UPSC CAPF AC 2026 Notification

CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION, 2026
EXAMINATION NOTICE NO. 08/2026-CAPF DATED: 20.02.2026
LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION: 12.03.2026
(THE COMMISSION’S WEBSITE: https://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR THE CANDIDATES

The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for registration and filling up of
application form online, has four cards/modules, three of which namely, Account Creation, Universal
Registration and Common Application Form are common to all examination applications and can be filled
anytime by the candidate, while the fourth card/module is Examination Specific and can be filled during the
time period allowed in notification of an examination. Applicants are required to apply online by using the
website https://upsconline.nic.in.

Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a Universal Registration Number
(URN) is generated which is common for all the examinations of the Commission. After filling up of the
Examination Specific Form, Application Number is generated which is examination specific and is to be
retained by the applicant along with the URN for any future communication with the Commission. The URN has
to be registered only once in lifetime. While the URN will be unique and remain constant, the Application
Number will be dynamic in nature and will vary from examination to examination.

Detailed instructions are available on the home page of the portal as well as with all profiles/modules
to guide the candidates for filling up of the application form and uploading the documents. Candidates are
advised to first go through these Instructions carefully and prepare requisite documents in advance to have a
smooth flow during filling up of form and document uploading.

Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for easy, effortless and
seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All the candidates (male/female) are requested to carefully read the Rules of Central Armed Police Forces
(ACs) Examination, 2026 [CAPF(ACs) Exam, 2026] notified by the Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) and
this Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that
they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of the
examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of
Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by
the Commission. The Commission takes up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original
documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.
Candidates are advised to go through the General instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions
for uploading of documents before proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for CAPF (ACs)
Exam, 2026 shall be required to submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various
claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the
Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination
Specific Module (including fees and centres etc.). Failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith
the Common Application Form (CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

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NOTE-1: One-time Edit Facility for URN Profile:
The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal
Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be
reflected in application already submitted. The updated information will apply only to application
submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN
Profile.

NOTE -2: Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):
Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live photograph while
filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that the uploaded photograph
and the live photograph captured are clear as per instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs >
Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available on the Commission’s website:
https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE -3: Uploading of Signature:
Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white paper using
black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). The uploaded
signatures should be clear and legible. The Candidates are advised to refer to the instruction for
uploading the signature available under “Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s website:
https://upsconline.nic.in.

2.1 WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after submission of the same.
Further no correction/alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application Form is allowed after
submission.
Brief instructions for filling up the online Application have been given in Appendix-II.
2.2 The candidates should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card (EPIC)/PAN
Card/Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of
this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number
(URN) Profile. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is advised to carry this
Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:

The Online Application can be filled upto 12th March, 2026 till 18:00 hours.

4. ISSUANCE OF e-ADMIT CARD:

The eligible candidates will be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of preceding week of the
date of the Examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the Commission’s website
[https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by the candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post or email. All the
applicants are requested to provide valid and active email ID, while creating account as the Commission may use
electronic mode for contacting them.

5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be a penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a
candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

6. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP OMR SHEETS:

(a) For both writing and marking answers in the OMR Sheets (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball point
pen only. Pens with any other colours are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates are further
advised to read Special Instructions contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.

(b) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling in details in the OMR answer
sheet; especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for
rejection.

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7. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Candidates are advised to read carefully “Special Instructions to the Candidates for Conventional Type
Papers” (Appendix-IV).

8. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATES:

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the candidates during the application
process. Candidates seeking clarification, guidance, or assistance related to the application process or
examination details can contact the helpline no. 011-24041001 or email ID –[email protected]. The helpline
will be operational from 10:00 AM to 5:30 PM on all working days during the application window i.e from
20.02.2026 to 12.03.2026. Applicants may utilize this service for any issues relating to the application
process, including fee payment, uploading of documents, etc.

9. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable
device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a
communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions
shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones,
pagers or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be
made at the venue of the Examination. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

10. REPORTING AT EXAMINATION VENUE:

The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time at least 30 minutes prior to
the commencement of each session of the Examination. No late entry will be allowed inside the Exam-
venue under any circumstances.

11. FACE AUTHENTICATION FOR CANDIDATES AT THE EXAMINATION VENUE:

In order to ensure a secure and smooth examination process, all the candidates will be required to
undergo face authentication at the examination venue mandatorily. The candidates are advised to enter the
examination venue well in time for face authentication/identity verification and frisking.

12. ONLINE QUESTION PAPER REPRESENTATION PORTAL (QPRep):

The Commission will be providing an opportunity to the appeared candidates to make representations
to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination and on the Answer Key of the
Question Paper(s) (Objective Type) of this examination in a time frame of five (05) days i.e. from the 3 rd day of
the Examination date to 06:00 PM of the 7th day. The appeared candidates may login to the Commission’s
website https://upsconline.nic.in and submit their representation(s), if any, on Question Paper(s) under the
header ‘Examinations > Representations on Question Paper’. No representation by email/post/hand or by any
other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not involve into any correspondence with the
candidates in this regard. No representation shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of
five (05) days is over.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF
APPLICATION.

GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN
CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.

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No. 11/03/2025/E.IB: The Union Public Service Commission will hold a Written Examination on 19th July 2026 for
recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force
(BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). The Examination will be held in accordance with the Rules published by Ministry
of Home Affairs in the Gazette of India dated 20th February, 2026. The date of holding the examination as mentioned
above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.
The tentative number of vacancies to be filled on the basis of results of the examination is as follows:
(i) BSF 108
(ii) CRPF 106
(iii) ITBP 12
(iv) SSB 53
(v) CISF 70
-----------------------------------------
Total 349
-----------------------------------------
The number of vacancies mentioned above is liable to alteration.
Reservation will be given effect to as per policy of the Govt. 10% of the total vacancies are earmarked for Ex-
servicemen.
2.1 REGISTRATION AND ONLINE APPLICATION FORM:

2.1(a). A candidate who is willing to apply for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 shall be required to apply online and
submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth,
category [viz. SC/ST/OBC/ EWS/Ex-Servicemen], educational qualification, preferences of Services/Forces
etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Common Application Form. For detailed
instructions for filling up the form, the Notice for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 may be referred. The failure to
provide the required information/document s alongwith Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile ,
Common Application Form (CAF) and Exam Specific Form will entail cancellation of candidature for the
examination.
NOTE: The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/ changes are allowed in the Online
Application Form in any circumstances once submitted. However, the Commission provides a one-time
facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note
that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The
updated information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary
changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.
2.1 (b) The Commission shall provide a window of Fifteen (15) days after the date of declaration of result of written part
of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026. All the candidates qualified for Physical Standards Tests/ Physical Efficiency Tests shall be
required to mandatorily login to the portal (https://upsconline.nic.in) during this period and shall be required to update
their details/educational qualification status (whether appearing/appeared) alongwith proof of passing the requisite
qualifying examination, and upload the relevant documents as proof of their claim, failing which, such candidates will not
be allowed to participate in the further stages of this examination and no correspondence will be entertained by the
Commission in this regard.

NOTE-1: In addition to Para 2.1 (b) above, the candidates (wherever applicable) are required to update the
Correspondence/Permanent Postal Address, Higher Educational Qualification, Achievement in
different fields (if any), Employment details/Service Experience, details of the Service/Force allocated
on the basis of earlier/previous CAPF (ACs) Exams (if any) and Preference of forces for the current
examination, Marital Status, Parental details, Debarment information, earlier Examination details,
OBC/EWS Annexure (wherever applicable), Socio-economic questionnaire, whichever is applicable
and submit their Online Application Form.
NOTE-2: Candidates who have uploaded the required documents/information earlier and have no
information to update/fill in, are also required to login and finally submit after verify ing the details
so as to generate the e-Summon letter for the Personality Test/Interview.
NOTE-3: The candidates are advised to regularly visit the Commission’s website with regard to further
updates.
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2.2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:

The Examination will be held at the following Centres:

S. NO. CENTRES S. NO. CENTRES S. NO. CENTRES
1. AGARTALA 20. GHAZIABAD 39. MEERUT
2. AHMEDABAD 21. GURUGRAM 40. MUMBAI
3. AIZAWL 22. HYDERABAD 41. NAGPUR
4. ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) 23. IMPHAL 42. PANAJI (GOA)
5. BENGALURU 24. INDORE 43. PATNA
6. BAREILLY 25. ITANAGAR 44. PORT BLAIR (SRI VIJAYA PURAM)
7. BHOPAL 26. JAIPUR 45. PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
8. BHUBANESWAR 27. JAMMU 46. PUNE
9. CHANDIGARH 28. JODHPUR 47. RAIPUR
10. CHENNAI 29. JORHAT 48. RANCHI
11. CUTTACK 30. KANPUR 49. SAMBALPUR
12. DEHRADUN 31. KARGIL 50. SHILLONG
13. DELHI 32. KOCHI 51. SHIMLA
14. DHARAMSHALA (H.P.) 33. KOHIMA 52. SRINAGAR
15. DHARWAR 34. KOLKATA 53. SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)
16. DISPUR 35. LEH 54. THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
17. FARIDABAD 36. LUCKNOW 55. TIRUPATI
18. GANGTOK 37. MADURAI 56. UDAIPUR
GAUTAM BUDDHA NAGAR
19. 38. MANDI (H.P.) 57. VISAKHAPATNAM
(NOIDA)

The Centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the discretion
of the Commission. Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the
Centres, except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the “first-apply-first-allot” basis,
and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the centre will no longer be available as an option for the
candidates. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the
remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

N.B.: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, the Commission reserve the right to change the Centres at their
discretion if the situation so demands.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. The
candidates should note that no request for change of Centre will be entertained. Reservations will be made for the
candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Economically Weaker Sections
categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular caste to which the
candidate belongs is included in the list of reserved Communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be
eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria
issued by the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility certification.

The OBC candidates applying for CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2026 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) Certificate
based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2024-25, 2023-24 and 2022-23 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after
completion of FY 2024-25) but not later than the closing date of the application for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026, i.e.
12.03.2026.

If a candidate indicates in his/her Application Form for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 that he/she belongs to General
category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be
entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be entertained
for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to
EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of
the Examination on General Merit shall be allowed to change (on their request or as decided by the Commission/

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Government based on the documents submitted by them) their category from Reserved to Unreserved or claim the
vacancies (Forces) for unreserved category after the declaration of final result by the Commission. In case where such
candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be cancelled.

While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap not more than
three (03) months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular community in the list of any of
the reserved Communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of
change of community from general to reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit.

Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/EWS/OBC must ensure that they are entitled
to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They should also be in possession of all the
requisite valid certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such
benefits by the Closing date of the application. A candidate of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 will be eligible to get the benefit of
the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central
Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2024-
25 and issued on/after 01.04.2025 (after completion of FY 2024-25) but not later than the closing date of the application
for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026, i.e. 12.03.2026.

3. PRATIBHA SETU PORTAL (erstwhile PUBLIC DISCLOSURE SCHEME):
As per the policy notified by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities,
the information of candidates who appeared in the final stage of Examination (Interview/ Personality Test) but not
recommended, will be made accessible to any registered Private Company, Public Sector Undertaking, Statutory and
Autonomous organisations of Government of India on the dedicated Portal on the website of the Commission to identify
suitable candidates in line of their requirements for providing employment. Short biodata of the candidates with their
educational qualifications, contact numbers, details including their percentile (not absolute or percentage marks), etc. will
also be made accessible on this dedicated Portal. The data available on this Portal shall be restricted for the purpose of
evaluation of suitability of the candidates for employment purpose only to these registered organisations. These lists will
be made available after the Reserve List is utilized/exhausted after declaration of final result. It may be noted that there is
no option for partial disclosure and choice once opted cannot be changed.

Candidates will be required to give their consent at the time of filling the Exam Specific Module. A
candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission.

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this examination, the
Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which information related to such
candidates is utilized by these registered organizations.

4. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS:

(I) Nationality: No person who is not a citizen of India shall, except with the consent of the Central Government
signified in writing be appointed or employed under these Rules.

Provided that nothing contained in these rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or employment of a subject of
Nepal or Bhutan under these Rules.

(II) Sex: Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant Commandants.

(III) Age Limits:

(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age of 25 years on 1 st
August, 2026, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2 nd August, 2001 and not later than 1st August,
2006.

(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
(i) upto a maximum of five (05) years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.
(ii) upto a maximum of three (03) years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who
are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.
(iii) upto a maximum of five (05) years for Civilian Central Government Servants in accordance with the
existing instructions of the Central Government. Ex-Servicemen will also be eligible for this relaxation.

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However the total relaxation claimed on account of Government Service will be limited to five (05)
years.

NOTE-I : Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes
who are also covered under any other clause of Para 4(III)(b) above, viz. those covered under the category of
Civilian Central Government Servants/Ex-servicemen, will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation
under both the categories.

NOTE-II: The term Ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Ex-servicemen in the Ex-
servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time and the
instructions issued by the Government vide DoP&T’s OM No.36012/3/2021-Estt. (Res.II) dated 27.02.2023,
which provides, inter-alia, as under:-
“Candidates working in the Armed Forces would become eligible for applying Civil posts only when
he/she completes the prescribed period of Armed Forces Service within a year from the last date of receiving
application in connection with Special Recruitment/ Examination, etc., prescribed by the Competent Authority.
Provided, when selection process takes more than one year, from the last date of receiving of
application, the candidate will not be declared ineligible under Ex-servicemen category only on the
ground that he/she has got himself released from Armed Forces after one year from the last date of
receiving of application.”
Such candidates are also required to be in possession of the Prescribed Certificate and the Undertaking as
at Appendix-VI(A) and VI(B) of this Notice, by the closing date of the application, i.e. by 12.03.2026.

NOTE-III: The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” in Para 4(III)(b)(iii) above will apply to persons who
are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules,
1965 as amended from time to time.

NOTE-IV: The age concession under Para 4(III)(b)(iii) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person who has
served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the
Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his/her
own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension. The term “Civilian Central
Government Servants” will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil
Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED.

NOTE-V: The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School
Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an
extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which must be certified by the proper
authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. No other
document relating to age like Horoscopes, Affidavits, Birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, Service
records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this
part of the instructions includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.

NOTE-VI: Candidates should also note that once Date of Birth has been submitted by them in the Online Application
Form and entered in records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change
will be allowed subsequently (or at any other Examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.

(IV) Minimum Educational Qualifications:

A candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree of a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State
Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a
University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.

NOTE 1 : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally
qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates
who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year 2026 will also be eligible for admission to
the examination.

However, all such candidates, who after qualifying on the result of the written part of the examination, are
declared qualified by the Commission for Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests, will be required to produce

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proof of passing of the requisite qualifying examination within the time limit prescribed in the Rules of Examination
under Sub-Rules 9.1 and 9.2 of Rule 15 of CAPF (AC), Exam, 2026.
Only valid proof of passing the qualifying examination viz. Degree Certificate/Final Mark Sheet/Provisional Degree
Certificate etc. as are normally issued to the candidate by the Competent Authority after the formal declaration of
results by the University/Boards may be accepted.

NOTE II: In exceptional cases, the Commission may treat a candidate who does not have any of the foregoing
qualifications as a qualified candidate, provided that he/she has passed an examination conducted by the
other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the
examination.

NOTE III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as
equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

V. Restriction on re-appearance of candidates finally selected/ recommended earlier:
A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of Assistant
Commandants in any of the forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants)
Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination for recruitment of Assistant Commandants in
the participating CAPFs.

VI. Physical Standards:
Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical Standards for admission to CAPF (ACs) Exam,
2026 specified in Appendix-V of the Notice.

VII. Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificates:

Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These qualifications will be
given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only.

5. FEE:

Candidates (except Female/SC/ST Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of
Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by using Net Banking Facility of any Bank or by using
Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for appearing in CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026.

NOTE-1: Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the modes prescribed above.
Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the
prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

NOTE-2: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other
examination or selection.

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/ SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT
REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY
ARE REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCRIBED FEE.

6. HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates are required to apply online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised
to go through the General instructions, Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents
before proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2026 shall be
required to submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth,
educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Universal Registration Number
(URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees and
centre etc.). Failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the Common Application Form (CAF)
will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE-1: One-time Edit Facility for URN Profile:
The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal
Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be
reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to applications
submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.
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NOTE-2: Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):
Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live photograph while
filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that the uploaded photograph and the
live photograph captured is clear as per instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling
the form > Photos and Signature” available on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE-3: Uploading of Signature:
Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white paper using a black ink
and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). The uploaded signatures should be
clear and legible. The Candidates are advised to refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available
under “Instructions and FAQs” on the website of the Commission with the URL: https://upsconline.nic.in.”

NOTE-4: The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same. Further,
no correction /alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application Form is allowed after submission.

(b) All the candidates, whether already in Government Service, Government owned Industrial Undertakings or
other similar Organisations or in Private Employment should submit their application direct to the Commission.

Persons already in Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work-charged
employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however,
required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission
withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their Application will be liable to
be rejected/ candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 1: While filling in his/her Online Application Form, the candidate should carefully decide about his/her choice
for the Centre for the Examination.

If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her e-Admit
Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be evaluated and his/her candidature will be liable to
cancellation.

NOTE 2: Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or correspondence
regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances.

NOTE 3: Candidates are not required to submit Hard Copy of their application to the Commission at this stage.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for
admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the
Commission viz. Written Examination, Physical Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Interview/Personality Test and Medical Standards Tests will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination, Physical
Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET), Interview/Personality Test and Medical Standards Tests, it is
found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be
cancelled by the Commission.

If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they will render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the
Commission in terms of Rule 14 of the Rules for the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2026 reproduced below:

(1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or

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(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or

(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :-
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; or
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott
examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth
devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being
used as a communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to
take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the
foregoing clauses;

In addition to being liable to appropriate legal action as deemed fit under the Public Examinations
(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, as amended from time to time, the candidate shall be disqualified by
the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either
permanently or for a specified period:

(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government;

Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :-

(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish
to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose,
into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or
abetting the Commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to appropriate
legal action in terms of the clause (n) above as deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair
Means) Act, 2024, as amended from time to time.

NOTE: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be allowed to continue in the said exam as
soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in
consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of the
said examination.

7. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:

(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 12th March, 2026 till 18:00 hours, after which the link will be disabled.
Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is available at Appendix-II.

(ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same.

8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION:

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the
following cases:

(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of preceding week of the date of
the Examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the Commission’s website [https://upsconline.nic.in ] for
downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post or email. If a candidate does not receive his/her e-

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Admit Card or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination on the last working day of
the preceding week of the date of examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this
regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission’s Office either in person or over
phone via Helpdesk no. 011-24041001. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s office from the
candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least three days before the commencement of the
examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.

No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-Admit Card for the
examination. On downloading of e-Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of
the Commission immediately.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the
information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions
by the Commission.

The mere fact that an e-Admit Card to the Examination has been issued to a candidate will not imply that
the Commission has finally cleared his/her candidature or that the Commission has accepted entries made by
the candidate in his/her Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile, Common Application Form and Exam
Specific Form for the CAPF (ACs) Exam as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission will take
up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only after the
candidate has qualified the CAPF (ACs) (Written) Examination. Unless the Commission formally confirms
candidature, it continues to be provisional.

The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the Examination
shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases may be abbreviated due to
technical reasons.

(ii) The candidates must ensure that their email IDs given in their Online Applications are valid and active as the
Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination
processes.

(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address stated in his/her Application are
redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity.
Although the Commission makes every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in
the matter.

(iv) Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an e-Admit Card
issued in respect of another candidate.

IMPORTANT: ALL COMMUNICATIONS TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY CONTAIN THE FOLLOWING
PARTICULARS:

1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION
2. UNIVERSAL REGISTRATION NUMBER (URN)
3. APPLICATION NUMBER
4. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)
5. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)
6. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.
7. VALID AND ACTIVE REGISTERED E-MAIL ID AND REGISTERED MOBILE NUMBER.

N.B. -I: COMMUNICATIONS NOT CONTAINING THE ABOVE PARTICULARS MAY NOT BE ATTENDED TO.

N.B. -II: IF A LETTER/COMMUNICATION IS RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER AN EXAMINATION HAS BEEN
HELD AND IT DOES NOT GIVE HIS/HER FULL NAME AND ROLL NUMBER, IT WILL BE IGNORED AND NO
ACTION WILL BE TAKEN THEREON.

N.B. -III: CANDIDATES ARE STRONGLY ADVISED TO KEEP A PRINTOUT OR SOFT COPY OF THEIR ONLINE
APPLICATION FOR FUTURE REFERENCES.

9. SERVICE/FORCE ALLOCATION:

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Service/Force Allocation will be made on the basis of position in the Merit List and the Service/Force Preferences,
which will have to be indicated by the candidates at the time of filling up the Online Application Form. Both Male and
Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant Commandants.

Alongwith the Online Application Form scanned documents in support of date of birth, category (viz., SC/ST/OBC
{OBC Annexure (for OBC category only)}/ EWS {EWS Annexure (for EWS category only)/ Ex-servicemen} and other
requisite valid documents are required to be mandatorily submitted. Any delay in submission of the Online Application
Form or documents in support beyond the prescribed date will not be allowed and will lead to cancellation of the
candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2026.

The Application Form and/or supporting documents sent through any mode other than the online mode, as may be
made available by the UPSC on its website, will not be accepted.

10. OTHER DETAILS:
For other details regarding the Examination, the candidates may refer to the Appendices as specified below:
(a) Selection Procedure/Scheme and Syllabus of the Examination. Appendix-I
(b) Instructions to the candidates for filling up the Online Applications. Appendix-II
(c) Special Instructions to the candidates for Objective Type Tests. Appendix-III
(d) Special Instructions to the candidates for Conventional Type Papers. Appendix-IV
(e) Physical and Medical Standards. Appendix-V

(Jitendra Kumar Mandal)
Under Secretary (Examination)
Union Public Service Commission

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APPENDIX - I
SELECTION PROCEDURE/SCHEME AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

(A) SELECTION PROCEDURE/SCHEME

The Selection Procedure/Scheme of the Examination will be as follows:

(i) Written Examination: The written examination to be conducted by the Commission will be held on 19th July, 2026 and
will comprise two papers. Paper-I will be held from 10:00 AM to 12:00 Noon and Paper-II will
be held from 2:00 PM to 5:00 PM.

Paper-I: General Ability and Intelligence - 250 Marks
The questions in this paper will be of Objective (Multiple Answers) Type in which the questions will be
set in English as well as Hindi.

Paper-II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension - 200 Marks
In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or Hindi,
but the medium of Precis Writing, Comprehension Components and other communications/language skills will be
English only.

NOTE-I : Candidates should ensure that in Paper-II they write the answers only in the medium allowed by the Commission
for the different Components as mentioned above. No credit will be given for answers written in a medium other
than the one allowed in the Paper. Candidates will be required to indicate the medium of Essay Component in the
Attendance Lists and on the Answer Book. No credit will be given for the Essay Component if the candidate
indicates a medium on the Attendance List and on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has
written the Essay.

NOTE-II: There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by the Commission in their
discretion. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will be done only of those candidates who
obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.

(ii) Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests:
Candidates who are declared qualified in the written examination will be summoned for Physical Standards
Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests. Those candidates who meet the prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix-V,
will be put through the Physical Efficiency Tests as indicated below:

Physical Efficiency Tests (PET)

Men Women

(a) 100 Meter Race In 16 Seconds In 18 Seconds

(b) 800 Meter Race In 03 Min. 45 Sec. In 4 Min. 45 Sec.

(c) Long Jump* 3.5 Meters (3 Chances) 3.0 Meters (3 Chances)

* Note: During long jump, if any part of the body of a candidate touches the starting line or finishing
line of length 3 Mtrs for Female candidate and 3.5 Mtrs for Male candidate (both marking line are
inclusive), it would be deemed as disqualification in long jump event. Candidate is required to jump
and clear distance prescribed for his/her i.e. 3 Mtrs for Female and 3.5 Mtrs for Male Candidate”.

(d) Shot Put (7.26 Kg) 4.5 Meters (3 Chances) ----------

On reporting of female candidates for PST (Physical Standard Test)/PET (Physical Efficiency Test), a self declaration
indicating about her pregnancy status shall be submitted. In case, if she declares that she is not pregnant then she may be
allowed to participate in the PST/PET. In case of false declaration, all the risk for undergoing PST/PET will be of her own.
If the female candidate declares that she is pregnant before PST/PET, then a confirmatory pregnancy test to be done and in
case she is found to be pregnant, irrespective of duration of pregnancy, she may be declared temporarily unfit and her
appointment shall be held in abeyance until the confinement is over. The vacancy against which a woman candidate was
selected should be kept reserved for her. She will be re-examined for PST/PET six weeks after the date of confinement was

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over, subject to the production of the medical certificate of fitness from a registered medical practitioner. If she is found fit
in PST/PET & DME, she may be appointed to the post kept reserved for and allow the benefit of seniority in accordance
with the Instructions of the Government, as amended from time to time. In case female candidates are found negative for
pregnancy, she may be allowed to participate in the PST/PET.

It is further provided that the pregnancy and the temporary unfitness due to the same, will not be a bar for her
to appear in the Interview/ Personality Test along with other candidates as per the PT Schedule finalized by the
Commission and her absence from the Interview/ PT, will entail cancellation of her candidature for the CAPF (ACs)
Examination, 2026.

The Physical Standards Tests/Physical Efficiency Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to
be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These tests will be conducted at various Centres to be notified after the
results of the Written Examination.

(iii) Interview/Personality Test :
Candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical Standards Tests (PST) /Physical Efficiency Tests (PET), will
be called for Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by the Commission. Candidates who are declared unqualified in
the Physical Efficiency Test will not be called for Interview/Personality Tests. The Interview/Personality Test will carry
150 Marks.

(iv) Medical Standards Tests :
Medical Standards Tests, to check the standards specified in Appendix-V, will be conducted only in respect of
candidates who have appeared in the Interview/ Personality Test.
The Medical Standards Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the
Ministry of Home Affairs.
Appeals will be entertained only against the Medical Standards Tests and will have to be made to the Appellate
Authority designated by the Ministry of Home Affairs within 24 Hours after declaration of the results DME.

(v) Final Selection/Merit :
The merit list will be drawn on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates in the Written Examination and
Interview/Personality Test.

(vi) Further, any candidate who after Medical Standard Test (MST) is found not to satisfy the requirements as per
prescribed standards will not be appointed.

(vii) ‘Rounding Off Marks’ and ‘Tie Breaking Principle’:
The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the principles for
resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:

(A) Rounding Off Marks:

Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all stage(s) of the
examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable. Accordingly, while
applying the Tie Breaking Principles, the rounded off marks up to two decimal digits shall be considered for
resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie Breaking Principle:

(i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more marks in the
written total will be ranked higher;
(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-I: General Ability
& Intelligence” will be ranked higher;
(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked higher;
and
(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie breaking principles, it will be
resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

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(B) SYLLABI OF THE WRITTEN PAPERS

Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence
The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas:
1. General Mental Ability
The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including numerical ability, and data
interpretation.
2. General Science
The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and appreciation of scientific
phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance like Information Technology, Biotechnology,
Environmental Science.
3. Current Events of National and International Importance:
The questions will test the candidates’ awareness of current events of national and international importance in the broad
areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business,
globalisation, and interplay among nations.
4. Indian Polity and Economy:
The questions shall aim to test candidates’ knowledge of the Country’s political system and the Constitution of India, social
systems and public administration, economic development in India, regional and international security issues and human
rights including its indicators.
5. History of India :
The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects. This shall also include the areas of
growth of nationalism and freedom movement.
6. Indian and World Geography:
The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to India and the World.

Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension
Part-A – Essay questions which are to be answered in long narrative form either in Hindi or English totaling 80 Marks. The
indicative topics are modern Indian history especially of the freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy, knowledge
of security and human rights issues, and analytical ability.
Part-B – Comprehension, précis writing, other communications/language skills – to be attempted in English only (Marks
120) – The topics are Comprehension passages, précis writing, developing counter arguments, simple grammar and other
aspects of language testing.

APPENDIX- II

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING UP THE ONLINE APPLICATIONS

 Candidates are required to apply online using the website: https://upsconline.nic.in.

 Detailed instructions for filling up Online Application are available on the above mentioned website under the header
‘Instructions and FAQs’ > ‘Instructions for Filling the Form.’

 Candidates are advised to go through the General Instructions, Profile/Module-wise Instructions and Instructions
for uploading of documents before proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for CAPF (ACs)
Examination shall be required to submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such
as date of birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the Universal Registration
Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees
and centres etc.).

• Candidates (except SC/ST/Female Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of
Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by using Net Banking Facility of any Bank or by using
Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for appearing in CAPF(ACs) Exam, 2026.

 Before filling up Online Application Form, a candidate must have his/her photograph and signature duly scanned in the
.jpg format in such a manner that photograph file should not exceed 200 KB and must not be less than 20 KB in size and
signature file should not exceed 100 KB and must not be less than 20 KB in size.

 The candidate should have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card (EPIC)/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving
License/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be
provided by the candidate while filling up the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future references
and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for the examination.
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 The Online Application can be filled from 20th February, 2026 to 12th March, 2026 till 18:00 hours.

• The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active email ID as
the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination
process.

• The applicants are advised to check their emails at regular intervals and ensure that the email addresses ending with
@nic.in and @gov.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.

• Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of
Online Applications.

 Applicants should not submit multiple Applications.

APPENDIX- III

SPECIAL INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATES FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS

1. ARTICLES PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality black ball pen for making
responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.
2. ARTICLES NOT PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. Books, Notes,
Loose Sheets, Electronic or any other type of Calculators, Mathematical and Drawing Instruments, Log Tables,
Stencils of Maps, Slide Rules, Test Booklets, Rough Sheets pertaining to earlier session(s), etc.
Mobile phones, Bluetooth or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the
premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including
mobile phones etc. to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.
3. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
4. UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED:
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor
give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.
5. CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL:
No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or
harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be
severely penalised.
6. ANSWER SHEET PARTICULARS:
(i) Write in black ball pen your Centre and Subject followed by Test Booklet Series (in bracket), Subject Code and Roll
Number at the appropriate space provided on the Answer Sheet at the top. Also encode your Booklet
Series (A, B, C or D as the case may be), Subject Code and Roll Number with black ball pen in the circles
provided for the purpose in the Answer Sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and encoding the
above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the Test Booklet or Answer
Sheet is unnumbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet
replaced.

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(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR Answer
Sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the Answer Sheet liable
for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the Test Booklet supplied to you does not
have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete Test Booklet of the
same Series and Subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the Answer
Sheet/Test Booklet/Sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the
reverse of the Answer Sheet.
9. Since the Answer Sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in
handling and filling up the Answer Sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing
in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles
will be taken into account while evaluating the Answer Sheet on computerised machines, they should make
these entries very carefully and accurately. The candidate must mark responses in the Answer Sheet with
good quality black ball pen.
10. METHOD OF MARKING ANSWERS:
In the "OBJECTIVE TYPE" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter
referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as "Responses") are given. You have to
choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will
contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your
task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose
what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select more than one response, your
response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. from 1 to 160 are printed. Against each
numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and
decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best, you have to mark your response by completely
blackening to indicate your response.
Ink pen or pencil should not be used for blackening the circle on the Answer Sheet.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely
blackened with black ball pen as shown below :-
Example: (a) (c) (d)
11. ENTRIES IN SCANNABLE ATTENDANCE LIST:
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns
in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below:
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet serial No. and also blacken the corresponding circles below
v) Append signature in the relevant column
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly
or improper conduct, he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the
Commission may deem fit.
13. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of prescribed time period of the
examination.

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Annexure
How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the Answer Sheets are to be
evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which you would
yourself be responsible.
Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that it is numbered at the bottom.
If it is found unnumbered he/she should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.।
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:
केंद्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
------- -------- ------------- -----------
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the General Studies Paper and your Roll No. is
081276 and your Test Booklet series is ‘A’, you should fill in thus, using ball pen.
* This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to the Examination concerned.

केंद्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
------- -------- ------------- 9 9 ----------- 0 8 1 2 7 6
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number
Delhi General
Ability

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi. The Test Booklet
Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet.
Write your Roll Number exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit
any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate Subject Code from the Time Table. Now, encode the Test Booklet
Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with black ball pen. The
name of the Centre need not to be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the
Booklet Series from the same.
For General Ability subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 99. Do it thus.
पस्ु तिक क्रम विषय कोड
Booklet Series (A) Subject Code 9 9
------------------------ --------------------------

0 0

B 1 1

2 2
C
3 3
D
4 4

5 5

6 6

7 7

8 8

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All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and below the subject
code blacken completely the Circles for ‘9’ (in the first vertical column) and ’9’ (in the second vertical column). You should
then encode the Roll No. 081276. Do it thus similarly.
अनुक्रम ांक
Roll Numbers

0 8 1 2 7 6

0 0 0 0 0 Important: Please ensure that you
1 1 1 1 1 have carefully encoded your subject, Test
2 2 2 2 2 Booklet Series and Roll Number.

3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 * This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to your Examination.

5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9

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APPENDIX- IV
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR CONVENTIONAL TYPE PAPERS

1. ANSWERS TO BE WRITTEN IN OWN HAND:
Write the answers in your own hand in ink. Pencil may be used for rough work.

2. CHECK ANSWER BOOK:

The candidate must write his/her roll number (and not his/her name) only in the space provided for the purpose
on every answer book used by him/her. Before writing in the answer book, please see that it is complete. In case there are
any missing pages, it should be got replaced.

Do not tear out any pages from the Answer Book. If you use more than one Answer Book, indicate on the cover of
first Answer Book the total number of Answer Books used. Do not leave any blank, unused spaces between answers. If
such spaces are left, score them out.

3. ANSWERS IN EXCESS OF PRESCRIBED NUMBER WILL BE IGNORED:

The candidate must attempt questions strictly in accordance with the directions given on each question paper. If
questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed number, only questions attempted first up to the prescribed number
shall be valued and the remaining answers will be ignored.

4. Questions relating to précis should be attempted only on précis sheets to be supplied on demand by the
invigilators. Precis sheet, whether used or not, should be placed inside the answer books and fastened along with the
additional answer book(s), if any. Candidates who fail to observe this instruction will be penalised. Do not write your roll
number on these sheets.

5. UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED:
Do not copy from the papers of any other candidates nor allow your papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to
give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. It will be responsibility of every candidate to
ensure that his/her answers are not copied by another candidate. Failure to do so will invite penalty, as may be awarded
by the Commission for adoption of unfair means.

6. CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL:
Do not misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the examination hall or harass or bodily harm the
staff deployed for the conduct of examination. You will be severely penalized if you attempt to do so.

7. Please read carefully and abide by the instructions printed on the Question Paper and on the Answer Book
supplied in the Examination Hall.

Page 20 of 24

APPENDIX- V

PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS IN THE
CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES.

APPENDIX- V(A)

(1) Physical Standards:
The minimum requirements for the candidate are as follows:
Men Women
Height 165 cm 157 cm
Chest 81 cm (Not applicable)
(unexpanded) (with 5 cm minimum expansion)

Weight 50 kg. 46 kg.

NOTE: The height and chest measurement of a male candidate and only height of female candidate will be measured
correct to one decimal in centimeter. For example, height will be measured and recorded as 165.2 cms. Any
candidate having height or chest measurement less than the prescribed minimum criteria as mentioned in
Appendix-II(A) of Rules for the post will be disqualified. For example, if minimum height requirement is 165
cms then candidate having height 164.9 cms and less will be disqualified.

Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in Appendix-II(B).

(2) Medical Standards:
(a) Eye Sight:
Better eye Worse eye
(corrected vision) (corrected vision)
Distant vision 6/6 6/12
OR
6/9 6/9
Near Vision N6 N9
(corrected) (corrected)
With Glasses/LASIK Surgery*
Limits of Refractive -4.00 D (including cylinder) Myopia
errors permitted +4.00 D (including cylinder) Hypermetropia
Colour Perception-III (CP-III) by ISIHARA plates.

* LASIK surgery correction is permitted subject to prescribed criteria as below:
a) Age - 18-35 years
b) Axial-length - 21-26 mm.
c) Corneal-thickness 425 micron
d) Pre LASIK error - 6D
e) Post operative - Should be stable
period refractive flap
f) Interval - 06 months (post operative period mandatory
(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering
for recruitment in CAPFs).
(b) Carrying angle:

Carrying angle should not be more than 15˚ for male and 20˚ for female.

(c) Ear:
i) Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge.
ii) Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like atresia of the meatus,
exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of ear passage and should not have history of recurrent
earache, tinnitus and vertigo.
(d) Nose: Candidates should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular ulceration, chronic sinusitis.
Page 21 of 24

(e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or other swelling of neck, inability to extend the
neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical vertebrae.
(f) Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication. Candidate should not
have severe pyorrhea.
(g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should not have active signs of clinical VD.
(h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like Leprosy, chronic dermatitis,
extensive Pityriasis Versicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc.

(3) General Standards:
a) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering.
b) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type of arthritis, high blood pressure,
Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease.
c) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in the body.
d) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, Pigeon chest, with rickety rosary effects.
Heart and lungs should be sound.
e) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall be perfect motion of all joints.
f) Should not have any old/mal united fracture of bones.
g) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints.
h) Feet and toes should be well formed
i) Should not have congenital malformation or defects.
(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for recruitment in CAPFs).
j) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired constitution.
k) Candidate should have no disease of the genito urinary tract.
l) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia.
m) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size.
n) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins.
o) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the
efficient performance of the duties.

(4) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per minute) or BRADYCARDIA (Less than
50 per minute).

(5) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum.

(6) Tattoo Clause:
(a) Content: Being a secular country, the religious sentiments of our countrymen are to be respected and thus,
tattoos depicting religious symbol or figures and the name, as followed in Indian Army are to be
permitted.
(b) Location: Tattoos marked on traditional sites of the body like inner aspect of forearm but only left forearm, being
non saluting limb or dorsum of the hands are to be allowed.
(c) Size: Size must be less than ¼ of the particular part (Elbow or Hand) of the body.

NOTE: 1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued by MHA UO dated
20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO’s and NGO’s in the CAPFs & AR and Review Medical Examination will be
conducted as per revised uniforms guidelines for RME in CAPFs & ARs for GO’s & NGO’s vide MHA UO No.E-
32012/ADG(Med)/DME&RME/ DA-1/2020 (Part File)/1166 dated 31.05.2021.

2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard Tests. Those candidates
who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests will be allowed to appear before the Review
Medical Board preferably on the next day of Detailed Medical Examination.

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APPENDIX- V(B)

MALE AVERAGE BODY WEIGHTS IN KILOGRAMS FOR DIFFERENT AGE GROUPS AND HEIGHTS

Height in CMs Age in years
18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
156 44-54 46-56 47-58 48-59
158 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5
160 46-56 47.5-58.5 49.5-60.5 50.5-61.5
162 47-58 49-60 50.5-61.5 52-63
164 48-59 50-61 52-63.5 53-65
166 49.5-60.5 51.5-62.5 53-65 54.5-66.5
168 51-62 52.5-64.5 54.5-66.5 56-68
170 52-64 54-66 56-68 57.5-70.5
172 54-66 55.5-67.5 57-70 59-72
174 55-67 57-70 59-72 61-74.5
176 56.5-69 58.5-71.5 60.5-73.5 62-76
178 57.5-70.5 60-73 61.5-75.5 63.5-77.5
180 59--72 61-75 63.5-77.5 65.5-80
182 61-74.5 62.5-76.5 65-79 66.5-81.5
184 63-77 64.5-78.5 66.5-81.5 68.5-83.5
186 63.5-77.5 65.5-80.5 68-83 70-86
188 65-79 67.5-82.5 70-85.5 71.5-87.5
190 66-81 68.5-83.5 70.5-86.5 72.5-88.5

FEMALE AVERAGE BODY WEIGHTS IN KILOGRAMS FOR DIFFERENT AGE GROUPS – HEIGHTS

Height in CMs Age in years
18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
148 34.5-42.5 37-45 38.5-47 39.5-48.5
150 36.5-44.5 37.5-45.5 39-48 40.5-49.5
153 38-46 39-48 41-50 42-51
155 38.5-47.5 40-49 41.5-50.5 43-52.5
158 40.5-49.5 42-51 43-53 44.5-54.5
160 41.5-50.5 43-52.5 44-54 45.5-54.5
163 43-52.5 44-54 46-56 47-57
165 44-54 45.5-55.5 47-58 48.5-59.5
168 45-55 47-57 48.5-59.5 49.5-60.5

 The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights (in cms). In respect of height in
between, the principle of ‘Average’ may be utilized for calculating body weights.

 For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm of increase or decrease in
height may be added or subtracted respectively.

Page 23 of 24

APPENDIX- VI

APPENDIX- VI(A)
PROFORMA OF CERTIFICATE FOR EMPLOYED OFFICIALS
1. It is informed that Shri/Kum./Smt. ……………….. working as …………….. (Rank) in ……………. (Unit/ Office) has applied for
the post of ……………….. as advertised by ……………………… (name of recruiting agency) vide Advt. No………………….. dated
…………

2. I hereby, with the information available, certify in respect of Shri/Kum./Smt. ………………….. (Name) No………………. (Rank),
as follows :-

i. He/She will be completing the prescribed period of engagement of ……………. Years (in words) for acquiring Ex-
servicemen status, subject to fulfillment of other conditions, on …………. (date). Shri/Kum./Smt. …………….. shall
complete …………….. years of service (in words) on the date of No Objection Certificate and ____________ years of service
(in words) at the time of leaving of military service.
ii. He/She will be released on selection to the post.

Commanding Officer
Place : (Signature)
Dated :
Office Seal

APPENDIX – VI(B)
FORM OF UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY CANDIDATES APPLYING FOR CIVIL POSTS UNDER EX-SERVICEMEN
CATEGORY

I understand that, if selected on the basis of the recruitment/examination to which this application relates, my
appointment will be subject to my producing documentary evidence to the satisfaction of Appointing Authority that I have
been duly released/retired/discharged from the Armed Forces and that I am entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-
servicemen in terms of the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended
from time to time.

2. I also understand that as per DoPT OM No.36034/1/2014-Estt.(Res.) dated 14.8.2014, if I apply for various vacancies
before joining any civil employment, I can avail of the benefit of reservation as Ex-servicemen for any subsequent
employment provided that to avail of this benefit, as soon as I join any civil employment, I should give self-
declaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about date-wise details of application for various vacancies for which I
had applied for before joining the initial civil employment, in respect of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and
wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-servicemen.

Signature of the candidate
Place :
Dated :
*************

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