Karnataka 2nd PUC Model Question Paper 2024 for Education

MODEL
QUESTION PAPER
II PUC

2024

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3. ‘r¸ïUÁæ¦üAiÀiÁ’ AiÀiÁªÀ z˧ð®å ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ?
J. §gÀªÀtÂUÉ ©. N¢£À ¹. CAPÀUÀtÂvÀzÀ r. ªÀiÁ£À¹PÀ
4. ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå UÀÄjUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß vÀ®Ä¥À®Ä J¯Áè ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ £ÀqÀÄªÉ ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÀéAiÀÄvÉ vÀgÀĪÀ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄ
J. ¸ÀAWÀl£É ©. ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt ¹. AiÉÆÃd£É r. ¹§âA¢ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ
5. ºÀªÁªÀiÁ£À ªÀÄÄ£ÀÆìZÀ£É ¤ÃqÀ®Ä §¼À¸ÀĪÀ UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæ
J. ªÉÄÊPÉÆæ UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæ ©. ¸ÀÆ¥ÀgÀ UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæ ü
¹. «Ä¤ UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæ ü r. ªÉÄãÀ¥æÃsÉ ªÀiï UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæ
II) PɼÀV£À ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀÆPÀÛ GvÀg
Û ÀªÀ£ÄÀ ß Dj¹ ©lÖ¸ÀܼÀ vÀÄA©j. 5*1=5
(r¸ÉA§gÀ 10, ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É, ¸ÀAªÀºÀ£À, ªÀÄÄRªÁqÀ, UÁæºÀPÀ£À vÀȦÛ, ªÀiÁZÀð 8)
6. ‘Persona’ ¥Àzz
À À CxÀð________ DVgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
7. CAvÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À ¢£Àª£
À ÀÄß _______. gÀAzÀÄ DZÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
8. ¸ÀA¥ÀÆtð UÀÄtªÀÄlÖ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ DzsÁgÀ ¸ÀÜA§ __________ DVzÉ.
9. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ E£ÉÆߧ⠪ÀåQÛUÉ ªÀiÁ»w ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß _______ J£ÀÄߪÀgÀÄ.
10. ºÉƸÀ eÁÕ£À ¥ÀqA
É iÀÄĪÀ ªÀåªÀ¹ÜvÀ ¥ÀæAiÀÄvÀßPÉÌ ________ J£ÀÄߪÀgÀÄ.

III) F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ §gɬÄj 5*1=5
11. J ©
J) C£ÀĪÀA²AiÀÄvÉ i. ¸ÀAªÀºÀ£À P˱À®

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¹) PÉÊPÁ®ÄUÀ¼À «gÀÆ¥À iii. GavÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀqÁØAiÀÄ ²PÀët
r) ¤gÀÆ¥ÀuÉ iv. ªÀA±ÀªÁ»¤UÀ¼ÀÄ
E) §ºÀĪÀiÁzsåÀ ªÀÄ CAUÀU½
À AzÀ «£Áå¸ÀUÉƽ¹zÀ ªÀUð
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vi. ¤£Áð¼À UÀA æ yUÀ¼ÀÄ

IV) PɼÀV£À ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÉ ¥ÀæwAiÉÆAzÀPÉÌ MAzÀÄ ªÁPÀåzÀ°è GvÀj
Û ¹j. 5*1=5
12. ¸ÀÈd£ÁvÀäPÀ aAvÀ£A É iÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÁåSÁ夹
13. ±Á©ÝPÀ §Ä¢Þ±ÀQÛ ¥ÀjÃPÀëtzÀ CxÀð §gɬÄj.
14. «¸ÀÛj¹j- NAAC.
15. ¥ÁæPÀ®à£É JAzÀgÉãÀÄ?
16. F PɼÀV£À zÀvÁÛA±ÀUÀ½UÉ §ºÀÄ®PÀ PÀAqÀÄ»r¬Äj
6, 4, 7, 5, 3, 2, 6, 9, 6
«¨sÁUÀ- ©
V) PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ 10 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÉ ¥ÀæwAiÉÆAzÀPÉÌ JgÀqÀjAzÀ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ªÁPÀåUÀ¼À°è GvÀj Û ¹. 10 * 2 = 20
17. «ªÉÃZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ JgÀqÄÀ «zsU À ¼
À À£ÄÀ ß §gɬÄj.
18. 10 ªÀµð À ªÀAiÉÆêÀiÁ£ÀzÀ ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À ªÀiÁ£À¹PÀ ªÀAiÀĸÀÄì 14 ªÀµð À DzÀgÉ CªÀ£À §Ä¢Þ®§Þ ¯ÉQ̹.
19. ¸ÀAªÉÃUÁvÀäPÀ §Ä¢Þ±ÀQÛ JAzÀgÉãÀÄ? CzÀgÀ ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀPg À ÄÀ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?
20. ¸ÁA¥ÀæzÁ¬ÄPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£Á ²PÀëtzÀ JgÀqÄÀ ªÀåvÁå¸ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß w½¹.
21. ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£Á ²PÀëtzÀ JgÀqÄÀ ªÀĺÀvÀé §gɬÄj.
22. ªÀÄPÀ̼À ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À JgÀqÄÀ ¥ÁæªÀÄÄRåvÉUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß w½¹.
23. «±Àé DgÉÆÃUÀå ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ ¸ÀÆa¹gÀĪÀ JgÀqÀÄ fêÀ£À P˱À®UÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß w½¹.
24. AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ JgÀqÀÄ ¥ÁæªÄÀ ÄRåvÉ §gɬÄj.
25. ªÀiËTPÀ ¸ÀAªÀºÀ£z À À JgÀqÄÀ CªÀUÄÀ tUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß §gɬÄj.
26. ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ¸ÀAªÀº£ À ÀzÀ JgÀqÄÀ ªÀÄ£ÉÆêÉÊeÁÕ¤PÀ CqÉvÀqU É ¼
À À£ÀÄß §gɬÄj.
27. DUÀªÀÄ£ÁAUÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£U À ¼
À ÉAzÀgÃÉ £ÀÄ? MAzÀÄ GzÁºÀgu À É PÉÆr.
28. ²PÀëtzÀ°è UÀtPÀAiÀÄAvÀæzÀ JgÀqÀÄ G¥ÀAiÉÆÃUÀU¼ À À£ÄÀ ß w½¹.
29. ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ JgÀqÄÀ ®PÀëtUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß §gɬÄj.
30. ªÀÄÆ®¨sÀÆvÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É JAzÀgÉãÀÄ? MAzÀÄ GzÁºÀgu À É PÉÆr.

«¨sÁUÀ- ¹
VI) PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ £Á®ÄÌ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÉ ¥ÀæwAiÉÆAzÀPÉÌ 15-20 ªÁPÀåUÀ¼À°è GvÀÛj¹ 6 * 5 = 30
31. ¸ÀAªÉÃzÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀævåÀ PÁë£ÀĨsª
À ÀUÀ¼À ªÀåvÁå¸ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiÁr.
32. ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ ªÀåQÛvÀé ¤«Äð¸ÀĪÀ°è PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ¥ÁvÀæªÀ£ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¹.

33. ªÀiÁ£À¹PÀ ¸ÀªÁ®ÄUÀ¼ÀļÀî ªÀÄPÀ̼À ®PÀëtUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß w½¹.

34. ªÀÄ»¼Á ¸À§°ÃPÀgÀtzÀ CUÀvÀåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀAQë¥ÀÛªÁV «ªÀj¹.

35. ²PÀëtzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É eÁUÀwÃPÀgÀtzÀ ¸ÀPÁgÁvÀäPÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ¼ÁªÀªÀÅ?

36. UÀÄtªÀÄlÖ ¤zsÀðj¸ÀĪÀ LzÀÄ ¥ÀæªÄÀ ÄR CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¹.

37. E-ªÉÄÃ¯ï £À ¥ÁæªÀÄÄRåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀAQë¥ÀÛªÁV «ªÀj¹.

38. qÉ«ÄAUïgÀªÀgÀ ¸ÀA¥ÀÆtð UÀÄtªÀÄlÖ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀæQA
æ iÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß avÀæzÆ
É A¢UÉ «ªÀj¹.

39. ¸ÀAªÀºÀ£À ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß zsÁgÁavÀæzÀ ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ¢AzÀ «ªÀj¹.
40. 2018 jAzÀ 2023 £Éà ±ÉÊPÀëtÂPÀ ¸Á®ÄUÀ¼À ¢éwÃAiÀÄ ¦AiÀÄĹ ªÁ¶ðPÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉë ¥s° À vÁA±À F PɼÀV£ÀAwzÉ
F zÀvÁÛA±ÀU½ À UÉ PÀA§£ÀPëÉ gÀa¹j. EzÀgÀ°è 2023gÀ ¥sÀ°vÁA±ÀªÅÀ 2020gÀ ¥sÀ°vÁA±ÀQÌAvÀ JµÀÄÖ ºÉZÁÑVzÉ.
ªÀµðÀ PÁ¯ÉÃf£À ¢éwÃAiÀÄ ¦.AiÀÄÄ.¹. ¥sÀ°vÁA±À
2018 60%
2019 65%
2020 70%
2021 95%
2022 75%
2023 90%

«¨sÁUÀ- qÀ
VII) PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ MAzÀÄ ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ 35-40 ªÁPÀåUÀ¼À°è GvÀj
Û ¹j. 1 * 10 = 10
41. ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ ©ü£ßÀ vÉAiÀÄ PÉëÃvÀæUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¹j.
42. C¸ÀªiÀ ÁAiÉÆÃd£ÉUÉ PÁgÀtUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß «ªÀj¹.
43. PɼÀV£À zÀvÁÛA±ÀzÀ ¸ÀgÁ¸Àj, ªÀÄzsÁåAPÀ ºÁUÀÆ §ºÀÄ®PÀ ¯ÉQ̹.
ªÀUÁðAvÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ DªÀÈwÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
CI f
50-54 2
45-49 2
40-44 5
35-39 6
30-34 4
25-29 3
20-24 2
N=24

Second PUC Model Question Paper
Time-3 hrs 15 minutes Education-52 Max.Marks-80
Instructions:
1. Write the question numbers on the left side of the answer book.
2. Answer the questions according to the instruction given under each part.
PART-A
I. Answer the following questions by choosing correct answer: 5*1=5
1. A symbolic construction representing common and general features of many objects or
events is
a. Perception b. Sensation c. Concept formation d. Thinking
th
2. Geeta and Roopa are studying in 8 class with same average intelligence. After one
year of music training Geeta succeeds as a good musician whereas Roopa fails. Here the
supportive ability for Geeta to become good musician is
a. Interest. b. Attitude. c. Reasoning d. Aptitude
3. Which disability does dysgraphia shows?
a. Witting b. Reading c. Arithmetic d. Mental
4. The process of co-coordinating the activities of members of group in an institution for
seeking common goals
a. Organizing b. Controlling c. Planning. d. Staffing.
5. Computers used for weather forecasting
a. Micro Computers b. Super Computers.
c. Mini computers d. Mainframe Computers
II. Fill in the blanks by fallowing suitable words. 5*1=5
th
(December 10 , Research, Communication, Mask, Customer Satisfaction, March 11)
6. The meaning of the term ‘Persona’ is __________.
7. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on __________.
8. The element of Total Quality Management is___________.

9. The process of passing information from one person to another is _______.

10. A systematized effort to gain new knowledge is __________.

III. Match the following 5*1=5
11. A B
a) Heredity i. Communication skill.
b) Article 45 ii. Smart classroom

c) Deformity in hand and legs iii. Free and compulsory Education.
d Presentation iv. Genes.
e) A classroom equipped with multimedia v. Orthopedic Challenges
components vi. Endocrine Glands

IV. Answer the following questions in a sentences each. 5*1=5
12. Define creative thinking?

13. Write the meaning of verbal Intelligence test.

14. Expand –NAAC

15. What is hypothesis?

16. Find the mode from the fallowing data
6, 4, 7, 5, 3, 2,6, 9, 6.

PART-B
V. Answer any ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. 10*2=20
17. Write the two types of reasoning.

18. If 10 year old child is having mental age 14 years calculate his Intelligence Quotient.

19. What is emotional Intelligence? Who is the propagator of it?

20. Mention any two differences between traditional and inclusive Approach.

21. Write two importance of inclusive Education.

22. Mention two importance of children rights.

23. Mention any two life skills suggested by WHO.

24. Write any two importance of planning.

25. Write any two demerits of oral communication.

26. Write any two psychological barriers to effective communication.

27. What are input devices? Give one example.

28. Mention any two uses of computers in Education.

29. Write any two characteristics of research.

30. What is fundamental research? Give one example

PART-C
VI. Answer any six of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each. 6*5=30
31. List out the differences between sensation and perception.

32. Explain the role of family in determining the personality of an individual.

33. Mention the characteristics of mentally challenged children.

34. Briefly explain need of women empowerment.

35. What is the positive impact of globalization on Education.

36. Explain five important elements of quality.

37. Briefly explain the importance of e-mail.

38. Explain Deming’s Total Quality Management process through a diagram.

39. Explain the communication process with a flow chart.

40. Draw a bar graph for the fallowing data that represents result of 2nd PUC annual

examination from 2018 to 2023 academic year.
How much percentage of result has increased in the year 2023 when compared to 2020.
Year IInd PUC Result of a college
2018 60%
2019 65%
2020 70%
2021 95%
2022 75%
2023 90%
.
PART-E
VII. Answer any one of the following questions in 35-40 sentences each. 1*10=10
41. Explain the areas of individual difference.

42. Explain the reasons for mal-adjustment.

43. Find the mean, medium and mode for the following data.

CI f
50-54 2
45-49 2
40-44 5
35-39 6
30-34 4
25-29 3
20-24 2
N=24

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