KUET 2025 Question Paper Clinical Biochemistry

FOR KUET PREPARATION

KUET 2025 Question
Paper Clinical
Biochemistry
EXAM YEAR TYPE

KUET 2025 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Question Booklet No. : .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2025
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

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CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
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Total Questions : 60 Question Booklet Series

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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Entrance Test Roll No. :

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l compulsorily use only blue/ black ball point pen. In no case gel/ink pen or pencila should be
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Important Instructions for Candidates :

used.
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1. Candidates shall

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1. If the terminal – OH group in aldose can be oxidised, 6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
a class of monosaccharide is produced called as : the Michaelis constant, Km ?
(A) Aldonic acid (A) Has a low value to indicate a low affinity for
(B) Aldaric acid substrate

(C) Uronic acid (B) Varies with the amount of enzyme used in
measuring the reaction rate
(D) None of the above
(C) Can be considered to a measure of the affinity
2. Sugars that differ in configuration at only one carbon
of an enzyme for its substrate
atom are called :
(D) None of the above
(A) Glycosides
7. Reversible inhibitors reduce an enzyme activity by
(B) Anomers
binding to both enzyme or enzyme substrate complex
(C) Epimers is called :
(D) All of the above (A) Uncompetitive inhibitors
3. Fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms and having 3 double (B) Non-competitive inhibitors
bonds is : (C) Mixed inhibitors
(A) Palmitic acid (D) Competitive inhibitors
(B) Oleic acid 8. Which one of the following is the best description of
(C) Stearic acid an enzyme ?
(D) Linoleic acid (A) It increases the rate at which a chemical reaction
4. Which of the following vitamins deficiency is approaches equilibrium relative to its
responsible to cause scurvy ? uncatalyzed rate

(A) Pyridoxine (B) It allows a chemical reaction to proceed
extremely fast
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) It makes a reaction thermodynamically
(C) Vitamin A
favourable
(D) Cobalamin
(D) All of the above
5. Prosthetic groups are :
9. Iodoacetate is a potent inhibitor of few enzymes by
(A) They tightly bind to enzymes and are required reacting with the amino acid residue at the active site
for their activity having a functional group :
(B) They bind loosely to enzymes through hydrogen (A) –COOH
bonds
(B) –SH
(C) They are required by all the enzymes in the cell (C) –OH
(D) All of the above (D) –NH2

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10. In pentose phosphate pathway : 15. The freeze fracture method involves :
(A) C-3 and C-4 of glucose is oxidised to CO2 (A) Cryofixation of the specimen by rapid freezing
(B) All the carbon atoms of the glucose are oxidised (B) Fracturing of the specimen by cleaving it with a
to CO2
microtome knife or breaking it
(C) Only C-1 of the glucose is oxidised to CO2
(C) Recover of the specimen from the replica

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(D) All of the above

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(D) All of the above

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11. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by a deficiency of

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the enzyme : 16. Disulphide bond formation in endoplasm reticulum is

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(A) Hypoxanthine - guanine phosphoribosyl

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transferase
a (A) Protein disulphide isomerase
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(B) Xanthine oxidase (B) Acyl transferase
(C) Adenosine deaminase (C) Scramblase
(D) Ribonucleoside reductase
(D) Choline phosphotransferase
12. Beta oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acid linoleate
17. The kind of structure that replicating eukaryotic DNA
yields :
have :
(A) 8 molecules of acetyl CoA

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(A) Solenoid form

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(B) 9 molecules of acetyl CoA
(C) 10 molecules of acetyl CoA (B) Extended nucleosome form

(D) CO2 and H2O is only formed
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13. The primary physical forces for organizing lipid bilayer
are : 18. Lagging strand in DNA is synthesized by which of the
(A) Hydrophilic interactions following DNA polymerase in eukaryotic cells :
(B) Hydrophobic interactions (A) DNA polymerase α
(C) Ionic interactions
(B) DNA polymerase β
(D) van der Waals forces
(C) DNA polymerase γ
14. Which one of the following statements is not true about

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the fluid mosaic model ? (D) DNA Polymerase ε

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(A) Lipid molecules readily undergo lateral diffusion 19. Proteins that bind to TATA box in the promoter region

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in the cell membrane are called :
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(A) Enhancers
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(C) Protein molecules in the membrane readily
(B) Co activators
(C) Transcriptional activators
undergo transverse flip flop diffusion
(D) Transcriptional factors
(D) None of the above

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20. Which one is not an inducer of an operon in bacterial 26. When two non-homologous chromosomes exchange
cell ? their parts, the resulting chromosomal rearrangements
(A) Tryptophan are :
(B) L-Arabinose (A) Duplication
(C) Allolactose
(B) Inversion
(D) All of the above
(C) Deletion
21. The term antibody was first described by :
(D) Translocation
(A) Edward Jenner
(B) Emil Von Behring 27. The histone protein that is not a part of a nucleosome
(C) Louis Pasteur is :
(D) Eli Metchnikoff (A) H1
22. Which one of the following is not an antigen presenting (B) H2a
cell ? (C) H2b
(A) B Lymphocyte (D) H3
(B) Macrophages
28. Tay Sachs disease is caused by the deficiency of the
(C) Dendritic cells
enzyme :
(D) T Lymphocytes
(A) β-Hexosaminidase
23. Chediak Higashi syndrome an autosomal recessive
disorder is associated with a lack of : (B) Glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) Neutrophil cells (C) α-Glucosidase
(B) Macrophage cells (D) Arylsulfatase
(C) Natural killer cells 29. The enzymes that are used in the recombinant DNA
(D) Dendritic cells technology are :
24. The major immunoglobulin found in the colostrum of (A) Taq DNA polymerase
milk in nursing mothers is :
(B) Reverse Transcriptase
(A) IgG
(C) DNA polymerase I
(B) IgM
(D) All of the above
(C) IgE
(D) IgA 30. The important features of a cloning vector are :
25. Which one of the following crosses postulated by (A) Ability to replicate in host cell
Mendel that involves only one trait ? (B) Genetic marker to select for host cells containing
(A) Test cross the vector
(B) Law of segregation (C) Unique restriction enzyme sites for insertional
(C) Law of independent assortment cloning
(D) None of the above (D) All of the above

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31. What is the right combination of components required 36. Isopycnic centrifugation separates particles on the
for a polymerase chain reaction ? basis of :
(A) Template DNA, Two primers, dNTPs and (A) Shape and size of particles
DNA ligase (B) Time of centrifugation
(B) Template DNA, Two primers, NTPs and DNA (C) Buoyant density
ligase
(D) None of the above
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(C) Template RNA, Two primers, NTPs and DNA

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37. The characteristic feature that differentiates

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archaebacteria from eubacteria is :

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(D) Template DNA, Two primers, dNTPs and

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(A) Archaebacteria are thermoacidophiles

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DNA polymerase
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(B) Archaebacteria are methane producers
32. Restriction endonuclease that cuts the DNA molecule
at a site is called : (C) Archaebacteria are halophiles

(A) Palindrome sequence (D) All of the above

(B) Recognition sequence 38. The main purpose of the virus is to deliver its genome
into the host cell because :
(C) Restriction maps
(A) To form cell membrane
(D) Sticky sites
33. The molecular mass of the smallest molecule unable (B) To divide quickly

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c. o(D) To increase lifespan of the host cell
to penetrate the pores of a given gel is called : (C) To increase transcription and translation

em39. Children are less affected with COVID 19 because :
(A) Exclusion limit
(B) Bed volume
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(C) Void volume (A) Children having a very young immune system
(D) None of the above (B) The maternal antibodies transferred from the
34. Two proteins having a same molecular mass and placenta and the antibodies in mothers breast
having an identical net charge at pH 7. The best way milk offer protection
to separate these proteins are : (C) Children exposed to many novel respiratory
(A) SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis infections may increase the antibodies against
(B) Native gel electrophoresis other respiratory viruses may offer some

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protection against COVID 19

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(C) Cation exchange chromatography

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(D) All of the above
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(D) Anion exchange chromatography
35. .Three dimensional images of the cells and tissues can e?
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40. Which one of the following is

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gram-positive bacterium

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(A) Transmission electron microscope (A) Enterococcus
(B) Scanning electron microscope (B) Acinetobacter baumannii
(C) Compound microscope (C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Fluorescence microscope (D) Staphylococcus pneumoniae

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41. If the reaction is not spontaneous G is : 47. How many grams of glucose is recommended by the
(A) G  0 WHO for glucose tolerance test ?
(B) G  0 (A) 80-85 gms
(C) G  0 (B) 70-75 gms
(D) None of the above
(C) 90-100 gms
42. The standard free energy change of ATP molecule in
(D) 100-110 gms
biological system is :
(A) Positive and large 48. For the urine culture and urine analysis which one of
(B) Negative and large the following preservatives is used :
(C) Positive and small (A) Formalin
(D) Negative and small (B) Dowicil 200
43. The high energy bonds which connect the phosphate (C) Boric acid
groups in ATP molecule is :
(D) None of the above
(A) Covalent bond
49. Antigens for ABO and Rh blood groups are present
(B) Hydrogen bond
on which type of cells ?
(C) Ionic bond
(A) Erythrocytes
(D) van der Waals forces
44. The amount of energy that is released by breaking (B) Leukocytes
the terminal phosphate group of ATP is : (C) Thrombocytes
(A) 5.3 kcal (D) All of the above
(B) 6.1 kcal 50. Most abundant granulated cells in human blood are :
(C) 7.0 kcal
(A) Basophils
(D) 7.3 kcal
(B) Neutrophils
45. The buffer which is highly elevated inside the cells is :
(A) Sodium acetate buffer (C) Eosinophils

(B) Phosphate buffer (D) None of the above
(C) Bicarbonate buffer 51. Which of the following vitamins is required for the
(D) Lysis buffer synthesis of prothrombin ?
46. The normal concentration of bilirubin in serum is : (A) Vitamin C
(A) 2-3 mg/dl (B) Vitamin D
(B) 0.1-3 mg/dl
(C) Vitamin K
(C) 0.2-1.3 mg/dl
(D) Vitamin A
(D) 1-2 mg/dl

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52. Immune cells that are responsible for the initiation of 57. The enzyme that is responsible for the iodination of
acute inflammation are : thyroglobulin is :
(A) Dendritic cells
(A) Thyroid peroxidase
(B) Kuffer cells and histiocytes
(B) Iodotyrosine deiodinase
(C) Macrophages and mast cells
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
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(D) All of the above

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(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
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53. Glomerulonephritis is caused by :

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58. The hormones that are released by the
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(A) Viral infection

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neurohypophysis of pituitary are :
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(B) Bacterial infection

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(C) Genetic disorders (A) Adrenocorticotropin, lipotropin
(D) Autoimmune melanocyte-stimulating hormone
54. The strong chemotactic agent released by the bacteria (B) Thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing
that helps the neutrophils to move towards the site of hormone, follicle stimulating hormone
bacterial invasion is :
(C) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(A) Interleukin-8
(D) Growth hormone and prolactin
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(B) TNF-α

c. ostriations ?
(C) Formylated methionine 59. Which one of the following muscle tissues have no

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(D) C5a

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55. The common symptoms of Crohn’s disease are :
(A) Increase appetite (B) Cardiac muscle
(B) Weight gain (C) Smooth muscle
(C) Diarrhoea and abdominal pain (D) None of the above
(D) Constipation
60. The various steps that are involved in transmission of
56. The enzyme that is involved for the digestion of proteins
nerve impulse along nerve fibre are :

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in stomach is :

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(A) Polarization

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(A) Sucrase and lipase
(B) Depolarization
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(B) Cellulase and maltase
(C) Repolarizationa
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(D) All of theaabove
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ROUGH WORK

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