RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 19 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 19 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 19/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is the correct way to reduce reverberations?
Ans A. Using marble walls

B. Using sound-absorbent materials

C. Using hard concrete floor

D. Removing furniture

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Q.2 Which subatomic particle has a negative charge but negligible mass?
Ans A. Neutron
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B. Nucleons
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C. Electron
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D. Proton

Q.3 The molecules of an element are constituted by:
Ans A. the same type of atoms

B. the different type of atoms

C. the difficult type of atoms

D. the complex type of atoms
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Q.4 Which of the following is an example of uniform circular motion?

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Ans
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A. A person walking in a straight line

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a C. A car moving on a straight road

D. A satellite orbiting the Earth

Q.5 What is the effect of oral contraceptive pills in the body of human females?
Ans A. They block the passage of sperms in vagina.

B. They create a physical barrier in fallopian tube.

C. They prevent maturation of primary oocyte.

D. They are toxic to the incoming sperms.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT an abiotic resistance for crop?
Ans A. Insects

B. Salinity

C. Drought

D. Heat

Q.7 A certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m/s to 2 m/s.
Calculate the work done by this force.
Ans A. 420 J

B. −420 J

C. 210 J

D. −210 J

Q.8 Which of the following pairs of elements has the same number of neutrons?
Ans A. Be, B

B. Li, Be

C. He, Li

D. B, C

Q.9 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Mass changes with location

B. Weight is independent of gravity

C. The SI units of weight and mass are the same

D. Mass is the amount of matter in an object

Q.10 In the context of a reflex arc, which part of the nervous system is responsible for
receiving and transmitting signals from external stimuli?
Ans A. Relay neurons

B. Effector muscle

C. Motor neurons

D. Sensory neurons

Q.11 Sodium, carbon and oxygen elements are present in Washing Soda. Select the
INCORRECT symbol of these elements.
Ans A. SO

B. C

C. Na

D. O

Q.12 What is the purpose of anodising aluminium metals?
Ans A. To form a protective oxide layer

B. To reduce its melting point

C. To increase its electrical conductivity

D. To make it more reactive with air

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.13 Refer to the two statements given below and select the correct option.
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water.

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Statement B: This reaction is neutralisation.
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Ans A. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

B. Both statements A and B are correct.
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C. Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.

D. Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.

Q.14 What is the correct symbol for the element sodium?
Ans A. Na

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B. So

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C. Sd

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D. S

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Q.15
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Pair the term to complete the analogy.
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Chlorophyll : Green pigment :: Starch : ____.
Ans A. Oxygen carrier

B. Energy storage

C. Water source

D. Protein

Q.16 When a rocket is launched upward, the forces on it are ____________.

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Ans A. Unbalanced

B. Only gravitational
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C. Balanced
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D. Equal in all directions
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Q.17 The diameter of the reflecting curved surface of a spherical mirror is called _______.
Ans A. Pole

B. Aperture

C. Focal length

D. Radius of curvature

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Q.18 A wire with resistance R is cut into seven equal parts. These parts are then connected
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in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this new combination is R′, what is the value

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of the ratio R / R′?

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Ans
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A. 1/49

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a C. 7

D. 49

Q.19 Which of the following statements about lysosomes is correct?
Ans A. Lysosomes synthesise fats.

B. Lysosomes contain growth hormones.

C. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes.

D. Lysosomes synthesise proteins.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.20 In a domestic circuit, the live wire is generally of which colour?
Ans A. Red

B. Green

C. Yellow

D. Black

Q.21 A characteristic feature that is NOT associated with soap is:
Ans A. micelles formation

B. works perfectly with hard water

C. hydrophilic head

D. hydrophobic tail

Q.22 Which of the following is true?
Ans A. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset is due to Earth’s rotation only.

B. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset is due to scattering of light.

C. Advanced sunrise is due to scattering and delayed sunset is due to refraction.

D. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset is due to atmospheric refraction.

Q.23 Which part in the ovule helps in guiding the pollen tube (carrying sperm nuclei)
towards the female gamete?
Ans A. Synergids

B. Antipodal cells

C. Endosperm

D. Style

Q.24 According to Mendel, when a tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a short pea plant (tt),
the F1 offspring will be:
Ans A. 75% tall (TT/Tt), 25% short (tt)

B. all short (tt)

C. 50% tall (Tt), 50% short (tt)

D. all tall (Tt)

Q.25 The tongue helps in digestion mainly by _________.
Ans A. secreting digestive enzymes

B. absorbing nutrients

C. mixing food with saliva

D. crushing food into smaller pieces

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The mode of the observations 9, 6, 8, 1, 9, 6, 4, 5, 7, 1, 6, 5, 3, 6, 6, 3 and 3 is:
Ans A. 1

B. 6

C. 8

D. 9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.27
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Ans
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A.

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B. a
C.

D.

Q.28
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Ans A.
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B.

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Q.29
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Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2,000 at 7% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 5 February 2023 to 19 April 2023.
Ans A. 26

B. 27

C. 28

D. 29

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Q.30

Ans
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A. 89 km/hr

B. 82 km/hr
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C. 91 km/hr a
D. 96 km/hr

Q.31 An item with a marked price of ₹657 was sold for ₹526. What was the percentage of
discount given? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 17.29%

B. 17.13%

C. 23.93%
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Q.32

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a B. 66600 cm2

C. 67600 cm2

D. 65600 cm2

Q.33 Five years ago, Meera was three times as old as her niece, Kavya. Seven years from
now, Meera will be twice as old as Kavya. What is Meera’s current age (in years)?
Ans A. 45

B. 41
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C. 43

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D. 39

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Q.34 A cistern has two inlet pipes, A and B, and one outlet pipe, C. Pipe A can fill the cistern
alone in 15 hours, pipe B in 18 hours, and pipe C can empty it in 27 hours. For the first
5 hours, pipes A and B are opened together. Then, for the next 12 hours, pipes B and C
are opened together. After that, only pipe B works. How long will pipe B alone take to fill
the remaining part of the cistern?
Ans A. 5 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 3 hours

D. 4 hours

Q.35 A seller makes a loss of 5% by selling a shirt for ₹1,000. He would have made x% profit
by selling for ₹1,400. Find the value of x.
Ans A. 33

B. 30.5

C. 34

D. 31.2

Q.36 Two trains, 232 m and 248 m in length, are running in opposite directions. The first runs
at the rate of 51 km/hr and the second at the rate of 57 km/hr. How long will they take to
cross each other?
Ans A. 26 seconds

B. 16 seconds

C. 11 seconds

D. 22 seconds

Q.37 The average of 13 numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 3, then what will the
new average be?
Ans A. 21

B. 7

C. 13

D. 3

Q.38 Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 7%, 10%
and 15%.
Ans A. 31.22%

B. 30.16%

C. 28.85%

D. 29.49%

Q.39

Ans A. 23.6 cm

B. 26.4 cm

C. 21.8 cm

D. 18.2 cm

Q.40 16 m, 20 m and 24 m are the dimensions of a room. Find the length (in m) of the
greatest possible scale to measure all dimensions exactly.
Ans A. 5

B. 4

C. 6

D. 9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.41 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
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with water in 24 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same

. cistern with water?
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Ans A. 6

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B. 13

C. 12
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D. 7

Q.42 The prices of each article of types P, Q, and R are ₹280, ₹180 and ₹100, respectively.
Kishore buys articles of each type in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 in ₹6,180. How many articles of
type Q did he purchase?
Ans A. 12

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B. 20

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C. 18

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D. 9

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Q.43
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₹10,415 is divided among P, Q, and R in such a way that if ₹62, ₹17, and ₹79 are
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deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 15:10:14. Find the
difference between the original shares of Q and R.
Ans A. ₹1,152

B. ₹1,114

C. ₹902

D. ₹1,202

Q.44 Malati bought 5 rose plants and 9 jasmine plants for ₹1,410 and her friend Rani bought

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6 rose plants and 5 jasmine plants for ₹1,170. Find the prices (in ₹) of 1 rose and 1

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jasmine plant, respectively.
Ans A. 90; 120
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B. 120; 90
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C. 132; 94
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D. 115; 87

Q.45

Ans A. 1

B. 0

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C. 2

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D. 3

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Q.46m The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
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the percentage change in the total cost of 4 washing machines and 5 TVs?

a Ans A. Increase by 5.2%

B. Decrease by 4%

C. Increase by 4.5%

D. Decrease by 9%

Q.47 The monthly incomes of two friends Mohan and David, are in the ratio 5 : 8,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹75,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 4, find the monthly income of Mohan(in ₹).
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Ans A. 92,750

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B. 1,31,250

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C. 93,750

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D. 94,750
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 48

Q.48 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 105 maximum marks. What
percentage of A’s marks was B’s marks? (Round off your answer to two decimal
places.)
Ans A. 105.12%

B. 71.43%

C. 150.57%

D. 66.67%

Q.49 Simplify:
[(3x + 5y)2 − 60xy] ÷ [(3x − 5y)2]
Ans A. 2

B. −1

C. 1

D. −2

Q.50 The number of diagonals of an n-sided regular polygon is 665. What is the value of ‘n’?
Ans A. 33

B. 38

C. 35

D. 40

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

12 ÷ 5 + 21 × 3 − 2 = ? + 53142
Ans A. 60

B. 45

C. 50

D. 55

Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. RV - QV

B. LP - KO

C. UY - TX

D. GK - FJ

Q.53 In a certain code language, "TMCB" is coded as "76" and "GKIR" is coded as "90".
What is the code for "VAPD" in that language?
Ans A. 80

B. 86

C. 88

D. 91

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Q.54 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) # 4 ^ 8 8 < 2 / $ 7 $ \ 1 & ^ 8 4 \ ? \ 8 (Right)
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number and also immediately followed by a symbol? ag l
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. None

D. One

Q.55 Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
three people sit between C and W. D sits to the immediate left of W. No one sits to the
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right of B. Only two people sit between B and D. T sits to the immediate right of V. How
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many people sit between U and T?

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Ans A. One

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B. Two

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C. Four

D. Three

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

115 85 60 40 25 ?
Ans A. 10

B. 15

C. 5
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D. 20

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Q.57 In a certain code language,
P + Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’,
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P # Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
P & Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’ and ag
P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

How is S related to M if ‘S # D + V & I % M’?
Ans A. Wife's father

B. Father’s mother

C. Father’s father

D. Father’s brother
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Q.58 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
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49 B 9 D 609 A 7 C 214 = ?

l a Ans A. 568
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C. 524

D. 545

Q.59 In a certain code language, OAVY is coded as 56 and SIXT is coded as 47. What is the
code for TMZB in that language?
Ans A. 55

B. 60
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C. 63

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D. 58
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.60 KIGK is related to JHFJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, JHFJ is related to IGEI. To which of the following is SQOS related, following
the same logic?
Ans A. RPNR

B. RQMS

C. RPMR

D. ROMR

Q.61 All 87 people are standing in a row, facing the north.
Mr. Zzz is 11th from the right end while Mr. Ggg is 26th from the left end.
How many people are there between Mr. Zzz and Mr. Ggg?
Ans A. 53

B. 51

C. 50

D. 52

Q.62 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 9 9 7 7 5 6 4 3 3 3 1 5 9 7 9 4 9 1 2 5 7 9 5 8 5 2 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 2

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

84 86 90 92 96 ?
Ans A. 100

B. 98

C. 99

D. 97

Q.64 All 61 people are standing in a row facing north. Z is 16th from the left end while G is 7th
from the right end. How many people are there between Z and G?
Ans A. 37

B. 41

C. 40

D. 38

Q.65 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

24 ÷ 19 + 84 × 7 − 127 = ?
Ans A. 523

B. 571

C. 594

D. 587

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. that group?
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

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position in the letter-cluster.)
A. LSO ag
B. FMI

C. PWS

D. NJI

Q.67 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

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VAE27 , OTX44 , HMQ61 , AFJ78 , ?
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Ans A. VYC95

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B. TUC95

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C. TYD95
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D. TYC95
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Q.68 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 1 7 2 5 8 5 5 2 2 7 8 4 3 7 6 4 1 6 1 2 9 1 5 6 8 3 2 4 8 5 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square digit and also immediately followed by a prime digit? (NOTE: 1 is also a
perfect square.)
Ans A. More than three
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B. Two

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C. Three
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D. One
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Q.69
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CPWG is related to XTTI in a certain way. In the same way, NILC is related to IMIE. To
which of the given options is OKZD related, following the same logic?
Ans A. JPWE

B. KPVE

C. JOWF

D. KOVF

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Q.70 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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l as How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by another
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symbol and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.71 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two
people sit between F and G when counted from the left of G. A sits third to the left of E.
C sits to the immediate right of E. C sits second to the left of F. B is an immediate
neighbour of A. How many people sit between D and F when counted from the right of
F?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 0

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2 2 ? 12 48 2401106
Ans A. 6

B. 10

C. 8

D. 4

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

YIS WKO UMK SOG ?
Ans A. QXZ

B. QCC

C. QQC

D. QWS

Q.74 Ajeet starts from Point Y and drives 12 km towards the north. He then turns right and
drives 33 km, takes a right and drives 67 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 48
km. He takes a right turn, drives 55 km, turns left and drives 27 km to stop at Point Z.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 46 km towards the west

B. 44 km towards the west

C. 48 km towards the east

D. 42 km towards the east

Q.75 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All parks are huts.
All huts are districts.
All districts are cities.

Conclusions:
(I) All parks are districts.
(II) All huts are cities.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.76 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) ag
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and

(25, 72, 194)
(32, 80, 224)
Ans A. (56, 98, 312)

B. (45, 89, 268)

C. (91, 65, 310)

D. (74, 88, 304)

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Q.77 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.
C sits third to the left of F. B sits second to the left of E. F is an immediate neighbour of
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both G and B. D is not an immediate neighbour of C.
How many people sit between B and D, when counted from the right of B?
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Ans A. 0
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B. 1
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C. 2

D. 3

Q.78 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

FACE - AFCE - ECAF
CASE - ACSE - ESAC
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Ans A. MAIN - AMIN - NIAM

B. TEAM - TAEM - MAET
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C. LONG - OLNG - ONGL
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D. GONE - OGNE - EONG
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Q.79 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).

Statements:
Some seeds are berries.
All fruits are berries.
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Conclusions:
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(I) Some seeds are fruits

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(II) All berries are fruits
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Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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a C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.80 Ajay drives 10 km from Point A towards the east. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km,
turns left and drives 10 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 15 km towards south

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B. 20 km towards north

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C. 20 km towards east

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D. 20 km towards west

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which authority launched a scheme in Greater Noida in June 2025 to promote medical
device manufacturing?
Ans A. Government of Delhi NCR

B. Government of India

C. Government of UP

D. Noida Development Authority

Q.82 Which edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held in 2025?
Ans A. 4th

B. 6th

C. 7th

D. 5th

Q.83 In April 2025, which protected area was officially notified as India’s 107th national park?
Ans A. Similipal

B. Bhitarkanika

C. Hemis

D. Ranthambore

Q.84 In which city was the 2025 Laureus World Sports Awards ceremony held?
Ans A. London

B. Madrid

C. Rome

D. Paris

Q.85 With which tech behemoth has the Indian company Infosys recently partnered to create
a generative AI solution for telecom operators?
Ans A. IBM

B. Nividia

C. Google

D. Open AI

Q.86 In the November 2025 by-elections, elections were held for the Assembly constituency
in which of the following northeastern states?
Ans A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Meghalaya

C. Nagaland

D. Mizoram

Q.87 The ICCON‑2025 MEE report covered how many national parks and sanctuaries?
Ans A. 250

B. 438

C. 500

D. 100

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.88 Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, what scheme was launched by the
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Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in April 2025?

. e m
s
Ans A. Carbon Capture Scheme
m a
se B. Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme

C. Renewable Hydrogen Exchange Scheme ag l
D. Blue Hydrogen Regulation Scheme

Q.89 Which Ministry gave the idea of a common board for class 10 and 12 in seven states?
Ans A. Ministry of Education

B. Ministry of Defense

C. Ministry of Social Welfare

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D. Ministry of Finance
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Q.90 .co
In which year did Armand Duplantis break the pole vault world record for the 12th time?
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s e l a
ag
Ans A. 2023

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B. 2022

C. 2024

D. 2025

Q.91 Which of the following was hosted by IIT Mandi in June 2025, focusing on mental health
applications?
Ans A. Health and Mind Summit

B. Mental Health Innovation Forum

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C. Brain Science Symposium

D. Mind, Brain, and Consciousness Conference

e m
Q.92
las
In April 2025, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) reduced the policy repo rate by 25

Ans
basis points, bringing it down to _____.
A. 5.50% ag
B. 6.25%

C. 6.00%

D. 5.75%

Q.93 The National Conference on “Strengthening Legal Aid Delivery Mechanisms” in
November 2025 was inaugurated at ____.

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Ans A. Sansad Bhavan, New Delhi

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B. Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi

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C. Supreme Court of India, New Delhi

s e g l
g l a D. National Judicial Academy, Bhopal
a
a Q.94 Who is the author of 'Lords of Earth and Sea: A History of the Chola Empire', published
in 2025?
Ans A. KK Aziz

B. Anirudh Kanisetti

C. RK Narayan

D. Shashi Tharoor

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.95 A new complex of India's first bio-manufacturing institute, BRIC-National Agri-Food Bio-
Manufacturing Institute (BRIC-NABI), aimed at enhancing India’s agri-food sector
through advanced biotechnology, was inaugurated at _____ in October 2024.
Ans A. Guwahati

B. Mohali

C. Ahmedabad

D. Chennai

Q.96 At which venue was the opening ceremony of the Khelo India Youth Games, 2025, held?
Ans A. Patliputra Sports Complex

B. Rajgir Sports Complex

C. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium

D. Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium

Q.97 In June 2025, which district was officially declared the first single-use plastic (SUP)–
free district in Odisha?
Ans A. Kalahandi

B. Rayagada

C. Nuapada

D. Bargarh

Q.98 On 5–6 February 2025, the national executive council meetings of FICCI and CII
converged at BGBS in which city?
Ans A. Kolkata

B. Surat

C. Raipur

D. New Delhi

Q.99 In 2025, the Krasheninnikov Volcano erupted after several centuries, releasing a
massive ash plume. In which region is this volcano located?
Ans A. Kamchatka Peninsula

B. Ural Mountains

C. Sakhalin Island

D. Siberia

Q.100 By June 2025, to which stance did the Reserve Bank of India shift back after moving
away from its accommodative policy?
Ans A. Withdrawn

B. Dovish

C. Restrictive

D. Neutral

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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m . s e
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a

Test Date 19/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is formed by a chemical reaction?
Ans A. Water

B. Air

C. Brass

D. Soil

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Q.2 During photosynthesis, plants take in carbon dioxide and water in the presence of
________.
Ans A. glucose and water
e m
B. oxygen and light
las
C. sunlight and chlorophyll
ag
D. energy and starch

Q.3 A stethoscope helps a doctor hear a patient’s heartbeat clearly. Which principle does a
stethoscope use for this purpose?
Ans A. Multiple reflection of sound

B. Interference of sound

C. Diffraction of sound
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D. Refraction of sound

Q.4
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In a v–t graph, if the slope keeps changing, it means:
s e m
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Ans A. speed is constant
g l a
g l a B. acceleration is uniform a
a C. acceleration is non-uniform

D. displacement is zero

Q.5 Which of the following gives H+ ions in an aqueous solution?
Ans A. Sodium hydroxide

B. Hydrochloric acid

C. Ammonium hydroxide
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D. Calcium hydroxide

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT correct?
Ans A. 1 Dioptre = focal length of 1 m.

B. The SI unit of power of lens is Dioptre (D).

C. A 2D lens has focal length 0.5 m.

D. A 5D lens has focal length 20 m.

Q.7 Metallurgy is:
Ans A. extraction of metals in pure form from their ores

B. heating sulphide ore in excess of air

C. prevention of iron from corrosion

D. removing gangue from ores

Q.8 Identify the cropping pattern in the given picture.

Ans A. Crop rotation

B. Inter cropping

C. Mixed cropping

D. Terrace farming

Q.9 Based on the concept of electrical resistance, how are conductors, resistors, and
insulators primarily differentiated?
Ans A. By the ease or difficulty with which they allow the flow of electric charge

B. By their length and area of cross-section

C. By their chemical composition (e.g., metal vs. non-metal)

D. By their ability to generate heat upon current flow

Q.10 When magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the products are:
Ans A. magnesium chloride and oxygen

B. magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen

C. magnesium oxide and water

D. magnesium chloride and hydrogen

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.11 Power measures:
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Ans A. the height of an object

. e m
m B. the energy stored in an object
as
se C. how fast or slow work is done
ag l
D. the total work done

Q.12 An athlete runs around a circular track with radius r, completing one full round in t
seconds. Which of the following correctly represents the athlete's speed v?
Ans A. v=r/2πt

B. v=2πr×t

C. v=2πr/t

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D. v=t/2πr

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Q.13
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In plants, asexual reproduction involves ________.

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Ans
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A. fusion of male and female gametes

s l a
l a
B. both parent organisms
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ag
C. only one parent organism

D. fusion and fertilisation

Q.14 What will happen if the dendrites of neurons do not function?
Ans A. Neurons will produce more electrical impulses

B. Signals will be transmitted faster

C. Signals from other neurons will not be received

D. Muscles will contract more strongly
m
Q.15 Which of the following plants reproduces by means of spores?
m .co
s e
la
Ans A. Moss

B. Rose
ag
C. Egg plant

D. Gram

Q.16 Which of the following conditions DOES NOT support an increase in the rate of
evaporation?
Ans A. An increase in humidity

B. An increase in wind speed

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C. An increase of temperature

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D. An increase of surface area

m s e
s e
Q.17 Why is the female body specifically prepared every month for pregnancy?
g l a
g l a Ans A. To remove waste products
a
a B. To release more sperm

C. To nourish the potential embryo

D. To improve blood circulation

Q.18 Which of the following cause(s) movement in muscular tissue?
Ans A. Cartilage

B. Contractile proteins

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C. Enzymes

e m
D. Ligaments

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.19 If the distance (d) between the Earth and the Moon decreases gradually, then what will
happen to the gravitational force (F) between them?
Ans A. Increases

B. First increases and then decreases

C. Decreases

D. Remains constant

Q.20 Which of the following conditions is essential for chlorine to react rapidly with an
alkane?
Ans A. Presence of oxygen

B. Sunlight

C. High pressure

D. High temperature

Q.21 What is the name of the long, fibre-like part of a neuron that carries signals away from
the cell body?
Ans A. Axon

B. Dendrite

C. Synapse

D. Nucleus

Q.22 The distance between the pole and the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is – 50
cm. If the magnification produced is (–1) by this mirror, then what will be the object and
the image distance, respectively?
Ans A. - 50 cm and - 50 cm

B. + 50 cm and + 50 cm

C. - 50 cm and + 50 cm

D. + 50 cm and - 50 cm

Q.23 Three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance
of the combination is:
Ans A. 3 Ω

B. 1 Ω

C. 11 Ω

D. 6 Ω

Q.24 What is the difference in molecular mass between two successive members of a
homologous series?
Ans A. 14u

B. 18u

C. 12u

D. 16u

Q.25 What happens to the particles in a suspension when the mixture is left undisturbed?
Ans A. The particles settle down when left undisturbed.

B. The mixture is stable and does not require stirring.

C. The mixture is clear and transparent.

D. The particles are dissolved in the solvent.

Section : Mathematics

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.26 An 8-digit number is divisible by 45. If the digits are rearranged, then the number must
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be divisible by:

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Ans A. 5
s e m
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B. 15

C. 45
ag
D. 3

Q.27 A shopkeeper calculates his profit per cent on the selling price and his profit is 6.25%.
Find his actual profit percentage.
Ans
A.

B. 10%

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C. 8%

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D.

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Q.28
as
In an election, 30% of the total votes were declared invalid. Of the remaining valid votes,
l ag
ag
60% were cast for the winning candidate. What percentage of the total votes did the
losing candidate receive?
Ans A. 15%

B. 35%

C. 28%

D. 40%

Q.29

Ans A. 26
m
B. 34

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C. 32
s e
D. 36
g la
Q.30
a
A water tank can be filled in 12 hours using three pipes. Pipe Z is three times as fast as
pipe C, and pipe C is twice as fast as pipe B. How long will it take pipe B alone to fill the
tank?
Ans A. 108 hours

B. 96 hours

C. 50 hours

D. 100 hours

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Q.31
m
A kite is flying at a height of 75 m, and the string makes an angle of 60˚ with the ground.
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.co m
What is the length of the string?

m s e
a
Ans

s e A.
g l
g l a a
a B.

C.

D.

Q.32 The father's age will be double his son's age after twenty years from now. If the father's
age was seven times the son's age five years ago from now, then find their present ages
(in years), respectively.
Ans A. 38, 9

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B. 42, 11

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C. 40, 10

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a ag
D. 46, 13

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.33 A triangle has sides of length 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm. Find the area of the triangle.
Ans A. 88 cm2

B. 92 cm2

C. 72 cm2

D. 84 cm2

Q.34 Find the HCF of the numbers 2520, 3600, 5880.
Ans A. 100

B. 120

C. 140

D. 180

Q.35 A person travels 60 km by car at a speed of 50 km/hr, then 80 km by bus at a speed of 40
km/hr and finally 100 km by train at a speed of 80 km/hr. What is the average speed
(rounded off two decimal places) of the person for the entire trip?
Ans A. 53.93 km/hr

B. 59.93 km/hr

C. 48.93 km/hr

D. 61.93 km/hr

Q.36 If the mode of a data exceeds its mean by 10.8, then the mode exceeds the median by
_____. (Use empirical formula to find the answer.)
Ans A. 7.2

B. 12.9

C. 9.3

D. 15.5

Q.37 The arithmetic mean of the observations 27, 69, 15, 88, 15, 54, 53, 20 and 19 is:
Ans A. 50

B. 37

C. 40

D. 31

Q.38 The area of an isosceles triangle is 48 square units. The unequal side (base) has a
length of 12 units. Find the perimeter (in units) of the triangle.
Ans A. 24

B. 36

C. 28

D. 32

Q.39 The selling price of an iPhone is ₹5,400, after allowing two successive discounts of 10%
and 36%. Find the marked price of the iPhone.
Ans A. ₹9,403

B. ₹9,294

C. ₹9,511

D. ₹9,375

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.40
m
. co s e m
m
Ans A. 281.67%

se B. 276.67%
g l a
C. 533.33% a
D. 266.67%

Q.41 A cyclist travels 150 km in 5 hours and then another 90 km in 3 hours. What is the
average speed of the cyclist for the entire journey?
Ans A. 45 km/hr

B. 40 km/hr

C. 35 km/hr
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D. 30 km/hr

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Q.42
em
In a local election, there were 20,000 voters. Candidate A received 40% of the total
l as
as
votes, and Candidate B received 50% of the total votes. The remaining votes were split

l
equally between two other candidates, C and D. How many votes did Candidate C
ag
Ans
receive?
A. ag
B.

C.

D.

Q.43

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Ans A. 3

B. 6
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C. 4
las
D. 5
ag
Q.44 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Ashish
borrowed an amount of ₹2,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Ashish after 3 years.
Ans A. 31,200

B. 32,700

C. 32,200

D. 30,700
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Q.45

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There is a polygon of 10 sides. How many triangles can be drawn using the vertices of
the polygon?
s e m
s e
Ans A. 120
g l a
g l a B. 100 a
a C. 150

D. 125

Q.46 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 18 and 9 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 5

B. 12

C. 8
m .
D. 4
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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.47 After selling an article at a discount of 27%, the profit percentage obtained is 36%. What
is the mark-up percentage (rounded off to two decimal places)?
Ans A. 86.30%

B. 83.64%

C. 84.01%

D. 88.29%

Q.48 Arohi buys 3 apples and 5 bananas for ₹85, while Rhea buys 2 apples and 4 bananas for
₹60. What is the total cost (in ₹) of one apple and one banana?
Ans A. 30

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

Q.49 Pushparaj and Himani together invested ₹48,600 in a business. At the end of the year,
out of a total profit of ₹6,600, Pushaparaj's share was ₹2,200. What was the investment
of Pushparaj?
Ans A. ₹17,280

B. ₹17,170

C. ₹16,200

D. ₹15,365

Q.50 If the mean proportional of P and 242 is 88, then find the value of P.5766
Ans A. 34

B. 32

C. 31

D. 35

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 5 6 3 8 1 4 7 9 2 5 8 3 7 4 6 1 9 2 8 3 7 4 (Right)

How many unique numbers in the series are prime numbers (each number counted only
once, regardless of repetitions)?
Ans A. Four

B. Five

C. Two

D. Three

Q.52 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing the north.
Only 1 person sits to the left of E. Only 2 people sit between E and F. C sits immediately
to the right of D. G sits immediately to the left of A. Only 1 person sits between F and D.
How many people sit between A and E?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.53 In a row of 25 people facing north, Ujwala is 5th from the right end. If Siya sits 3rd to the
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left of Ujwala, then what is Siya’s position from the left end of the row?

. Ans A. 20th
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m as
se B. 19th

C. 17th ag l
D. 18th

Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some batteries are torches.
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All clocks are torches.
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Conclusions:

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a
(I) Some batteries are clocks.

s e
(II) All torches are clocks.
l
Ans
l a
A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
ag
ag
B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.55 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

RV23, QU32, PT41, OS50, ?
Ans A. NS58
m
B. NR59

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C. NR58
s e
D. NS59
g la
Q.56
a
O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north.
No one sits to the left of P. Only four people sit between P and Q. Only three people sit
to the right of Y. X sits to the immediate left of R. W is not an immediate neighbour of Y.
Who sits third to the left of W?6315
Ans A. R

B. Y

C. Q

D. O
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.co m
Q.57 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a

m
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.
s e
s e g l a
a
MAID - DAMI - AIMD

g l FOUR - ROFU - OUFR
a
a Ans A. LOAD - LAOD - DAOL

B. GOLD - OGLD - DOLG

C. WENT - TEWN - NEWT

D. HUNT - TUHN - UNHT

Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘wet pig kit’ is coded as ‘zp ww hz’ and ‘thing kit head’ is
coded as ‘ww ym ce’. How is ‘kit’ coded in that language?
Ans A. hz
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B. zp

m s e
C. ww

s e l a
D. ym

g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘what a surprise’ is coded as ‘kd oc ip’ and ‘what is it’ is
coded as ‘kd mp co’. How is ‘what’ coded in that language?
Ans A. ip

B. oc

C. kd

D. mp

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

74 65 55 44 32 ?
Ans A. 18

B. 21

C. 19

D. 20

Q.61 Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Q is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between Q
and S. R is kept at one of the positions below Q. Only N is kept between S and L. Only
two boxes are kept between L and O. How many boxes are kept between M and S?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Zero

D. Two

Q.62 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.

COLD - DLCO - CLOD
HOUR - RUHO - HUOR
Ans A. RICE - ICRE - ICER

B. SUIT - SIUT - TIUS

C. GREY - YEGR - GERY

D. BUGS - SGBU - UGBS

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GT - EQ

B. XE - VC

C. SW - QU

D. YO - WM

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark in the given series?

87 75 64 54 45 ?
Ans A. 37

B. 33

C. 41

D. 35

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.65 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
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place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 7 − 2 + 45 × 3 ÷ 11 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. 15

B. 10 ag l
C. 4

D. 7

Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:
Some chairs are tables.
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.co m
Some tables are helmets.

m s e
Conclusions:
s e l a
a ag
(I): Some chairs are helmets.
l
ag
(II): All helmets are tables.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.67 In a certain code language,
A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
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and A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D ₹ R # A * C ± O’?
e m
Ans A. Mother's father
las
B. Father
ag
C. Wife's father

D. Wife's brother

Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

HLE23, JJH21, LHK19, NFN17, ?1712
Ans A. PEQ18
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B. PDQ15

m.co C. PDP18

s e m
s e D. PEP15

g l a
g l a Q.69 a
What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged
a and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

163 ÷ 4 - 125 x 5 + 19 = ?
Ans A. 662

B. 654

C. 666

D. 658

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. KNM

B. SVU

C. ZDB

D. YBA

Q.71 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

14 B 2 D 18 A 9 C 12 C 18 = ?
Ans A. 57

B. 58

C. 56

D. 54

Q.72 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.

FOUR - ORUF - RUOF
RIFT - ITFR - TFIR
Ans A. OPEN - POEN - NPEO

B. HUTS - USTH - STUH

C. QUIT - UQIT - TUIQ

D. GRAM - GARM - MARG

Q.73 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second to
the left of D. E is an immediate neighbour of B. A sits to the immediate left of B. C sits
second to the right of D. F sits to the immediate left of C. What is the position of A with
respect to C?
Ans A. Immediate left

B. Immediate right

C. Second to the right

D. Second to the left

Q.74 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(48, 12, 4)
(30, 2, 15)
Ans A. (64, 8, 6)

B. (70, 8, 9)

C. (26, 13, 2)

D. (38, 14, 3)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.75 Ravindra starts from Point Y and drives 18 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
m
drives 45 km, turns right and drives 42 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 26 km.

. co He takes a right turn, drives 89 km. He then turns left, drives 19 km to stop at Point Z.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
s e m
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reach Point Y again?

All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
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Ans A. 67 km towards north

B. 65 km towards south

C. 61 km towards east

D. 64 km towards west

Q.76 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 192 574 563 189 567 (Right)
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(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
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(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

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What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second

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digit of the lowest number?

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Ans A. 12

B. 13

C. 15

D. 11

Q.77 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 3 7 4 1 5 1 5 7 4 2 3 8 7 4 5 2 5 3 6 2 7 9 8 4 3 6 9 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4
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B. 5
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C. 3
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D. 2

Q.78 Which pair of numbers comes in place of the question marks (?) using the given
pattern?

2, 6, 3, 24, 4, 60, 5, 120, ?, ?
Ans A. 6, 216

B. 6, 36
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C. 6, 210
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g l a Q.79 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only. a
a (Left) 6 9 9 5 8 8 5 4 8 4 2 2 7 6 2 2 7 1 5 9 3 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

D. 2
m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.80 In a city, a school is 18 km towards the north of a park. A hospital is 21 km towards the
west of the school. A restaurant is 21 km towards the west of the park. How far and in
which direction is the restaurant from the hospital?
Ans A. 21 km, south

B. 21 km, north

C. 18 km, north

D. 18 km, south

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which Indian state was involved in a boundary dispute with Assam in 2025?
Ans A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Sikkim

C. Bihar

D. Meghalaya

Q.82 In May 2025, who addressed the Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX 2025) on
behalf of India?
Ans A. Dr. Jitendra Singh

B. S Somanath

C. Narendra Modi

D. Amit Shah

Q.83 Which of the following was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in
September 2025, aligning with India’s Net Zero and renewable energy goals?
Ans A. National Solar Energy Sustainability Framework

B. National Offshore Wind Energy Mission

C. National Wind Energy Policy

D. National Policy on Geothermal Energy

Q.84 Who among the following authored the 2025 book 'Original Sin'?
Ans A. Ron Suskind and Jonathan Martin

B. Bob Woodward and Carl Bernstein

C. Michael Wolff and Maggie Haberman

D. Jake Tapper and Alex Thompson

Q.85 Which state was ranked the best-performing in the Management Effectiveness
Evaluation (MEE) 2020–2025 of National Parks and Protected Areas?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Uttarakhand

Q.86 The women’s Kabaddi World Cup, 2025, was won by:
Ans A. Bangladesh

B. Pakistan

C. China

D. India

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.87 On 23 August 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
m
successfully carried out the inaugural flight trials of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon

. co System (IADWS) off the shoreline in ______.

s e m
m Ans A. Odisha
a
se B. Andhra Pradesh
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C. Tamil Nadu

D. West Bengal

Q.88 Which translator was awarded for translating Anuradha Sharma Pujari's Kanchan
(Assamese) into Bodo (awarded in March 2025)?
Ans A. Uttara Bwiswmuthiary

B. Anjan Sarma

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C. Suvash Satpathy

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.co m
D. Basudeb Das

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Q.89
s e
In June 2025, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) voted to reduce the policy repo rate
l a
a ag
by 50 basis points (bps) with immediate effect to:
l
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Ans A. 6.50%

B. 4.50%

C. 7.50%

D. 5.50%

Q.90 Which summit saw the participation of 16 states, the EU, and NATO in early March
2025?
Ans A. UN General Assembly

m
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B. Munich Security Conference

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C. London Summit on Ukraine

D. Shangri-La Dialogue
s e
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Q.91
Ans
a
What was the new Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) level after the December 2024 cut?
A. 4.0%

B. 5.0%

C. 3.5%

D. 4.5%

Q.92 In the Union Budget, 2025-26, what is the key focus of the Sports Budget as announced
by the Government of India?
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Ans A. Promoting e-sports only
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B. Nurturing young talent and infrastructure

m s e
s e C. Building stadiums abroad

g l a
g l a D. Funding private sports leagues
a
a Q.93 Which sprinter broke his own national 200 m record with a run of 20.02 seconds in
Ostrava?
Ans A. Reynier Mena

B. Victor Lopez

C. Lamine Yamal

D. Gout Gout

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.94 Which honour was conferred upon cricketer R Ashwin by President Droupadi Murmu at
Rashtrapati Bhavan in April 2025?
Ans A. Padma Shri

B. Arjuna Award

C. Padma Vibhushan

D. Padma Bhushan

Q.95 What is the projected space budget of India for the year 2025–26?
Ans A. ₹23,416 crore

B. ₹13,416 crore

C. ₹43,416 crore

D. ₹33,416 crore

Q.96 According to the World Bank’s Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, what was India’s
extreme poverty rate in 2022-2023?
Ans A. 1.3%

B. 1.5%

C. 3.2%

D. 2.3%

Q.97 Which jurist was designated as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 30 October 2025 and
assumed office on 24 November 2025?
Ans A. Justice Surya Kant

B. Justice BV Nagarathna

C. Justice Vikram Nath

D. Justice PS Narasimha

Q.98 In June 2025, the Government of India planned to shut down the National Polio
Surveillance Network (NPSN) established by which international organisation?
Ans A. United Nations Development Programme

B. United Nations Environment Programme

C. World Health Organization

D. World Bank

Q.99 The Government of India launched a new programme named ‘NAVYA’ to provide
vocational training to adolescent girls in non-traditional job roles. In which district was
this programme first launched in June 2025?
Ans A. Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh

B. Jaipur, Rajasthan

C. Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh

D. Raipur, Chhattisgarh

Q.100 In 2025, which two Indian cities were recognised as 'Wetland Cities'?
Ans A. Agra and Surat

B. Udaipur and Indore

C. Jabalpur and Dewas

D. Jhansi and Moradabad

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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a

Test Date 19/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is correct for concave mirrors?
Ans A. They always produce virtual images.

B. They cannot produce magnified images.

C. They are used by dentists to see enlarged images of teeth.

D. They are used as rear-view mirrors.

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Q.2 Which event does NOT directly occur during photosynthesis in green plants?
Ans A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
e m
B. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
las
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C. Breakdown of carbohydrates to release energyg
D. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

Q.3 When salt solution is applied to boiled Rhoeo leaf peels, it fails to show plasmolysis
due to:
Ans A. dead cells cannot osmoregulate

B. chlorophyll takes up water

C. walls block salts
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D. nuclei stop diffusion
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Q.4
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Which of the following is an allotrope of carbon?
s e m
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Ans A. Diamond
g l a
g l a B. Quartz a
a C. Alum

D. Limestone

Q.5 Which of the following ensures that the DNA amount is NOT doubled in every
generation?
Ans A. Division of body cells

B. Consistency of DNA in gametes

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C. Division of neurons

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D. Reduction of DNA in gametes

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 If the force on an object is doubled while its mass remains the same, the acceleration:
Ans A. becomes zero

B. remains the same

C. also doubles

D. halves

Q.7 A retarding force of 10 N acts on a body. The work done due to this force is −200 J.
What will be the magnitude and direction of the displacement of the body under the
action of this force?
Ans A. 20 m; opposite to the direction of the force

B. 2000 m; in the same direction as the force

C. 20 m; in the same direction as the force

D. 2000 m; opposite to the direction of the force

Q.8 The process by which the developing embryo gets associated with the lining of the
uterus is called _________.
Ans A. embryogenesis

B. fertilisation

C. implantation

D. abortion

Q.9 Which of the following statements about variations is INCORRECT?
Ans A. Variation makes species prone to extinction.

B. Variation enables adaptation to changing environments.

C. Provides resilience against diseases

D. Ensures species survival during disasters

Q.10 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about resistivity?
Ans A. It changes with temperature.

B. It is measured in ohm-meter.

C. It depends on the length of the wire.

D. It is a property of the material.

Q.11 Which metal reacts violently with cold water?
Ans A. Aluminium

B. Sodium

C. Magnesium

D. Copper

Q.12 If you push a stationary wall with 80 N, the wall pushes you back with ______.
Ans A. 80 N

B. 160 N

C. 40 N

D. 0 N

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.13 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
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(A) and Reason (R).

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m Assertion (A): Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels.
as
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Reason (R): Insulin converts glucose into glycogen for storage in the liver.
A. A is true, but R is false. ag l
B. A is false, but R is true.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

D. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q.14 Which of the following represents corrosion?
Ans A. Burning of LPG

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B. Rusting of iron

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C. Dissolving sugar in water

m s e
D. Boiling of water

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.15 If the radius of curvature of a convex mirror used for rear-view on an automobile is 4.00
m, what is its focal length?
Ans A. 8 m

B. 4 m

C. 1 m

D. 2 m

Q.16 What happens to the concentration of a solution if more solute is added to the same
amount of solvent?
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Ans A. It becomes less concentrated

B. It remains unchanged
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C. It becomes more concentrated
las
D. It becomes a suspension
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Q.17 Which of the following best defines the concentration of a solution?
Ans A. The amount of solvent present in a given amount of solution

B. The amount of solvent present in a given amount of solute

C. The amount of solute present in a given amount of solution

D. The amount of solution present in a given amount of solute

m
m .co
Q.18 A straight current carrying conductor has a magnetic field (B) associated with it. Which

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of the following is correct regarding the value of magnetic field (B)?
(i) The magnetic field will increase as we move away from the conductor.
e m
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l as
l as (iii) The magnetic field will increase when the current flowing through the conductor
increases.
ag
ag (iv) The magnetic field will first decrease when the current flowing through the
conductor increases.
Ans A. Both (i) and (ii)

B. Both (ii) and (iii)

C. Both (iii) and (iv)

D. Both (i) and (iv)

Q.19 Which of the following is the correct function of the Golgi body in a plant cell?
Ans A. Maintaining the shape of the cell.
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B. Supporting the formation of lysosomes.
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C. Providing protection to the cell.

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D. Helping in the synthesis of proteins.
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.20 Which of the following is true about infrasonic sound?
Ans A. Frequency between 20 Hz and 20 kHz

B. Frequency < 20 Hz

C. Frequency > 20 kHz

D. Cannot travel in air

Q.21 Which of the following is a characteristic reaction of saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes)?
Ans A. Addition reaction

B. Neutralisation

C. Substitution reaction

D. Polymerisation

Q.22 What is a decomposition reaction?
Ans A. Two or more substances combine to form one product

B. Two compounds exchange ions

C. A compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances

D. A single substance is formed from two or more reactants

Q.23 Which of the following pairs represent the Isobar?
Ans A. 15N7 and 16O8

B. 15O8 and 16O8

C. 40K19 and 40Ar18

D. 235U92 and 238U92

Q.24 Which practice demonstrates judicious energy use at home?
Ans A. Keeping all appliances on standby mode

B. Heating an empty room continuously

C. Using bulbs or fluorescent tubes

D. Overusing air-conditioners

Q.25 A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m from the surface of the earth. What will be the
speed with which the ball will strike the ground?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The price of fuel decreases by 45%, 15% and 50% in three successive months, but
increases by 70% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Rounded off to two
decimal places)
Ans A. Decreases by 60.26%

B. Increases by 66.72%

C. Decreases by 61.32%

D. Increases by 65.02%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.27 The average age of 43 students of a class is 25 years. If the age of the teacher is also
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included, the average age of the whole group becomes 26 years. The age (in years) of

. the teacher is:
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m as
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Ans A. 66

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B. 68

C. 71
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D. 69

Q.28 A garrison of 1209 men has provisions for 20 days. How long (in days) will the
provisions last if the garrison is increased by 403 men?
Ans A. 25

B. 15
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C. 10
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D. 35

e m l as
Q.29
s
If 5x − y = 3125 and 33x + y = 2187, then the value of 19x − 18y is:
l a ag
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Ans A. 93

B. 97

C. 91

D. 95

Q.30 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 17°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 8 : 9, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 4°
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B. 2°
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C. 6°
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D. 5°
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Q.31
a
₹8,516 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹88, ₹31 and ₹90 are deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 18:17:4. Find the difference
between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹2,919

B. ₹2,719

C. ₹2,710

D. ₹2,619
m
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Q.32 The sum of the present ages of Priya and her younger brother Rohan is 44 years. Four
years ago, Priya was twice as old as Rohan was at that time. What is Priya’s current age
e m
e m (in years)?
l as
l asAns A. 30
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ag B. 28

C. 26

D. 24

Q.33 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 10 and 15 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 5

B. 4

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C. 8

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D. 12

s e l
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.34 Aarti got a new bed at 50% discount. If Aarti did not get any discount, Aarti would have
to pay ₹8,453 extra. So how much did Aarti pay for the bed?
Ans A. ₹8,455

B. ₹8,453

C. ₹8,454

D. ₹8,452

Q.35 A car travels a distance of 120 km in 2 hours. What is its speed?
Ans A. 60 km/h

B. 120 km/h

C. 40 km/h

D. 240 km/h

Q.36 Find the value of x in the given expression.

Ans A. 9

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q.37 A taxi service charges a fixed base fare plus a variable rate per kilometre. For a 10 km
trip, Raju paid ₹230 and for a 15 km trip, Meena paid ₹330. What is the base fare and the
per-kilometre charge?
Ans A. Base fare = ₹30; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹20

B. Base fare = ₹50; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹18

C. Base fare = ₹40; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹18

D. Base fare = ₹60; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹15

Q.38
3062
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 In an election between two candidates, 20% of the voters did not cast their votes, and
all the votes cast were valid. The winner secured 70% of the votes cast and won by a
margin of 23,200 votes. What was the total number of voters?
Ans A. 75,000

B. 82,500

C. 69,500

D. 72,500

Q.40 From an interior point of an equilateral triangle, three perpendiculars are drawn to its
three sides which are of lengths 12.7 cm, 14.8 cm and 11.5 cm, respectively. Find the
area of the equilateral triangle.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.41 The amount on a sum of ₹4,400 at 5% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually, in 2 years will be:

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Ans A. ₹4,819
m a
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C. ₹5,840 ag l
D. ₹4,071

Q.42

Ans A.

B.

C.
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D.

Q.43
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In a distribution where the empirical relation holds true, if both the mode and the
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median are 46, find the mean.
s l a
Ans A. 46.5
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B. 45.5
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C. 45

D. 46

Q.44 The height of a cylinder is 56 cm. If the circumference of its base is 176 cm, then what
is the total surface area (in cm2) of this cylinder?

m
Ans A. 12,895

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B. 13,252
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C. 14,784
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D. 11,745
a
Q.45 A, B and C can do a work in 17 days, 51 days and 68 days, respectively. They finished
together that work and gained ₹5,985 in wages. Find B's wage (in ₹).
Ans A. 1,260

B. 3,780

C. 2,241

D. 945
m
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.co m
Q.46 A stationery seller purchases 6 notebooks for ₹30 and sells them for ₹36. What is his

m
profit percentage?
s e
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Ans A. 20%
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g l a B. 6% a
a C. 120%

D. 16.67%

Q.47 The market prices of jowar to gram are in the ratio 1 : 5, and a family consumes them in
the ratio 4 : 3 by quantity. Find the ratio of expenditure on jowar to that on gram.
Ans A. 5 : 16

B. 6 : 17

C. 3 : 11
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D. 4 : 15
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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.48

11131
Ans A. 16 minutes

B. 9 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 21 minutes

Q.49 An article is marked 25% above its cost price. A discount is offered so that a profit of
15% is made. Find the discount percentage.
Ans A. 5%

B. 12%

C. 10%

D. 8%

Q.50

Ans A.

B.

C. 2

D. 1

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 All 63 people are standing in a row, facing the north.
Mr. Zzz is 12th from the left end while Mr. Ggg is 5th from the right end.
How many people are there between Mr. Zzz and Mr. Ggg?
Ans A. 47

B. 45

C. 43

D. 46

Q.52 A, B, C, D, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
Only N sits to the left of P. Only four people sit between N and A. Only B sits between O
and C, and O is not an immediate neighbour of A.
Who sits at the extreme right of the line?
Ans A. C

B. O

C. A

D. D

Q.53 Refer to the following number-symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting is to be done from left to right only.

(Left) $ # # £ 9 % £ 7 * & € 1 3 4 5 6 4 9 € 2 5 & (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
as
se Statements:
All hydrogen is oxygen. ag l
Some oxygen is nitrogen.
Some nitrogen is carbon.

Conclusions:
(I): Some nitrogen is hydrogen.
(II): No carbon is oxygen.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

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C. Only conclusion (I) is true
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D. Only conclusion (II) is true

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s e l a
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Q.55 Seven people, R, S, T, U, V, W and X, are sitting in a row, facing east. V is seated third

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from the right end. S is fourth to the left of W. R is seated to the right of V and at one of

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the ends. Only one person is seated between T and S. U does not sit at any of the
extreme ends. Who is seated at the extreme left end?
Ans A. W

B. X

C. T

D. V

Q.56 BDBF is related to JLJN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the

m
same way, HJHL is related to PRPT. To which of the given options is RTRV related,

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following the same logic?

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Ans A. ZAYD

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B. ZCYG

C. ZBYD

D. ZBZD
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Q.57 In a certain code language, ‘bring the cup’ is coded as ‘bz rs tq’ and ‘cup on the’ is
coded as ‘rs pl tq’. How is ‘on’ coded in that language?
Ans A. bz

B. pl

C. rs

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D. tq

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Q.58
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
s e m
s e given series to make it logically complete?

g l a
g l a BZA 30 ZXY 41 XVW 52 VTU 63 ?
a
a Ans A. TSR 74

B. TRS 74

C. TYE 73

D. TQR 73

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some houses are kites.
All mangoes are houses.
All flowers are kites.

Conclusions:
(I) Some houses are flowers.
(II) No flowers are mangoes.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.60 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CUV : AYT
YCR : WGP
Ans A. TWG : PYC

B. ANP : VRK

C. KGX : HKU

D. UKN : SOL

Q.61 Each of the digits in the number 1368497 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 7

B. 11

C. 10

D. 8

Q.62 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 9 1 7 9 7 3 8 1 9 1 7 7 5 4 4 3 2 3 8 7 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 5

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

NDG, PFI, RHK, TJM, ?
Ans A. VKO

B. VKP

C. VLO

D. VLP

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Q.64 Each of the digits in the number 9214538 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
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right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in

. the original number? 4970
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Ans A. Two

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B. One

C. None
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D. Three

Q.65 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
7593562, which of the following digits will be second from the left in the new number
this formed?
Ans A. 8

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B. 5

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C. 3

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D. 1

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Q.66
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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249 232 215 198 181 ?
Ans A. 166

B. 164

C. 168

D. 170

Q.67 Seven boxes D, E, F, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the

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same order. Only five boxes are kept below X. Only three boxes are kept between F and

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X. V is kept at one of the positions below F. Only E is kept between X and W. D is kept at
one of the positions above X. How many boxes are kept between V and D?

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Ans A. Three

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B. Five

C. Two ag
D. Four

Q.68 Ramesh starts from Point A and drives 51 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 55 km, turns right and drives 54 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
56 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

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Ans A. 4 km to the west

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B. 3 km to the west
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a Q.69 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follow (all numbers are
single digit numbers only).

(Left) 4 2 1 5 7 9 8 5 3 6 2 1 5 7 3 7 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 5 2 4 1 (Right)

How many prime numbers are there in the number series?
Ans A. Nine

B. Thirteen

C. Fourteen

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D. Seven

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.70 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

WEAR - EAWR - RAEW
SINK - INSK - KNIS
Ans A. BITE - BTIE - ETIB

B. FANS - ANFS - ANSF

C. YOUR - OYUR - ROUY

D. MONK - ONMK - KNOM

Q.71 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate
right of E. B sits fourth to the left of E. Only one person sits between B and F. C sits to
the immediate left of F. D sits second to the left of A. Three of the following four are
alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
Ans A. BA

B. DE

C. FD

D. CF

Q.72 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. SO−NJ

B. JF−EA

C. TP−OK

D. NJ−HG

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

28 33 23 28 ? 23
Ans A. 15

B. 22

C. 20

D. 18

Q.74 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(28, 4, 336)
(25, 5, 375)
Ans A. (31, 6, 465)

B. (32, 3, 288)

C. (26, 6, 368)

D. (41, 3, 379)

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Q.75 In a certain code language,
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‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,

. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
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‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
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‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is F related to K if ‘F × G + H – I ÷ K’? ag
Ans A. Mother's mother

B. Father's mother

C. Mother's sister

D. Father's sister

Q.76 In a traffic jam on the road, Car A is to the right of Car B. Car D is to the left of Car B.
Car F is behind Car D. What is the position of Car F with respect to Car B?
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Ans A. West
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B. South-west

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C. South-east
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D. South

Q.77 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. ORN

B. KNJ

C. QPT
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D. FIE

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Q.78
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This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

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(Left) 742 912 853 657 154 (Right)
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(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans A. Three

B. One

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C. Four

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D. Two

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Q.79 In a certain code language, ‘give me bike’ is written as ‘bn gt ry’ and ‘who know me’ is
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g l a coded as ‘ry fh vt’. How is ‘me’ coded in that language?
a
a Ans A. vt

B. bn

C. fh

D. ry

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

951 952 954 957 961 ?
Ans A. 964
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B. 969
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C. 965
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D. 966
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bills was introduced in the Lok Sabha
in August 2025?
Ans A. 131st Amendment Bill

B. 129th Amendment Bill

C. 130th Amendment Bill

D. 133rd Amendment Bill

Q.82 Which Pakistani javelin thrower received the 'Best Asian Athlete' title in May 2025?
Ans A. Muhammad Ali

B. Muhammad Illihas

C. Kareem Ali Kamran

D. Arshad Nadeem

Q.83 In January 2025, the Reserve Bank of India removed supervisory restrictions on which
of the following Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)?
Ans A. AP Rural Bank

B. GoCapital Finance

C. Family Home Finance

D. Arohan Financial Services

Q.84 What was India’s unemployment rate in May 2025, as per the Periodic Labour Force
Survey (PLFS)?
Ans A. 4.8%

B. 5.6%

C. 5.1%

D. 6.2%

Q.85 The country's first earthquake early warning mobile application 'Bhookamp' has been
developed in which of the following IITs?
Ans A. IIT Indore

B. IIT Roorkee

C. IIT Kanpur

D. IIT Delhi

Q.86 Which other Bill related to Waqf matters also received Presidential assent in 2025?
Ans A. Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill

B. Waqf Tribunal Establishment Bill

C. Muslim Property Regulation Bill

D. Islamic Trusts Reform Bill

Q.87 Indian Conservation Conference–2025, highlighting traditional knowledge and scientific
approaches, took place in which month of 2025?
Ans A. April

B. June

C. March

D. September

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Q.88 Whose statue was unveiled at Raj Bhavan, Goa, by the Vice-President of India and is
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known as the 'Father of Medicine' in ancient Indian history?

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Ans A. Dhanvantari
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se B. Patanjali

C. Charaka ag l
D. Sushruta

Q.89 As announced in June 2025, which of the following banks approved $109.97 million
loan to boost advanced skills and employability in Gujarat?
Ans A. State Bank of India

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. World Bank
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D. Asian Development Bank

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Q.90
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Which public sector company secured a ₹511 crore Transfer of Technology (ToT) deal
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(SSLVs)?
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from ISRO in 2025 to manufacture and commercialise Small Satellite Launch Vehicles
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Ans
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A. Bharat Electronics Limited

B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

C. Larsen & Toubro

D. Indian SpaceTech Corporation

Q.91 Which of the following Bills, presented by the Union Home Minister and Minister of
Cooperation on 20 August 2025, prohibits individuals holding key constitutional offices
from administering the government while in jail?

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Ans A. Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Seventh Amendment) Bill, 2025

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B. Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2025
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C. Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025

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D. Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2025

Q.92 At the Panorama International Literature Festival Awards, 2025, which young Indian
received the Serena Memorial Child Prodigy Award, 2025?
Ans A. Salman Lakda

B. Karnav Rastogi

C. Vinita Agrawal

D. Nairithi Konduru

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Q.93
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According to the 2025 Global Hunger Index report, what is India’s rank among the
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assessed countries?

m s e
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Ans
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A. 102nd

g l a
g l a B. 98th
a
a C. 95th

D. 110th

Q.94 Who inaugurated the Chief Minister's Mini Sports Stadium in Madurai district in March
2025?
Ans A. Anbil Mahesh

B. Udhayanidhi Stalin

C. Edappadi K Palaniswam
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D. P Moorthy

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.95 In which Union Territories will the 5th edition of Khelo India Winter Games 2025 be
held?
Ans A. Punjab and Haryana

B. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand

C. Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh

D. Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh

Q.96 Who became the first Indian chess player to be ranked No.1 in the live FIDE rankings in
2025?
Ans A. D Gukesh

B. Viswanathan Anand

C. Arjun Erigaisi

D. R Praggnanandhaa

Q.97 Which day is recognised as International Youth Day in 2025?
Ans A. July 18

B. September 21

C. August 9

D. August 12

Q.98 What is the name of the ChatGPT-style AI service set to be launched by Reliance
Industries?
Ans A. Chat Reliance

B. Hanooman

C. G P Style

D. ChatGPT-style

Q.99 What is the name of the new programme launched by the National Commission for
Women (NCW) in May 2025 for college students to promote gender sensitivity, raise
awareness on the prevention of sexual harassment and address cyber crimes
impacting students?
Ans A. Campus Calling Abhiyaan

B. Campus Ambassadors Programme

C. Gender Sensitization Scholars

D. Yuva Saksham Initiative

Q.100 The Environment Audit Rules, 2025, were introduced by which ministry in India?
Ans A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

C. Ministry of Commerce & Industry

D. Ministry of Earth Sciences

"

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