KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Environmental Science

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Environmental Science
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Environmental Science

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Sr. No. .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF ENVIRONMENTAL AND EARTH SCIENCES

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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

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Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60

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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :

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Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question a
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Instructions for Candidates :

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1. Write your Entrance Booklet and
fill up the necessary in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.

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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the

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6. Do not darken more than one circle ofaoptions for any question. A question with more than one darkened
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.

response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

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a in which case it will not
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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question

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be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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1. Which of the following equipment is used for 5. Which of the following statements would stand true
measuring atmospheric humidity? across the ecosystems in an ideal situation?
(A) Anemometer (A) Primary consumers always outnumber primary
producers
(B) Hydrometer
(B) Primary consumers are least dependent upon
(C) Lysimeter
primary producers
(D) Psychrometer
(C) Primary producers always outnumber primary
2. Which is the largest delta of the World? consumers
(A) Ganga delta (D) Secondary consumers are the largest and the
(B) Indus delta most powerful
(C) Mekong delta 6. The actual space that an organism inhabits and the
resources it can access as a result of limiting pressures
(D) Sundarbans delta
from other species is called
3. A narrow strip of land with sea on either side, forming
(A) Niche differentiation
a link between two larger areas of land :
(B) Niche density
(A) Cape
(C) Niche segregation
(B) Isthmus
(D) Niche width
(C) Peninsula
7. In which of the following countries is the Pampas
(D) Strait grasslands situated?
4. A high-level group ‘Ambition on Melting Ice (AMI) (A) Andes Ecuador
on Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources’ (B) Central Argentina
was formed to ensure impacts of cryosphere loss is (C) South Brazil
understood by political leaders and the public, and
(D) South Chile
not only within mountain and polar regions, but
8. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
throughout the planet. This broad coalition took place
about the ecological pyramid?
in
(A) Pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic
(A) Katowice Climate Change Conference ecosystem
(COP 24)
(B) Pyramid of biomass is upright in grassland
(B) Madrid Climate Change Conference (COP 25) ecosystem
(C) Glasgow Climate Change Conference (C) Pyramid of energy is inverted in ocean
(COP 26) ecosystem
(D) Sharm el-Sheikh Climate Change Conference (D) Pyramid of numbers I upright in grassland
(COP 27) ecosystem

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Regardless of the underlying mechanisms of species 14. The branch of geology which deals with study of rocks
interaction, which of the following is one of the best is
described patterns in community ecology ? (A) Lithology
(A) Exponential distribution (B) Mineralogy
(B) Lognormal distribution (C) Petrology

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(C) Normal distribution (D) Rockology

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(D) University distribution

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15. Which of the following is generally found in

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10. Which of the following factors does not affect the sedimentary rocks?

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(A) Nature ofl gas
solubility of gases in water? (A) Basalt

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(B) Number of particles of gas (C) Shale
(C) Pressure (D) Silica
(D) Temperature 16. The process by which some elements enter in mineral
11. In thin layer chromatography, the stationary and the structures with certain elements being incorporated
mobile phase is made up of preferentially is known as

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(A) liquid, gas (A) Element partitioning

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(B) liquid, liquid

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(C) solid, gas
(D) solid, liquid
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12. Oxygen content can be controlled by adding which 17. Chemical weathering of rock material is most effective
of the following material with water? in which of the following regions?
(A) Acidic solution (A) Aravalli Hills
(B) Basic solution (B) Ladhak Himalaya

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(C) Hydroxyzine (C) Vindhyan Hills

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om Oxygen Demand (BOD) is high, then 18. India’s first national park, .also known as Hailey
(D) Iodine (D) Western Ghats

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e in 1936 is
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13. If Biochemical

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of the following conditions is true?
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National Park, established

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(A) Gangotri National Park
(B) The bacteria is less in it (B) Jim Corbett National Park
(C) The water pollution is low (C) Nanda Devi National Park
(D) Thc water pollution is more (D) Rajaji National Park

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19. Which of the following organizations published the 23. Which of the following is not an energy recovery
‘Red Data Book’? method of soil waste management?
(A) Global Biodiversity Information Facility (A) Biomethanation
(B) Green Peace (B) Composting
(C) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(C) Palletization
(D) World Wildlife Fund
(D) Pyrolysis
20. Match List I with List II
24. Chlorosis is
List I (Movements) List II (Leaders)
(A) destruction of leaf tissues
1. Appiko movement (i) Amrita Devi
(B) severe drying
2. Bishnoi movement (ii) Pandurang Hegde
(C) the killing of tissues
3. Chipko movement (iii) Sughathakumari
(D) the reduction of chlorophyll from leaf
4. Save Silent Valley (iv) Sundarlal Bahuguna
movement 25. Which of the following is aerobic waste water
treatment method?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(A) Imhoff tank
below:
(A) 1 (i), 2 (ii), 3 (iii), 4 (iv) (B) Percolating filter

(B) 1 (ii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (iii) (C) Septic tank
(C) 1 (ii), 2 (iv), 3 (i), 4 (iii) (D) Sludge digester
(D) 1 (iv), 2 (i), 3 (iii), 4 (ii) 26. The most common cause of blue baby syndrome is
21. Which of the following is the major source of mercury water contaminated with
pollution in India? (A) Cobalt
(A) Dental amalgam fillings (B) Fluoride
(B) Electrical and electronic gadgets
(C) Mercury
(C) Pesticides
(D) Nitrate
(D) Small scale gold mining
27. The word noise is derived from the Latin word
22. The search for and the commercialisation of new
‘nausea’, meaning
products that have been sourced from nature :
(A) Annoyance
(A) Biomagnification
(B) Biopiracy (B) Seasickness

(C) Bioprospecting (C) Pleasure
(D) Bioregulation (D) Sleeplessness

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31. Which of the following pesticides persists for a long
period in soil ?
List I (River) List II (Origin)
(A) Carbaryl
1. Brahmaputra (i) Amarkantak,
Madhya Pradesh (B) Lindane
2. Ganga (ii) Trimbakeshwar, (C) Monocrotophos

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Maharashtra

32. Which of the following forest types is most extensively co
(D) Parathion

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3. Godavari (iii) Kailash, China
4. Narmada
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(iv) Gaumukh, Uttarakhand
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distributed across India?

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Choose the correct answer from the options given

l (B) Tropical dry deciduous forest a
(A) Himalayan moist temperate forest

(A) 1 (i),a2g
below:
(iv), 3 (iii), 4 (ii)
(C) Tropical dry evergreen forest
(B) 1 (i), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (iii)
(D) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(C) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (i)
33. Which of the following is NOT the objective of the
(D) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (i), 4 (ii)
Convention on Biological Diversity (CDB)?
29. Which of the following factors govern the solubility
and availability of nutrients in the soil? (A) Conservation of biological diversity

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(A) Aeration (B) Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising

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(B) pH out of the use of genetic resources
(C) Porosity
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(D) Temperature government and society
30. Match List I with List II (D) Sustainable use of components of biological
diversity
List I List II
(Protected Area) (IUCN Category) 34. Who has written the book A Revised Survey of the
Forest Types of India?
1. Community Reserves (i) II
(A) G.S. Puri and R.K Gupta
2. Conservation Reserves (ii) IV

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(B) H.G. Champion and S.K. Seth

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3. National Park (iii) V

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. Madhav Gadgil
c. o the correct answer from the options given (D) V.M. Meher-Homji
(C) J.S. Singh and S.P. Singh

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4. Wildlife Sanctuary (iv) VI

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and

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Choose

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‘biodiversity’?

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below:

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(A) Edward Osborne
(B) 1 (i), 2 (iv), 3 (iii), 4 (ii) (B) Norman Myers
(C) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (ii) (C) Sir David Attenborough
(D) 1 (iv), 2 (i), 3 (iii), 4 (ii) (D) Walter Rosen

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36. While measuring the diversity between communities, 40. Which of the following has the least or no possibility
the following diversity index is computed : of being found in the e-waste?
(A) Cadmium
(A) Alpha diversity
(B) Lead
(B) Beta diversity
(C) Mercury
(C) Delta diversity
(D) Neon
(D) Gamma diversity
41. LEED in the Green Technology refers to
37. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (A) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Design
lists one of the following as the most serious threat to (B) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Document
endangered species worldwide : (C) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
(A) Habitat destruction by fires (D) Leadership in Energy and Environmental

(B) Habitat destruction by global climate change Document
42. Which of the following is not a main part of a Life
(C) Habitat destruction by human activities
Cycle Analysis (LCA)?
(D) Habitat destruction by meteorites and asteroids
(A) Comparative analysis
38. Where is India’s first green building located ? (B) Impact analysis
(A) CII - Sohrabji Green Business Centre, (C) Improvement analysis
Hyderabad (D) Inventory analysis
(B) ITC Green Centre, Gurgaon 43. Which of the following types of worms are used for

(C) Suzlon Earth, Pune vermicomposting?
(A) Black Wiggler
(D) Wipro Technologies, Gurgaon
(B) Blue Wiggler
39. The most appropriate term used by the IUCN within
(C) Green Wiggler
Nature Based Solutions as a solution for urban and
(D) Red Wiggler
climate challenges is
44. Net calorific value of a waste is measured using
(A) Green Asset
(A) Bomb Calorimeter
(B) Green ICT (B) Galvanometer
(C) Green Infrastructure (C) Photometer
(D) Green System (D) Tensiometer

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45. Which of the following terms is best suited for Dioxin? 48. Which of the following is called as the ‘country of
winds’?
(A) Antibiotic
(A) Austria
(B) Fertilizer
(B) Denmark
(C) Pesticide (C) Europe

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(D) Toxin (D) Italy

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46. OTEC is related to a renewable energy technology 49. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), an urgent

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call for action by all countries - developed and

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that used potential of oceans to produce clean, reliable

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developing - in a global partnership, come with

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electricity, day and night, year-round. What is
(A) 17 goals and 169 targets
expansion of OTEC ?
(B) 17 goals and 179 targets
(A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (C) 18 goals and 169 targets
(B) Ocean Thermal Energy Counter (D) 18 goals and 179 targets

(C) Oceanic Thermal Energy Conservation 50. What was the preindustrial (1750 AD) concentration
of methane (CH4 ) in the atmosphere?
(D) Oklahoma Thermal Energy Center

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(A) 100 ppb

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47. Match List I with List II

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List I List II

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(Minerals) (Area of occurrence) (D) 1000 ppb
51. Given below are two statements :
1. Coal (i) Bhandara, Maharashtra
Statement I: Deforestation and forest degradation are
2. Gold (ii) Karanpura, Jharkhand
the biggest threats to forests worldwide.
3. Mica (iii) Hatti, Karnataka Statement II: Nature-Based Solutions (NBSs)
4. Manganese (iv) Nellore, Andhra Pradesh can reverse the effects of deforestation and
degradation.
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Choose the correct answer from the options given In the light of the above statements, choose the

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most appropriate answer from the options given

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below:

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(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (i) (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D) 1 (ii), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (iv) (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

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52. UNCCD, the sole legally binding international 55. Who is popularly known as glacier man (or ice man)
agreement linking environment and development to of India?
sustainable land management stands for (A) Chewang Norphel
(A) United Nations Climate Change and (B) Rajendra Singh
Development
(C) Sonam Wangchuk
(B) United Nations Convention for Climate,
(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Degradation and Deforestation
56. Environmental education was mandated as a
(C) United Nations Convention to Climate and
compulsory subject in all schools across the country
Development
following a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in 1991
(D) United Nations Convention to Combat
by
Desertification
(A) Constitution of India
53. Environmental education must be made an integral
(B) High Courts of India
part of all academic programs as students need to be
mainly sensitized about (C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

Change
(A) growing environmental degradation and its
consequence for life on earth (D) Supreme Court of India

(B) its emergence as a specialized field 57. Which of the following global agreements was

(C) its interdisciplinary and multidisciplinary nature instrumental to protect stratospheric ozone layer by

(D) relationship between culture and environment phasing out the production and consumption of

ozone-depleting substances (ODS)?
54. The most dominating oxides resulting acid rains are
(A) Vienna Convention
(A) Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide

(B) Carbon oxides and Nitrogen oxides (B) Basel Convention

(C) Carbon oxides and Sulphur oxides (C) Montreal Protocol

(D) Nitrogen oxides and Sulphur oxides (D) Stockholm Convention

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58. The first of the major Environmental Protection Act 60. Right to live is a Fundamental Right under Article 21
to be promulgated in India was
of the Constitution of India and it includes the right of
(A) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
of 1981 enjoyment of pollution free water and air for full
(B) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 enjoyment of life. In which Supreme Court has
(C) Water (Prevention and Control) Act, 1974 observed this?

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(D) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

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(A) Rajesh Kumar v. Union of India [(2012)

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59. Which of the following sections of the Wildlife

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Protection Act 1972 deals with the prohibition of

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hunting (i.e. no person shall hunt any wild animal (B) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar [(1991)

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(A) Sectiong6
specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV)?
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SC]

(B) Section 9 (C) Subramaniam Swamy v. Union of India [(2012)
(C) Section 12 SC]
(D) Section 15 (D) Vineet Narain v. Union of India [(1998) SC]

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ROUGH WORK

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