RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 17 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 17 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 17/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for mass number?
Ans A. Mass number is equal to the sum of number of neutrons and number of protons.

B. The number of nucleons is same as mass number.

C. Isobars have same mass number.

D. Protium and deuterium have same the mass number.

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Q.2 Which of the following is NOT responsible for the transmission of HIV-infection?
Ans A. Transfusion of contaminated blood
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B. Hugging of infected person
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C. Sharing infected needles
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D. Sexual contact with infected person

Q.3 A person does 600 J of work in 3 minutes. What is the average power?
Ans A. 330 W

B. 20 W

C. 3.33 W

D. 200 W
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Q.4 Why is conservation of petroleum important?

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A. Petroleum is a renewable resource.

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a C. Petroleum does not affect the environment adversely.

D. Petroleum is abundant in nature.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.5

What is the primary function of the structure 'A' attached to the rough endoplasmic
reticulum in the given diagram?
Ans A. Production of fat molecules

B. Manufacturing proteins

C. Storing genetic material

D. Digestion of food particles

Q.6 Which of the following acid-base indicators is colourless in acidic medium and pink in
basic medium?
Ans A. Phenolphthalein

B. Litmus

C. Bromothymol blue

D. Methyl orange

Q.7 The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt hour (kW h). Which of the following is
the correct value of 1kWh?
Ans A. 1.9 × 106 Joule

B. 1.6 × 106 Joule

C. 3.6 × 106 Joule

D. 3.0 × 106 Joule

Q.8 The phenomenon of dispersion of light was first explained by ________.
Ans A. Christiaan Huygens

B. Albert Einstein

C. James Clerk Maxwell

D. Isaac Newton

Q.9 The symbol of a battery is:
Ans A. a rectangle with arrows

B. several cells joined together

C. a circle with a dot

D. one long and one short line

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.10 During electrolytic refining, which substance(s) get(s) collected at the cathode?
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Ans A. The same metal with new bonds

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B. Pure form of the impure metal

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C. Organic matter left from ores

D. Insoluble impurities and gases

Q.11 Which of the following birth control methods can cause hormonal imbalance, and
probably health issues?
Ans A. Condoms

B. Copper-T

C. Tubectomy

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D. Oral contraceptive pills
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Q.12 .co
Read the following statements carefully and select the INCORRECT one.
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A. Cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain and is responsible for thinking and voluntary actions.
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B. Spinal cord acts as a relay between the brain and the rest of the body and also controls reflex actions.

C. Medulla oblongata controls reflex actions like pulling hand away from a hot object.

D. Cerebellum helps in maintaining body posture and balance.

Q.13 The dense structure inside the nucleus that produces ribosomes is called the _____.
Ans A. centrosome

B. mitochondria

C. nucleolus
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D. lysosome

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Q.14 When acid reacts with a metal carbonate, it forms:

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Ans A. salt and hydrogen gas only

B. a base and water as products a
C. gas and solid precipitate only

D. salt, carbon dioxide, and water

Q.15 If the power of accommodation of a normal human eye is maximum, which of the
following is correct for the ciliary muscles?
Ans A. Partially contracted

B. Partially relaxed
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C. Fully contracted

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D. Fully relaxed

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his experiments?
A. Dwarf Plants

B. Tall Plants

C. Green Seeds

D. Wrinkled Seeds

Q.17 Which of the following is true about the mass of an object?
Ans A. It increases at pole.
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B. It depends on gravity.

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C. It stays the same no matter where the object is.
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D. It changes from place to place.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 49

Q.18 Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
Ans A. Ethyne

B. Propane

C. Butyne

D. Ethene

Q.19 What does the area under a velocity-time graph represent for motion along a straight
line?
Ans A. The total displacement of the object

B. The final velocity of the object

C. The change in acceleration

D. The total distance between two points

Q.20 Which of the following are the covering or protective tissues in the animal body?
Ans A. Parenchyma tissues

B. Nervous tissues

C. Sclerenchyma tissues

D. Epithelial tissues

Q.21 Which of the following is true about action and reaction forces according to Newton’s
third law?
Ans A. They act on the same object at different times

B. They cancel each other out because they act on one object

C. They act on two different objects at the same time

D. They act in the same direction on the same object

Q.22 For a distinct echo to be heard, the minimum time interval between the original sound
and the reflected sound should be approximately ___________.
Ans A. 0.1 s

B. 1 s

C. 0.5 s

D. 0.01 s

Q.23 In Rutherford's model of an atom, which of the following particles are double charged
on helium ions?
Ans A. Beta particles

B. Gamma particles

C. Alpha particles

D. Delta particles

Q.24 Which of the following conditions will increase the rate of evaporation of a liquid?
Ans A. Decrease in temperature

B. Increase in humidity

C. Increase in wind speed

D. Decrease in surface area

Q.25 Which of the following statements about olfactory indicators is correct?
Ans A. Onion and vanilla both lose their smell in acidic conditions.

B. In acidic solutions, onion extract retains its characteristic smell.

C. In basic solutions, vanilla essence retains its original sweet smell.

D. In basic solutions, the smell of onion extr
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Section : Mathematics

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Q.26

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Ans
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A.

B. a
C.

D.

Q.27

Ans A. 204

B. 214
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C. 174

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D. 234

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Q.28
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The LCM of two numbers is 84. The numbers are in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the sum of the
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numbers.3129
Ans A. 56

B. 24

C. 32

D. 49

Q.29 Find the value of (2.99)2.

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Ans A. 8.9104

B. 8.8401

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C. 8.9401
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D. 8.9041
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Q.30
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The sum of the present ages of A and B is 42 years. After 6 years, A will be twice as old
as B. Find B's present age.
Ans A. 14 year

B. 12 years

C. 15 years

D. 10 years

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Q.31 The vertices of a triangle are A(4,−6), B(3,−2) and C(5,2). Find the area of the triangle
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formed by these points.
Ans

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a D. 10 sq. units

Q.32

Ans A. 60%

B. 45%

C. 30%

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D. 40%

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Q.33 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Akshay
borrowed an amount of ₹4,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Akshay after 4 years.
Ans A. 64,400

B. 65,900

C. 63,900

D. 65,400

Q.34 A cricketer has an average of 97 runs over 6 innings. If he scores 231 runs in the 7th
inning, by how many runs (rounded off to the nearest whole number) does his average
score increase?
Ans A. 17

B. 11

C. 25

D. 19

Q.35 A man is walking at a speed of 12 km/hr. After every kilometre of walk, he takes a rest
for 7 minutes. How much time (in minutes) will he take to cover a distance of 6 km?
Ans A. 54

B. 65

C. 42

D. 72

Q.36 Nishi travels to a shopping mall at 33 km/hr and returns at 57 km/hr. What is her
average speed (in km/hr) for the entire journey?
Ans A. 39.1

B. 34.8

C. 32.8

D. 41.8

Q.37 If the mean proportional of X and 125 is 25, then find the value of X.5773
Ans A. 4

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

Q.38 The arithmetic mean of the observations 29, 90, 50, 26, 36, 77, 86, 33 and 41 is:
Ans A. 65

B. 52

C. 50

D. 60

Q.39 A dealer purchased a dryer for ₹92,000. He allows a discount of 77% on its marked price
and still gains 83%. Find the marked price of the dryer.
Ans A. ₹7,31,919

B. ₹7,31,858

C. ₹7,31,917

D. ₹7,32,000

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.40 A man buys magazines in bulk for ₹20 each. He sells them for ₹23 each. Find the profit
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percentage.

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Ans A. 10%
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D. 15%

Q.41 Mahi would need twice as much time as Neha and Asha combined, while Asha would
require three times as much time as Neha and Mahi combined to complete a certain
task. If all three friends work together, they can finish the task in 20 days. How many
days would Neha take to complete the same task on her own?
Ans A. 42 days

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B. 24 days

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C. 36 days

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D. 48 days

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Q.42
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Simplify the algebraic expression.
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a2(a + 2) – 3a (a2 – 3) – 5a (a + 5)
Ans A. a3 – 3a2 – 16a

B. 2a3 – 3a2 – 16

C. –2a3 – 3a2 – 16a

D. –2a3 – a2 – 16a

Q.43
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B.
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C.

D.

Q.44 P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 100 cm, PB = 76 cm, and PC = 85 cm,
then the length PD (in cm) is equal to:
Ans A. 112

B. 103

C. 104
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D. 107

Q.45
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One pipe can fill a tank in 8 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
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B. 5

C. 10

D. 6

Q.46 The income of Raman is ₹61,500. He saves 17% of his income. If his income increases
by 38% and expenditure increases by 20%, then his savings will:
Ans A. decrease by ₹13,165

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B. increase by ₹13,156

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C. increase by ₹13,161

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D. decrease by ₹13,159

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Q.47 A dealer marks his goods at 29% above the cost price and allows a discount of 7% on
the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
Ans A. 22.67% gain

B. 23.89% gain

C. 19.97% gain

D. 19.1% loss

Q.48 Three-fourth of a number exceeds its two-fifth by 63. What is the number?
Ans A. 252

B. 163

C. 126

D. 180

Q.49 The area of a triangle is 84 cm². If the altitude corresponding to its base is two-thirds of
the base length, find the length of the base.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.50 If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 75% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 88.75

B. 78.75

C. 98.75

D. 108.75

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between P and O when counted from the left of O. W sits third to
the left of N. Y sits to the immediate right of N. Y sits second to the left of P. X is not an
immediate neighbour of W. Who sits third to the right of M?
Ans A. N

B. O

C. W

D. Y

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

19, 22, 28, 37, 49, ?
Ans A. 64

B. 63

C. 66

D. 65

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.53 Gaurav starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the South. He then takes a left
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turn, drives 7 km, then turns left and drives 14 km. He then takes a left turn and drives

. 11 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
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distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
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(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 5 km to the east
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B. 4 km to the east

C. 4 km to the west

D. 5 km to the west

Q.54 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) * + 9 \ / ? > @ 5 5 / ? / 9 * 1 ? # + 6 # (Right)
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How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
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Ans A. Three
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B. One
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C. None

D. Two
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Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. STV

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B. IJL

C. WYZ
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D. HIK
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Q.56 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

777 767 762 752 747 ?3899
Ans A. 739

B. 737

C. 738

D. 736

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Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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C. MDG

D. MDH

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Q.58 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-
digit numbers. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 3 7 1 9 4 6 2 5 8 3 7 5 9 4 6 2 5 8 3 7 1 9 8 6 2 (Right).

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. Five

Q.59 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

812 813 810 815 808 817 ?3521
Ans A. 819

B. 820

C. 805

D. 806

Q.60 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from Left to Right only.

(Left) 5 8 3 6 9 4 2 7 5 1 3 4 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, which are immediately followed by an odd
number?
Ans A. Two

B. More than three

C. One

D. Three

Q.61 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

25 − 16 ÷ 79 + 189 × 3 = ?
Ans A. 458

B. 416

C. 462

D. 469

Q.62 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the right of C. A sits second to the left of D. B sits to the immediate right of F. E sits
second to the left of C. How many people sit between D and B?
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘she takes photos’ is coded as ‘rp bs eg’ and ‘photos are
beautiful’ is coded as ‘zs vx bs’. How is ‘photos' coded in that language?
Ans A. vx

B. eg

C. bs

D. rp

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.64 In a certain code language,
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A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,

. A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
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A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
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and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is O related to V if ‘O - P # T + G @ V’? ag
Ans A. Mother

B. Sister

C. Daughter

D. Wife

Q.65 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
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DEAR - EADR - RAED
SOME - OMSE - EMOS
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A. RACE - ACRE - ACER
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B. WARD - ARWD - DRAW
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C. ZONE - ZNOE - ENOZ

D. JUTE - UJTE - EUTJ

Q.66 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

FEL221, NMT202, VUB183, DCJ164, ?
Ans A. MKR145

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B. LKS145

C. LKR145

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D. LUR145
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Q.67 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
178673, then what will be the sum of largest and smallest digits in the new number thus
formed?
Ans A. 11

B. 12

C. 10

D. 13

Q.68 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
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All samosas are patties.
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Conclusions:
(I) Some patties are burgers.
(II) All burgers are samosas.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.69 F, G, H, I, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between I and O, when counted from the left of O. G sits third to the
left of N. H sits to the immediate right of N. H sits second to the left of I. F is not an
immediate neighbour of G. Who sits third to the right of M?
Ans A. N

B. F

C. O

D. H

Q.70 RY 17 is related to VW 3 in a certain way. In the same way, IK 11 is related to MI −3. To
which of the following is PI 16 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. RT 5

B. TG 2

C. NJ 7

D. BT 3

Q.71 GMUZ is related to EJSW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, YAMN is related to WXKK. To which of the given options is SRGE related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. QMKI

B. QOEB

C. QBNJ

D. QOER

Q.72 Seven boxes, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only C is kept below I. Only four boxes are kept between C and J. Only
L is kept between J and D. B is kept at one of the positions above J. How many boxes
are kept between K and C?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Q.73 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

56 A 8 C 2 B 7 D 6 = ?
Ans A. 15

B. 14

C. 16

D. 13

Q.74 In a certain code language, ‘books are treasures’ is coded as ‘ab hi pq’ and ‘treasures
read gems’ is coded as ‘st hi xy’. How is ‘treasures’ coded in that language?
Ans A. xy

B. st

C. pq

D. hi

Q.75 In a row of 31 people facing north, Jack is 7th from the right end. If Ronald sits 5th to the
left of Jack, what is Ronald’s position from the left end of the row?
Ans A. 20th

B. 19th

C. 21st

D. 22nd
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.76 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(16, 262, 7)
(40, 1612, 13)
Ans A. (36, 1318, 18)

B. (4, 38, 23)

C. (8, 72, 4)

D. (7, 74, 21)

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Q.77 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 18 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
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drives 25 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 4 km. He takes a final left
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turn, drives 14 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns
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only, unless specified.)
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Ans A. 10 km to the east

B. 9 km to the west

C. 10 km to the south

D. 10 km to the west

Q.78 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 7 1 8 3 5 4 2 9 9 3 3 1 2 8 6 7 4 4 6 6 2 1 8 1 9 3 (Right)
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odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
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How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an

Ans A. Five
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B. Four
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C. Three a
D. Two

Q.79 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
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All cars are buses.

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All buses are planes.

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No car is a train.

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(I) No bus is a train.

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a Ans A. Both statements I and II follow

B. Neither statement I nor II follows

C. Only statement I follows

D. Only statement II follows

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Q.80 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. PUN

B. NSL

C. RWO

D. HMF

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Who received the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his contributions to the field of Arts from
Maharashtra?
Ans A. S Ajith Kumar

B. Pankaj Patel

C. Nandamuri Balakrishna

D. Shekhar Kapur

Q.82 According to the report by the International Energy Agency (IEA) released in June 2025,
which country is the third-largest contributor to global power generation growth over
the past five years?
Ans A. United States of America

B. Russia

C. China

D. India

Q.83 What treaty was signed on 17 January 2025, in Moscow to deepen cooperation across
military, energy, and tech sectors?
Ans A. Iran‑Russia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership Treaty

B. Russia‑India Space Agreement

C. Russia‑EU Comprehensive Strategic Partnership Treaty

D. Russia‑China Strategic Partnership

Q.84 Which team emerged victorious, defeating Nepal 54-36, to claim the inaugural men’s
Kho-Kho World Cup title in New Delhi on 19 January 2025?
Ans A. India

B. Pakistan

C. Bangladesh

D. Nepal

Q.85 In September 2025, which region was declared as India’s first cold desert biosphere
reserve under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO) programme?
Ans A. Spiti Valley

B. Ladakh Valley

C. Satluj Valley

D. Nubra Valley

Q.86 The Bilderberg Conference from 12–15 June 2025 took place in _________.
Ans A. Oslo

B. Copenhagen

C. Stockholm

D. Helsinki
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.87 Which of the following organisations partnered with Vivifi Finance in December 2024 to
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provide loans to gig workers?

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s
Ans A. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
m a
se B. Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)

C. Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) ag l
D. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Q.88 In September 2025, which state government approved an Environmental, Social and
Governance (ESG) policy to attract environment-friendly and low-polluting industries?
Ans A. Haryana

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Kerala
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D. Gujarat

em
Q.89
e m
What was the primary technical issue that caused a delay of the Axiom-4 mission on 10
l as
June 2025?

l as ag
ag
Ans A. Engine overheating

B. Communication failure

C. Liquid oxygen leak

D. Solar panel malfunction

Q.90 Who was the first Indian to win two IPL final Player of the Match awards in 2017and
2025?
Ans A. Jasprit Bumrah

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B. Rohit Sharma

C. Virat Kohli

e m
D. Krunal Pandya

las
Q.91
a
Who won the men’s race at the 2025 Paris Marathon?g
Ans A. Eliud Kipchoge

B. Ibrahim Hassan

C. Sila Kiptoo

D. Bénard Biwott

Q.92 Bold Kurukshetra 2025 is a bilateral military exercise conducted between India and
which other nation?
m
Ans
m
A. Russia
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m .co B. Singapore
s e m
s e C. China
g l a
g l a D. United Kingdom
a
a Q.93 The Mukhya Mantrir Jiban Anuprerana Scheme of Assam offers _______.
Ans A. Loan repayable over 5 years

B. Monthly scholarship

C. One-time grant

D. Fellowship with monthly stipend

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 49

Q.94 In June 2025, which company was licensed to produce the Expandable Mobile Shelter
for armed forces?
Ans A. Metaltech Motor Bodies Pvt Ltd

B. Bharat Forge

C. Goma Engineering Pvt Ltd

D. Bharat Electronics Ltd

Q.95 In June 2025, the Government of India announced to set up a Centre of Excellence to
mitigate human wildlife conflict under which ministry?
Ans A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Home Affairs

C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q.96 Which central scheme reduces budget allocations drastically for minority education
scholarships in 2025‑26?
Ans A. PM‑Viraasat

B. USTTAD

C. Naya Savera

D. Pre‑Matric

Q.97 Which of the following foreign banks became the first to list a bond on National Stock
Exchange – International Exchange (NSE IX) at GIFT City in June 2025?
Ans A. DFCC Bank

B. Barclays Bank

C. DBS Bank

D. HSBC Bank

Q.98 As of June 2025, the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), based in New Delhi, focuses
on protecting how many species?
Ans A. Seven

B. Six

C. Five

D. Eight

Q.99 Which city saw disbursement of ₹6.79 crore scholarship to over 11,000 minority
students by July 2025?
Ans A. Bhopal

B. Patna

C. Gandhinagar

D. Pryagraj

Q.100 Who among the following Indian athletes set a new national record in the men's 5,000 m
event at Boston University in 2025?
Ans A. Jinson Johnson

B. Gulveer Singh

C. Murali Sreeshankar

D. Avinash Sable

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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a

Test Date 17/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
Section : General Science ag
Q.1 If the thrust acting on a surface remains constant, how does the pressure change with
the area of contact?
Ans A. Pressure increases when area decreases.

B. Pressure does not depend on area.

C. Pressure decreases when area decreases.

D. Pressure increases when area increases.
m
Q.2 .co
An athlete runs on a circular track with a diameter of 300 m and completes one round in
m
covered from the starting point?
s e
50 seconds. If the athlete runs for 2 minutes and 30 seconds, what is the total distance

g la
a
(Use = 3.14)
Ans A. Distance = 1500 m

B. Distance = 2826 m

C. Distance = 942 m

D. Distance = 471 m

Q.3 An electric bulb is connected to a 240 V generator and draws a current of 0.25 A. What
is the power consumed by the bulb?

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Ans A. 60 J

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B. 960 W

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a
C. 960 J

s e g l
g l a D. 60 W
a
a Q.4 Select the option regarding the matter which has sufficient spaces between them or are
not tightly packed.

Salt, Iron, Sugar
Ans A. Only sugar

B. Both sugar and salt

C. Only iron

D. Both iron and salt
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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.5 Which of the following statements about coal and petroleum conservation is correct?
Ans A. They are inexpensive to extract.

B. Their formation takes millions of years.

C. They do not cause pollution.

D. They are renewable resources of energy.

Q.6 What does Snell’s Law of refraction state about the relationship between the angle of
incidence and the angle of refraction for the given pair of media?
Ans A. Their sum is always 90°.

B. Both angles are always equal in all media.

C. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction remains constant.

D. Their difference is always constant.

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a base unit in the International System of Units (SI)?
Ans A. Kilogramme

B. Joule

C. Second

D. Metre

Q.8 Which of the following components is represented by a zig-zag line in a circuit
diagram?
Ans A. Battery

B. Switch

C. Bulb

D. Resistor

Q.9 When a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray is
____________.
Ans A. Perpendicular to the incident ray

B. Bent toward the normal without displacement

C. Along the same line as the incident ray

D. Parallel to the incident ray but shifted sideward

Q.10 A bus travels a 6 km distance in 20 minutes to go from point A to point B. The bus
travels from point B to point A in 30 minutes. What is the average speed in m/s of the
bus?
Ans A. 24

B. 400

C. 4

D. 2400

Q.11 Which of the following reactions is an example of a double displacement reaction?
Ans A. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

B. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

C. AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃

D. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.12 What is an ion?
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Ans A. A molecule

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B. A neutral atom

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C. A proton

D. An atom or group of atoms with a positive or negative charge

Q.13 Which of the following vitamins are maintained at high levels in poultry feed to support
optimal growth and health?
Ans A. Vitamin C and K

B. Vitamin B9 and B12

C. Vitamin A, D and E

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D. Vitamin B1, B2, B3
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Q.14 .co
Which of the following metals is characterised by low density and softness?
m s em
Ans A. Copper
s e l a
l a ag
ag
B. Potassium

C. Aluminium

D. Magnesium

Q.15 What is the primary component of the plant cell wall?
Ans A. Cutin

B. Suberin

C. Cellulose
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D. Lignin

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Q.16
s
Which of the following is essential for animals to participate in the process of mating?

la
g
Ans A. Physical maturity

B. They must be tall a
C. They must have attractive eyes

D. Sexual immaturity

Q.17 How does pollination contribute to seed formation in plants?
Ans A. By dispersing seeds to new locations

B. By transferring pollen from the anther to the stigma, enabling fertilisation

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C. By forming a protective seed coat around the ovule
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D. By producing nectar to attract pollinators

m s e
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Q.18 How can the transmission of certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) be reduced
g l a
g l a during sexual activity?
a
a Ans A. By avoiding physical contact with all individuals

B. By taking antibiotics before every sexual act

C. By using protection such as condoms during intercourse

D. By only engaging in sexual activity during daytime

Q.19 Which of the following metals reacts most vigorously with cold water?
Ans A. Iron

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B. Sodium

e m
C. Copper

e m l as
D. Cobalt

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 49

Q.20 When fats and oils are oxidised, they develop a smell and taste that is:
Ans A. spicy

B. rancid

C. pleasant

D. fruity

Q.21 If the velocity of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
Ans A. double

B. four times

C. eight times

D. half

Q.22 Which of the following is INCORRECT about striated muscle?
Ans A. Each striated muscle fibre contains a single nucleus

B. These are present in limbs

C. Also called voluntary muscles

D. Mostly attached to bones and help in body movement

Q.23 Which of the following is true about the cells of meristematic tissue?
Ans A. They are inactive with large vacuoles and thick walls.

B. They are dead cells with no nucleus or cytoplasm.

C. They are active cells with dense cytoplasm, thin walls, prominent nuclei and no vacuoles.

D. They are loosely packed, mature cells with large intercellular spaces.

Q.24 What is reverberation?
Ans A. Loss of sound energy in air

B. Spreading of sound in all directions

C. Persistence of sound due to multiple reflections of sound waves

D. Change in pitch of sound

Q.25 Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Iron gets coated with a reddish-brown substance when exposed to moist
air.
Reason (R): Rust forms due to the reaction of iron with moisture and oxygen.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true.

B. A is true, but R is false.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder
is 5.6 m away from the wall. Find the length of the ladder.
Ans A. 11.2 m

B. 12.2 m

C. 14.2 m

D. 10.2 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.27 A seller sells two fruits, apples and bananas. An apple costs ₹20 and a banana costs
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₹10. Ravi buys 6 fruits and pays ₹80. How many more bananas did he buy than apples?

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Ans A. 2
m a
se B. 1

C. 3 ag l
D. 4

Q.28 In an election with two candidates, 8% of the registered voters did not vote, and 120
voters submitted blank ballots. Among the votes cast, the winning candidate received
support from 48% of all registered voters and secured 780 more votes than the other
candidate. Determine the total number of voters on the list.
Ans A. 14,840

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B. 17,800

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C. 16,500

em
D. 15,690

e m l as
Q.29
l as ag
Ans A. 52990
ag
B. 56260

C. 52290

D. 52275

Q.30 If P is a prime number, what is the HCF of P and P + 1?

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Ans A. P2 + P

B. P

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C. 1

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D. P2 + 1
ag
Q.31

Ans A. 10

B. 11

C. 5

D. 7

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Q.32
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A dealer purchased a ceiling fan for ₹391. After allowing a discount of 31% on its
.co
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marked price, he still gains 68%. Find the marked price of the ceiling fan.

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a
Ans A. ₹902

s e g l
g l a B. ₹994
a
a C. ₹927

D. ₹952

Q.33 ₹10,279 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that if ₹67, ₹33, and ₹13 are
deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 4 : 2 : 20. Find the
difference between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹6988

B. ₹7138

C. ₹7188
m .
D. ₹7018
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 49

Q.34 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 25 metres, if he runs at a speed of 4 km/hr?
Ans A. 90

B. 70

C. 100

D. 80

Q.35

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.36 The sides of a triangle are 87 cm, 108 cm, and 75 cm. What is the length (in cm) of its
altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 108 cm?
Ans A. 41

B. 60

C. 24

D. 17

Q.37 The amount on a sum of ₹2,500 at the rate of 14% per annum compound interest,
compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹2,497

B. ₹3,249

C. ₹3,184

D. ₹2,877

Q.38 The sides of a triangle are 34 cm, 18 cm and 20 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with the length of 18 cm?
Ans A. 42 cm

B. 22 cm

C. 16 cm

D. 63 cm

Q.39
Given x + y = 4, and xy = 2, what is x2 + y2?
Ans A. 10

B. 14

C. 12

D. 16

Q.40 Two pipes, P and Q, can fill a cistern in 37 minutes 30 seconds and 45 minutes,
respectively. Both pipes are opened simultaneously. The cistern gets completely filled
in exactly 30 minutes if pipe Q is turned off after x minutes. Find x.7002
Ans A. 9

B. 8

C. 7

D. 12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.41 Find the square of the product of the median and mean, given that the mode is 3 and is
m
. co times the mean.

s e m
m a
se Ans
A.
ag l
B.

C.

D.

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Q.42 The average age of 30 students of a class is 19 years. If the age of the teacher is also

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included, the average age of the whole group becomes 20 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:

m s e
Ans A. 50
s e l a
B. 58
l a ag
C. 52 ag
D. 54

Q.43 A fruit vendor buys 10 kg of apples at ₹85/kg and sells them at ₹100/kg. What is his total
profit?
Ans A. ₹140

B. ₹150

C. ₹180
m
D. ₹120

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s e
la
Q.44 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 3 days. B alone can do the same

Ans A. 9 ag
work in 12 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?

B. 8

C. 4

D. 11

Q.45 Juli is 24 years older than her daughter. In 6 years, Juli’s age will be double that of her
daughter. What is the present age (in years) of Juli?
Ans A. 42
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B. 30
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m .co C. 24
s e m
s e D. 48
g l a
g l a a
a Q.46 The Rajdhani Express and Garib Rath Express run in the same direction with speeds of
87 km/hr and 51 km/hr, respectively, and their lengths are the same. What is the length
of the Rajdhani Express if it completely crosses the Garib Rath Express in 175
seconds?
Ans A. 883 m

B. 867 m

C. 880 m

D. 875 m

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 49

Q.47 An athletic track forms a shape consisting of a rectangle with semicircles on two
opposite ends. If the straight portions are each 100 metres long and the total perimeter
of the track is 400 metres, what is the radius of each semicircular end (rounded off to
two decimal places)?

Ans A. 30.23 metres

B. 31.82 metres

C. 33.73 metres

D. 32.43 metres

Q.48 DMART is offering Buy 30, get 11 free on grocery items. What is the net percentage
discount being offered by DMART? (Correct up to two decimal places)
Ans A. 24.84%

B. 23.99%

C. 26.83%

D. 28.04%

Q.49 If the mean proportional of X and 147 is 84, then find the value of X.
Ans A. 45

B. 48

C. 49

D. 50

Q.50 The price of a commodity decreases by 5% in the first week and then increases by 8%
in the second week. What is the effective percentage increase in the price after the
second week?
Ans A. 2.6%

B. 0.8%

C. 1.5%

D. 3%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(44, 52, 18)
(50, 56, 22)
Ans A. (19, 14, 13)

B. (42, 78, 4)

C. (30, 22, 19)

D. (41, 82, 1)

Q.52 In a certain code language, 'door win king' is coded as 'ab ap ly' and 'win key mom' is
coded as 'dw tc ap'. How is 'win' coded in that language?
Ans A. ab

B. ly

C. ap

D. dw

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.53 LR 9 is related to PT 3 in a certain way. In the same way, TS 13 is related to XU 7. To
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which of the given options is GE 19 related, following the same logic?

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Ans A. KG 13
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C. BG 14 ag l
D. NJ 12

Q.54 Preethi ranked 6th from the top and 12th from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 16

B. 17

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C. 19

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D. 20

em
Q.55
e m
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
l as
as
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
l ag
ag
(Left) 8 8 2 9 1 9 7 2 9 5 9 3 6 4 9 7 2 2 2 7 4 5 8 1 7 9 9 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. Five

B. Six

C. Eight

D. Seven

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Q.56 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number

m
1245367, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. One
s e
B. Two
g la
C. Three a
D. None

Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. EID
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B. KOJ
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m .co C. HLG
s e m
s e D. TXT
g l a
g l a a
a Q.58 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.)
(Left) 3 @ © 6 5 € € 3 3 8 € % 2 7 6 # 7 * £ € 9 $ (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

m .
D. Zero

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.59 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
NOK−JKG
EFB−ABX
Ans A. TTO−PQM

B. TTO−OPL

C. TUQ−OQL

D. TUQ−PQM

Q.60 NK 16 is related to QN 12 in a certain way. In the same way, PS 20 is related to SV 16. To
which of the given options is BX 30 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. EA 34

B. EB 26

C. EA 26

D. FB 26

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘LAVS’ is coded as ‘3812’ and ‘VALE’ is coded as ‘1342’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

Q.62 Refer to the number and symbol series given below and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) % * 7 % € % 2 # € $ € © 9 5 6 # 9 & 6 % 7 & (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 0

D. 2

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TVW

B. OQR

C. EGH

D. BEE

Q.64 Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn,
drives 15 km, then turns left and drives 27 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 31
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 14 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 16 km to the east

B. 17 km to the east

C. 18 km to the south

D. 19 km to the west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.65 Each of the digits in the number 6325894 is arranged in descending order from right to
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left. Calculate the sum of digits whose position(s) remain(s) unchanged as compared to

. that in the original number and the lowest digit.
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m as
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Ans A. 17

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B. 10

C. 12
a
D. 8

Q.66 If ‘A’ stands for ‘x’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-’ , what will
come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

16 B 4 D 8 A 3 C 28 = ?
Ans A. 11
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B. 10

C. 8

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D. 6
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.67 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. E sits third to
the right of F. B sits second to the left of E. C sits second to the right of A. D sits to the
immediate right of C. How many people sit between E and D, when counted from the
left of D?
Ans A. One

B. None

C. Four

D. Two

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Q.68 Akshay starts from Point M and drives 8 km towards the east. He then takes a right
turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km.

e m
He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and

respect to Point M?
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stops at Point P. How far(shortest distance) and in which direction is Point P with

(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) ag
Ans A. 9 km towards north

B. 3 km towards north

C. 7 km towards south

D. 6 km towards south

Q.69 A, B, C, E, F, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits fourth
to the left of C. P sits fourth to the right of B. Only two people sit between C and B,
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when counted from the left of C. E is not an immediate neighbour of P or B. F is not an
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immediate neighbour of P. Who sits third to the right of Q?

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Ans

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A. F

l as
l as B. B

ag
ag C. P

D. C

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the
English alphabetical order?

SWZ QUX OSV MQT ?
Ans A. KOS

B. KOR

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C. KPR

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D. KPS
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l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.71 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
FIM19 GJN26 HKO33 ILP40 ?
Ans A. JMQ47

B. JMR48

C. JMR47

D. JMQ48

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

517 520 525 532 541 ?
Ans A. 552

B. 553

C. 554

D. 551

Q.73 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 2 3 6 9 5 1 4 7 8 5 2 3 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Four

D. Two

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
No Judges are Accountants.
Some Accountants are Nurses.
All Nurses are Librarians.

Conclusions:
(I) No Judges are Nurses.
(II) Some Accountants are Librarians.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.75 Seven boxes B, D, E, P, S, T and W are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
W is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between W and B. P is
kept at one of the positions below W. Only D is kept between B and S. E is kept at one
of the positions above B.
How many boxes are kept between P and E?10013
Ans A. Five

B. Three

C. Four

D. One

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.76 In a certain code language,
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P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’,

. P # Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’,
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P & Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
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P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.

How is I related to M if ‘I # J % B & L + M’? ag
Ans A. Father's mother

B. Mother's sister

C. Mother's mother

D. Father's sister

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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24 41 58 75 92 ?
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Ans A. 105

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B. 109

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C. 117
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D. 113
ag
Q.78 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some machines are anchors.
Some anchors are wheels.

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Conclusions:
(I): Some machines are wheels.
(II): All wheels are anchors.
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Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows
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B. Only conclusion (II) follows
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C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.79 O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people sit to
the right of X. Only two people sit between X and Q. Only two people sit between O and
P. P sits to the immediate left of X. R sits to the immediate right of Y. Who sits at the
third position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. O
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B. W
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s e m
s e D. Y

g l a
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a 256 258 262 268 ? 2864227
Ans A. 280

B. 274

C. 278

D. 276

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

e m
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.81 In March 2025, which three Central Asian countries signed the Khujand Treaty to settle
border disputes?
Ans A. Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan

B. Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan

C. Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan

D. Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan

Q.82 Which district in Arunachal Pradesh saw the inauguration of a Khelo India multipurpose
hall in 2025?
Ans A. Kamle

B. Tawang

C. Itanagar

D. Lohit

Q.83 SBM Bank India entered into a bancassurance partnership with which among the
following companies in May 2025?
Ans A. Life Insurance Corporation of India

B. Kotak Life Insurance Co. Ltd.

C. ICICI Prudential Life Insurance

D. Axis Max Life Insurance Co. Ltd.

Q.84 The Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in August 2025 prevents individuals in
jail from holding which of the following positions?
Ans A. Directors of private corporations

B. Heads of universities and colleges

C. Constitutional roles like Prime Minister and Chief Ministers

D. Senior bank executive roles

Q.85 As per the survey conducted by the Yale Program on Climate Change Communication
and CVoter from December 5, 2024, to February 18, 2025, what percentage of Indians
reported experiencing severe air pollution in the past 12 months?
Ans A. 80%

B. 52%

C. 73%

D. 62%

Q.86 In November 2025, Narendra Modi presented a revolutionary indigenous innovation of
India, as the country’s indigenous quantum security chip called:
Ans A. Quantum Cyber Defence Chip (QCDC)

B. Indian Quantum Encryption Module (IQEM)

C. Quantum Security Integrated Processor (QSIP)

D. Next-Gen Quantum Shield Chip (NQSC)

Q.87 Who took charge as the Chief Election Commissioner of India on 19 February 2025,
under the new provisions of the 2023 appointment act?
Ans A. Rajiv Kumar

B. Anup Chandra Pandey

C. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu

D. Gyanesh Kumar

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.88 The 115th executive council meeting of the All-India Mayor Council was held on 15-16
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June 2025 in which city?

. e m
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Ans A. Panchkula

as
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C. Agra ag l
D. Mumbai

Q.89 Where was the Khelo India Winter Games 2025 second phase held?
Ans A. Auli

B. Leh

C. Manali
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D. Gulmarg
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Q.90
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Which of the following financial bodies imposed a penalty of ₹54.78 crore on 353
s em
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regulated entities in FY25?
s l a
Ans
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A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
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ag
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

C. NSDL Payments Bank

D. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

Q.91 What was the name of the bilateral Indo-French military drill held from 18 June to 1 July
2025 at Camp Larzac?
Ans A. Prithvi 2025

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B. Trishul 2025

C. Vikas 2025

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D. Shakti 2025
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g la
a
Q.92 Which of the following ministries launched the Aadhaar Good Governance Portal to
streamline approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests and to make Aadhaar
more people-friendly, enable ease of living, and enable better access to services for
people?
Ans A. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

C. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

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Q.93 Who among the following won the 2025 Abel Prize for contributions to algebraic
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analysis and representation theory?

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Ans

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A. Terence Tao

l as
l as B. Joel Mokyr

ag
ag C. Philippe Aghion

D. Masaki Kashiwara

Q.94 During which of the following editions of the National Finite Element Developers’
meeting did Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) unveil the latest version of
Finite Element Analysis of Structures (FEAST) software in February 2025?
Ans A. 10th

B. 4th

C. 8th
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D. 6th

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.95 Where were the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships held?
Ans A. India

B. South Korea

C. Bangladesh

D. China

Q.96 According to GS Krishnan, which of the following sectors are highlighted in the India
BioEconomy Report, 2025?
Ans A. BioPharma, BioIndustrial, BioAgri, and BioServices

B. BioPharma, BioAgri, BioServices, and Robotics Biotech

C. BioAgri, BioPharma, Renewable Energy, and BioMedical

D. BioEnergy, BioIndustrial, BioPharma, and BioServices

Q.97 Which athlete set a new American outdoor record in the men's 5000 m with a time of 12
: 45.27?
Ans A. Nico Young

B. Cole Hocker

C. Grant Fisher

D. Yared Nuguse

Q.98 In September 2025, Indian cricket team refused to accept the Asia Cup trophy from
Asian Cricket Council president and Interior Minister of ______.
Ans A. Sri Lanka

B. Pakistan

C. Bangladesh

D. Afghanistan

Q.99 The 24th edition of the World Sustainable Development Summit 2025, organised by
TERI, commenced in __________.
Ans A. New Delhi

B. Bengaluru

C. Hyderabad

D. Mumbai

Q.100 According to a July 2025 report by the Centre for Science and Environment, all mega
cities in India—including Kolkata, Bengaluru, Mumbai, Hyderabad and Chennai—saw
high concentrations of which pollutant(s) during the summer of 2025?
Ans A. Nitrogen oxides

B. Ground-level ozone

C. Volatile organic compounds

D. Black carbon

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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Test Date 17/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 If Girl A takes 20 s and Girl B takes 50 s to climb a rope, both performing 3200 J of
work, their difference in performance is characterised by which physical concept?
Ans A. Power

B. Total energy consumed

C. Gravitational force

D. Total displacement
m
Q.2 Which of the following is INCORRECT about meristematic tissues?
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Ans A. Lack of vacuoles
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B. Thin walled
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C. Presence of vacuoles a
D. Actively dividing cells

Q.3 Which of the following belongs to the alkyne group?
Ans A. C3H4

B. C6H6

C. C2H4
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D. C3H8
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Q.4
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Which of the following statements regarding the need for macronutrients in plants is
s e m
s e correct?

g l a
g l a Ans A. Macronutrients are only required during the flowering stage.
a
a B. Macronutrients are less important than micronutrients.

C. Plants can survive without macronutrients.

D. Macronutrients are required by plants in large quantities for proper growth and development.

Q.5 Which of the following statements about resistivity is correct?
Ans A. It increases with the cross-sectional area

B. It depends only on the nature and temperature of the material

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C. It decreases when the length increases

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D. It changes with the shape of the conductor

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l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Q.6 What is the benefit of developing dwarf broiler parents in poultry?
Ans A. To increase flight ability

B. To reduce feed consumption and improve meat yield

C. To make them resistant to rain

D. To lay larger eggs

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a molecule of a compound?
Ans A. O3

B. CH4

C. NH3

D. HCl

Q.8 A convex mirror is generally used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because it:
Ans A. Produces magnified images

B. Produces a wider field of view

C. Absorbs most of the light rays

D. Produces real and inverted images

Q.9 The colour of silver chloride changes when placed in sunlight for some time due to the:
Ans A. Combination reaction of silver chloride with oxygen

B. Photochemical decomposition of silver chloride by sunlight

C. Thermal decomposition of silver chloride

D. Displacement reaction by oxygen and water

Q.10 Brass is an example of:
Ans A. a compound

B. a homogeneous mixture

C. a heterogeneous mixture

D. an element

Q.11 A long straight wire carries a current I, and the magnetic field at a distance r from the
conductor is B. If the distance from a straight current-carrying wire is doubled, what
will be the magnetic field at that point?
Ans A. 2B

B. B/2

C. B

D. Zero

Q.12 The bud in Hydra:
Ans A. forms through spores

B. forms inside the parent’s body

C. grows as an outgrowth

D. develops on a stalk

Q.13 In the case of unbalanced forces acting on an object, the acceleration (a) produced is in
the direction of the ______________.
Ans A. initial velocity

B. net force (resultant force) acting on the object

C. force of friction

D. largest force

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.14 An object moves 10 m in 2 s. On a distance–time graph, what is the slope?
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Ans A. 8 m/s

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B. 5 m/s

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C. 20 m/s

D. 10 m/s

Q.15 The chemical formula of the compound sodium carbonate is represented as:
Ans A. Na2CO3

B. Na3CO3

C. Na3CO2

D. Na3CO4
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.co m
Q.16 Blood is called a connective tissue because ____________.

m s e
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Ans A. it is found only in muscles

s e l
a ag
B. it supports bones
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C. it is red in colour

D. it connects and transports material throughout the body

Q.17 A stone is thrown downward with an initial velocity of 5 m/s. After 2 seconds, its final
velocity v (taking g = 10 m/s²) will be:
Ans A. 20 m/s

B. 25 m/s

C. 10 m/s
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D. 5 m/s

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Q.18 Esters are formed by the reaction of:

las
g
Ans A. alcohol and acid in basic medium

B. alcohol and acid at low pressure a
C. alcohol and aldehyde in the presence of dehydrating agent

D. alcohol and acid in acidic medium

Q.19 A man contracts HIV even though his partner is healthy. Which of the following
behaviours from his personality could explain this?
Ans A. Having multiple unprotected sexual partners

B. Maintaining a healthy diet
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C. Using sterlised needles

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D. Having protected sex

l as
l asQ.20 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about simple permanent tissue?
ag
ag Ans A. It founds few layers beneath the epidermis

B. Food storage occurs in simple permanent tissue

C. Simple permanent tissue is generally composed of living cells

D. Sclerenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue

Q.21 Carbon forms many compounds because of:
Ans A. Ability to form ionic crystals

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B. High atomic mass and large size

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C. Reactivity with noble gases

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s
D. Catenation and tetravalency

l a ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.22 A sound wave has a frequency of 1600 Hz. If the wavelength of the wave is 0.2 m, what
will be the speed of the wave?
Ans A. 32 m/s

B. 8000 m/s

C. 800 m/s

D. 320 m/s

Q.23 Which type of spherical mirror has its reflecting surface curved outwards and
possesses a centre of curvature C that lies behind the mirror?
Ans A. Plane mirror

B. Concave mirror

C. Converging mirror

D. Convex mirror

Q.24 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding sexual reproduction in
plants?

Statement A: After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo
within the ovule
Statement B: The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
Ans A. Only statement B

B. Both statements A and B

C. Neither statement A nor B

D. Only statement A

Q.25 Which gas reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium bicarbonate and sodium
carbonate?
Ans A. CO₂

B. CO

C. NO₂

D. SO₂

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The sum of three numbers is 180. If the ratio of the second number to the first number
is 14:7 and that of the third number to the second number is 15:15, then find the second
number.
Ans A. 70

B. 72

C. 71

D. 74

Q.27 Bharat goes to a shop to purchase a toy train priced at ₹5,000. He is offered 4 discount
options by the shopkeeper. Which of these options should he opt for to gain maximum
advantage of the discount offered?
Ans A. Two successive discounts of 44% and 18%

B. Two successive discounts of 30% each

C. Two successive discounts of 24% and 25%

D. Single discount of 22%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.28
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Ans A. 120

B. 60

C. 150

D. 180

Q.29 102 men have provisions for 30 weeks. They are joined by 68 men. How long (in weeks)
will the provisions last?

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Ans A. 22
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B. 18

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C. 20

s e l a
D. 16
l a ag
Q.30 ag
In a student body election, 5% of the eligible voters are aged 18–21 years, 12% are aged
21–25 years, and the rest are older than 25 years. Among these groups, 80% of the 18–
21 year age group and 60% of the 21–25 year age group actually voted. If the number of
voters aged 21–25 years who voted exceeds those aged 18–21 years by 320, what is the
difference between the number of eligible voters aged 18–21 years and those aged 21–
25 years?
Ans A. 600

B. 500

C. 700
m
D. 800

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s e
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Q.31 The amount on a sum of ₹7,500 at 8% per annum compound interest, compounded

g
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹8,989 a
B. ₹9,355

C. ₹9,135

D. ₹8,748

Q.32 In how many minutes will a cistern be filled if three pipes with diameters 2 cm, 3 cm and
4 cm are opened together, given that the largest pipe alone can fill it in 87 minutes?
(Assume the rate of flow of water through each pipe is proportional to the square of its
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diameter.)

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Ans A. 36

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B. 50

l as
l as C. 48

ag
ag D. 40

Q.33 A solid cylinder has a height of 12 cm and a radius of r cm. A part of the cylinder is
melted and molded into two cones. One cone has a radius of 3 cm and a height of 4 cm,
while the other cone has a radius of 6 cm and a height of 8 cm. If the ratio of the curved
surface area of the original cylinder to the sum of the curved surface areas of the two
cones is 4 : 1, find the value of 2r.
Ans A. 27

B. 24

C. 25
m .
D. 26

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.34 For what value of x will the equation (x + 5)2 − (x − 5)2 = 80 be true?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 4

Q.35 If the cost price of 30 chairs is equal to the selling price of 40 chairs, find the loss
percentage.
Ans A. 25%

B. 17%

C. 19%

D. 23%

Q.36 If the radius of a sphere is increased by 15%, then find the percentage increase in its
volume. (Rounded up to 2 decimal places.)
Ans A. 41.67%

B. 52.09%

C. 80.25%

D. 23.20%

Q.37 The ratio of 20 hours to 7 days is equivalent to which of the following?
Ans A. 2:47

B. 20:7

C. 5:42

D. 4:43

Q.38 A man observes the top of a building at an angle of elevation 45°. If the building is 20 m
high, find the distance of the man from the building.
Ans A. 30 m

B. 25 m

C. 35 m

D. 20 m

Q.39 The sum of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 9. Find the smaller number.
Ans A. 18

B. 15

C. 20

D. 12

Q.40 The average age of 31 students of a class is 34 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 35 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 63

B. 66

C. 69

D. 67

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.41 The trains Rajdhani Express and Garib Rath Express run in the same direction with
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speeds of 101 km/hr and 65 km/hr, respectively, and their lengths are same. What is the

. length of Rajdhani Express if it completely crosses Garib Rath Express in 66 seconds?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 326 m

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B. 338 m

C. 330 m
a
D. 322 m

Q.42 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 12 and 4 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 4

B. 9
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C. 3
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D. 6

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Q.43

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Ans A.
ag
B.

C.

D.

Q.44 The sum of the first 11 prime numbers is:
Ans A. 162

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B. 165

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C. 164

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D. 160

Q.45 ag
Ans A. 15%

B. 35%

C. 25%

D. 30%

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Q.46 A train travels at a speed of 72 km/hr. How long will it take to cover a distance of 180

m
km?3017
Ans

m .co A. 2.1 hours
s e m
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g l a C. 2.4 hours
a
a D. 2.7 hours

Q.47 The selling price of an iPhone is ₹3,300, after allowing two successive discounts of 36%
and 25%. Find the marked price of the iPhone.
Ans A. ₹6,875

B. ₹6,815

C. ₹6,983

D. ₹6,769
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.48 At present, the ratio of the ages of Meena and Sita is 5 : 4 and sixteen years from now,
the ratio will get changed to 9 : 8. Find the present age of Meena.
Ans A. 20 years

B. 21 years

C. 23 years

D. 22 years

Q.49 If the mode of a data exceeds its mean by 27.3, then the mode exceeds the median by
_____. (Use empirical formula to find the answer.)
Ans A. 27.1

B. 18.2

C. 24.9

D. 15.8

Q.50 The monthly incomes of two friends Shivam and Rupesh, are in the ratio 5 : 8,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹81,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 4, find the monthly income of Shivam (in ₹).
Ans A. 1,41,750

B. 1,02,250

C. 1,01,250

D. 1,00,250

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the same sequence to
make the series logically complete?

2, 5 7, 10 , 14, 17, 23, 26 34 ? 47 ?
Ans A. 33, 50

B. 37, 50

C. 33, 51

D. 34, 50

Q.52 Piyush starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 10 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 4 km to the north

B. 5 km to the north

C. 4 km to the south

D. 5 km to the south

Q.53 Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K and L are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people sit between L and J. Only J sits to the right of D. Only three people sit between D
and C. K sits at some place to the left of B but at some place to the right of I. How many
people sit between I and B?7073
Ans A. One

B. Four

C. Three

D. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.54 If ‘A’ stands for ‘×’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

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20 B 5 D 8 A 3 C 14 A 4 = ?
as
se Ans A. 38

B. 36 ag l
C. 34

D. 39

Q.55 In a certain code language 'VACP' is coded as '126' and 'MHTJ' is coded as '153'. What
is the code for 'OGQE' in the given language?
Ans A. 135

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B. 132

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C. 129

em
D. 140

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Q.56
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A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits third to
ag
ag
the right of F. A sits second to the left of F. E sits second to the right of B. C sits to the
immediate right of E. How many people sit between A and C when counted from the left
of A?
Ans A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Four

Q.57
m
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)

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Ans A. QOP

B. SRR ag
C. MKL

D. ECD

Q.58 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 9 1 6 7 7 2 8 3 4 3 3 2 7 9 9 9 5 4 6 7 3 6 3 (Right)

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How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
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digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?

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Ans

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A. Two

l as
l as B. Three

ag
ag C. One

D. Four

Q.59 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

NKL−HEF
AXY−URS
Ans A. WSS−QNO

B. WTU−PNN
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C. WSS−PMN

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D. WTU−QNO
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All machines are tools.
All machines are equipment.
Some equipment are toys.

Conclusions:
(I): Some toys are machines.
(II): Some equipment are tools.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.61 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

11 B 2 D 44 A 4 C 3 = ?
Ans A. 11

B. 22

C. 14

D. 17

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. BD - JL

B. CE - KM

C. KM - SV

D. EG - MO

Q.63 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

23 - 10 - 33
4 - 13 - 17
Ans A. 16 - 20 - 46

B. 49 - 21 - 80

C. 50 - 22 - 72

D. 44 - 20 - 85

Q.64 NKMP is related to TQSV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, KHJM is related to QNPS. To which of the following is SPRU related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. YWWF

B. YVWA

C. YUWA

D. YVXA

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.65 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing the north. F sits to the
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immediate left of A. C sits third to the left of D. C is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits

. to the immediate left of E.
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How many people sit between E and C?
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B. Three ag l
C. None

D. Two

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

53 62 73 86 101 ?
Ans A. 113
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B. 120

C. 118

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D. 115
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Q.67 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below D. Only one box is kept above G. Only
one box is kept between G and C. E is kept immediately above A. F is kept at some
place below B. How many boxes are kept above F?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 5

D. 2

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Q.68 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

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KR37 MT45 OV53 QX61 ?

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Ans A. SY68

B. SY69 ag
C. SZ68

D. SZ69

Q.69 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:

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No Porcupines are Bears.

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Some Leopards are Jaguars.

g l a
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(I) Some Porcupines are Leopards. a
a (II) Some Bears are Jaguars.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.70 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept between S and D. Only B is kept above T. No
box is kept below D. W is kept at some place below P but at some place above E. Which
box is kept third above E?
Ans A. B

B. W

C. P

D. T

Q.71 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

YZX−WXV
XYW−VWU
Ans A. TUS−QSP

B. TUS−RSQ

C. TTQ−RSQ

D. TTQ−QRP

Q.72 In the following series, numbers are written using some special pattern but one number
is incorrect. That INCORRECT number is:

10, 27, 78, 233, 690, 2067
Ans A. 2067

B. 233

C. 78

D. 10

Q.73 In a certain code language,
A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D # R * A ₹ C ± O’?
Ans A. Wife's sister

B. Sister

C. Wife

D. Mother's sister

Q.74 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. (All
numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 1 5 3 7 2 8 4 9 6 1 3 7 5 4 2 8 9 6 3 7 1 5 4 9 8 2 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. More than three

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.75 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
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digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) 2 1 7 7 9 6 9 1 3 7 9 6 4 2 8 1 5 7 1 4 5 (Right)
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digit and also immediately followed by an even digit? ag l
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

Q.76 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
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24 × 3 + 6 − 2 ÷ 8 = ?

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Ans A. 11

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B. 15

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C. 7

D. 4

Q.77 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) £ 9 $ £ £ % € 6 3 3 1 8 & 3 © # * 7 * & 3 & (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. 2
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B. 1

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C. 3
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D. 0
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Q.78
a
In a certain code language, ‘are you ready’ is coded as ‘nb uc jp’ and ‘do you agree’ is
coded as ‘jh jp ko’. How is ‘you’ coded in that language? (All codes are two-letter
codes.)
Ans A. qc

B. nb

C. ko

D. jp
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Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
e m
e m PSJ NQH LOF JMD ?

l as
l asAns A. HKA
ag
ag B. HLB

C. HKB

D. HLA

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Q.80 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 11 km, turns left and drives 50 km. He then takes a left turn, drives 31 km, turns
left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 15 km. He takes a final right
turn, drives 18 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees
turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 5 km to the west

B. 5 km to the south

C. 5 km to the north

D. 7 km to the north

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Who among the following were the recipients of the 2025 Sakharov Prize for Freedom
of Thought?
Ans A. Sunil Amrith and Masaki Kashiwara

B. Andrzej Poczobut and Mzia Amaglobeli

C. Dr. Sonali Ghosh and Peter Howitt

D. Joel Mokyr and Philippe Aghion

Q.82 In September 2025, the Supreme Court directed the Election Commission of India to
treat which of the following documents as the 12th valid proof of identity for inclusion
in Bihar’s revised voters’ list?
Ans A. Employment Card

B. Health ID

C. PAN Card

D. Aadhaar Card

Q.83 Which organisation released the 'Global Risks Report, 2025', outlining geopolitical,
environmental and technological threats?
Ans A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

C. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

D. World Economic Forum (WEF)

Q.84 In July 2025, the Union Environment ministry notified which of the following rules
aimed at ensuring the remediation of chemically contaminated sites by those
responsible for the contamination?
Ans A. Environmental Restoration and Management (Pollution Control) Rules, 2025

B. Hazardous Waste and Remediation Management Rules, 2025

C. Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025

D. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Rules, 2025

Q.85 What is the percentage of the population with access to clean fuels and technology for
cooking in the Sustainable Development Report 2025?
Ans A. 74%

B. 79%

C. 83%

D. 89.3%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.86 What poverty rate did the State Bank of India project for India in 2024, as reported in
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June 2025?

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Ans A. 2.6%
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C. 3.6% ag l
D. 4.6%

Q.87 In September 2025, which company did BCCI announce as Team India’s new lead
sponsor?
Ans A. Apollo Tyres

B. MPL Sports

C. Byju’s
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D. Dream11

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Q.88
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When was the Union Budget 2025–26 presented in Parliament by Finance Minister
l as
Nirmala Sitharaman?

l as ag
ag
Ans A. 2 February 2025

B. 31 January 2025

C. 1 February 2025

D. 3 February 2025

Q.89 Which co-operative bank’s licence was cancelled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
May 2025 for capital shortfall?
Ans A. HCBL Co-operative Bank

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B. Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank

C. Ajantha Urban Co-operative Bank

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D. Seva Vikas Co-operative Bank

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Q.90
ag
How many consecutive Australian Open titles has Jannik Sinner won as of 2025?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q.91 Why was the book 'Heart Lamp' considered unique in Booker history and won the
International Booker Prize in 2025?
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Ans
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A. First poetry book
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g l a D. First children's book
a
a Q.92 Where was the National Cross-Country Championships held on January 12, 2025?
Ans A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat

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Q.93 As per the PIB report, which of the following National Telemedicine Services has served
more than 36 crore patients through teleconsultation by 6 April 2025?
Ans A. U-WIN

B. T-SeHAT

C. eSanjeevani

D. mHealth

Q.94 Which of the following Indian states had the honour of hosting the 38th National Games
in 2025?
Ans A. Karnataka

B. Uttarakhand

C. Maharashtra

D. Goa

Q.95 Which of the following age groups is targeted under the Nurturing Aspirations through
Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls programme, jointly launched by the
Ministry of Women and Child Development and the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship in June 2025?
Ans A. 16 to 18 years

B. 10 to 14 years

C. 12 to 16 years

D. 18 to 21 years

Q.96 Where was the 19th India Digital Summit (IDS) 2025 held?
Ans A. Ahmedabad

B. Jaipur

C. Chennai

D. New Delhi

Q.97 According to the Sustainable Development Report 2025, what is the percentage of
seats held by women in the Indian parliament?
Ans A. 13.8%

B. 19.7%

C. 28.2%

D. 23.9%

Q.98 Which world champion pole-vaulter cleared 6.28 m, setting a new world record at the
Stockholm Diamond League?
Ans A. Ernest John Obiena

B. Kurtis Marschall

C. Sam Kendricks

D. Mondo Duplantis

Q.99 Which of the following schemes, announced by the Government of India, has a total
outlay of ₹1 lakh crore to support high-risk, high-impact research and innovation
projects across science & technology disciplines?
Ans A. National Science & Technology Fund

B. Research, Development & Innovation Scheme

C. Atmanirbhar Bharat R&D Programme

D. Digital India Innovation Fund

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.100 Which of the following telecom providers introduced the soft launch of their
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homegrown Quantum 5G Fixed-Wireless-Access (FWA) system in Hyderabad on 18

. June 2025?
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Ans A. Bharti Airtel

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B. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

C. Vodafone Idea
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D. Reliance Jio

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