UPSC CAPF AC 2025 Notification

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.09/2025-CAPF DATED: 05.03.2025

(LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION APPLICATIONS: 25.03.2025)
CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS)
EXAMINATION, 2025
(COMMISSION’S WEBSITE: https://www.upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility
conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination
will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has
been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up only after the
candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply online only by using the website
https://upsconline.gov.in. It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One
Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for
filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life
time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered,
he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination.

2.1 Modification in OTR Profile (Registration): -

In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be
allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at OTR platform. The option to change in
OTR profile data shall be available till expiry of 07 days from the next day after the closure of
application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. The
above will be subject to the following :-

(A) The following entries in the OTR profile are editable until the final submission of
application and thereafter during the correction window:

(a) Have you ever changed name?
(b) Gender
(c) Minority Status;
(d) Class 10th Board Examination Roll No.

(B) The candidates are NOT allowed to make any change(s) in the columns relating to the
following entries in the OTR profile:

(a) Name (as per Class X)
(b) Date of Birth
(c) Father’s Name
(d) Mother’s Name
(e) Mobile Number*
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(f) Email ID@

*If a candidate has lost access to his/her registered mobile number but he/she has the
access to his/her registered email ID, he/she can apply for change in the mobile number
and in this case, an OTP will be sent to the registered email ID.

@If a candidate has lost access to his/her registered email ID but has the access to
his/her registered mobile number, he/she can apply for change in the email ID and in this
case, an OTP will be sent to the registered mobile number.

(C)However, if a candidate reports that he/she has lost access to his/her registered mobile
number as well as registered email ID, the candidate will have to send a request to the
Commission for making necessary changes at the (email ID: [email protected]) along-with the
following four documents:

(a) Matriculation Certificate
(b) Aadhar Card or PAN Card or Passport or Driving License
(c) Recent passport size photograph
(d) Undertaking in prescribed format (as per APPENDIX-VII)

(D) In case, a candidate name has changed and there is a mismatch with the name given in
his/her matriculation or higher educational certificate, the candidate is required to submit a
Gazette Notification to that effect. However, if the Gazette Notification is not available with them
at present, they may upload the copy of the same during the window, which will be made
available to the candidates AFTER the declaration of the result of written part of the Exam.

(E) The candidates having Integrated Master Degree (Graduation and Post-graduation) may fill
the same course in their Graduation as well as higher qualification column.

(F) The candidates are advised to go through the entries made by them in relevant columns
before finally submitting the same. It may be noted that after submission of the application, the
changes/corrections, if any, in the entries in the Application Form, can be carried out only during
the one week correction window, (except for the entries in Para B), which will be provided by the
Commission after the closing date of the application.

2.2 Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile):

The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any
field(s) of the finally submitted online application form for this examination from next day of the
closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 07 days
from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from 26.03.2025 to 01.04.2025. In case a candidate
wants to carry out any change in his/her OTR Profile (Registration) during this period, then
he/she should log into the OTR Profile (Registration) platform and do the needful accordingly. In
other words, no change in the OTR Profile (Registration) can be made by visiting the window for
Modification in application form.

2.3 Withdrawal of Application: The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their
applications after submission of the same.

Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in Appendix-
II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.

2.4 Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter Card
(EPIC)/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the
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State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by
the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to
upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online
application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future referencing and the
candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for
Examination/Personality Test.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 25th March, 2025 till 18:00 Hours.

4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of
preceding week of the date of the Examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in
the UPSC website [https://upsconline.gov.in] for downloading by candidates. No
Admission Certificate will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid
and active E-Mail I.D. while filling up Online Application Form as the Commission may use
electronic mode for contacting them at different stages of examination process.

5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS (In Objective Type Question Paper):

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers
marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

6. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP OMR SHEETS:

(a) For both writing and marking answers in the OMR Sheets (Answer Sheet) candidates
must use black ball point pen only. Pens with any other colours are prohibited. Do not use Pencil
or Ink pen. Candidates are further advised to read Special Instructions contained in Appendix-III
of the Notice.
(b) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling in
details in the OMR answer sheet; especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series
Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.

7. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Candidates are advised to read carefully “Special Instructions to the Candidates for
Conventional Type Tests” (Appendix-IV).

8. HELPLINE FOR “CANDIDATE INTERACTIVE CELL/HELPDESK”:

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist candidates applying for
the Central Armed Police Force (ACs) Examination 2025. Candidates seeking clarification,
guidance, or assistance related to the application process or examination details can contact the
helpline at 011-24041001. The helpline will be operational from 10:00 AM to 5:30 PM on all
working days. Applicants may utilize this service for any issues relating to the application
process, including registration, fee payment, uploading of documents, etc.

9. Mobile Phones/other articles Banned:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera
or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched
off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly
prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban
from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item
including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as no
arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the Examination. Commission will not
be responsible for any loss in this regard.
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10. Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph while filling up online application
form:-

(a) The photograph, uploaded by candidate should not be more than 10 days old from the
start of the online application process (i.e. the application commencement date).
(b) Ensure that the name of candidate and the date on which the photograph was
taken are clearly mentioned on the photograph.
(c) The candidate’s face should occupy 3/4th of the space in the photograph.
(d) The candidates must ensure that their appearance must match with their photograph
at each stage of the Examination Process i.e. at the time of Written and Interview/Personality
Test. For instance, If a candidate uploads a bearded photograph, he must appear with the same
look in the Written and Interview/Personality Test. Same would be the case with spectacles,
moustaches, etc.

11. The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time at least 30
minutes prior to the commencement of each session of the Examination. No late entry will
be allowed inside the Exam-venue under any circumstances.

12. Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)

The Commission has introduced a time frame of 7 days (a week) i.e. from the next day of the
Examination Date to 6:00 p.m. of the 7th day is fixed for the candidates to make representations
to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination. Such
representation must be submitted through the “Online Question Paper Representation Portal
(QPRep)” only by accessing the URL https://upsconline.gov.in/miscellaneous/QPRep/ . No
representation by email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission
shall not involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation
shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of 7 days is over.

13. The existing pattern of the Central Armed Police Force (AC) Examination has been
revised. Therefore, candidates are requested to read the Notice and Rules of the
Examination carefully.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED
FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTSS GENDER BALANCE
AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.

No.11/03/2024-E.1(B) : The Union Public Service Commission will hold a Written Examination
on 03rd August, 2025 for recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Group A) in the Central Armed
Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF),
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra
Seema Bal (SSB). The Examination will be held in accordance with the Rules for the published by
Ministry of Home Affairs in the Gazette of India dated 05th March, 2025. The date of holding the
examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.

The tentative Examination number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the
examination is as follows:

(i) BSF 24
(ii) CRPF 204
(iii) CISF 92
(iv) ITBP 04
(iv) SSB 33
-----------------------------------------
Total 357

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-----------------------------------------

The number of vacancies mentioned above is liable to alteration.
Reservation will be given effect to as per policy of the Govt. 10% of the total vacancies are earmarked
for ex-servicemen.

NOTE: In case the vacancy(ies) reserved for Ex-servicemen remain unfilled due to non-
availability of eligible or qualified candidates, the same shall be filled by candidates from non-
ex-servicemen category.

2.1 Registration and Online Application Form:

2.1 (a) A candidate who is willing to apply for Central Armed Police Force (ACs)
Examination, 2025 shall be required to apply on-line and submit the
requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims,
such as date of birth, category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/Ex-Servicemen],
educational qualification, preferences of Forces etc. as may be sought by
the Commission along with the Online Application Form. The failure to
provide the required information/documents alongwith Registration and
Online Application Form will entail cancellation of candidature for the
examination.

2.1(b) The Commission shall provide a window of 15 (Fifteen) days from the date
of declaration of result of written part of Central Armed Police Forces
(Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2025 to the candidates qualified
for Physical Standards Tests/ Physical Efficiency Tests. The candidates as
per Note I below Rule 6 of Rules of CAPF (AC) Examination, 2025 shall be
required to update their details/educational qualification status (whether
appearing/appeared) and to produce/upload the proof of passing of the
requisite qualifying examination at the specified module/portal, failing
which such candidates will not be allowed to appear in the Interview/
Personality Test and his/her candidature will liable to be cancelled.

Note: In this period, all the candidates qualified for Physical Standards Tests/
Physical Efficiency Tests shall also be provided an option to update
Correspondence/ Permanent Postal Address, Higher Educational
Qualification, Achievement in different fields (if any), Employment
Details/Service Experience, details of the Service/Force allocated on the
basis of earlier/previous Central Armed Police Force (ACs) Examinations (if
any) and Preference of forces for the current examination. The details
updated in this window will be treated as final and no request for any
change in these fields received through any other mode will be entertained.

2.2 CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:

The Examination will be held at the following centres:

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The centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be
changed at the discretion of the Commission. Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling
on the number of candidates allotted to each of the Centres, except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata
and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the “first-apply-first allot” basis, and once the
capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a
Centre of their Choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones.
Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they may apply early so that they
could get a Centre of their choice.

NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the

S. No. Centres S. No. Centres S. No. Centres
1. AGARTALA 17. HYDERABAD 33. PANAJI (GOA)
2. AHMEDABAD 18. IMPHAL 34. PATNA
3. AIZAWL 19 ITANAGAR 35. PORT BLAIR
4. ALMORA(UTTARAKHAND) 20. JAIPUR 36. PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
5. BENGALURU 21. JAMMU 37. RAIPUR
6. BAREILLY 22. JORHAT 38. RANCHI
7. BHOPAL 23. KARGIL 39. SAMBALPUR
8. CHANDIGARH 24. KOCHI 40. SHILLONG
9. CHENNAI 25. KOHIMA 41. SHIMLA
10. CUTTACK 26. KOLKATTA 42. SRINAGAR
11. DEHRADUN 27. LEH 43. SRINAGAR(UTTARAKHAND)
12. DELHI 28. LUCKNOW 44. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
13. DHARAMSHALA (H.P.) 29. MADURAI 45. TIRUPATI
14. DHARWAR 30. MANDI (H.P.) 46. UDAIPUR
15. DISPUR 31. MUMBAI 47. VISHAKHAPATNAM
16. GANGTOK 32. NAGPUR
Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or
places of examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be
entertained. Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, other
Backward Classes and Economically Weaker Sections categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed
by the Government.

A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the
particular caste to which the candidates belong is included in the list of reserved communities
issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the benefit of the
Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by
the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility certification.

The OBC candidates applying for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2025 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy
Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2023-24, 2022-23 and 2021-22
and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after completion of FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing
date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination,
2025, i.e. 25.03.2025.

If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Central Armed Police Forces
(Assistant Commandants) Examination that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently
writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be
entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no
request shall be entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to
SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to
OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of the Examination
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on General Merit shall be allowed to change (on their request or as decided by the Commission/
Government based on the documents submitted by them) their category from Reserved to Unreserved
or claim the vacancies (Forces) for unreserved category after the declaration of final result by UPSC. In
case where such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be cancelled.

While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there
was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a
particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of
the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of community from general
to reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit.

Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/EWS/OBC must
ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the
Rules/Notice. They should also be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed
format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits by the Closing
date of the application. A candidate of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2025 will be eligible to get the benefit of
the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued
by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on
the income for Financial Year (FY) 2023-24 and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after completion of
FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing date of the application for Central Armed Police Forces
(Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2025, i.e. 25.03.2025.

As per the policy notified by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job
opportunities, the information of candidates who appeared in the final stage of Examination
(Interview / Personality Test) but not recommended, will be made accessible to any registered
Private Company, Public Sector Undertaking, Statutory and Autonomous organisations of
Government of India on the dedicated portal on the website of the Commission to identify suitable
candidates in line of their requirements for providing employment. Short biodata of the
candidates with their educational qualifications, contact numbers, details including their
percentile (not absolute or percentage marks), etc will also be made accessible on this dedicated
portal. The data available on this portal shall be restricted for the purpose of evaluation of
suitability of the candidates for employment purpose only to these registered organisations. These
lists will be made available after the Reserve List is utilized/exhausted after declaration of final
result. It may be noted that there is no option for partial disclosure and choice once opted cannot
be changed.

Candidates will be required to give their consent at the time of Interview/Personality Test,
while downloading the e-Summon letter from the Commission’s website for the interview. A
candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published
by the Commission.

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this
examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and
manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by these registered
organizations.

3. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS :

(I) Nationality : No person who is not a citizen of India shall, except with the consent of the
Central Government signified in writing be appointed or employed under these Rules.
Provided that nothing contained in these rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or
employment of a subject of Nepal or Bhutan under these Rules.

(II) Sex : Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant
Commandants.

(III) Age Limits :

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(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age
of 25 years on 1st August, 2025, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd
August, 2000 and not later than 1st August, 2005.
(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable.
(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe.
(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other
Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such
candidates.
(iii) upto a maximum of five years for Civilian Central Government Servants in
accordance with the existing instructions of the Central Government. Ex-
Servicemen will also be eligible for this relaxation. However the total relaxation
claimed on account of Government Service will be limited to five years.

Note I : Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other
Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clause of Para 3(III)(b) above,
viz. those coming under the category of Civilian Central Government Servants/Ex-
Servicemen, will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the
categories.

Note-II: The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in
the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended
from time to time and the instructions issued by the Government vide DoP&T’s OM
No.36012/3/2021-Estt. (Res.II) dated 27.02.2023, which provides, inter-alia, as
under:-
“Candidates working in the Armed Forces would become eligible for applying Civil posts
only when he completes the prescribed period of Armed Forces Service within a year
from the last date of receiving application in connection with Special Recruitment/
Examination, etc., prescribed by the Competent Authority.
Provided, when selection process takes more than one year, from the last
date of receiving of applications, the candidate will not be declared ineligible
under Ex-servicemen category only on the ground that he has got himself
released from Armed Forces after one year from the last date of receiving of
application.”
Such candidates are also required to be in possession of the prescribed certificate and
the Undertaking as at Appendix-VI(A) and VI(B) of this Notice, by the closing date of the
application, i.e. by 25.03.2025.

Note-III: The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” in Para 3(b)(iii) above will apply to
persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services
(Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time.

Note-IV: The age concession under Para 3(II)(b)(iii) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a
person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the
Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired
or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved
by the employer after earning his or her pension. The term “Civilian Central
Government Servants” will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants”
in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as
amended from time to time.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED.

Note-V : The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or
Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian
University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of
Matriculates maintained by a University, which must be certified by the proper
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authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination
certificate. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts
from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The
expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the
instructions includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
NOTE-VI: Candidates should also note that once Date of Birth has been submitted by them in
the application form and entered in records of the Commission for the purpose of
admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other
Examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.

(IV) Minimum Educational Qualifications: A candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree of a
University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational
institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under
Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.
NOTE 1 : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render
them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the
results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year
2025 will also be eligible for admission to the examination.

However, all such candidates, who after qualifying on the result of the written part of the
examination, are declared qualified by the Commission for Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency
Tests, will be required to produce proof of passing of the requisite qualifying examination within the
time limit prescribed in Sub-Rules 9.1 and 9.2 of Rule 15 of CAPF (AC), Exam, 2025.
Only valid proof of passing the qualifying examination viz. Degree Certificate/Final Mark
Sheet/Provisional Degree Certificate etc. as are normally issued to the candidate by the competent
authority after the formal declaration of results by the University/Boards may be accepted.

NOTE II : In exceptional cases, the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who
does not have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate, provided that he/she
has passed an examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the
opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised
by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for
admission to the examination.
V. Restriction on re-appearance of candidates finally selected/ recommended earlier:
A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of
Assistant Commandants in any of the forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces
(Assistant Commandants) Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination
for recruitment of Assistant Commandants in the participating CAPFs.
VI. Physical Standards : Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical Standards
for admission to Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants), Examination, 2025
specified in Appendix-V of the Notice.
VII. Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificates :
Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These qualifications
will be given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only.

4. FEE:

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee)
are required to pay fee of Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by remitting the money in
any Branch of State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI
Payment or by using Internet Banking of any Bank. Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode
should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the
counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at
23.59 hours of 24.03.2025 i.e. one day before the closing date; however applicants who have
generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is deactivated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during
banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing
date i.e during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-in-
slip will have no other offline option but to opt for available online Debit/Credit Card/UPI
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Payment or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 18:00 Hours of
25.03.2025.

Note: 1. Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the
modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.
Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall
be summarily rejected.

Note: 2. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in
reserve for any other examination or selection.

Note: 3. For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the
bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the
first instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission’s website
within two weeks after the last day of submission of Online Application. The applicants shall be
required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such
communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary
proof, genuine fee payment cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they
are otherwise eligible.

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/
SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS,
HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED TO PAY
THE FULL PRESCRIBED FEE.

5. HOW TO APPLY :

(a) Candidates are required to apply Online using the link https://upsconline.gov.in.

(i) It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time
Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then
proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be
registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the
year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for
filling up the online application for the examination.

(ii) Modification in OTR Profile (Registration) :

In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall
be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at OTR platform. The option to
change in OTR profile data shall be available till expiry of 07 days from the next day after
the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of
the Commission.The above will be subject to the following :-

(A) The following entries in the OTR profile are editable until the final
submission of application and thereafter during the correction window:
(a) Have you ever changed name?
(b) Gender
(c) Minority Status;
(d) Class 10th Board Examination Roll No.

(B) The candidates are NOT allowed to make any change(s) in the columns
relating to the following entries in the OTR profile:
(a) Name (as per Class X)
(b) Date of Birth
(c) Father’s Name
10

(d) Mother’s Name
(e) Mobile Number*
(f) Email ID@

*If a candidate has lost access to his/her registered mobile number but he/she
has the access to his/her registered email ID, he/she can apply for
change in the mobile number and in this case, an OTP will be sent to
the registered email ID.

@If a candidate has lost access to his/her registered email ID but has the
access to his/her registered mobile number, he/she can apply for
change in the email ID and in this case, an OTP will be sent to the
registered mobile number.

(C) However, if a candidate reports that he/she has lost access to his/her
registered mobile number as well as registered email ID, the candidate will
have to send a request to the Commission for making necessary changes at the
(email ID: [email protected]) along-with the following four documents:

(a) Matriculation Certificate
(b) Aadhar Card or PAN Card or Passport or Driving License
(c) Recent passport size photograph
(d) Undertaking in prescribed format (as per APPENDIX-VII)

(D) In case, a candidate name has changed and there is a mismatch with
the name given in his/her matriculation or higher educational certificate, the
candidate is required to submit a Gazette Notification to that effect. However, if
the Gazette Notification is not available with them at present, they may upload
the copy of the same during the window, which will be made available to the
candidates AFTER the declaration of the result of written part of the Exam.

(E) The candidates having Integrated Master Degree (Graduation and Post-
graduation) may fill the same course in their Graduation as well as higher
qualification column.

(F) The candidates are advised to go through the entries made by them in
relevant columns before finally submitting the same. It may be noted that after
submission of the application, the changes/corrections, if any, in the entries in
the Application Form, can be carried out only during the one week correction
window, (except for the entries in Para B), which will be provided by the
Commission after the closing date of the application.

(iii) Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile Registration):

The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s)
in any field(s) of the Online application form for this examination from next day of the
closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open
for 07 days from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from 26.03.2025 to
01.04.2025. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her OTR
profile (Registration) during this period, then he/she should log into the OTR
11

(Registration) platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in
the OTR profile (Registration) can be made by visiting the window for Modification in
application form.

(iv) Withdrawal of Application:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after
submission of the same.

Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above
mentioned website.
‘No’ queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect of
correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due
diligence and caution as the timely completion of examination process is of paramount
importance.

(b) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, Government owned industrial
undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their
applications direct to the Commission.
Persons already in Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work-
charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public
Enterprises are however, required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they
have applied for the Examination.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the
Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination,
their application will be liable to be rejected/ candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 1: While filling in his/her Online Application Form, the candidate should carefully decide
about his/her choice for the Centre for the Examination.
If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her
e-Admit Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be evaluated and his/her candidature will
be liable to cancellation.

NOTE 2: Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or
correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances.

NOTE 3: Candidates are not required to submit Hard Copy of their applications to the
Commission at this stage.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of
examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination,
Physical Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET), Interview/Personality Test and
Medical Standards Tests will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written
Examination, Physical Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Interview/Personality Test and Medical Standards Tests, it is found that they do not fulfill
any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by
the Commission.

If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they will render themselves liable to
disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 14 of the Rules for the Central Armed
Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2025 reproduced below :

(1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or

12

(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct
of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered
with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of
actual photo/signature; or
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination,
namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to
the examination; or
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts;
or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow
examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for
the conduct of the examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or
any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related
accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a
communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission
certificates permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of
the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission
from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either
permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service
under Government;
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :-
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as
the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period
allowed for this purpose, into consideration.
(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in
committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m)
above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above.

Note: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be allowed to
continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination
functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in consultation with the
Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of
the said examination.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS :

(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 25th March, 2025 till 18:00 Hours, after which the
link will be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is available at
Appendix-II.

13

(ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission
of the same.

7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION:

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their
candidature except in the following cases:

(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of preceding
week of the date of the Examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC
website [ https://upsc.gov.in/ ] for downloading by candidates. No paper Admit Card will be
sent by post. If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other
communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination three days before the
commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission.
Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s office either in person or “Candidate
Interactive Cell/Helpdesk” over phone no. 011-24041001. In case no communication is
received in the Commission’s office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-
Admit Card at least three days before the commencement of the examination, he/she
himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.
No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-
Admit Card for the examination. On the receipt of e-Admit Card, candidates should check
it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.
The candidates should note that their admission to the examination would be purely provisional
based on the information given by them in the application form. This will be subjected to
verification of all the eligibility conditions by the UPSC.
The mere fact that an e-Admit Card to the Examination has been issued to a candidate will
not imply that the Commission has finally cleared his/her candidature or that the
Commission has accepted entries made by the candidate in his/her application for the
Examination as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission will take up
the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original
documents, only after the candidate has qualified the Central Armed Police Forces
(Written) Examination. Unless the Commission formally confirms candidature, it continues
to be provisional.
The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to
the Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in
some cases may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
(ii) The candidates must ensure that their E-Mail IDs given in their Online Applications are valid
and active as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them
at different stages of examination processes.
(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address stated in his/her
application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the
Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the Commission make every effort to take
account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the matter.
(iv) Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of
an e-Admit Card issued in respect of another candidate.
IMPORTANT : ALL COMMUNICATIONS TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY CONTAIN
THE FOLLOWING PARTICULARS.
1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION
2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID)
3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)
4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)
5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.
6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL ID.
N.B.I : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. Candidates
are strongly advised to keep a print out or soft copy of their online application for future
references.

14

8. SERVICE/FORCE ALLOCATION:

Service/Force Allocation will be made on the basis of position in the Merit List and the
Service/Force Preferences, which will have to be indicated by the candidates at the time of filling
up the Online Application Form. Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to
the post of Assistant Commandants.

Alongwith the Online Application Form scanned documents in support of date of birth, category
(viz., SC/ST/OBC {OBC Annexure (for OBC category only)}/ EWS {EWS Annexure (for EWS
category only)/ Ex-servicemen} and other requisite documents are required to be mandatorily
submitted. Any delay in submission of the Online Application Form or documents in support
beyond the prescribed date will not be allowed and will lead to cancellation of the candidature for
the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2025.
The Application Form and/or supporting documents sent through any mode other than the
online mode, as may be made available by the UPSC on its website, will not be accepted.

9. OTHER DETAILS:

For other details regarding the Examination, the candidates may refer to the Appendices
as specified below :
(a) Selection Procedure/Scheme and Syllabus of Examination Appendix-I
(b) Instructions to candidates for filling up the Online Application Form Appendix-II
(c) Special Instructions for Objective Type Tests Appendix-III
(d) Special Instructions for Conventional Type Tests Appendix-IV
(e) Physical and Medical Standards Appendix-V

(Jitendra Kumar Mandal)
Under Secretary
Union Public Service Commission

APPENDIX - I
SELECTION PROCEDURE/SCHEME AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
(A) Selection Procedure/Scheme: -
The Selection Procedure/Scheme of the Examination will be as follows:
(i) Written Examination: The written examination to be conducted by Union Public Service
Commission will be held on 03rd August, 2025 and will comprise two papers. Paper I will be held
from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 Noon and Paper II will be held from 2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence - 250 Marks
The questions in this paper will be of Objective (Multiple Answers) Type in which the questions
will be set in English as well as Hindi.
Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension - 200 Marks
In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or
Hindi, but the medium of Precis Writing, Comprehension Components and other
communications/language skills will
be English only.
NOTE-I : Candidates should ensure that in Paper II they write the answers only in the medium
allowed by the Commission for the different Components as mentioned above. No credit will be
given for answers written in a medium other than the one allowed in the Paper. Candidates will
be required to indicate the medium of Essay Component in the Attendance Lists and on the
Answer Book. No credit will be given for the Essay Component if the candidate indicates a
medium on the Attendance List and on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has
written the Essay.
NOTE-II: There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by
the Commission in their discretion. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will
be done only of those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.
(ii) Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests:
Candidates who are declared qualified in the written examination will be summoned for Physical
Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests. Those candidates who meet the prescribed Physical

15

Standards as specified in Appendix-VI, will be put through the Physical Efficiency Tests as
indicated below :
Physical Efficiency Tests (PET)
Males Females
(a) 100 Meters race In 16 seconds In 18 seconds
(b) 800 Meters race In 3 minutes 45 seconds In 4 minutes 45 seconds
(c) Long Jup 3.5 Meters 3.0 meters
(3 chances) (3 chances)
(d) Shot Put (7.26 Kgs.) 4.5 Meters —
(3 chances)

On reporting of female candidates for PST (Physical Standard Test)/PET (Physical Efficiency Test),
a self declaration indicating about her pregnancy status shall be submitted. In case, if she declares
that she is not pregnant then she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET. In case of false
declaration, all the risk for undergoing PST/PET will be of her own. If the female candidate declares
that she is pregnant before PST/PET, then a confirmatory pregnancy test to be done and in case she is
found to be pregnant, irrespective of duration of pregnancy, she may be declared temporarily unfit and
her appointment shall be held in abeyance until the confinement is over. The vacancy against which a
woman candidate was selected should be kept reserved for her. She will be re-examined for PST/PET
six weeks after the date of confinement was over, subject to the production of the medical certificate of
fitness from a registered medical practitioner. If she is found fit in PST/PET & DME, she may be
appointed to the post kept reserved for and allow the benefit of seniority in accordance with the
instructions of the Government, as amended from time to time. In case female candidates are found
negative for pregnancy, she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET.

It is further provided that the pregnancy and the temporary unfitness due to the same, will
not be a bar for her to appear in the Interview/ Personality Test along with other candidates as
per the PT Schedule finalized by the Commission and her absence from the Interview/ PT, will
entail cancellation of her candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2025.

The Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests will be conducted under the
supervision of a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These tests will
be conducted at various centres to be notified after the results of the written examination.
(iii) Interview/Personality Test : Candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical
Standards Tests (PST) /Physical Efficiency Tests (PET), will be called for Interview/Personality
Test to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission. Candidates who are declared
unqualified in the Physical Efficiency Test will not be called for Interview/Personality Tests. The
Interview/Personality Test will carry 150 Marks.
(iv) Medical Standards Tests :
Medical Standards Tests, to check the standards specified in Appendix-V, will be
conducted only in respect of candidates who have appeared in the Interview/ Personality Test.
The Medical Standards Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to be
appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Appeals will be entertained only against the Medical Standards Tests and will have to be made to
the Appellate Authority designated by the Ministry of Home Affairs within 24 Hours after
declaration of the results DME.
(v) Final Selection / Merit : The merit list will be drawn on the basis of marks obtained by the
candidates in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test.
(vi) Further, any candidate who after Medical Standard Tests (MST) is found not to satisfy
the requirements as per prescribed standards will not be appointed.

(B) Syllabi of the Written Papers:-
Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence
The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following
areas:
1. General Mental Ability
The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including
numerical ability, and data interpretation.
2. General Science

16

The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and
appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance
like Information Technology, Biotechnology, Environmental Science.
3. Current Events of National and International Importance:
The questions will test the candidates’ awareness of current events of national and international
importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and
developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation, and interplay among nations.
4. Indian Polity and Economy:
The questions shall aim to test candidates’ knowledge of the Country’s political system and the
Constitution of India, social systems and public administration, economic development in India,
regional and international security issues and human rights including its indicators.
5. History of India :
The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects. This
shall also include the areas of growth of nationalism and freedom movement.
6. Indian and World Geography:
The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to
India and the World.
Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension
Part-A – Essay questions which are to be answered in long narrative form either in Hindi or
English totaling 80 Marks. The indicative topics are modern Indian history especially of the
freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy, knowledge of security and human rights issues,
and analytical ability.
Part-B – Comprehension, précis writing, other communications/language skills – to be attempted
in English only (Marks 120) – The topics are Comprehension passages, précis writing, developing
counter arguments, simple grammar and other aspects of language testing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

APPENDIX- II

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATIONS

Candidates are required to apply Online using the website https://upsconline.gov.in/.

Salient features of the system of Online Application Form are given hereunder:

• Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above
mentioned website.

• Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application Form containing four
stages viz. Part-I (OTR) Profile , Part-II (Application Form), Part-III (DAF) & Part-IV (Fees,
Photograph, Signature & Examination Centre Selection).

• The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only)
[excepting SC/ST/Female candidates who are exempted from payment of fee] either by
remitting the money in any branch of State Bank of India by cash, or by using any
Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using net banking of any
Bank.

 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and
signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not
exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and
signature.

 The candidate should have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/Voter Card
(EPIC)/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving License/Any other photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the
17

candidate while filling up the online application form. This photo ID will be used for all
future references and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for the
examination.

 The Online applications (Part I, Part-II, Part-III and Part-IV) can be filled from 05th
March, 2025 to 25th March, 2025 till 18:00 Hrs.

• The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing
their valid and active E-Mail IDs as the Commission may use electronic mode of
communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.

• The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that
the e-mail address ending with @nic.in and @gov.in are directed to their inbox folder and
not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.

• Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for
the last date for submission of Online Applications.

 Applicants should not submit multiple applications.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
APPENDIX- III
Special Instruction to candidates for objective type tests
1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality black ball pen for
making responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be
supplied by the invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g.
books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and
drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets, rough sheets
pertaining to earlier session(s), etc.
Mobile phones or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the
premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these
instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the
banned items including mobile phones etc. to the venue of the examination, as
arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.

3. Penalty for wrong Answers (in Objective Type Papers)
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED
BYA CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS .
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above for that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidates shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to
be copied nor give nor attempt to give not obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance
of any description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall

18

No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the
Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
6. Answer Sheet Particulars
(i) Write in black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by Test Booklet series (in bracket),
subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the Answer Sheet at the
top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C or D as the case may be), subject code and
roll number with black ball pen in the circles provided for the purpose in the Answer
Sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and encoding the above particulars
are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the Test Booklet or
Answer Sheet is unnumbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet replaced.
(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of
details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet
Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the Test Booklet
supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so,
get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet of the same series and subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for,
on the Answer Sheet/Test Booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do
not write anything on the reverse of the Answer Sheet.
9. Since the Answer Sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should
exercise due care in handling and filling up the Answer Sheets. They should use black ball
pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen.
Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into
account while evaluating the Answer Sheet on computerised machines, they should
make these entries very carefully and accurately. The candidate must mark responses
in the Answer Sheet with good quality black ball pen.
10. Method of marking answers
In the "OBJECTIVE TYPE" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each
question (hereinafter referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter referred
to as "Responses") are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question
paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing
numbers 1, 2, 3 etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your
task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct
response, then choose what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select more than one
response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. from 1
to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d).
After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given
responses is correct or the best, you have to mark your response by completely
blackening to indicate your response.
Ink pen or pencil should not be used for blackening the circle on the Answer Sheet.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b)
is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :-
Example : (a) (c) (d)
11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against
their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below :-
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet serial No. and also blacken the corresponding circles below
v) Append signature in the relevant column
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate
indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he will render himself liable for disciplinary
action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.
13. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of
prescribed time period of the examination.
19

Annexure
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in
the
Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the Answer
Sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result
in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible.
Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various
particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that it is
numbered at the bottom. If it is found unnumbered he/she should at once get it
replaced by a numbered one .।
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which
reads thus:
क वषय वषय कोड अन मांक
------- -------- ------------- -----------
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the General Studies
Paper and your Roll No. is 081276 and your Test Booklet series is ‘A’, you should fill in
thus, using ball pen.
* This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to the Examination concerned.
क वषय वषय कोड अन मांक
------- -------- ------------- 9 9 ----------- 0 8 1 2 7 6
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
DELHI General
Ability
You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or
Hindi. The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right
hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card in the boxes provided for
this purpose. Do not omit black pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now
encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles
provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be
done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same.
For General Ability subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the
subject code, which is 99. Do it thus.

पिु तका म वषय कोड
Booklet Series (A) Subject Code 9 9
------------------------ --------------------------

0 0

B 1 1

> 2 2
C
3 3
D
4 4

5 5
6 6

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7 7

8 8

All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the
Booklet Series and below the subject code blacken completely the Circles for ‘9’ (in the
first vertical column) and ’9’ (in the second vertical column). You should then encode the
Roll No. 081276. Do it thus similarly.

अनु मांक
Roll Numbers

0 8 1 2 7 6

0 0 0 0 0 Important : Please ensure that you have
1 1 1 1 1 have carefully encoded your subject, Test
2 2 2 2 2 Booklet Series and Roll Number.

3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 * This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to your Examination .

5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
APPENDIX- IV
Special instructions to Candidates for Conventional Type papers
1. Answers to be written in own hand
Write the answers in your own hand in ink. Pencil may be used for rough work.
2. Check Answer Book
The candidate must write his/her roll number (and not his/her name) only in the space provided
for the purpose on every answer book used by him/her. Before writing in the answer book,
please see that it is complete. In case there are any missing pages, it should be got replaced.
Do not tear out any pages from the Answer Book. If you use more than one Answer Book,
indicate on the cover of first Answer Book the total number of Answer Books used. Do not leave
any blank, unused spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, score them out.
3. Answers in excess of prescribed number will be ignored
The candidate must attempt questions strictly in accordance with the directions given on each
question paper. If questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed number only questions
attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued and the remaining answers will be
ignored.
4. Questions relating to précis should be attempted only on précis sheets to be supplied on
demand by the invigilators. Precis sheet, whether used or not, should be placed inside the
answer books and fastened along with the additional answer book(s), if any. Candidates who fail
to observe this instruction will be penallised. Do not write your roll number on these sheets.
5. Unfair means strictly prohibited
Do not copy from the papers of any other candidates nor allow your papers to be copied nor give
nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. It
will be responsibility of every candidate to ensure that his/her answers are not copied by another
candidate. Failure to do so will invite penalty, as may be awarded by the Commission for
adoption of unfair means.
6. Conduct in Examination Hall

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Do not misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the examination hall or harass or
bodily harm the staff deployed for the conduct of examination. You will be severely penalized if
you attempt to do so.
7. Please read carefully and abide by the instructions printed on the Question Paper and on
the Answer Book supplied in the Examination Hall.

APPENDIX- V
PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF
ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS IN THE CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES.

APPENDIX- V(A)

(1) Physical Standards:
The minimum requirements for the candidate are as follows:
Men Women
Height 165 cm 157 cm
Chest 81 cm (Not applicable)
(unexpanded) (with 5 cm minimum
expansion)
Weight 50 kg. 46 kg.
Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in Appendix-II(B).
(2) Medical Standards:
(a) Eye Sight:
Better eye Worse eye
(corrected vision) (corrected vision)
Distant vision 6/6 6/12
OR
6/9 6/9
Near Vision N6 N9
(corrected) (corrected)
With Glasses/LASIK Surgery*
Limits of Refractive -4.00 D (including cylinder) Myopia
errors permitted +4.00 D (including cylinder) Hypermetropia
Colour Perception-III (CP-III) by ISIHARA plates.
* LASIK surgery correction is permitted subject to prescribed criteria as below :-
a) Age - 18-35 years
b) Axial-length - 21-26 mm.
c) Corneal-thickness 425 micron
d) Pre LASIK error - 6D
e) Post operative - Should be stable
period refractive flap
f) Interval - 06 months (post operative period mandatory
(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while
considering for recruitment in CAPFs).
(b) Carrying angle:
Carrying angle should not be more than 15˚ for male and 20˚ for female.
(c) Ear:
i) Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge.
ii) Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like atresia
of the meatus, exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of ear passage and
should not have history of recurrent earache, tinnitus and vertigo.
(d) Nose: Candidates should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular ulceration,
chronic sinusitis.
(e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or other swelling of
neck, inability to extend the neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical
vertebrae.
(f) Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient
mastication. Candidate should not have severe pyorrhea.
(g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should
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not have active signs of clinical VD.
(h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like Leprosy,
chronic dermatitis, extensive Pityriasis Versicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc.
(3) General Standards:
a) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering.
b) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type of arthritis,
high blood pressure, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease.
c) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in the body.
d) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, Pigeon chest, with
rickety rosary efects. Heart and lungs should be sound.
e) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall be perfect
motion of all joints.
f) Should not have any old/mal united fracture of bones.
g) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints.
h) Feet and toes should be well formed
i) Should not have congenital malformation or defects.
(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for
recruitment in CAPFs).
j) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired
constitution.
k) Candidate should have no disease of the genito urinary tract.
l) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia.
m) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size.
n) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins.
o) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to
interfere with the efficient performance of the duties.
(4) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per minute) or
BRADYCARDIA (Less than 50 per minute).
(5) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum.
(6) Tattoo Clause:
(a) Content : Being a secular country, the religious sentiments of our countrymen are to be
respected and thus, tattoos depicting religious symbol or figures and the name, as
followed in Indian Army are to be permitted.
(b) Location : Tattoos marked on traditional sites of the body like inner aspect of forearm but
only left forearm, being non saluting limb or dorsum of the hands are to be allowed.
(c) Size : Size must be less than ¼ of the particular part (Elbow or Hand) of the body.
Note : 1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued
by MHA UO dated 20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO’s and NGO’s in the CAPFs & AR
and Review Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniforms
guidelines for RME in CAPFs & ARs for GO’s & NGO’s vide MHA UO No.E-
32012/ADG(Med)/DME&RME/ DA-1/2020 (Part File)/1166 dated 31.05.2021.
2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard
Tests. Those candidates who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests will
be allowed to appear before the Review Medical Board preferably on the next day of
Detailed Medical Examination.

APPENDIX- V(B)

Male Average Body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups and Heights
Height in CMs Age in years
18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
156 44-54 46-56 47-58 48-59
158 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5
160 46-56 47.5-58.5 49.5-60.5 50.5-61.5
162 47-58 49-60 50.5-61.5 52-63
164 48-59 50-61 52-63.5 53-65
166 49.5-60.5 51.5-62.5 53-65 54.5-66.5
168 51-62 52.5-64.5 54.5-66.5 56-68
170 52-64 54-66 56-68 57.5-70.5
172 54-66 55.5-67.5 57-70 59-72
174 55-67 57-70 59-72 61-74.5
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176 56.5-69 58.5-71.5 60.5-73.5 62-76
178 57.5-70.5 60-73 61.5-75.5 63.5-77.5
180 59--72 61-75 63.5-77.5 65.5-80
182 61-74.5 62.5-76.5 65-79 66.5-81.5
184 63-77 64.5-78.5 66.5-81.5 68.5-83.5
186 63.5-77.5 65.5-80.5 68-83 70-86
188 65-79 67.5-82.5 70-85.5 71.5-87.5
190 66-81 68.5-83.5 70.5-86.5 72.5-88.5

Female Average body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups - Heights
Height in Age in years
CMs 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
148 34.5-42.5 37-45 38.5-47 39.5-48.5
150 36.5-44.5 37.5-45.5 39-48 40.5-49.5
153 38-46 39-48 41-50 42-51
155 38.5-47.5 40-49 41.5-50.5 43-52.5
158 40.5-49.5 42-51 43-53 44.5-54.5
160 41.5-50.5 43-52.5 44-54 45.5-54.5
163 43-52.5 44-54 46-56 47-57
165 44-54 45.5-55.5 47-58 48.5-59.5
168 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5
 The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights (in cms). In
respect of height in between, the principle of ‘Average’ may be utilized for calculating body
weights.
 For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm of
increase or decrease in height may be added or subtracted respectively.

APPENDIX- VI
APPENDIX- VI(A)
PROFORMA OF CERTIFICATE FOR EMPLOYED OFFICIALS
1. It is informed that Shri/Kum./Smt. ……………….. working as …………….. (Rank) in …………….
(Unit/ Office) has applied for the post of ……………….. as advertised by ……………………… (name
of recruiting agency) vide Advt. No………………….. dated …………
2. I hereby, with the information available, certify in respect of Shri/Kum./Smt. …………………..
(Name) No………………. (Rank), as follows :-
i. He/She will be completing the prescribed period of engagement of ……………. Years (in
words) for acquiring Ex-servicemen status, subject to fulfillment of other conditions, on
…………. (date). Shri/Kum./Smt. …………….. shall complete …………….. years of service (in
words) on the date of No Objection Certificate and ____________ years of service (in words) at
the time of leaving of military service.
ii. He/She will be released on selection to the post.
Commanding Officer
Place : (Signature)
Dated :
Office Seal

APPENDIX – VI(B)
FORM OF UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR CIVIL POSTS
UNDER EX-SERVICEMEN CATEGORY

I understand that, if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which this
application relates, my appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to the
satisfaction of Appointing Authority that I have been duly released/retired/discharged from the
Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to ex-servicemen in terms of the

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Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended
from time to time.
2. I also understand that as per DoPT OM No.36034/1/2014-Estt.(Res.) dated 14.8.2014, if I
apply for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, I can avail of the benefit of
reservation as Ex-servicemen for any subsequent employment provided that to avail of this
benefit, as soon as I join any civil employment, I should give self-declaration/undertaking to the
concerned employer about date-wise details of application for various vacancies for which I had
applied for before joining the initial civil employment, in respect of vacancies which are filled on
direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-servicemen.

Signature of the candidate
Place :
Dated :
*************

APPENDIX-VII

UNDERTAKING FOR REGISTRATION OF NEW MOBILE NUMBER AND EMAIL ID IN THE OTR
PROFILE

TO WHOMSOEVER IT MAY CONCERN

I, ……………………….. son/daughter of ………………………, undertake that I have applied for the
………………Exam, YYYY, with the following details and that I have lost access to my registered
mobile number as well as to my registered email ID. I have attached the necessary supporting
documents as proof of my claim. I declare that the information provided by me is true, and in
case of any discrepancy found later, I will be fully responsible. I understand that this correction is
subject to verification and approval by the authorities.

My details are as under:

Name :

Father’s Name :

Date of Birth :

Registered Mobile No.:

Registered Email ID:

New Mobile No. to be registered:

New Email ID to be registered:

Yours sincerely,

[Signature]
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Name………………………

List of documents attached:

(a) Matriculation Certificate
(b) Aadhar Card or PAN Card or Passport or Driving License
(c) Recent passport size photograph

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