KUET 2025 Question Paper Environmental Science

FOR KUET PREPARATION

KUET 2025 Question
Paper Environmental
Science
EXAM YEAR TYPE

KUET 2025 Question Paper

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Question Booklet No. : .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2025
SCHOOL OF EARTH & ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES

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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

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Total Questions : 60 Question Booklet Series
Time Allowed :
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70 Minutes
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Entrance Test Roll No. :
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l compulsorily use only blue/ black ball point pen. In no case gel/ink pen or pencila should be
Important Instructions for Candidates :

used.
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1. Candidates shall

2. Compulsorily write your entrance test roll number in the space provided at the top of this page of the question
booklet.
3. Fill up the necessary information in the spaces provided on OMR Answer Sheet including Question Booklet
Number and Question Booklet Series.
4. OMR Answer Sheet has an original copy and a candidate's copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the original copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the

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entries made in the original copy against each item are exactly copied in the candidate's copy.

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5. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy

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only.

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6. Choose only one correct/most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D
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and darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. Incompletely darkened circle is not correctly read
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by the OMR scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.
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darkened response shall be considered wrong.
8. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to deduction of
0.25 marks per wrong answer from the score.
9. Only those candidates who obtain positive score in Entrance Test shall be eligible for admission.
10. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet as this may lead to errors while scanning.
11. OMR answer sheet must be handled carefully and it should not be folded or mutilated, as in such case it will not

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be properly evaluated by the scanning machine.

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12. Use of Electronic gadgets like calculator, mobile, smart watch, blue tooth etc. is strictly prohibited.

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13. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question booklet.

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14. Ensure that the OMR Sheet is signed by the Examinee as well as by the invigilator.
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15. At the end of the examination, fold the OMR Sheet along the crease on the top and tear off the top strip to

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separate the Original OMR Sheet from the Duplicate Copy.

a 16. Compulsorily hand over the Original OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator.
17. Candidate’s can retain duplicate copy of the OMR, Question Booklet and Admit Card.
18. If any of the information in the Response Sheet/Question Paper has been found missing or not mentioned as
stated above, the candidate is solely responsible for that lapse.
19. Any deficiency on the OMR shall be the responsibility of the candidate himself/herself.

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1. What will be the ratio of rates of energy released by 6. Which wave of the earthquake produces rolling effect
two otherwise identical blackbodies, one of which is along the surface?
at 0ºC and the other one at 273ºC? (A) P wave
(A) 0.0625 (B) S wave
(B) 0.625 (C) L wave

(C) 6.25 (D) None of the above
7. In India Tsunami Warning Center is located at:
(D) 0.225
(A) Kolkata
2. International Tsunami Information Center is located
(B) Hyderabad
in:
(C) Ahmedabad
(A) Honolulu
(D) None of the above
(B) Goa 8. Which one of the following is a geological disaster?
(C) Jakarta (A) Tsunami
(D) Puducherry (B) Storm surge
3. Generally, the number on Richter Scale ranges (C) Flood
between: (D) Wild fire
(A) 0 and 6 9. What do you mean by ‘doldrums’?

(B) 0 and 9 (A) Environmental condition found during El Nino
(B) Environmental condition found on equatorial
(C) 1 to 5
calm over the sea
(D) 1 to 12
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
4. Disaster Management includes: (D) None of the above
(A) Mitigation 10. Which instrument is used for recording the occurrences
(B) Reconstruction of the earthquake?

(C) Rehabilitation (A) Richter Scale
(B) Seismology
(D) All of the above
(C) Seismograph
5. The Disaster Management Act was made in:
(D) None of the above
(A) 2006
11. The centre of the cyclone is characterized by:
(B) 2003 (A) High Pressure
(C) 2005 (B) Low pressure
(D) 2009 (C) Very High Pressure
(D) All of the above
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17. The toxic gas released from Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(A) International Significant Disaster Resources was:
(A) Methyl isocyanate
(B) International Sustainable Development Report
(B) Potassium isocyanate
(C) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction
(C) Sodium isocyanate
(D) Intergovernmental Strategy for Developing

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(D) Methyl isothiocyanate

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Recreation

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18. ITCZ stands for:

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13. A cyclone is called a____________in Philippines and
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(A) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
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Japan.

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(B) Intra Tropical Convergence Zone
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(A) Hurricane

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(B) Typhoon
(D) Inter Temperate Convergence Zone
(C) Tornado
19. Which of the following condition prevalent in drought
(D) Thunderstorm situation?
14. Which of the following is an environmental (A) Rainfall-Evapotranspiration>0
consequence of floods? (B) Rainfall-Evapotranspiration<0
(A) Dispersal of weed species (C) Rainfall=Evapotranspiration

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(B) Erosion of soil (D) Rainfall-Evapotranspiratione0

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(C) Release of pollutants into waterways In remote sensing DEM refers to:
(D) All of the above
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15. In the future, which of the following is expected
(B) Digital Elevation Model
(C) Direct Emission Model
increase the risk of flooding?
(D) None of the above
(A) Population growth
21. Groundwater extracted from:
(B) Urbanisation
(A) Aquifer
(C) Climate change
(B) Aquitard
(D) All of the above
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(C) Aquiclude

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16. The earth crust is made up of huge slabs, which are
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(D) None of the above
22. Which layer is gettingmdepleted due to UVR
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(Ultraviolet Ray)? as
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(A) The Stratosphere
a (B) The Troposphere
(D) Magma (C) The Mesosphere
(D) None

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23. Which combination of radiation fluxes plays the 28. What are stereoisomers?
important role in climate change? (A) Molecules with same chemical bonds but
(A) Visible and Infrared different configuration
(B) UV and Infrared (B) Molecules with different chemical bonds but
(C) UV and Microwave same configuration
(D) Microwave and Infrared (C) Molecules with same chemical bonds in similar
24. The letter code BWh and group B represents configuration
characteristics and type of climate: (D) Molecules with different chemical bonds
(A) Dry climate and low altitude semi-arid & Cold in different configuration
climate and humid continental 29. Uracil can exist as:
(B) Cold climate and humid continental & Tropical (A) Lactam structure only
climate and tropical monsoon (B) Lactim structure only
(C) Tropical climate and tropical monsoon & Dry (C) Double lactim structure only
climate and low altitude semi-arid (D) Lactam, Lactim and Double Lactim structures
(D) Dry climate and subtropical desert & Dry 30. When a single molecule contains both polar and non-
climate and low altitude semi-arid polar groups, it is called as:
25. Dolomite consist of: (A) Anisotropic molecule
(A) Calcium
(B) Amphipathic molecule
(B) Magnesium
(C) Dipole molecule
(C) Both of the above
(D) Dielectric molecule
(D) None of the above
31. Phosphorescence is:
26. The thin, wispy high clouds composed of ice crystals
(A) No light emission after energy capture
are called:
(B) Light emission at slow rate after energy capture
(A) Cumulus clouds
(C) Light emission at higher energy than that of
(B) Cirrus clouds
absorbed energy
(C) Stratus clouds
(D) Essentially a property of only phosphorus
(D) None of the above containing molecules
27. When water condenses, the heat involved is:
32. Z form of DNA has:
(A) Absorbed by the surrounding air
(A) 10 base pairs per helical turn
(B) Retained by the drop that forms
(B) 11 base pairs per helical turn
(C) Absorbed by the sunlight
(C) 12 base pairs per helical turn
(D) All of the above
(D) 13 base pairs per helical turn
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38. According to Stockes law the settling velocity is
(A) Catalytic activation of DNA polymerase proportional to:
(B) Catalytic turnover potential of an enzyme (A) d
(C) Denaturation of double helical DNA (B) d2
(D) Separation of two circular DNA molecules (C) d 1/2
34. Degeneracy of genetic code means:
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(A) One specific codon encodes one specific

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39. Which of the following CFC is used in refrigerators?

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amino acid
(B) One specificscodon
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one amino (B) CFC-11
(C) More than one codon can encode for one (C) CFC-14
specific amino acid (D) CFC-18
(D) Some amino acids have no codon
40. Tobacco smoking is source of:
35. The product of mixing depth and average wind speed
(A) CO
within the mixing depth is known as:

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(B) PAHs

c. o(C) Particulate
(A) Mixing ratio

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(B) Ventilation coefficient
(C) Stability coefficient
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(D) Saturation height
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36. The wind blowing from the sub-tropical towards the by which of the following radical?
sub-polar pressure belts are called: (A) Hydroxyl radical
(A) Easterlies (B) Chlorine radical
(B) Westerlies
(C) Nitrate radical
(C) Trade winds

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(D) Methyl radical

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(D) Planetary winds

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42. Which among the following areas in India has the
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37. Which of the following air pollutant is also known as

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largest number of endemic plant species?

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(A) Himalayan region

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(C) Biodiesel (C) Gangetic plains
(D) Gasohol (D) Western Ghats

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43. Which gas is mainly produced due to incomplete 48. Which of the following plume is worst for the
burning of wood? dispersion of pollutants?
(A) CO (A) Tapering
(B) SO2 (B) Fanning
(C) NO 2 (C) Neutral
(D) NO 3 (D) Fumigating
44. X-Ray films are a source of which of the following 49. Which one of the listed minerals is formed during
gas? weathering of rocks on the surface of Earth?
(A) SO2 (A) Quartz

(B) CO 2 (B) Bauxite
(C) Feldspar
(C) NO 2
(D) Muscovite
(D) SO3
50. Ekman transport occurs in the:
45. Which of the following leads to disease called broncho
(A) Upper ocean
spasm?
(B) Meso-pelagic layer
(A) SO2
(C) Bathy-pelagic layer
(B) SO3
(D) Ocean bottom
(C) SO4 51. When averaged over the entire globe, decreasing
(D) CO 2 order of surface fluxes is:
46. Wind rose represents: (A) Latent heat, sensible heat, net long wave

(A) Wind data (B) Sensible heat, latent heat, net long wave
(C) Net long wave, latent heat, sensible heat
(B) Wind turbulence
(D) Latent heat, net long wave, sensible heat
(C) Wind pressure
52. Limestone pavement which are distinctive nares
(D) Wind temperature
landforms, are usually the results of one of the
47. Coning plume occurs under which conditions? following process:
(A) Super adiabatic (A) Glacio-karstic
(B) Sub adiabatic (B) Fluvio-glacial

(C) Neutral (C) Glacio-marine
(D) Fluvio-marine
(D) Inversion

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57. Assuming total population as 10,000 where birth rate
(A) The number of people is 600 per year and death rate is 200 per year. Then,
(B) The environmental effects of technology used the overall growth rate percentage per year is:
to obtain and consume the resource (A) 1%
(C) Affluence which is a measure of the consumption (B) 2%

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or amount of resources used per person (C) 3%

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(D) None of these (D) 4%
54. Which of the following.condition e m
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the full costs oflproduction? a g
community and its non-living, physical environment

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(A) Efficiency
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(A) Ecosystem
(B) Abatement (B) Community
(C) Externalities (C) Biome
(D) Tradable permits (D) Habitat
55. Wavelength of ultra violet from electromagnetic 59. Which element is used in making photovoltaic solar

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spectrum ranges from: cells:

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(A) 100 nm to 500 nm
(B) 200 nm to 400 nm
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(C) 100 nm to 400 nm
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(D) 200 nm to 500 nm (D) Silicon
56. Mutualistic associations between fungi and the roots 60. A ground water storage area between impermeable
of all plants is called: layers of rock in which water is stored under pressure
(A) Mycorrhizae is called:
(B) Mutualism (A) Sinkhole

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(C) Coevolution (B) Artesian Aquifer

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(C) Aqueducts
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(D) Parasitism

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(D) Unconfined Aquifer
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ROUGH WORK

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