% stock at 90 is_________. 1
a) `3,500 b) `3,550
c) `3,600 d) `3,570.
9. The minimum value of Z=3x+4y subject to constraints
x y 4, x 0, y 0 , is ____________. 1
a) 12 b) 14
c) 16 d) None of the above.
10. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of teas at `60 and `80 per kg. Then the ratio
of the mixture will be_________ when the cost price of the mixture is `75. 1
a) 3:1 b) 1:3
c) 2:3 d) 1:1.
11. Using set operation, find the HCF of the following 3 numbers 15, 40 and 80.2
12. Write the co-factor of elements of second column of the determinant 2
5 6 7
3 4 1
1 16 7
3 4 3
13. Evaluate 7 8
2
5 2 1
3 2
14. Find the matrix B such that AB I 2 , where A 2
5 3
Page 110
-3- NB/XII/FBM/1
15. Three partners A, B and C invested `16,000, `20,000 and `14,000 respectively
in a business. How should they divide a profit of `2,500 in proportion of their
capitals? 2
16. The true discount on a bill due 18 months hence at 4% per annum is `30.
Obtain the amount of the bill. 2
17. How much will be realised from the sale of `6,000, 5% stock at 90 14 ,
brokerage being 1 4 % ? 2
18. Draw the graph of the inequation: ≥ 50. 2
19. In a class of 450 students, 180 study mathematics, 200 study computer and 50
study both the subjects. Obtain the number of students who study neither
mathematics nor computer. 4
1 0
20. If A , find K so that 2 4
1 7
21. A, B, C and D with capitals of `5,000, `4,000, `6,000 and `9,000 respectively
commence a joint business on 1/7/62. A brings further capital of `5,000 on
1/11/62 and B brings in `3,000 on 1/12/62. C withdraws `2,000 of his capital
on 1/2/63 and D withdraws `4,000 on 1/3/63. The annual profits were `9,690.
Find the share of each partner on the basis of average investment. 4
22. Mr. X owes Mr. Y `5,000 payable 5 years hence. Mr. Y owes Mr. X `3,870
payable 18 months hence. If they want to settle their account by cash payment
now, what sum should be paid and by whom, reckoning money at 5% per
annum? 4
23. Solve graphically the following LPP: 4
Maximize Z=-x1 +3x2
subject to constraints
3 x1 6 x 2 18
5 x1 2 x2 10
x1 , x2 0
24. a) It is given that the consumption (C) and saving (S) are functions of income (Y).
Also Y = C + S. If an economy may be described as
C=100+ 0.4Y
S= 50+ 0.3Y
Find the equilibrium income, consumption and savings (Using Cramer’s
Rule).
Or 6
15. Three partners A, B and C invested `16,000, `20,000 and `14,000 respectively
in a business. How should they divide a profit of `2,500 in proportion of their
capitals? 2
16. The true discount on a bill due 18 months hence at 4% per annum is `30.
Obtain the amount of the bill. 2
17. How much will be realised from the sale of `6,000, 5% stock at 90 14 ,
brokerage being 1 4 % ? 2
18. Draw the graph of the inequation: ≥ 50. 2
19. In a class of 450 students, 180 study mathematics, 200 study computer and 50
study both the subjects. Obtain the number of students who study neither
mathematics nor computer. 4
1 0
20. If A , find K so that 2 4
1 7
21. A, B, C and D with capitals of `5,000, `4,000, `6,000 and `9,000 respectively
commence a joint business on 1/7/62. A brings further capital of `5,000 on
1/11/62 and B brings in `3,000 on 1/12/62. C withdraws `2,000 of his capital
on 1/2/63 and D withdraws `4,000 on 1/3/63. The annual profits were `9,690.
Find the share of each partner on the basis of average investment. 4
22. Mr. X owes Mr. Y `5,000 payable 5 years hence. Mr. Y owes Mr. X `3,870
payable 18 months hence. If they want to settle their account by cash payment
now, what sum should be paid and by whom, reckoning money at 5% per
annum? 4
23. Solve graphically the following LPP: 4
Maximize Z=-x1 +3x2
subject to constraints
3 x1 6 x 2 18
5 x1 2 x2 10
x1 , x2 0
24. a) It is given that the consumption (C) and saving (S) are functions of income (Y).
Also Y = C + S. If an economy may be described as
C=100+ 0.4Y
S= 50+ 0.3Y
Find the equilibrium income, consumption and savings (Using Cramer’s
Rule).
Or 6
Page 111
-4- NB/XII/FBM/1
b) Food I has 5 units of vitamin A, 7 units of vitamin B and 2 units of vitamin C.
Food II has 0,4 and 6 units respectively and Food III has 4,0,6 units
respectively. Find by determinant method how much amount of the three
foods will exactly be required if we need 39 units of A, 37 units of B and 66
units of C.
25.a) Gaurav purchased 3 pens, 2 bags and 1 instrument box and pay `41. From the
same shop, Dheeraj purchases 2 pens, 1 bag and 2 instrument boxes and pays
`29, while Ankur purchases 2 pens, 2 bags and 2 instrument boxes and pays
`44. Translate the problem into a system of equations. Solve the system of
equations by matrix method and hence find the cost of 1 pen, 1bag and
1instrument box.
Or 6
b) Mr. Rao invested a total of `1,500 in three different savings account with
annual rates of 5%, 2% and 1%. The total amount yield from this investment is
`38. If he invested equal amounts in this 5% and 1% accounts, how much
amount would be yield from each investment? (using matrix algebra)
1 1
26. a) Out of two stocks A and B at 136 and 125, the former paying 5 %
2 2
dividend and latter 5%, a person purchases `1,82,000 of the less
profitable stock initially and then sells it to invest the proceeds in the other,
1
paying % brokerage on the stock sold. What is his gain in the return by
8
the change in investment?
Or 6
b) Having a certain sum to invest, a man puts half of it in 6% stock at 110 and
the other half in 5% stock at par, the price in each case being inclusive of
3
brokerage. If he had invested of it in the first and rest in the second, his
4
annual income would have been `10 more. How much did he invest?
27.a) i)Determine whether the relation R in the set A of human beings in a
village at a particular period given by R ={(m,n):m is a wife of n} is
reflexive, symmetric or transitive.
ii) Let A = {-1,-2,0,1,3,5} and B= {-2, 0,7,10,28}and the function f : A B
is defined by. f(x)=x2+x-2, x A
Find the range of f. Is f an onto function?
Or 4+4=8
b)i)Prove that the relation ‘is a multiple of’ on the set of all natural numbers
are reflexive, and transitive but not symmetric.
ii) Let R be the set of real numbers and A=R-{3} and B=R-{1}
Let the function f : A B be defined by f(x) = , show that the function
f is bijective.
b) Food I has 5 units of vitamin A, 7 units of vitamin B and 2 units of vitamin C.
Food II has 0,4 and 6 units respectively and Food III has 4,0,6 units
respectively. Find by determinant method how much amount of the three
foods will exactly be required if we need 39 units of A, 37 units of B and 66
units of C.
25.a) Gaurav purchased 3 pens, 2 bags and 1 instrument box and pay `41. From the
same shop, Dheeraj purchases 2 pens, 1 bag and 2 instrument boxes and pays
`29, while Ankur purchases 2 pens, 2 bags and 2 instrument boxes and pays
`44. Translate the problem into a system of equations. Solve the system of
equations by matrix method and hence find the cost of 1 pen, 1bag and
1instrument box.
Or 6
b) Mr. Rao invested a total of `1,500 in three different savings account with
annual rates of 5%, 2% and 1%. The total amount yield from this investment is
`38. If he invested equal amounts in this 5% and 1% accounts, how much
amount would be yield from each investment? (using matrix algebra)
1 1
26. a) Out of two stocks A and B at 136 and 125, the former paying 5 %
2 2
dividend and latter 5%, a person purchases `1,82,000 of the less
profitable stock initially and then sells it to invest the proceeds in the other,
1
paying % brokerage on the stock sold. What is his gain in the return by
8
the change in investment?
Or 6
b) Having a certain sum to invest, a man puts half of it in 6% stock at 110 and
the other half in 5% stock at par, the price in each case being inclusive of
3
brokerage. If he had invested of it in the first and rest in the second, his
4
annual income would have been `10 more. How much did he invest?
27.a) i)Determine whether the relation R in the set A of human beings in a
village at a particular period given by R ={(m,n):m is a wife of n} is
reflexive, symmetric or transitive.
ii) Let A = {-1,-2,0,1,3,5} and B= {-2, 0,7,10,28}and the function f : A B
is defined by. f(x)=x2+x-2, x A
Find the range of f. Is f an onto function?
Or 4+4=8
b)i)Prove that the relation ‘is a multiple of’ on the set of all natural numbers
are reflexive, and transitive but not symmetric.
ii) Let R be the set of real numbers and A=R-{3} and B=R-{1}
Let the function f : A B be defined by f(x) = , show that the function
f is bijective.
Page 112
-5- NB/XII/FBM/1
28.a) A businessman openly declares to retail his goods at a profit of 5% but
he adulterates them by adding 15 th of their weight of an inferior article
which costs him 34 th of the price of the better. How much percent profit does
he make? Also in what proportion must he mix the two kinds so as to gain
10%?
Or 8
b) Gold is valued at `560 per gram. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 1 kg
and its value is `4,00,000. If the weights of gold and silver are interchanged, it
would worth `3,00,000. Find the proportion of gold and silver in the alloy and
also the price of silver per kg.
********************
28.a) A businessman openly declares to retail his goods at a profit of 5% but
he adulterates them by adding 15 th of their weight of an inferior article
which costs him 34 th of the price of the better. How much percent profit does
he make? Also in what proportion must he mix the two kinds so as to gain
10%?
Or 8
b) Gold is valued at `560 per gram. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 1 kg
and its value is `4,00,000. If the weights of gold and silver are interchanged, it
would worth `3,00,000. Find the proportion of gold and silver in the alloy and
also the price of silver per kg.
********************
Page 113
Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XII/ECO/1
2024
ECONOMICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative:
1. Which of the following is a part of consumption goods? 1
a) plant b) TV set
c) raw material d) machinery
2. Two sector economy consists of 1
a) households and government b) households and firms
c) firms and foreign d) firms and government
3. Mr. Theja was given cash grants by the Government to encourage
production of certain commodities. This will be treated as 1
a) scholarship b) subsidies
c) pension d) lump sum payment
4. Which deficit indicates the borrowing requirement of the government? 1
a) revenue deficit b) fiscal deficit
c) primary deficit d) budgetary deficit
5. Indicator that reflects the backward nature of the Indian economy on the
eve of independence is 1
a) literacy rate b) life expectancy
c) demographic situation d) mortality rate
6. The apex refinancing institution for rural and agricultural credit is 1
a) RRBs b) NABARD
c) NAFED d) Self Help Group
2024
ECONOMICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative:
1. Which of the following is a part of consumption goods? 1
a) plant b) TV set
c) raw material d) machinery
2. Two sector economy consists of 1
a) households and government b) households and firms
c) firms and foreign d) firms and government
3. Mr. Theja was given cash grants by the Government to encourage
production of certain commodities. This will be treated as 1
a) scholarship b) subsidies
c) pension d) lump sum payment
4. Which deficit indicates the borrowing requirement of the government? 1
a) revenue deficit b) fiscal deficit
c) primary deficit d) budgetary deficit
5. Indicator that reflects the backward nature of the Indian economy on the
eve of independence is 1
a) literacy rate b) life expectancy
c) demographic situation d) mortality rate
6. The apex refinancing institution for rural and agricultural credit is 1
a) RRBs b) NABARD
c) NAFED d) Self Help Group
Page 114
-2- NB/XII/ECO/1
7. What is the duration of long-term credit? 1
a) 6 – 10 years b) 2 – 5 years
c) 5 – 10 years d) 5 – 20 years
8. Statement I : maximum number of people are working as self-employed in
both rural and urban areas
Statement II : the second major source of work is regular salaried category.
Which of the following options is correct about the given statement? 1
a) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
b) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
c) Both the statements are correct
d) Both the statements are incorrect
9. Who was the first chairman of Planning Commission in India? 1
a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Dr. B R Ambedkar
10. In which five year plan did the Government set the target of creating 50
million employment? 1
a) second plan b) fifth plan
c) tenth plan d) twelfth plan
11. Distinguish between final goods and intermediate goods. 2
12. Write any two importance of macroeconomics. 2
13. Ram purchased a scooter for `70,000 to commute between his office and home.
Should this be treated as an intermediate consumption? Give reason. 2
14. Give the differences between intrinsic value and face value. 2
15. “Agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the economic process”.
Explain the given statement. 2
16. Define planning. Give any two drawbacks of planning. 2
17. Which institution has replaced the Planning Commission of India and in
which year? 2
18. Differentiate between economic growth and economic development. 2
19. Explain any two limitations of GDP as an indicator of welfare. 4
20. What is APC? State any three features of APC. 4
7. What is the duration of long-term credit? 1
a) 6 – 10 years b) 2 – 5 years
c) 5 – 10 years d) 5 – 20 years
8. Statement I : maximum number of people are working as self-employed in
both rural and urban areas
Statement II : the second major source of work is regular salaried category.
Which of the following options is correct about the given statement? 1
a) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
b) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
c) Both the statements are correct
d) Both the statements are incorrect
9. Who was the first chairman of Planning Commission in India? 1
a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Dr. B R Ambedkar
10. In which five year plan did the Government set the target of creating 50
million employment? 1
a) second plan b) fifth plan
c) tenth plan d) twelfth plan
11. Distinguish between final goods and intermediate goods. 2
12. Write any two importance of macroeconomics. 2
13. Ram purchased a scooter for `70,000 to commute between his office and home.
Should this be treated as an intermediate consumption? Give reason. 2
14. Give the differences between intrinsic value and face value. 2
15. “Agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the economic process”.
Explain the given statement. 2
16. Define planning. Give any two drawbacks of planning. 2
17. Which institution has replaced the Planning Commission of India and in
which year? 2
18. Differentiate between economic growth and economic development. 2
19. Explain any two limitations of GDP as an indicator of welfare. 4
20. What is APC? State any three features of APC. 4
Page 115
-3- NB/XII/ECO/1
21. Explain any two functions of Central Bank. 4
22. “Foreign trade was much favourable before the British rule as compared to
the deteriorated condition on the eve of independence”. Justify this statement. 4
23. Explain any two fiscal policy reforms introduced under NEP, 1991. 4
24. a. Explain the sources of Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
Or 6
b. Explain the precautions required to be taken while measuring national
income by final expenditure method.
25. a. Explain any three contractionary fiscal policy tools.
Or 6
b. Explain any three objectives of Government budget.
26. a. Make a comparison between India and China by population below
poverty line.
Or 6
b. Make a comparative study of the growth rate of GDP between India
and China.
27. a. Explain how is equilibrium achieved under S ̶ I approach with the help
of a diagram.
Or 8
b. Explain how is full equilibrium achieved with the help of a diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain briefly the basic problems of an economy.
Or 8
b. Explain any four problems of barter exchange.
28. a. Explain any four sources of human capital formation.
Or 8
c. Explain the dimension of sustainable development.
*************************
21. Explain any two functions of Central Bank. 4
22. “Foreign trade was much favourable before the British rule as compared to
the deteriorated condition on the eve of independence”. Justify this statement. 4
23. Explain any two fiscal policy reforms introduced under NEP, 1991. 4
24. a. Explain the sources of Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
Or 6
b. Explain the precautions required to be taken while measuring national
income by final expenditure method.
25. a. Explain any three contractionary fiscal policy tools.
Or 6
b. Explain any three objectives of Government budget.
26. a. Make a comparison between India and China by population below
poverty line.
Or 6
b. Make a comparative study of the growth rate of GDP between India
and China.
27. a. Explain how is equilibrium achieved under S ̶ I approach with the help
of a diagram.
Or 8
b. Explain how is full equilibrium achieved with the help of a diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain briefly the basic problems of an economy.
Or 8
b. Explain any four problems of barter exchange.
28. a. Explain any four sources of human capital formation.
Or 8
c. Explain the dimension of sustainable development.
*************************
Page 116
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/BIO/1
2024
BIOLOGY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contain 15 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
PART - A
1. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into fruit without fertilization is
called 1
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) Apomixis
(c) Embryogenesis (d) Syngamy
2. Assertion (A): During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments move towards the
anode.
Reason (R): DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules. 1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false
3. Match the organism’s cell wall with the enzyme in which it is found 1
i) Bacteria a) Cellulase
ii) Plant cells b) Chitinase
iii) Fungus c) Lysozyme
(a) i(b), ii(a), iii(c)
(b) i(c), ii(b), iii(a)
(c) i(a), ii(c), iii(b)
(d) i(c), ii(a), iii(b)
4. Which of the following forest is known as the ‘Lungs of the planet’? 1
(a) Forest of Greenland (b) Congo Basin forest
(c) Amazon Rain forest (d) Sacred Grooves
2024
BIOLOGY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contain 15 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
PART - A
1. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into fruit without fertilization is
called 1
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) Apomixis
(c) Embryogenesis (d) Syngamy
2. Assertion (A): During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments move towards the
anode.
Reason (R): DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules. 1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false
3. Match the organism’s cell wall with the enzyme in which it is found 1
i) Bacteria a) Cellulase
ii) Plant cells b) Chitinase
iii) Fungus c) Lysozyme
(a) i(b), ii(a), iii(c)
(b) i(c), ii(b), iii(a)
(c) i(a), ii(c), iii(b)
(d) i(c), ii(a), iii(b)
4. Which of the following forest is known as the ‘Lungs of the planet’? 1
(a) Forest of Greenland (b) Congo Basin forest
(c) Amazon Rain forest (d) Sacred Grooves
Page 117
-2- NB/XII/BIO/1
5. The term ‘The Evil Quartet’ is related with four major causes of 1
(a) Forest loss (b) Population explosion
(c) Loss of biodiversity (d) Pollution
6. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
pollinators. Give reason. 2
7. Write down any two important strategies that a bisexual flower can develop to
undergo xenogamy. 2
8. Mention the dual function of AUG. 2
9. a. Both micro-injection and biolistic are methods to introduce alien DNA
into host cells. How does these method differ from each other?
Or 2
b. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease.
10. a. Label the following in the given diagram.
i) Scutellum ii) Coleoptile iii) Shoot apex
iv) Coleorhiza v) Radicle vi) Epiblast
Or 3
b. Label the following in the given diagram.
i) Antipodals ii) Synergids iii) Filiform apparatus
iv) Egg v) Central cell vi) Polar nuclei
5. The term ‘The Evil Quartet’ is related with four major causes of 1
(a) Forest loss (b) Population explosion
(c) Loss of biodiversity (d) Pollution
6. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
pollinators. Give reason. 2
7. Write down any two important strategies that a bisexual flower can develop to
undergo xenogamy. 2
8. Mention the dual function of AUG. 2
9. a. Both micro-injection and biolistic are methods to introduce alien DNA
into host cells. How does these method differ from each other?
Or 2
b. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease.
10. a. Label the following in the given diagram.
i) Scutellum ii) Coleoptile iii) Shoot apex
iv) Coleorhiza v) Radicle vi) Epiblast
Or 3
b. Label the following in the given diagram.
i) Antipodals ii) Synergids iii) Filiform apparatus
iv) Egg v) Central cell vi) Polar nuclei
Page 118
-3- NB/XII/BIO/1
11. a. Two claimant fathers filed a case against a lady claiming to be the father of her
only daughter. How could this case be settled by identifying the real biological
father?
Or 3
b. Name the different types of RNA and give its function.
12. There are some features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.
Give a brief note on the following. 3
i) Ori
ii) Selectable marker
13. With the extinction of a key species, an entire ecosystem will/may collapse.
Explain with reference to ‘Rivet Popper Hypothesis’ by Paul Ehrlich. 3
14. a. Explain Lac-Operon concept with the help of a diagram.
Or 5
b. Explain how Hershey and Chase experiment proved that DNA is the genetic
material.
15. a. Any calculation of energy content, biomass or numbers has to include all
organisms at that trophic level. Give reason for the following.
i) Trophic level represents a functional level and not the species.
ii) Pyramid of energy is always upright and not inverted.
iii) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Or 5
b. What is decomposition? Explain the important steps in the process of
decomposition.
11. a. Two claimant fathers filed a case against a lady claiming to be the father of her
only daughter. How could this case be settled by identifying the real biological
father?
Or 3
b. Name the different types of RNA and give its function.
12. There are some features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.
Give a brief note on the following. 3
i) Ori
ii) Selectable marker
13. With the extinction of a key species, an entire ecosystem will/may collapse.
Explain with reference to ‘Rivet Popper Hypothesis’ by Paul Ehrlich. 3
14. a. Explain Lac-Operon concept with the help of a diagram.
Or 5
b. Explain how Hershey and Chase experiment proved that DNA is the genetic
material.
15. a. Any calculation of energy content, biomass or numbers has to include all
organisms at that trophic level. Give reason for the following.
i) Trophic level represents a functional level and not the species.
ii) Pyramid of energy is always upright and not inverted.
iii) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Or 5
b. What is decomposition? Explain the important steps in the process of
decomposition.
Page 119
-4- NB/XII/BIO/1
PART - B
1. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II 1
1) Ovary A) Androgens
2) Corpus luteum B) Human Chorionic gonadotropin
3) Leydig cells C) Estrogen + Progesterone
4) Placenta D) Progesterone only
(a) 1(A), 2(C), 3(B), 4(D)
(b) 1(C), 2(D), 3(A), 4(B)
(c) 1(B), 2(A), 3(C), 4(D)
(d) 1(A), 2(B), 3(D), 4(C)
2. Lack of independent assortment of two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ in fruit fly Drosophila
is due to 1
(a) Repulsion (b) Recombination
(c) Linkage (d) Crossing over
3. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of
lactation has antibodies 1
(a) Ig E (b) Ig A
(c) Ig M (d) Ig G
4. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of 1
(a) Biodegradable organic matter
(b) Total organic matter
(c) Oxygen evolution
(d) Oxygen consumption
5. Baculoviruses are 1
(a) Species specific, narrow spectrum insecticides
(b) Species specific, broad spectrum insecticides
(c) Non specific, narrow spectrum insecticides
(d) Non specific, broad spectrum insecticides
6. a. Write the role of GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone) on
spermatogenesis.
Or 2
b. What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives?
PART - B
1. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II 1
1) Ovary A) Androgens
2) Corpus luteum B) Human Chorionic gonadotropin
3) Leydig cells C) Estrogen + Progesterone
4) Placenta D) Progesterone only
(a) 1(A), 2(C), 3(B), 4(D)
(b) 1(C), 2(D), 3(A), 4(B)
(c) 1(B), 2(A), 3(C), 4(D)
(d) 1(A), 2(B), 3(D), 4(C)
2. Lack of independent assortment of two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ in fruit fly Drosophila
is due to 1
(a) Repulsion (b) Recombination
(c) Linkage (d) Crossing over
3. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of
lactation has antibodies 1
(a) Ig E (b) Ig A
(c) Ig M (d) Ig G
4. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of 1
(a) Biodegradable organic matter
(b) Total organic matter
(c) Oxygen evolution
(d) Oxygen consumption
5. Baculoviruses are 1
(a) Species specific, narrow spectrum insecticides
(b) Species specific, broad spectrum insecticides
(c) Non specific, narrow spectrum insecticides
(d) Non specific, broad spectrum insecticides
6. a. Write the role of GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone) on
spermatogenesis.
Or 2
b. What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives?
Page 120
-5- NB/XII/BIO/1
7. Write the importance of pedigree analysis in genetic studies. 2
8. Draw and label the structure of an antibody molecule. 2
9. What process is involved for the prevention of nematode infestation in the
roots of tobacco plant? Briefly explain. 2
10. a. How is sex determination in honeybees different from human?
Or 3
b. How did Miller’s experiment support the origin of life theory of Oparin and
Haldane? Explain.
11. a. On what property is the principle of immunization/ vaccination based?
Explain briefly.
Or 3
b. Explain the importance of fungi and cyano bacteria as bio fertilizers.
12. Write three biotechnological applications in medicine. 3
13. Write the difference between the exponential growth and logistic growth
of a population. 3
14. a. The problem of infertility is on the rise. List and explain the different ways
by which this infertility problem can be tackled.
Or 5
b. With the help of a diagram, explain the embryonic development that takes
place from zygote till implantation.
15. a. Write and explain three Mendelian disorders and two chromosomal disorders.
Or 5
b. Discuss the different evidences found that support evolution.
*****************
7. Write the importance of pedigree analysis in genetic studies. 2
8. Draw and label the structure of an antibody molecule. 2
9. What process is involved for the prevention of nematode infestation in the
roots of tobacco plant? Briefly explain. 2
10. a. How is sex determination in honeybees different from human?
Or 3
b. How did Miller’s experiment support the origin of life theory of Oparin and
Haldane? Explain.
11. a. On what property is the principle of immunization/ vaccination based?
Explain briefly.
Or 3
b. Explain the importance of fungi and cyano bacteria as bio fertilizers.
12. Write three biotechnological applications in medicine. 3
13. Write the difference between the exponential growth and logistic growth
of a population. 3
14. a. The problem of infertility is on the rise. List and explain the different ways
by which this infertility problem can be tackled.
Or 5
b. With the help of a diagram, explain the embryonic development that takes
place from zygote till implantation.
15. a. Write and explain three Mendelian disorders and two chromosomal disorders.
Or 5
b. Discuss the different evidences found that support evolution.
*****************
Page 121
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/CSC/1
2024
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) In Python, a single line comments is preceded by a ________.
i) " " ii) || || iii) # iv) all of the above
(b) A list in Python
i) is 0 index based
ii) can be accessed by indexing
iii) negative indices can be used in indexing
iv) all of the above
(c) The invocation of a function refers to
i) defining a function ii) calling a function
iii) name of a function iv) all of the above
(d) The ‘+’ suffix can be used to grant _________ access to the file.
i) read ii) read and write
ii) read or write iv) none of the above
(e) Which of the following is more efficient, if the input list is sorted?
i) linear search ii) binary search
iii) Both are equally efficient iv) depends on the input constraints
(f) Which package of python is used to draw 2-D graphics?
i) Linear graph ii) matplotlib
iii) circular queue iv) none of the above
(g) Which of the following statement is correct?
i) A data structure is used to organize elements.
ii) The data structure may be used to access elements efficiently.
iii) The knowledge of data structure helps the programmer to make
efficient programs.
iv) all of the above
2024
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) In Python, a single line comments is preceded by a ________.
i) " " ii) || || iii) # iv) all of the above
(b) A list in Python
i) is 0 index based
ii) can be accessed by indexing
iii) negative indices can be used in indexing
iv) all of the above
(c) The invocation of a function refers to
i) defining a function ii) calling a function
iii) name of a function iv) all of the above
(d) The ‘+’ suffix can be used to grant _________ access to the file.
i) read ii) read and write
ii) read or write iv) none of the above
(e) Which of the following is more efficient, if the input list is sorted?
i) linear search ii) binary search
iii) Both are equally efficient iv) depends on the input constraints
(f) Which package of python is used to draw 2-D graphics?
i) Linear graph ii) matplotlib
iii) circular queue iv) none of the above
(g) Which of the following statement is correct?
i) A data structure is used to organize elements.
ii) The data structure may be used to access elements efficiently.
iii) The knowledge of data structure helps the programmer to make
efficient programs.
iv) all of the above
Page 122
-2- NB/XII/CSC/1
(h) The number of attributes in a relation is called?
i) Cardinality ii) Tuples
iii) Degree iv) all of these
(i) If C1 is a relation with 5 rows and C2 is a relation with 3 rows, how many
rows will the cartesian product of C1 and C2 generate?
i) 8 ii) 10 iii) 15 iv) 20
(j) To describe a table, which of the following is used?
i) DESC ii) DESCRIBE
iii) both iv) none of these
2. Explain the purpose of the following operators vis-à-vis lists. 2
i) + ii) *
3. Differentiate between pre-defined functions and user defined functions. 2
4. When the base case in a recursive procedure is not specified, stack
overflow occurs. Why? 2
5. What are file attributes? Explain the file attributes provided by python. 2
6. What is modulation? Why is it needed? 2
7. Define the following: 2
i) Primary key ii) Candidate key
8. Explain the ORDER BY clause and state its syntax. 2
9. Write the steps to create a database in python using the SQL connector. 2
10. a. What is recursion? State the types of recursion.
Or 3
b. What is a function? What are the advantages of using a function?
11. What is NumPy? Why is it used in python? 3
12. Define the following asymptotic notations: 3
i) Big Oh ii) Omega iii) Theta
13. Explain the importance of visualization. 3
14. a. Write an Algorithms for the following in an array.
i) Inserting an element at the beginning
ii) Inserting an element at the end
(h) The number of attributes in a relation is called?
i) Cardinality ii) Tuples
iii) Degree iv) all of these
(i) If C1 is a relation with 5 rows and C2 is a relation with 3 rows, how many
rows will the cartesian product of C1 and C2 generate?
i) 8 ii) 10 iii) 15 iv) 20
(j) To describe a table, which of the following is used?
i) DESC ii) DESCRIBE
iii) both iv) none of these
2. Explain the purpose of the following operators vis-à-vis lists. 2
i) + ii) *
3. Differentiate between pre-defined functions and user defined functions. 2
4. When the base case in a recursive procedure is not specified, stack
overflow occurs. Why? 2
5. What are file attributes? Explain the file attributes provided by python. 2
6. What is modulation? Why is it needed? 2
7. Define the following: 2
i) Primary key ii) Candidate key
8. Explain the ORDER BY clause and state its syntax. 2
9. Write the steps to create a database in python using the SQL connector. 2
10. a. What is recursion? State the types of recursion.
Or 3
b. What is a function? What are the advantages of using a function?
11. What is NumPy? Why is it used in python? 3
12. Define the following asymptotic notations: 3
i) Big Oh ii) Omega iii) Theta
13. Explain the importance of visualization. 3
14. a. Write an Algorithms for the following in an array.
i) Inserting an element at the beginning
ii) Inserting an element at the end
Page 123
-3- NB/XII/CSC/1
iii) Deleting a given element from an array.
Or 3
b. State the applications of Queues.
15. a. Name two communication channels used in networking and explain
any one.
Or 3
b. Explain one bit parity check with example.
16. Create a table called Customer having the following attributes: 3
• RegistrationID, • Fname, • Mname,
• Lname, • Gender, • Phone,
• City, • State, • Street,
• House.No, • Country,
in the database Carwash. The ID should be of char type and the rest of the
fields should be varchar. One can decide which fields should be null and
which not-null.
Use carwash
17. a. What is a join? What are the various types of joins?
Or 3
b. Write the steps to insert a record in a table using SQL connector.
18. a. Write a program to find the sum of squares of first n natural numbers.
Also, find its complexity.
Or 5
b. Which function is used to plot a bar in Matplotlib? Explain its arguments.
19. a. Write a program to insert an element in a list at a given position.
Or 5
b. Write an algorithm to convert a postfix expression to an infix expression.
20. a. Write a short notes on the following:
i) GSM ii) CDMA iii) WLL
Or 5
b. What is meant by topology? Explain the different types of topologies.
21. a. What is SQL? Explain the different categories of commands in SQL.
Or 5
b. State the syntax of the following functions:
i) max( ) ii) min( ) iii) avg( ) iv) sum( )
v) count( )
************************
iii) Deleting a given element from an array.
Or 3
b. State the applications of Queues.
15. a. Name two communication channels used in networking and explain
any one.
Or 3
b. Explain one bit parity check with example.
16. Create a table called Customer having the following attributes: 3
• RegistrationID, • Fname, • Mname,
• Lname, • Gender, • Phone,
• City, • State, • Street,
• House.No, • Country,
in the database Carwash. The ID should be of char type and the rest of the
fields should be varchar. One can decide which fields should be null and
which not-null.
Use carwash
17. a. What is a join? What are the various types of joins?
Or 3
b. Write the steps to insert a record in a table using SQL connector.
18. a. Write a program to find the sum of squares of first n natural numbers.
Also, find its complexity.
Or 5
b. Which function is used to plot a bar in Matplotlib? Explain its arguments.
19. a. Write a program to insert an element in a list at a given position.
Or 5
b. Write an algorithm to convert a postfix expression to an infix expression.
20. a. Write a short notes on the following:
i) GSM ii) CDMA iii) WLL
Or 5
b. What is meant by topology? Explain the different types of topologies.
21. a. What is SQL? Explain the different categories of commands in SQL.
Or 5
b. State the syntax of the following functions:
i) max( ) ii) min( ) iii) avg( ) iv) sum( )
v) count( )
************************
Page 124
Total number of printed pages :3 NB/XII/IP/1
2024
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
Totalmarks:70 Time:3hours
Generalinstructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is com plete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
(a) IP version 6 address is a ______ byte address.
i) four ii) six
iii) eight iv) sixteen
(b) Which of the following is not true about open source software?
i) Freedom to use ii) Freedom to modify
iii) Freedom to share iv) Freedom to sale
(c) Which of the following is not a swing class?
i) JFrame ii) JLabel
iii) JButton iv) ListBox
(d) Which of the following is not a property of OOPS?
i) Inheritance ii) Polymorphism
iii) Seperation iv) Abstraction
(e) Which statement is used to retrieve data from a table?
i) SELECT ii) READ
iii) DISPLAY iv) EXTRACT
(f) CSS is an acronym of _________.
i) Cascading Style Sheet ii) Cascading Style Syntax
iii) Changing Style Sheet iv) None of these
(g) Identify the odd one out.
i) ODBC ii) MySQL/NET
iii) JDBC iv) PHP
(h) Which of the following is not a valid join in MySQL?
i) INNER join ii) SELF join
iii) OUTER join iv) ALPHA join
2024
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
Totalmarks:70 Time:3hours
Generalinstructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is com plete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
(a) IP version 6 address is a ______ byte address.
i) four ii) six
iii) eight iv) sixteen
(b) Which of the following is not true about open source software?
i) Freedom to use ii) Freedom to modify
iii) Freedom to share iv) Freedom to sale
(c) Which of the following is not a swing class?
i) JFrame ii) JLabel
iii) JButton iv) ListBox
(d) Which of the following is not a property of OOPS?
i) Inheritance ii) Polymorphism
iii) Seperation iv) Abstraction
(e) Which statement is used to retrieve data from a table?
i) SELECT ii) READ
iii) DISPLAY iv) EXTRACT
(f) CSS is an acronym of _________.
i) Cascading Style Sheet ii) Cascading Style Syntax
iii) Changing Style Sheet iv) None of these
(g) Identify the odd one out.
i) ODBC ii) MySQL/NET
iii) JDBC iv) PHP
(h) Which of the following is not a valid join in MySQL?
i) INNER join ii) SELF join
iii) OUTER join iv) ALPHA join
Page 125
-2- NB/XII/IP/1
(i) Relation produced from an E-R model will always be in ______.
i) 1NF ii) 2NF
iii) 3NF iv) 4NF
(j) Which of the following is a magic number in the context of Mind Reader
Game application?
i) 9 ii) 18
iii) 45 iv) all of these
2. Explain in brief the following components of Event driven programming:
i) Event source object ii) Event object 2
3. Differentiate between Static binding and Dynamic binding. 2
4. What are horizontal scaling and vertical scaling? 2
5. Define e-Business. Name one popularly used e-Business website. 2
6. Write short notes on: i) ORDER BY clause ii) GRO UP BY clause. 2
7. Explain the purpose of the following numeric functions:
i) FLOOR ( ) ii) CEILING ( ) 2
8. What are the statements that provide control over use of transactions? 2
9. Define BCNF and Fourth Normal Form. 2
10. What is normalization? 2
11. Define the following data structure design: 2
i) Char MagicSymbol ii) int [ ] RandomSymbols
12. Describe the module design methods used in Mind Reader Game application. 2
13. a. Explain the following networking devices:
i) Repeater ii) Router iii) Modem
Or 3
b. Explain any three open source programming languages.
14. a. What is the purpose of switch statement in Java? Write its syntax.
Or 3
b. Discuss any three methods of JLabel class.
(i) Relation produced from an E-R model will always be in ______.
i) 1NF ii) 2NF
iii) 3NF iv) 4NF
(j) Which of the following is a magic number in the context of Mind Reader
Game application?
i) 9 ii) 18
iii) 45 iv) all of these
2. Explain in brief the following components of Event driven programming:
i) Event source object ii) Event object 2
3. Differentiate between Static binding and Dynamic binding. 2
4. What are horizontal scaling and vertical scaling? 2
5. Define e-Business. Name one popularly used e-Business website. 2
6. Write short notes on: i) ORDER BY clause ii) GRO UP BY clause. 2
7. Explain the purpose of the following numeric functions:
i) FLOOR ( ) ii) CEILING ( ) 2
8. What are the statements that provide control over use of transactions? 2
9. Define BCNF and Fourth Normal Form. 2
10. What is normalization? 2
11. Define the following data structure design: 2
i) Char MagicSymbol ii) int [ ] RandomSymbols
12. Describe the module design methods used in Mind Reader Game application. 2
13. a. Explain the following networking devices:
i) Repeater ii) Router iii) Modem
Or 3
b. Explain any three open source programming languages.
14. a. What is the purpose of switch statement in Java? Write its syntax.
Or 3
b. Discuss any three methods of JLabel class.
Page 126
-3- NB/XII/IP/1
15. Define Logical operators in MySQL? List the different logical
operations used in MySQL. 3
16. What will be the output of the following SQL statements? 3
i) SELECT POWER (2, 10); ii) SELECT MID (‘SRIGANESH’,1, 3);
iii) SELECT LPAD (120,’0’, 5);
17. a. What is ENUM constraint? Explain it with an example.
Or 3
b. Write short notes on: i) SET constraint ii) Default constraint
iii) Foreign key constraints
18. Define the following terms: 3
i)De-normalization ii) Insertion anomaly
iii) First Normal Form (1NF)
19. a. What is Denial of Service(DoS) Attack? Explain the different types of
DoS attack.
Or 5
b. Write down five disadvantages of open source software.
20. a. Discuss any five methods of JComboBox Class.
Or 5
b. What are the different properties of constructors?
21. a. Define a data driven application. Explain the various layers of data
driven application.
Or 5
b. Mention any five advantages of internet.
22. a. Describe the different elements of a database table.
Or 5
b. What is a transaction? What are the different properties of a transaction?
*************************
15. Define Logical operators in MySQL? List the different logical
operations used in MySQL. 3
16. What will be the output of the following SQL statements? 3
i) SELECT POWER (2, 10); ii) SELECT MID (‘SRIGANESH’,1, 3);
iii) SELECT LPAD (120,’0’, 5);
17. a. What is ENUM constraint? Explain it with an example.
Or 3
b. Write short notes on: i) SET constraint ii) Default constraint
iii) Foreign key constraints
18. Define the following terms: 3
i)De-normalization ii) Insertion anomaly
iii) First Normal Form (1NF)
19. a. What is Denial of Service(DoS) Attack? Explain the different types of
DoS attack.
Or 5
b. Write down five disadvantages of open source software.
20. a. Discuss any five methods of JComboBox Class.
Or 5
b. What are the different properties of constructors?
21. a. Define a data driven application. Explain the various layers of data
driven application.
Or 5
b. Mention any five advantages of internet.
22. a. Describe the different elements of a database table.
Or 5
b. What is a transaction? What are the different properties of a transaction?
*************************
Page 127
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/PHI/1
2024
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given option in Questions 1-10.
1. Mathematical method is 1
(a) Rational (b) Ambiguity
(c) Axiomatic (d) Realistic
2 The empiricist philosophers are 1
(a) Locke, Berkeley, Descartes (b) Locke, Berkeley, Hume
(c) Descartes, Spinoza, Leibnitz (d) Hume, Spinoza, Leibnitz
3. Saptabhangi is the theory of _____ prediction. 1
(a) Fourfold (b) Fivefold
(c) Sixfold (d) Sevenfold
4. The word Jainism is derived from the Sanskrit word 1
(a) Ji (b) Je
(c) Jai (d) Jeo
5. According to Nyaya, Anumana is the ______ source of knowledge. 1
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
6. In Christianity, the Holy Spirit is usually referred to as the 1
(a) First person (b) Second person
(c) Third person (d) Fourth person
2024
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given option in Questions 1-10.
1. Mathematical method is 1
(a) Rational (b) Ambiguity
(c) Axiomatic (d) Realistic
2 The empiricist philosophers are 1
(a) Locke, Berkeley, Descartes (b) Locke, Berkeley, Hume
(c) Descartes, Spinoza, Leibnitz (d) Hume, Spinoza, Leibnitz
3. Saptabhangi is the theory of _____ prediction. 1
(a) Fourfold (b) Fivefold
(c) Sixfold (d) Sevenfold
4. The word Jainism is derived from the Sanskrit word 1
(a) Ji (b) Je
(c) Jai (d) Jeo
5. According to Nyaya, Anumana is the ______ source of knowledge. 1
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
6. In Christianity, the Holy Spirit is usually referred to as the 1
(a) First person (b) Second person
(c) Third person (d) Fourth person
Page 128
-2- NB/XII/PHI/1
7. Assertion: Object exists independently of human mind. 1
Reason:
(a) objects depends on knowledge
(b) objects are merely names or terms
(c) truth is objective
(d) truth is subjective
8. Assertion: The design or order found in the universe provides evidence
for the existence of an intelligent designer usually identified as God. 1
Reason:
(a) Cosmological argument (b) Ontological argument
(c) Teleological argument (d) Emperical argument
9. Assertion: Atman is Brahman 1
Reason:
(a) Jivas are created by Brahman (b) The world is an illusion
(c) Brahman is the only reality (d) Brahman is the locus of maya
10. Assertion: Prakrti must exist 1
Reason:
(a) Purusa is inactive (b) Kapila has said
(c) Vedanta does not admit of Prakrti (d) Prakrti is active
11 What is epistemology? 2
12 What are innate ideas? 2
13 When and who first coined the word social justice? 2
14. State the three jewels of Jainism. 2
15. What is Syadvada? 2
16. Name any four external aids or Bahiranga Jadhana of the Yoga system. 2
17. Name any two terms of Nyaya syllogism. 2
18. What is religion? 2
19. Name the methods of Philosophy. 4
20. How did Kant reconcile empiricism and rationalism? 4
7. Assertion: Object exists independently of human mind. 1
Reason:
(a) objects depends on knowledge
(b) objects are merely names or terms
(c) truth is objective
(d) truth is subjective
8. Assertion: The design or order found in the universe provides evidence
for the existence of an intelligent designer usually identified as God. 1
Reason:
(a) Cosmological argument (b) Ontological argument
(c) Teleological argument (d) Emperical argument
9. Assertion: Atman is Brahman 1
Reason:
(a) Jivas are created by Brahman (b) The world is an illusion
(c) Brahman is the only reality (d) Brahman is the locus of maya
10. Assertion: Prakrti must exist 1
Reason:
(a) Purusa is inactive (b) Kapila has said
(c) Vedanta does not admit of Prakrti (d) Prakrti is active
11 What is epistemology? 2
12 What are innate ideas? 2
13 When and who first coined the word social justice? 2
14. State the three jewels of Jainism. 2
15. What is Syadvada? 2
16. Name any four external aids or Bahiranga Jadhana of the Yoga system. 2
17. Name any two terms of Nyaya syllogism. 2
18. What is religion? 2
19. Name the methods of Philosophy. 4
20. How did Kant reconcile empiricism and rationalism? 4
Page 129
-3- NB/XII/PHI/1
21. ‘Esse est percipi’ means ‘to exist is to be perceived’.
a) What is perception? (2)
b) According to Berkeley, do existence or perception comes first.
Why? (2)
22. Name the Padarthas of Vaisesika. 4
23. What is the difference between laukika and alaukika perception of Nyaya? 4
24. a) Critically explain the concept of social justice with reference to John
Rawls. 6
Or
b) What is social philosophy? Explain the relation between philosophy
and social psychology. (2+4=6)
25. a) Explain the four Noble Truths of Buddhism.
Or 6
b) Explain the doctrine of Pratityasamutpada according to Buddhism.
26. a) What does the word Kosmos mean? What are the five ways put
forwarded by Thomas Aquinas to prove the existence of God? 1+5=6
Or
b) Explain the four main foundations of Islam. (6)
27. a) Imagine a girl became pregnant and is in a dilemma whether she
should go for abortion or not; 2+3+3=8
i. What is abortion?
ii. According to you, should she abort the fetus? If yes/no
give reason in support of your answer.
iii. What does your religion (which ever religion you follow)
say about abortion?
Or
b) Define Ethics. Explain the three types of Ethics. (2+6=8)
28. a) Explain the common features of Indian philosophy. 8
Or
b) What is the aim of Indian philosophy? Is Indian philosophy
pessimistic? Explain (2+6=8)
***********************
21. ‘Esse est percipi’ means ‘to exist is to be perceived’.
a) What is perception? (2)
b) According to Berkeley, do existence or perception comes first.
Why? (2)
22. Name the Padarthas of Vaisesika. 4
23. What is the difference between laukika and alaukika perception of Nyaya? 4
24. a) Critically explain the concept of social justice with reference to John
Rawls. 6
Or
b) What is social philosophy? Explain the relation between philosophy
and social psychology. (2+4=6)
25. a) Explain the four Noble Truths of Buddhism.
Or 6
b) Explain the doctrine of Pratityasamutpada according to Buddhism.
26. a) What does the word Kosmos mean? What are the five ways put
forwarded by Thomas Aquinas to prove the existence of God? 1+5=6
Or
b) Explain the four main foundations of Islam. (6)
27. a) Imagine a girl became pregnant and is in a dilemma whether she
should go for abortion or not; 2+3+3=8
i. What is abortion?
ii. According to you, should she abort the fetus? If yes/no
give reason in support of your answer.
iii. What does your religion (which ever religion you follow)
say about abortion?
Or
b) Define Ethics. Explain the three types of Ethics. (2+6=8)
28. a) Explain the common features of Indian philosophy. 8
Or
b) What is the aim of Indian philosophy? Is Indian philosophy
pessimistic? Explain (2+6=8)
***********************
Page 130
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XII/FMM/1
2024
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMENT
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. From April 2003 onwards _________ settlement cycle is being followed. 1
a) T + 1 day b) T + 2 days
c) T + 3 days d) T + 5 days
2. What is the maximum brokerage chargeable by TM in respect of trades
affected in the securities admitted to dealing on the CM segment of the
exchange? 1
a) 2.5% b) 3%
c) 3.5% d) 5%
3. A confirmation of the trade done on a particular day for and on behalf of
a client is known as. 1
a) application supported by blocked amount
b) interest free security deposit
c) collateral security deposit
d) contract note
4. SBTS stands for 1
a) Security Based Trading System b) SEBI Based Trading System
c) Screen Bases Trading System d) Screen Based Trading Security
5. M/s Agre Financial Services, a trading member on NSE has a branch order
value of ` 700 lakhs for his Chennai branch and ` 650 lakhs for Kolkata
branch. Chennai branch has two users ‘X’ and ‘Y’ with user order value
limits of ` 250 lakhs and ` 300 lakhs respectively. Kolkata branch has one
user ‘Z’ with user order value limit of ` 350 lakhs. The member applies
for a new user at Chennai. What is the maximum user order value that can
be set for the new user? 1
2024
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMENT
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. From April 2003 onwards _________ settlement cycle is being followed. 1
a) T + 1 day b) T + 2 days
c) T + 3 days d) T + 5 days
2. What is the maximum brokerage chargeable by TM in respect of trades
affected in the securities admitted to dealing on the CM segment of the
exchange? 1
a) 2.5% b) 3%
c) 3.5% d) 5%
3. A confirmation of the trade done on a particular day for and on behalf of
a client is known as. 1
a) application supported by blocked amount
b) interest free security deposit
c) collateral security deposit
d) contract note
4. SBTS stands for 1
a) Security Based Trading System b) SEBI Based Trading System
c) Screen Bases Trading System d) Screen Based Trading Security
5. M/s Agre Financial Services, a trading member on NSE has a branch order
value of ` 700 lakhs for his Chennai branch and ` 650 lakhs for Kolkata
branch. Chennai branch has two users ‘X’ and ‘Y’ with user order value
limits of ` 250 lakhs and ` 300 lakhs respectively. Kolkata branch has one
user ‘Z’ with user order value limit of ` 350 lakhs. The member applies
for a new user at Chennai. What is the maximum user order value that can
be set for the new user? 1
Page 131
-2- NB/XII/FMM/1
a) ` 700 – (` 250 + ` 300) = ` 150 lakhs
b) ` 650 – (` 250 + ` 300) = ` 100 lakhs
c) ` 700 – ` 250 = ` 450 lakhs
d) ` 700 – ` 300 = ` 400 lakhs
6. Security VaR means 1
a) the higher of 5% or 3 security sigmas
b) the higher of 5% or 3 index sigmas
c) the higher of 7.5% or 3.5 security sigmas
d) the higher of 7.5 or 3 security sigmas
7. The risk arises when failure of one of the parties to discharge his
obligations leads to failure by other parties is called 1
a) systemic risk b) operational risk
c) legal risk d) unsystemic risk
8. The derivatives trading on NSE commenced on 1
a) April 1, 2000 b) May 12, 2000
c) June 12, 2000 d) June 20, 2000
9. Mr. Amit after watching the Nifty 50 index, he became bullish and he
decided to trade by `50,000 in options chain. In which position he will trade? 1
a) call position b) put position
c) both call and put position d) future contract
10. The returns from either buying or selling a future contract as against buying
or selling the underlying asset means 1
a) cost of carry b) initial margin
c) maintenance margin d) payoff
11. Mention any two eligibility criteria for a sub-broker. 2
12. State the two special features of market movement. 2
13. Write any two types of capital market system. 2
14. Mention two benefits of cross margining. 2
15. State any two objectives of the Depositories Act, 1996. 2
16. Write any two standardized items in a future contract. 2
17. Ramesh, the CEO of a company thinks of going with the most popular
method of raising funds used by the public companies. He discussed this
a) ` 700 – (` 250 + ` 300) = ` 150 lakhs
b) ` 650 – (` 250 + ` 300) = ` 100 lakhs
c) ` 700 – ` 250 = ` 450 lakhs
d) ` 700 – ` 300 = ` 400 lakhs
6. Security VaR means 1
a) the higher of 5% or 3 security sigmas
b) the higher of 5% or 3 index sigmas
c) the higher of 7.5% or 3.5 security sigmas
d) the higher of 7.5 or 3 security sigmas
7. The risk arises when failure of one of the parties to discharge his
obligations leads to failure by other parties is called 1
a) systemic risk b) operational risk
c) legal risk d) unsystemic risk
8. The derivatives trading on NSE commenced on 1
a) April 1, 2000 b) May 12, 2000
c) June 12, 2000 d) June 20, 2000
9. Mr. Amit after watching the Nifty 50 index, he became bullish and he
decided to trade by `50,000 in options chain. In which position he will trade? 1
a) call position b) put position
c) both call and put position d) future contract
10. The returns from either buying or selling a future contract as against buying
or selling the underlying asset means 1
a) cost of carry b) initial margin
c) maintenance margin d) payoff
11. Mention any two eligibility criteria for a sub-broker. 2
12. State the two special features of market movement. 2
13. Write any two types of capital market system. 2
14. Mention two benefits of cross margining. 2
15. State any two objectives of the Depositories Act, 1996. 2
16. Write any two standardized items in a future contract. 2
17. Ramesh, the CEO of a company thinks of going with the most popular
method of raising funds used by the public companies. He discussed this
Page 132
-3- NB/XII/FMM/1
option with his subordinates. After discussion, he realizes that since the
company is a private company, he should think of some other option. Then,
they think of issuing securities through intermediaries like issuing houses
of stocks brokers. When his nephew comes to know about this, he decides
to suggest his uncle another way. He advised him to involve institutional
investors which will help him raise funds more quickly and reduce many
mandatory expenses. After a lot of discussion, the option suggested by his
nephew was chosen as final. Based on the above case study, answer the
following: 1 x 4 =4
i) Which method will be the most appropriate in the primary market?
ii) In which type of capital market trading of only existing shares is done?
ii) In which type of market only buying of securities is possible as
securities cannot be sold here?
iv) Which type of capital market does not have fixed geographical location?
18. Write any four advantages of screen based trading system. 4
19. Explain the special features of activity log. 4
20. Explain the obligation reports of NSCCL. 4
21. Write any four points that includes in dividend according to section 2(22) of
Income Tax Act, 1961. 4
22. Discuss the desirable attributes of a good market index. 4
23. a. Explain any six points that a trading member may be declared as a defaulter.
Or 6
b. Mention any six points about the code of advertisement prescribed by
the exchange.
24. a. Explain the market phase of trading system.
Or 6
b. Explain any six points of trader workstation screen of the trading member.
25. a. Explain the salient features of limited physical market settlement.
Or 6
b. Explain the salient features of the SEBI regulations.
26. a. Explain the payoff for buyer and seller of futures.
Or 6
b. Explain any six options terminologies.
*************************
option with his subordinates. After discussion, he realizes that since the
company is a private company, he should think of some other option. Then,
they think of issuing securities through intermediaries like issuing houses
of stocks brokers. When his nephew comes to know about this, he decides
to suggest his uncle another way. He advised him to involve institutional
investors which will help him raise funds more quickly and reduce many
mandatory expenses. After a lot of discussion, the option suggested by his
nephew was chosen as final. Based on the above case study, answer the
following: 1 x 4 =4
i) Which method will be the most appropriate in the primary market?
ii) In which type of capital market trading of only existing shares is done?
ii) In which type of market only buying of securities is possible as
securities cannot be sold here?
iv) Which type of capital market does not have fixed geographical location?
18. Write any four advantages of screen based trading system. 4
19. Explain the special features of activity log. 4
20. Explain the obligation reports of NSCCL. 4
21. Write any four points that includes in dividend according to section 2(22) of
Income Tax Act, 1961. 4
22. Discuss the desirable attributes of a good market index. 4
23. a. Explain any six points that a trading member may be declared as a defaulter.
Or 6
b. Mention any six points about the code of advertisement prescribed by
the exchange.
24. a. Explain the market phase of trading system.
Or 6
b. Explain any six points of trader workstation screen of the trading member.
25. a. Explain the salient features of limited physical market settlement.
Or 6
b. Explain the salient features of the SEBI regulations.
26. a. Explain the payoff for buyer and seller of futures.
Or 6
b. Explain any six options terminologies.
*************************
Page 133
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XII/MAT/1
2024
MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Use of simple calculators (non-scientific and non-programmable) only is permitted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) Let R be the relation in the set Z of all integers defined as, R = {(x, y) : x – y is
an integer}, then R is 1
(i) Reflexive (ii) Symmetric
(iii) Transitive (iv) Equivalence relation
1
(b) The principal value of cot 1 is 1
3
2 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3 3 3 3
5 x
(c) If A and A = AT then 1
y 0
(i) x = 0, y = 5 (ii) x + y = 5
(iii) x = y (iv) x = 5, y = 0
3 dy
(d) If y e x then the value of is 1
dx
3 3 3
(i) 3x 3e x (ii) 3x 2 e x (iii) 3ex 3 (iv) e x
2024
MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Use of simple calculators (non-scientific and non-programmable) only is permitted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) Let R be the relation in the set Z of all integers defined as, R = {(x, y) : x – y is
an integer}, then R is 1
(i) Reflexive (ii) Symmetric
(iii) Transitive (iv) Equivalence relation
1
(b) The principal value of cot 1 is 1
3
2 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3 3 3 3
5 x
(c) If A and A = AT then 1
y 0
(i) x = 0, y = 5 (ii) x + y = 5
(iii) x = y (iv) x = 5, y = 0
3 dy
(d) If y e x then the value of is 1
dx
3 3 3
(i) 3x 3e x (ii) 3x 2 e x (iii) 3ex 3 (iv) e x
Page 134
-2- NB/XII/MAT/1
(e) The graph of f x sin x is given below. f(x)
1 1
Then in the interval (0, ) 0.5
(i) f x is a constant function 0
2
3
2
2 X
_ 0.5
(ii) f x is an increasing function _1
(iii) f x is a decreasing function
(iv) f x is neither increasing nor decreasing function
2
(f) sin 5 xdx is equal to 1
2
(i) 0 (ii) 1 (iii) (iv)
2 2
sec 2 x
(g) The value of dx is 1
cos ec 2 x
(i) sec x x C (ii) tan x x C
(iii) sec x x C (iv) tan x x C
(h) The degree of the differential equation
3 2
d 2 y dy dy
2 sin 1 0 is 1
dx dx dx
(i) 3 (ii) 1 (iii) 0 (iv) not defined
(i) If a is a nonzero vector of magnitude ‘a’ and a nonzero scalar, then a is
unit vector if 1
1
(i) = 1 (ii) = 1 (iii) a (iv) a
(j) If P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.5 and P(B/A) = 0.4 then the value of PA B is 1
(i) 0.32 (ii) 0.64 (iii) 0.98 (iv) 0.40
Section – B
2
2. Find the value of sin 1 sin . 2
3
1 3 y 0 5 6
3. Find x and y, if 2 . 2
0 x 1 2 1 8
4. Find the value of k so that the function defined by
kx 2 , if x 2
f x is continuous at x = 2. 2
3, if x 2
(e) The graph of f x sin x is given below. f(x)
1 1
Then in the interval (0, ) 0.5
(i) f x is a constant function 0
2
3
2
2 X
_ 0.5
(ii) f x is an increasing function _1
(iii) f x is a decreasing function
(iv) f x is neither increasing nor decreasing function
2
(f) sin 5 xdx is equal to 1
2
(i) 0 (ii) 1 (iii) (iv)
2 2
sec 2 x
(g) The value of dx is 1
cos ec 2 x
(i) sec x x C (ii) tan x x C
(iii) sec x x C (iv) tan x x C
(h) The degree of the differential equation
3 2
d 2 y dy dy
2 sin 1 0 is 1
dx dx dx
(i) 3 (ii) 1 (iii) 0 (iv) not defined
(i) If a is a nonzero vector of magnitude ‘a’ and a nonzero scalar, then a is
unit vector if 1
1
(i) = 1 (ii) = 1 (iii) a (iv) a
(j) If P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.5 and P(B/A) = 0.4 then the value of PA B is 1
(i) 0.32 (ii) 0.64 (iii) 0.98 (iv) 0.40
Section – B
2
2. Find the value of sin 1 sin . 2
3
1 3 y 0 5 6
3. Find x and y, if 2 . 2
0 x 1 2 1 8
4. Find the value of k so that the function defined by
kx 2 , if x 2
f x is continuous at x = 2. 2
3, if x 2
Page 135
-3- NB/XII/MAT/1
5. The side of a square sheet of metal is increasing at the rate of 3 cm/minute. At
what rate is the area of the sheet increasing when its side is 10 cm long? 2
6. Evaluate cot x logsin x dx . 2
7. Integrate sin 2 xdx . 2
8. Verify, if y = Ax is a solution of the differential equation xy' y x 0 . 2
9. Find a vector in the direction of the vector 5iˆ ˆj 2kˆ which has magnitude 8
units. 2
1 1 1
10. If A and B are two events such that PA and PB and PA B ,
4 2 8
find P(not A and not B). 2
Section – C
11. a. Let L be the set of all lines in XY plane and R be the relation in L defined
as R = {(L1, L2) : L1 is parallel to L2 }. Show that R is equivalence
relation. Find the set of all lines related to the line y = 2x + 4.
Or 4
b. Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f : A B defined by
x 2
f x . Is f one-one and onto? Justify your answer.
x 3
12. Three schools A, B and C organized a fair for collecting funds for helping the
rehabilitation of flood victims. They sold handmade fans, mats and plates from
recycled material at a cost of `25, `100 and `50 each. The number of articles sold
are given below: 2+2=4
School A B C
Article
Handmade fans 40 25 35
Mats 50 40 50
Plates 20 30 40
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
a) If P be a 3 3 matrix representing the sale of handmade fans, mats and plates
by three schools A, B and C and if Q be a 3 1 matrix representing the sale
prices in ` of given products per unit, then, find the matrices P and Q.
b) Find the funds collected by the schools A and B.
5. The side of a square sheet of metal is increasing at the rate of 3 cm/minute. At
what rate is the area of the sheet increasing when its side is 10 cm long? 2
6. Evaluate cot x logsin x dx . 2
7. Integrate sin 2 xdx . 2
8. Verify, if y = Ax is a solution of the differential equation xy' y x 0 . 2
9. Find a vector in the direction of the vector 5iˆ ˆj 2kˆ which has magnitude 8
units. 2
1 1 1
10. If A and B are two events such that PA and PB and PA B ,
4 2 8
find P(not A and not B). 2
Section – C
11. a. Let L be the set of all lines in XY plane and R be the relation in L defined
as R = {(L1, L2) : L1 is parallel to L2 }. Show that R is equivalence
relation. Find the set of all lines related to the line y = 2x + 4.
Or 4
b. Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f : A B defined by
x 2
f x . Is f one-one and onto? Justify your answer.
x 3
12. Three schools A, B and C organized a fair for collecting funds for helping the
rehabilitation of flood victims. They sold handmade fans, mats and plates from
recycled material at a cost of `25, `100 and `50 each. The number of articles sold
are given below: 2+2=4
School A B C
Article
Handmade fans 40 25 35
Mats 50 40 50
Plates 20 30 40
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
a) If P be a 3 3 matrix representing the sale of handmade fans, mats and plates
by three schools A, B and C and if Q be a 3 1 matrix representing the sale
prices in ` of given products per unit, then, find the matrices P and Q.
b) Find the funds collected by the schools A and B.
Page 136
-4- NB/XII/MAT/1
1 1 dy y
13. If x asin t , y a cos t , show that 4
dx x
5x 3
14. a. Evaluate dx
x 2 4 x 10
Or 4
2
b. Evaluate dx
1 x 1 x 2
x x
x
y
15. a. Solve the differential equation 1 e dx e y 1 dy 0
y
Or 4
b. Find the general solution of the differential equation
1 x dy 2xy dx cot x dx x 0
2
1 x 7 y 14 z 3
16. Find the values of p so that the lines and
3 2p 2
7 7x y 5 6 z
are at right angles. 4
3p 1 5
17. Solve the Linear Programming Problem graphically: Minimise Z = x + 2y subject
to the constraints x 2 y 6, 2 x y 3; x, y 0 . 4
18. a. In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C manufacture
respectively 25%, 35% and 40% of the bolts. Of their outputs, 5, 4 and 2
percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random from the
product and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it is
manufactured by the machine B?
Or 4
b. An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and
6000 truck drivers. The probability of accidents are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15
respectively. One of the insured persons meets with an accident. What is the
probability that he is a scooter driver?
Section – D
19. a. Solve the system of linear equations by using matrix method.
3x 2 y 3z 8
2x y z 1
4x 3 y 2z 4
Or 5
1 1 dy y
13. If x asin t , y a cos t , show that 4
dx x
5x 3
14. a. Evaluate dx
x 2 4 x 10
Or 4
2
b. Evaluate dx
1 x 1 x 2
x x
x
y
15. a. Solve the differential equation 1 e dx e y 1 dy 0
y
Or 4
b. Find the general solution of the differential equation
1 x dy 2xy dx cot x dx x 0
2
1 x 7 y 14 z 3
16. Find the values of p so that the lines and
3 2p 2
7 7x y 5 6 z
are at right angles. 4
3p 1 5
17. Solve the Linear Programming Problem graphically: Minimise Z = x + 2y subject
to the constraints x 2 y 6, 2 x y 3; x, y 0 . 4
18. a. In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C manufacture
respectively 25%, 35% and 40% of the bolts. Of their outputs, 5, 4 and 2
percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random from the
product and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it is
manufactured by the machine B?
Or 4
b. An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and
6000 truck drivers. The probability of accidents are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15
respectively. One of the insured persons meets with an accident. What is the
probability that he is a scooter driver?
Section – D
19. a. Solve the system of linear equations by using matrix method.
3x 2 y 3z 8
2x y z 1
4x 3 y 2z 4
Or 5
Page 137
-5- NB/XII/MAT/1
1 0 2
b. If A 0 2 1 . Prove that A 3 6A 2 7 A 2 I 0
2 0 3
20 a. Of all the closed cylindrical cans (right circular), of a given volume of 100
cubic centimeters, find the dimensions of the can which has the minimum
surface area?
Or 5
b. Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square
has the maximum area.
21. a. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse 9 x 2 4 y 2 36 using
integration.
Or 5
b. Find the area bounded by the curve y sin x between x = 0 and x = 2.
22. a. Find the shortest distance between the lines r iˆ 2 jˆ kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ
and r 2iˆ ˆj kˆ 2iˆ jˆ 2kˆ
Or 5
b. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point 1, 2, 4 and
perpendicular to the two lines:
x 8 y 19 z 10 x 15 y 29 z 5
and
3 16 7 3 8 5
*************************************
1 0 2
b. If A 0 2 1 . Prove that A 3 6A 2 7 A 2 I 0
2 0 3
20 a. Of all the closed cylindrical cans (right circular), of a given volume of 100
cubic centimeters, find the dimensions of the can which has the minimum
surface area?
Or 5
b. Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square
has the maximum area.
21. a. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse 9 x 2 4 y 2 36 using
integration.
Or 5
b. Find the area bounded by the curve y sin x between x = 0 and x = 2.
22. a. Find the shortest distance between the lines r iˆ 2 jˆ kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ
and r 2iˆ ˆj kˆ 2iˆ jˆ 2kˆ
Or 5
b. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point 1, 2, 4 and
perpendicular to the two lines:
x 8 y 19 z 10 x 15 y 29 z 5
and
3 16 7 3 8 5
*************************************
Page 138
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/IT(V)/1
2024
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Facts or knowledge provided or learned about something or someone is
(a) Prejudgements (b) Information
(c) Belief (d) Internet
ii. In SMART goal setting, the acronym ‘S’ stands for
(a) Small (b) Supply
(c) Specific (d) Standard
iii. In libre office calc, the sheet number sequence is shown in
(a) Page style (b) Active cell
(c) Status bar (d) Sheet tabs
iv. In spread sheets, a formula must always begin with
(a) A less than (b) An equal sign
(c) A greater than (d) A # sign
v. The capacity to take control and make decisions before others is
(a) Cognitive skill (b) Perseverance
(c) Decisiveness (d) Initiative
vi. Green roofing is part of the green job sector under
(a) Agriculture (b) Eco tourism
(c) Building and construction (d) Appropriate technology
vii. Which of the following is the world’s largest ERP vendor?
(a) Oracle (b) Epicor
(c) Microsoft (d) Infor
viii. The ability to quickly adapt to changes and unexpected events is called
(a) Mobility (b) Integrity
(c) Accountability (d) Agility
ix. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor affecting learning
across ages?
(a) Goals (b) Aspirations
(c) Aptitude (d) Motivation
x. Learning through listening and speaking is
(a) Auditive learning (b) Visual learning
(c) Haptic learning (d) Intellect
2024
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Facts or knowledge provided or learned about something or someone is
(a) Prejudgements (b) Information
(c) Belief (d) Internet
ii. In SMART goal setting, the acronym ‘S’ stands for
(a) Small (b) Supply
(c) Specific (d) Standard
iii. In libre office calc, the sheet number sequence is shown in
(a) Page style (b) Active cell
(c) Status bar (d) Sheet tabs
iv. In spread sheets, a formula must always begin with
(a) A less than (b) An equal sign
(c) A greater than (d) A # sign
v. The capacity to take control and make decisions before others is
(a) Cognitive skill (b) Perseverance
(c) Decisiveness (d) Initiative
vi. Green roofing is part of the green job sector under
(a) Agriculture (b) Eco tourism
(c) Building and construction (d) Appropriate technology
vii. Which of the following is the world’s largest ERP vendor?
(a) Oracle (b) Epicor
(c) Microsoft (d) Infor
viii. The ability to quickly adapt to changes and unexpected events is called
(a) Mobility (b) Integrity
(c) Accountability (d) Agility
ix. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor affecting learning
across ages?
(a) Goals (b) Aspirations
(c) Aptitude (d) Motivation
x. Learning through listening and speaking is
(a) Auditive learning (b) Visual learning
(c) Haptic learning (d) Intellect
Page 139
-2- NB-XII/IT(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is an enterprise? 1
3. What is active listening? 1
4. Define innovation. 1
5. List any two components of procurement process. 1
6. What is onshore outsourcing? . 1
7. Define skill. 1
8. What is competitive pricing? 1
9. Which type of knowledge is gained through observation and experimentation?
1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is e-commerce ERP module? Write one use of this module. 1+1=2
11. Differentiate between sole proprietorship and partnership. 2
12. List any two qualities procurement professionals excel at. 2
13. Differentiate between back office and front office of business process outsourcing.
2
14. List any two ways how payroll outsourcing can help business. 2
15. List any four characteristics of knowledge. 2
16. What is self-motivation? State one reason for self-motivation. 1+1=2
17. Explain the terms (i) Explicit knowledge (ii) Implicit knowledge. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly any four benefits of using enterprise resource planning (ERP).
Or 4
(b) Write in brief any four ways to improve time management skills.
19. (a) List any four ways to avail a healthy and good working environment in business
process outsourcing (BPO).
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four principles of procurement process. .
20. Explain any four sources of learning. 4
21. Define learning. List the three elements of learning. 1+3= 4
******************************************
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is an enterprise? 1
3. What is active listening? 1
4. Define innovation. 1
5. List any two components of procurement process. 1
6. What is onshore outsourcing? . 1
7. Define skill. 1
8. What is competitive pricing? 1
9. Which type of knowledge is gained through observation and experimentation?
1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is e-commerce ERP module? Write one use of this module. 1+1=2
11. Differentiate between sole proprietorship and partnership. 2
12. List any two qualities procurement professionals excel at. 2
13. Differentiate between back office and front office of business process outsourcing.
2
14. List any two ways how payroll outsourcing can help business. 2
15. List any four characteristics of knowledge. 2
16. What is self-motivation? State one reason for self-motivation. 1+1=2
17. Explain the terms (i) Explicit knowledge (ii) Implicit knowledge. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly any four benefits of using enterprise resource planning (ERP).
Or 4
(b) Write in brief any four ways to improve time management skills.
19. (a) List any four ways to avail a healthy and good working environment in business
process outsourcing (BPO).
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four principles of procurement process. .
20. Explain any four sources of learning. 4
21. Define learning. List the three elements of learning. 1+3= 4
******************************************
Page 140
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XII/T&H(V)/1
2024
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 1x10=10
i. Which of the following is a barrier to active listening?
(a) Evaluating (b) Understanding
(c) Responding (d) Filtering
ii. In personality traits, a person who follows a strict routine or stays in regular contact
with people is an example of
(a) openness (b) conscientiousness
(c) agreeableness (d) extraversion
iii. It consists of the name box, sum, function etc.
(a) Menu bar (b) Title bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Status bar
iv. In entrepreneurship, the capacity to take control and make decisions before others is
known as
(a) initiative (b) perseverance
(c) decisiveness (d) positive attitude
v. In Asli and Kelly’s tiered structure of hospitality, the basic provision of food, drink,
shelter and sanitation refers to
(a) service (b) hospitableness
(c) sustenance (d) entertainment
vi. Which factor should be considered when choosing recreational facilities for children
as tourist?
(a) Cost (b) Safety record
(c) Security measures (d) Educational value
vii. It refers to the many behaviours and routines that might assist in preserving one’s
health.
(a) Cleanliness (b) Hygiene
(c) Exercise (d) Safety
viii. Slips, trips and falls, as well as exposure to dangerous machinery or equipment is an
example of
(a) physical hazard (b) ergonomic hazard
(c) chemical hazard (d) natural hazard
2024
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 1x10=10
i. Which of the following is a barrier to active listening?
(a) Evaluating (b) Understanding
(c) Responding (d) Filtering
ii. In personality traits, a person who follows a strict routine or stays in regular contact
with people is an example of
(a) openness (b) conscientiousness
(c) agreeableness (d) extraversion
iii. It consists of the name box, sum, function etc.
(a) Menu bar (b) Title bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Status bar
iv. In entrepreneurship, the capacity to take control and make decisions before others is
known as
(a) initiative (b) perseverance
(c) decisiveness (d) positive attitude
v. In Asli and Kelly’s tiered structure of hospitality, the basic provision of food, drink,
shelter and sanitation refers to
(a) service (b) hospitableness
(c) sustenance (d) entertainment
vi. Which factor should be considered when choosing recreational facilities for children
as tourist?
(a) Cost (b) Safety record
(c) Security measures (d) Educational value
vii. It refers to the many behaviours and routines that might assist in preserving one’s
health.
(a) Cleanliness (b) Hygiene
(c) Exercise (d) Safety
viii. Slips, trips and falls, as well as exposure to dangerous machinery or equipment is an
example of
(a) physical hazard (b) ergonomic hazard
(c) chemical hazard (d) natural hazard
Page 141
-2- NB/XII/T&H(V)/1
ix. A service which allows guests to have food and drinks delivered to their room is
known as
(a) concierge service (b) turndown service
(c) room service (d) shuttle service
x) The information supplied by customers on their level of satisfaction with a product or
service is called
(a) target customer (b) customer service
(c) customer profile (d) customer feedback
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Write any one action involves in active listening. 1
3. List any two sources of motivation. 1
4. State any one way in which a presentation can be printed. 1
5. What is an entrepreneurial attitude? 1
6. How can local staff, such as tour guides or hotel employees help to ensure
the safety and security of female travellers? 1
7. Write one important point on ensuring clean workplace. 1
8. What is workplace safety? 1
9. What will happen if there is poor communication between hotel management
and staff? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Define the term ‘green job’. Name any two green jobs in the agricultural
sector. 1+1=2
11. Briefly explain customer centricity. 2
12. Briefly explain two ways in which customers contribute to brand value. 2
13. What is equal employment opportunity? List any two primary laws that
address EEO in India. 1+1=2
14. Write four steps to prevent pests in the workplace. 2
15. Mention any two safe lifting techniques in banquets. 2
16. State two reasons for the need of studying foreign language in hospitality
sector. 2
17. What is customer relationship management system? Write any two needs
of CRM in hotel industry. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Examine the role of language in hospitality sector.
Or 4
(b) Explain age and gender specific customer services.
19. (a) State any four thump rules for taking precautionary health measures.
Or 4
(b) Enumerate four actions to ensure zero accidents in the food and
beverage service area.
20. Explain four ways to handle guest complaints in the hotel industry. 4
21. Who is a customer in hospitality industry? Explain any three customers in
hospitality industry. 1+3=4
**************************
ix. A service which allows guests to have food and drinks delivered to their room is
known as
(a) concierge service (b) turndown service
(c) room service (d) shuttle service
x) The information supplied by customers on their level of satisfaction with a product or
service is called
(a) target customer (b) customer service
(c) customer profile (d) customer feedback
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Write any one action involves in active listening. 1
3. List any two sources of motivation. 1
4. State any one way in which a presentation can be printed. 1
5. What is an entrepreneurial attitude? 1
6. How can local staff, such as tour guides or hotel employees help to ensure
the safety and security of female travellers? 1
7. Write one important point on ensuring clean workplace. 1
8. What is workplace safety? 1
9. What will happen if there is poor communication between hotel management
and staff? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Define the term ‘green job’. Name any two green jobs in the agricultural
sector. 1+1=2
11. Briefly explain customer centricity. 2
12. Briefly explain two ways in which customers contribute to brand value. 2
13. What is equal employment opportunity? List any two primary laws that
address EEO in India. 1+1=2
14. Write four steps to prevent pests in the workplace. 2
15. Mention any two safe lifting techniques in banquets. 2
16. State two reasons for the need of studying foreign language in hospitality
sector. 2
17. What is customer relationship management system? Write any two needs
of CRM in hotel industry. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Examine the role of language in hospitality sector.
Or 4
(b) Explain age and gender specific customer services.
19. (a) State any four thump rules for taking precautionary health measures.
Or 4
(b) Enumerate four actions to ensure zero accidents in the food and
beverage service area.
20. Explain four ways to handle guest complaints in the hotel industry. 4
21. Who is a customer in hospitality industry? Explain any three customers in
hospitality industry. 1+3=4
**************************
Page 142
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/R(V)/1
2024
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which one of the following is not a stage of active listening?
a) Understanding b) Responding
c) Filtering d) Evaluating
ii. It is located at the top and shows the name of the current spreadsheet.
a) Status bar b) Title bar
c) Menu bar d) Toolbar
iii. The capacity to control and make decisions before others is known as
a) ability b) deterrent
c) capability d) initiative
iv. Identify the benefits of green jobs.
a) Energy independence b) Agricultural promotion
c) Technology advancement d) Transportation development
v. The most effective way to identify customer problems is
a) market review b) community forums
c) customer feedback d) social media
vi. Providing the customers with a range of options to address their issue is to
a) improve customer relation b) improve reputation
c) offer solutions d) follow up
vii. It is essential for the success of any retail business.
a) Customer service b) Customer record
c) Good customer d) Brand recognition
viii. A retail business that prioritize the needs of its customers above all else in order to
effectively deliver a good customer experience is known as
a) retailer-centric b) business-centric
c) customer-centric d) service-centric
ix. The ability to consistently and precisely deliver the promised service is
referred to as
a) responsiveness b) promptness
c) tangibility d) reliability
2024
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which one of the following is not a stage of active listening?
a) Understanding b) Responding
c) Filtering d) Evaluating
ii. It is located at the top and shows the name of the current spreadsheet.
a) Status bar b) Title bar
c) Menu bar d) Toolbar
iii. The capacity to control and make decisions before others is known as
a) ability b) deterrent
c) capability d) initiative
iv. Identify the benefits of green jobs.
a) Energy independence b) Agricultural promotion
c) Technology advancement d) Transportation development
v. The most effective way to identify customer problems is
a) market review b) community forums
c) customer feedback d) social media
vi. Providing the customers with a range of options to address their issue is to
a) improve customer relation b) improve reputation
c) offer solutions d) follow up
vii. It is essential for the success of any retail business.
a) Customer service b) Customer record
c) Good customer d) Brand recognition
viii. A retail business that prioritize the needs of its customers above all else in order to
effectively deliver a good customer experience is known as
a) retailer-centric b) business-centric
c) customer-centric d) service-centric
ix. The ability to consistently and precisely deliver the promised service is
referred to as
a) responsiveness b) promptness
c) tangibility d) reliability
Page 143
-2- NB-XII/R(V)/1
x. The first step a sales associate should take to address anti-discrimination in a retail
store is to create
a) a clear and comprehensive anti-discrimination policy
b) a clear and comprehensive anti-discrimination plan
c) a clear and comprehensive justice policy
d) a clear and comprehensive impartiality plan
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List any two barriers to active listening. 1
3. Write any two tasks of spreadsheet. 1
4. What is startup? 1
5. State any two importance of green jobs. 1
6. What is product organization in retail business? 1
7. Write any two reasons for not meeting customer expectations. 1
8. List any two widely used techniques for getting client feedback. 1
9. Why is workplace appearance important? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is stress? Suggest one way to manage stress. 1+1=2
11. Briefly explain any two rules for handling customer problems. 2
12. Suggest two ways to resolve customer complaints while negotiating. 2
13. What is customer data? State one reason why customer data is important.
1+1=2
14. State any two guidelines to be followed to respond appropriately to
customers. 2
15. What is customer feedback? Why is client feedback vital for retailers? 1+1=2
16. Briefly explain any two factors affecting consumer behavior. 2
17. If a sales associate experiences or witnesses sexual harassment in a retail
store, explain any two steps that should be taken. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) What is negotiation? Briefly explain three reasons why negotiation skills
are essential in the workplace. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain any four features of good customer service that every store
should incorporate. (4)
19. (a) What is customer retention? Explain three ways to retain customer.1+3=4
Or
(b) Briefly explain four benefits of customer relationship management. (4)
20. Explain four pre-requisites for good customer service. 4
21. Explain four features of work team. 4
******************************************
x. The first step a sales associate should take to address anti-discrimination in a retail
store is to create
a) a clear and comprehensive anti-discrimination policy
b) a clear and comprehensive anti-discrimination plan
c) a clear and comprehensive justice policy
d) a clear and comprehensive impartiality plan
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List any two barriers to active listening. 1
3. Write any two tasks of spreadsheet. 1
4. What is startup? 1
5. State any two importance of green jobs. 1
6. What is product organization in retail business? 1
7. Write any two reasons for not meeting customer expectations. 1
8. List any two widely used techniques for getting client feedback. 1
9. Why is workplace appearance important? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is stress? Suggest one way to manage stress. 1+1=2
11. Briefly explain any two rules for handling customer problems. 2
12. Suggest two ways to resolve customer complaints while negotiating. 2
13. What is customer data? State one reason why customer data is important.
1+1=2
14. State any two guidelines to be followed to respond appropriately to
customers. 2
15. What is customer feedback? Why is client feedback vital for retailers? 1+1=2
16. Briefly explain any two factors affecting consumer behavior. 2
17. If a sales associate experiences or witnesses sexual harassment in a retail
store, explain any two steps that should be taken. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) What is negotiation? Briefly explain three reasons why negotiation skills
are essential in the workplace. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain any four features of good customer service that every store
should incorporate. (4)
19. (a) What is customer retention? Explain three ways to retain customer.1+3=4
Or
(b) Briefly explain four benefits of customer relationship management. (4)
20. Explain four pre-requisites for good customer service. 4
21. Explain four features of work team. 4
******************************************
Page 144
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII-H(V)/1
2024
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. In which of the following stage of active listening does giving feedback to the
speaker either verbally or non-verbally happen?
(a) Hearing (b) Understanding
(c) Responding (d) Evaluating
ii. Identify the personality disorder that is characterized by pervasive distrust
(a) Anxious (b) Suspicious
(c) Avoidant (d) Emotional and impulsive
iii. In spread sheets, it is differentiated by the fact that it begins with an equal sign
(a) Text (b) Numbers
(c) Formula (d) Mode
iv. Which of the following procedure is performed to move a patient without flexing the
spine?
(a) Slide board (b) Log rolling
(c) Wheel chair (d) Stretcher
v. A process that destroys harmful microorganism is called
(a) Disinfection (b) Sterilization
(c) Fumigation (d) Asepsis
vi. An irregular rhythm of heartbeat is called
(a) Anti-arrhythmic (b) Tachypnea
(c) Disrhythmia (d) Hypertension
vii. It helps to reduce shortness of breaths
(a) Lip respiration (b) Belly breathing
(c) Box breathing (d) Deep breathing
viii. The process of administering a vaccine to build resistance to a particular disease
(a) Immunization (b) Vaccination
(c) Injection (d) Medication
ix. Syringes and gloves are disposed off in
(a) Red bag (b) Yellow bag
(c) Blue bag (d) White bag
x. In ‘PACE format’, which of the following outline the facility’s treatment strategy?
(a) Patient (b) Actions
(c) Changes (d) Evaluation
2024
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. In which of the following stage of active listening does giving feedback to the
speaker either verbally or non-verbally happen?
(a) Hearing (b) Understanding
(c) Responding (d) Evaluating
ii. Identify the personality disorder that is characterized by pervasive distrust
(a) Anxious (b) Suspicious
(c) Avoidant (d) Emotional and impulsive
iii. In spread sheets, it is differentiated by the fact that it begins with an equal sign
(a) Text (b) Numbers
(c) Formula (d) Mode
iv. Which of the following procedure is performed to move a patient without flexing the
spine?
(a) Slide board (b) Log rolling
(c) Wheel chair (d) Stretcher
v. A process that destroys harmful microorganism is called
(a) Disinfection (b) Sterilization
(c) Fumigation (d) Asepsis
vi. An irregular rhythm of heartbeat is called
(a) Anti-arrhythmic (b) Tachypnea
(c) Disrhythmia (d) Hypertension
vii. It helps to reduce shortness of breaths
(a) Lip respiration (b) Belly breathing
(c) Box breathing (d) Deep breathing
viii. The process of administering a vaccine to build resistance to a particular disease
(a) Immunization (b) Vaccination
(c) Injection (d) Medication
ix. Syringes and gloves are disposed off in
(a) Red bag (b) Yellow bag
(c) Blue bag (d) White bag
x. In ‘PACE format’, which of the following outline the facility’s treatment strategy?
(a) Patient (b) Actions
(c) Changes (d) Evaluation
Page 145
-2- NB-XII/H(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is deep palpitation? 1
3. Write any two traits observed commonly in self-motivated person. 1
4. List any two punctuation marks. 1
5. Name any two routes of administering drugs. 1
6. What information does the status bar in a spreadsheet provide? 1
7. What is physiotherapy? 1
8. List any two steps of surgical dressing. 1
9. Define immunity. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What are metered dose inhalers? Name the two types of metered dose inhalers.
. 1+1=2
11. Differentiate between subjective data and objective data in healthcare. 2
12. List any two common errors in medical documentation. 2
13. Who is an entrepreneur? Write one characteristic of an entrepreneur. 1+1=2
14. Briefly explain any two benefits of green jobs. 2
15. Differentiate between medical and surgical asepsis. 2
16. Mention any two risks involved in poor waste management in hospitals. 2
17. Write any two benefits of regular physical exercise. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Briefly explain any four techniques of physical examination.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four methods of transmission of infection.
19. (a) Explain any four control measures to prevent spread of an infection.
Or 4
(b) Briefly explain any four key components of Universal Immunization Programme.
20. Describe four routes of transmission of infection in hospitals. 4
21. What is electronic health record? Briefly explain any three pieces of information
that nurses and GDA’s access to. 1+3=4
**********************************
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is deep palpitation? 1
3. Write any two traits observed commonly in self-motivated person. 1
4. List any two punctuation marks. 1
5. Name any two routes of administering drugs. 1
6. What information does the status bar in a spreadsheet provide? 1
7. What is physiotherapy? 1
8. List any two steps of surgical dressing. 1
9. Define immunity. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What are metered dose inhalers? Name the two types of metered dose inhalers.
. 1+1=2
11. Differentiate between subjective data and objective data in healthcare. 2
12. List any two common errors in medical documentation. 2
13. Who is an entrepreneur? Write one characteristic of an entrepreneur. 1+1=2
14. Briefly explain any two benefits of green jobs. 2
15. Differentiate between medical and surgical asepsis. 2
16. Mention any two risks involved in poor waste management in hospitals. 2
17. Write any two benefits of regular physical exercise. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Briefly explain any four techniques of physical examination.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four methods of transmission of infection.
19. (a) Explain any four control measures to prevent spread of an infection.
Or 4
(b) Briefly explain any four key components of Universal Immunization Programme.
20. Describe four routes of transmission of infection in hospitals. 4
21. What is electronic health record? Briefly explain any three pieces of information
that nurses and GDA’s access to. 1+3=4
**********************************
Page 146
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/B&W(V)/1
2024
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Considering the speaker’s message in relation to the listener’s own experience
and beliefs is
a) hearing b) understanding
c) evaluating d) responding
ii. File, edit, view, insert etc. are options found in
a) Menu Bar b) Toolbar
c) Formula Bar d) Title Bar
iii. Under which sector of green job does recycling, composting and waste to energy
conversion fall?
a) Agriculture b) Solid waste management
c) Appropriate technology d) Conservation of natural resources
iv. What type of skin tone have pinkness with occasional surface redness or honey
colorations?
a) Fair b) Warm
c) Tan d) Medium
v. The study of colour is known as
a) chromatics b) shade
c) tone d) tint
vi. It reduces tension and improve blood circulation.
a) Anti-aging facial massage b) Aromatherapy facial massage
c) Acupressure facial massage d) Facial palming massage
vii. It is a non-invasive facial treatment that uses sound waves to deeply exfoliate and
cleanse the skin.
a) Facial sauna b) Ultrasonic exfoliation
c) Electric facial brush d) Facial steaming
viii. Which area of the salon is used to keep the inventory, supplies and equipment
necessary to run a salon?
a) Front desk b) Reception
c) Retail area d) Store area
2024
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Considering the speaker’s message in relation to the listener’s own experience
and beliefs is
a) hearing b) understanding
c) evaluating d) responding
ii. File, edit, view, insert etc. are options found in
a) Menu Bar b) Toolbar
c) Formula Bar d) Title Bar
iii. Under which sector of green job does recycling, composting and waste to energy
conversion fall?
a) Agriculture b) Solid waste management
c) Appropriate technology d) Conservation of natural resources
iv. What type of skin tone have pinkness with occasional surface redness or honey
colorations?
a) Fair b) Warm
c) Tan d) Medium
v. The study of colour is known as
a) chromatics b) shade
c) tone d) tint
vi. It reduces tension and improve blood circulation.
a) Anti-aging facial massage b) Aromatherapy facial massage
c) Acupressure facial massage d) Facial palming massage
vii. It is a non-invasive facial treatment that uses sound waves to deeply exfoliate and
cleanse the skin.
a) Facial sauna b) Ultrasonic exfoliation
c) Electric facial brush d) Facial steaming
viii. Which area of the salon is used to keep the inventory, supplies and equipment
necessary to run a salon?
a) Front desk b) Reception
c) Retail area d) Store area
Page 147
-2- NB-XII/B&W(V)/1
ix. This type of appointment allows a customer to enter the salon, see what services are
available and make an appointment for the same day.
a) Reservation b) Direct appointment
c) Front desk appointment d) Walk-in appointment
x. Which of the following is not included in the code of conduct of the salon?
a) Qualification b) Dress code
c) Customer service d) Product knowledge
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Write one action that is involved in active listening. 1
3. State the two types of spreadsheets. 1
4. Define green jobs. 1
5. What is blusher used for? 1
6. Write two benefits of facial steaming. 1
7. Why is salon reception duty essential? 1
8. What is code of conduct and professional etiquette in a salon? 1
9. List two work accessories that are used in a salon. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Mention two ways to maintain positive attitude. 2
11. Differentiate between entrepreneur and entrepreneurship. 2
12. What is saree? Mention any two styles of saree draping. 1+1=2
13. What is facial massage? Write two types of facial massage. 1+1=2
14. Write any two ways for a salon receptionist in dealing with
clients over phone calls. 2
15. Write two ways on how to maintain the Front Desk in a salon. 2
16. Why is creating a positive impression at the work place important
for beauty therapist? Give two reasons. 2
17. Briefly explain any two tips to be an effective team member in a
salon. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) Explain four types of makeup products.
Or 4
b) Explain any four makeup removal methods.
19. a) Describe any four procedures of steaming.
Or 4
b) Explain any four benefits of using electric facial brush.
20. Describe the process of scheduling appointments in a salon. 4
21. Explain four ways on how a beauty therapist should maintain good
health and posture. 4
******************************************
ix. This type of appointment allows a customer to enter the salon, see what services are
available and make an appointment for the same day.
a) Reservation b) Direct appointment
c) Front desk appointment d) Walk-in appointment
x. Which of the following is not included in the code of conduct of the salon?
a) Qualification b) Dress code
c) Customer service d) Product knowledge
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Write one action that is involved in active listening. 1
3. State the two types of spreadsheets. 1
4. Define green jobs. 1
5. What is blusher used for? 1
6. Write two benefits of facial steaming. 1
7. Why is salon reception duty essential? 1
8. What is code of conduct and professional etiquette in a salon? 1
9. List two work accessories that are used in a salon. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Mention two ways to maintain positive attitude. 2
11. Differentiate between entrepreneur and entrepreneurship. 2
12. What is saree? Mention any two styles of saree draping. 1+1=2
13. What is facial massage? Write two types of facial massage. 1+1=2
14. Write any two ways for a salon receptionist in dealing with
clients over phone calls. 2
15. Write two ways on how to maintain the Front Desk in a salon. 2
16. Why is creating a positive impression at the work place important
for beauty therapist? Give two reasons. 2
17. Briefly explain any two tips to be an effective team member in a
salon. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) Explain four types of makeup products.
Or 4
b) Explain any four makeup removal methods.
19. a) Describe any four procedures of steaming.
Or 4
b) Explain any four benefits of using electric facial brush.
20. Describe the process of scheduling appointments in a salon. 4
21. Explain four ways on how a beauty therapist should maintain good
health and posture. 4
******************************************
Page 148
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/E(V)/1
2024
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following implies using ears to receive the sound created in the form of
speech?
(a) Sharing (b) Hearing
(c) Focus (d) Filtering
ii. Promotions, incentives, rewards are examples of
(a) Intrinsic motivation (b) Self-motivation
(c) Extrinsic motivation (d) Self-reflection
iii. File, edit, view, insert are options available in
(a) Tool bar (b) Menu bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Status bar
iv. Which of the following is not a part of solid waste management?
(a) Recycling (b) Composting
(c) Waste to energy conversion (d) Water treatment
v. A protective device used in electrical circuit to protect against electric shock is
(a) AFCI (b) GFCI
(c) GMI (d) TPS
vi. An electromechanical device installed to protect the circuit against overload,
overcurrent or short circuit is called
(a) Transformer (b) Generator
(c) Fuse (d) Capacitor
vii. Which of the following material is used to manufacture an enclosure of load centre?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Wood (d) Galvanized steel
viii. Which of the following is not the control scheme of the VFD?
(a) Scalar control (b) Vector control
(c) Direct torque control (d) Indirect torque control
ix. The rotating part of a motor is the
(a) Starter (b) Carbon brush
(c) Armature (d) Stator
x. Class C extinguisher is used to extinguish fire caused by
(a) Gasoline, gas (b) Plastic, paper
(c) Combustible metal (d) Electrical cables, wires
2024
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following implies using ears to receive the sound created in the form of
speech?
(a) Sharing (b) Hearing
(c) Focus (d) Filtering
ii. Promotions, incentives, rewards are examples of
(a) Intrinsic motivation (b) Self-motivation
(c) Extrinsic motivation (d) Self-reflection
iii. File, edit, view, insert are options available in
(a) Tool bar (b) Menu bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Status bar
iv. Which of the following is not a part of solid waste management?
(a) Recycling (b) Composting
(c) Waste to energy conversion (d) Water treatment
v. A protective device used in electrical circuit to protect against electric shock is
(a) AFCI (b) GFCI
(c) GMI (d) TPS
vi. An electromechanical device installed to protect the circuit against overload,
overcurrent or short circuit is called
(a) Transformer (b) Generator
(c) Fuse (d) Capacitor
vii. Which of the following material is used to manufacture an enclosure of load centre?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Wood (d) Galvanized steel
viii. Which of the following is not the control scheme of the VFD?
(a) Scalar control (b) Vector control
(c) Direct torque control (d) Indirect torque control
ix. The rotating part of a motor is the
(a) Starter (b) Carbon brush
(c) Armature (d) Stator
x. Class C extinguisher is used to extinguish fire caused by
(a) Gasoline, gas (b) Plastic, paper
(c) Combustible metal (d) Electrical cables, wires
Page 149
-2- NB-XII/E(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is the role of flanges in a busway? 1
3. Define earthing. 1
4. What is panel board? 1
5. What is the use of slip ring in induction motors? 1
6. What does PLC stand for? 1
7. What are energy meters? 1
8. What is self-motivation? 1
9. State one use of spreadsheet. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is bus bar? List the materials from which standard bus bar are made up.
1+1=2
11. Mention any two stages of active listening. 2
12. Differentiate between lighting and appliance panel board and power panel board.
2
13. What is a switch board? Where is it used? 1+1=2
14. State Flemming’s left hand rule. 2
15. What is human machine interference (HMI)? Name any two basic types of HMI.
1+1=2
16. What is potential transformer? Write its uses. 1+1=2
17. Write any two characteristics of an entrepreneur. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18.(a) What is a transformer? Explain briefly any three parts of a transformer. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain briefly the concept of a three phase transformer. . (4)
19. Explain the working principle of a fuse. 4
20. Explain briefly any four components of a load centre. 4
21. (a) Explain briefly three parts of electrical drive and state one application. 3+1=4
Or
(b) List any four electrical rescue techniques under hazards and solutions. (4)
******************************************
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is the role of flanges in a busway? 1
3. Define earthing. 1
4. What is panel board? 1
5. What is the use of slip ring in induction motors? 1
6. What does PLC stand for? 1
7. What are energy meters? 1
8. What is self-motivation? 1
9. State one use of spreadsheet. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is bus bar? List the materials from which standard bus bar are made up.
1+1=2
11. Mention any two stages of active listening. 2
12. Differentiate between lighting and appliance panel board and power panel board.
2
13. What is a switch board? Where is it used? 1+1=2
14. State Flemming’s left hand rule. 2
15. What is human machine interference (HMI)? Name any two basic types of HMI.
1+1=2
16. What is potential transformer? Write its uses. 1+1=2
17. Write any two characteristics of an entrepreneur. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18.(a) What is a transformer? Explain briefly any three parts of a transformer. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain briefly the concept of a three phase transformer. . (4)
19. Explain the working principle of a fuse. 4
20. Explain briefly any four components of a load centre. 4
21. (a) Explain briefly three parts of electrical drive and state one application. 3+1=4
Or
(b) List any four electrical rescue techniques under hazards and solutions. (4)
******************************************
Page 150
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/AG(V)/1
2024
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is a vital component of building communication skills?
(a) Active listening (b) Understanding
(c) Selective listening (d) Evaluating
ii. In a spreadsheet, a formula must always begin with
(a) A greater than (b) A less than
(c) An equal sign (d) A % sign
iii. A business that has just begun to operate is called
(a) Services (b) Firms
(c) Schemes (d) Start up
iv. Which of the following produce goods or services that conserve natural resources or
benefit the environment?
(a) Eco club (b) Green club
(c) Green jobs (d) Green tourism
v. Which irrigation technique distributes water to crops using a network of mainlines?
(a) Pulley system (b) Drip irrigation
(c) Sprinkler system (d) Surface irrigation
vi. The utilization of pests natural enemies is known as
(a) Cultural method (b) Biological method
(c) Chemical control (d) Physical control
vii. Which of the following is the fastest growing grass species?
(a) Blue grass (b) Rye grass
(c) Bent grass (d) Bermuda grass
viii. Growing a variety of plants in pots from the windowsill is called
(a) Indoor gardening (b) Window gardening
(c) Miniature gardening (d) Hanging gardening
ix. A fragrant, low growing creeper that can be used in cooking or as a substitute for
grass
(a) English ivy (b) Thyme
(c) Periwinkle (d) Pachysandra
x. Kiwis, blackberries and grapevines are examples of
(a) Ornamental plants (b) Trailing plants
(c) Hedge plants (d) Vine plants
2024
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is a vital component of building communication skills?
(a) Active listening (b) Understanding
(c) Selective listening (d) Evaluating
ii. In a spreadsheet, a formula must always begin with
(a) A greater than (b) A less than
(c) An equal sign (d) A % sign
iii. A business that has just begun to operate is called
(a) Services (b) Firms
(c) Schemes (d) Start up
iv. Which of the following produce goods or services that conserve natural resources or
benefit the environment?
(a) Eco club (b) Green club
(c) Green jobs (d) Green tourism
v. Which irrigation technique distributes water to crops using a network of mainlines?
(a) Pulley system (b) Drip irrigation
(c) Sprinkler system (d) Surface irrigation
vi. The utilization of pests natural enemies is known as
(a) Cultural method (b) Biological method
(c) Chemical control (d) Physical control
vii. Which of the following is the fastest growing grass species?
(a) Blue grass (b) Rye grass
(c) Bent grass (d) Bermuda grass
viii. Growing a variety of plants in pots from the windowsill is called
(a) Indoor gardening (b) Window gardening
(c) Miniature gardening (d) Hanging gardening
ix. A fragrant, low growing creeper that can be used in cooking or as a substitute for
grass
(a) English ivy (b) Thyme
(c) Periwinkle (d) Pachysandra
x. Kiwis, blackberries and grapevines are examples of
(a) Ornamental plants (b) Trailing plants
(c) Hedge plants (d) Vine plants
Page 151
-2- NB-XII/AG(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is manure? 1
3. What are pests? 1
4. Define mulching. 1
5. Which is the fastest technique of preparing a lawn? 1
6. What is arboretum? 1
7. Name any two ornamental plants. 1
8. What is self-motivation? 1
9. Name any two electronic spreadsheet. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between service and business entrepreneurs. 2
11. State any two advantages of sprinkler system. 2
12. Differentiate between selective and non-selective herbicide. 2
13. What is pruning? Write one benefit of pruning. 1+1=2
14. Write any two operations performed for maintaining lawns. 2
15. Write any two scopes of landscaping. 2
16. Differentiate between climbers and creepers. 2
17. Write any two actions involved in active listening. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly the different methods of applying fertilizers. 4
Or
(b) What is a lawn? State three importance’s of maintaining a lawn. (1+3=4)
19. (a) List any four damages by pests or insects.
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four common weeds of ornamental crops.
20. List any four importance’s of garden design. 4
21. Explain briefly any four advantages of using creepers and climbers in landscaping.
4
******************************************
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is manure? 1
3. What are pests? 1
4. Define mulching. 1
5. Which is the fastest technique of preparing a lawn? 1
6. What is arboretum? 1
7. Name any two ornamental plants. 1
8. What is self-motivation? 1
9. Name any two electronic spreadsheet. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between service and business entrepreneurs. 2
11. State any two advantages of sprinkler system. 2
12. Differentiate between selective and non-selective herbicide. 2
13. What is pruning? Write one benefit of pruning. 1+1=2
14. Write any two operations performed for maintaining lawns. 2
15. Write any two scopes of landscaping. 2
16. Differentiate between climbers and creepers. 2
17. Write any two actions involved in active listening. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly the different methods of applying fertilizers. 4
Or
(b) What is a lawn? State three importance’s of maintaining a lawn. (1+3=4)
19. (a) List any four damages by pests or insects.
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four common weeds of ornamental crops.
20. List any four importance’s of garden design. 4
21. Explain briefly any four advantages of using creepers and climbers in landscaping.
4
******************************************
Page 152
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XII/AG(V)/1
2024
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which manual contains the information to improve the quality of tasks?
(a) Service manual (b) Training manual
(c) Policy manual (d) User manual
ii. Which of the following is considered as the brain of the cooling system?
(a) Coolant (b) Thermostat
(c) Fan (d) Radiator
iii. It serves as a mechanical link between the engine and transmission of a vehicle
(a) Pressure plate (b) Clutch
(c) Flywheel (d) Piston
iv. The wheels and axles of a vehicle are mechanically connected to the chassis by a
system of springs or
(a) Solid axle (b) Twist beam
(c) Shock absorbers (d) Shackle
v. The device that turns chemical energy into electrical energy is known as
(a) Battery (b) Regulator
(c) Relay (d) Motor
vi. Avoid making assumptions or forming opinions before fully understanding the
speaker’s message to overcome barriers to active listening is
(a) Distraction (b) Physical barrier
(c) Emotion (d) Prejudgements
vii. File, edit, view etc are some options available in
(a) Menu bar (b) Tool bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Title bar
viii. Seat belt is a part of
(a) Vehicle safety system (b) Driver assistance system
(c) Vehicle driving system (d) Vehicle information system
ix. Which of the following is not a part of solar and wind energy?
(a) Solar panel manufacturing (b) Wind turbine manufacturing
(c) Electric vehicle manufacturing(d) Solar panel maintenance
2024
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which manual contains the information to improve the quality of tasks?
(a) Service manual (b) Training manual
(c) Policy manual (d) User manual
ii. Which of the following is considered as the brain of the cooling system?
(a) Coolant (b) Thermostat
(c) Fan (d) Radiator
iii. It serves as a mechanical link between the engine and transmission of a vehicle
(a) Pressure plate (b) Clutch
(c) Flywheel (d) Piston
iv. The wheels and axles of a vehicle are mechanically connected to the chassis by a
system of springs or
(a) Solid axle (b) Twist beam
(c) Shock absorbers (d) Shackle
v. The device that turns chemical energy into electrical energy is known as
(a) Battery (b) Regulator
(c) Relay (d) Motor
vi. Avoid making assumptions or forming opinions before fully understanding the
speaker’s message to overcome barriers to active listening is
(a) Distraction (b) Physical barrier
(c) Emotion (d) Prejudgements
vii. File, edit, view etc are some options available in
(a) Menu bar (b) Tool bar
(c) Formula bar (d) Title bar
viii. Seat belt is a part of
(a) Vehicle safety system (b) Driver assistance system
(c) Vehicle driving system (d) Vehicle information system
ix. Which of the following is not a part of solar and wind energy?
(a) Solar panel manufacturing (b) Wind turbine manufacturing
(c) Electric vehicle manufacturing(d) Solar panel maintenance
Page 153
-2- NB-XII/AG(V)/1
x. Someone who feels anxious, has frequent mood swings and is stressed is an
example of
(a) Extraversion (b) Neuroticism
(c) Agreeableness (d) Openness
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is infotainment system? 1
3. What is multi point fuel injection? 1
4. Name any two types of differentials in automobiles. 1
5. Mention any two types of data in calc. 1
6. What are the two types of motivation? 1
7. Give one application of ignition engine. 1
8. Write two stages of active listening. 1
9. Define the term green job. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write two uses of service manual in workshop. 2
11. Draw poppet valve and label any two parts. 1+1=2
12. Write two advantages and two disadvantages of propeller shaft. 2
13. Differentiate between wheel balancing and wheel alignment. 2
14. Define (i) Headlights (ii) Fog lamps. 2
15. Write the two benefits of automated manual transmission. 2
16. Mention two functions of vehicle suspension system. 2
17. Briefly explain any two types of entrepreneurs. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain any four stages of engine over hauling.
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four types of clutch.
19. Explain four benefits of common rail direct injection (CRDI) system. 4
20. (a) Explain briefly ignition system with the help of a circuit diagram.
Or 2+2=4
(b) Draw any four electrical symbols and define them.
21. Explain (i) Reversible steering (ii) Irreversible steering. 2+2=4
******************************************
AglaSem Earn while Learn Program. Send your papers and get paid.
Contact: support@
x. Someone who feels anxious, has frequent mood swings and is stressed is an
example of
(a) Extraversion (b) Neuroticism
(c) Agreeableness (d) Openness
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is infotainment system? 1
3. What is multi point fuel injection? 1
4. Name any two types of differentials in automobiles. 1
5. Mention any two types of data in calc. 1
6. What are the two types of motivation? 1
7. Give one application of ignition engine. 1
8. Write two stages of active listening. 1
9. Define the term green job. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write two uses of service manual in workshop. 2
11. Draw poppet valve and label any two parts. 1+1=2
12. Write two advantages and two disadvantages of propeller shaft. 2
13. Differentiate between wheel balancing and wheel alignment. 2
14. Define (i) Headlights (ii) Fog lamps. 2
15. Write the two benefits of automated manual transmission. 2
16. Mention two functions of vehicle suspension system. 2
17. Briefly explain any two types of entrepreneurs. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain any four stages of engine over hauling.
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly any four types of clutch.
19. Explain four benefits of common rail direct injection (CRDI) system. 4
20. (a) Explain briefly ignition system with the help of a circuit diagram.
Or 2+2=4
(b) Draw any four electrical symbols and define them.
21. Explain (i) Reversible steering (ii) Irreversible steering. 2+2=4
******************************************
AglaSem Earn while Learn Program. Send your papers and get paid.
Contact: support@