AP EAPCET 2027 Sample Paper Agriculture

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

AP EAPCET (Agriculture) 2027
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

160 160 180 Min +1 / 0

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 160 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 1 mark; there is no negative marking.

4. Total time allowed is 180 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

AP EAPCET (Agriculture) 2027
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 160 Max Marks 160 Time 180 Min Marking +1 / 0

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

BOTANY

1. Match the following 2. Restriction endonuclease recognises palindromic
nucleotide sequences. because they have characteristic
(A) A-IV B-I C-III D-II

(B) A-IV B-I C-V D-II (A) Dyad symmetry

(C) A-II B-III C-I D-IV (B) Staggered cut

(D) A-II B-III C-I D-IV (C) Direction of expression

(D) Recombinant DNA sequences

3. Glue prepared and used by the woli-er bees to seal the 4. Study the following statements I. Programmed death
cracks in honey combs of cells is called apoptosis II. p53 is called guardian angel
of cell's genome III. Transgenic cow Rosie produced milk
(A) Chrysalis
containing α-1 antitrypsin IV. Nitrosamines are non
(B) Propolis
carcinogenic Among the above, the incorrect statements
(C) Bee wax are
(D) Bee Venom
(A) I,II

(B) I,II,III

(C) III,IV

(D) II,III,IV

5. Arrange the path of electrons from water to the 6. 
phycocyanin in the light reaction. i) Plastoquinone ii)
(A)
Excited P680* iii) Cytf vi) Fe-S v) Pheophytin vi) Quinone
(B)
The correct sequence is
(C)
(A) Iii. v, vi, i. ii, iv
(D)
(B) ii, v, vi, i, iv, iii

(C) iv, i, iii, vi, v

(D) vi, iv, v, iii, ii, i

7. Study the following From the above, the correct 8. Study the following statements I. Karyotype of
combination are Klinefelter's syndrome is AA + XO II. Tumer’s syndrome is
an example for trisomy III. AA + XX + 21 st chromosome
(A) I,II
is the karyotype of Down's syndrome IV. Individual with
(B) I,III
Klinefelter syndrome is Barr body positive Among the
(C) II,III above , correct statements are
(D) II,only
(A) I,II

(B) II,III

(C) III,IV

(D) I,IV

9. These cells of Corpora adiposa of cockroach store food 10. Study the following lists. Match the floral parts given
materials in List - I with the corresponding symbols, in List - II

(A) Mycetocytes (A)

(B) Tropocytes (B)

(C) Oenoctes (C)

(D) Urate Cells (D)

11. Assertion ( A ) : The fragments of DNA generated by 12. Assertion ( A ) : Sodium chloride is dissolved in water
the action of restriction endonucleases are separated by and this solution will have a lower water potential than
polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. Reason (R) : The pure water. Reason (R) : The Ψ _ s is always positive in
separated DNA fragments are visualized as blight orange comparison with pure water. Which of the following is
coloured bands after staining with Ethidium Bromide true?
followed by exposure to UV-radiation. Which of the
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
following is true?
explanation of ( A )
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (B) Both ( A ) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of ( A ) explanation of ( A )
(B) Both ( A ) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct (C) ( A ) is true, but (R) is false
explanation of ( A )
(D) ( A ) is false, but (R) is true
(C) ( A ) is true, but (R) is false

(D) A is false but R is true

13. The formation of the Enzyme - Substrate complex is 14. Assertion [A] : Long neck for Giraffes is due to
essential for directional selection Reason [R] : It works constantly
removing the individuals from one end and constantly
(A) catalysis
shifting the average value to the other end.
(B) chelation
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
(C) elicition
explanation of [A]
(D) anabolism
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

15. Assertion ( A ) : A single gene maybe occasionally 16. Study the following lists and match the discoveries
related to more than one character. Reason (R) : The- and/or inventions made by the scientists during 20th
above phenomenon cannot be called as pleiotropy since a century
single gene cannot be related to more than one trait.
(A) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (B) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
explanation of ( A )
(C) a-i , b-ii, c-iii, d-v
(B) Both ( A ) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(D) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
explanation of ( A )

(C) ( A ) is true, but (R) is false

(D) A is false but R is true

17. Acidity of urethra of man is neutralised by the 18. Observe the following diagram of V.S. of eye and
secretion of identify the parts I, II, Ill and IV

(A) Prostate gland (A) I- Blind spot II-Fovea III-Choroid IV-Cornea

(B) Cowper’s gland (B) I-Fovea II-Blind spot III-Choroid IV-Cornea

(C) Seminal vesicles (C) I-Yellow spot II-Fovea III-Conjunctiva IV-Choroid

(D) Skene glands (D) I-Blind Spot II-Yellow spot III-Pupil IV-Cornea

19. Study the following diagram of V.S. of tooth and 20. Read the following combinations and arrange the
identify the parts I, II. Ill and IV below chronologically in the light of evolution i) Vascular
Cryptogams - Ramenta ii) Embryophyte non-archegoniate
(A) I-Dentine II-Enamel III-Pulp cavity IV-Periodontal
phane10gams - presence of companion cells in phloem iii)
membrane
Plant amphibians - elaters iv) Tracheophyte phanerogams
(B) I-Enamel II-Dentine III-Pulp cavity IV-Periodontal
- no vessels in xylem The correct sequence is
membrane
(A) iii, i, iv, ii
(C) I-Periodontal membrane II-Dentine III-Pulp cavity Enamel
(B) iii, i, ii, iv
(D) I-Enamel II-Periodontal membrane III-Dentine IV-Theca
(C) iii, iv, i, ii

(D) i, iii, ii, iv

21. In watermelon the spirally coiled stem modifications 22. Assertion [A] : Glomerular filtrate becomes
which help in climbing are developed hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule of the nephron
Reason [R] : In distal convoluted tubule obligatory
(A) Apical bud
reabsorption of water and Na+ takes place
(B) epidermis bud
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
(C) Adventitious bud
explanation of [A]
(D) embryo
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

23. Which one of the following theories contradicts 24. Which hormone is sprayed to increase the length of
Lamark 's theory? stem in sugarcane crop?

(A) Theory of Natural Selection (A) Ethylene

(B) Germplasm theory (B) Cytokinin

(C) Mutation theory (C) Gibberellin

(D) Theory of biogenesis (D) Methylene

25. If 4 individuals are died and S individuals are born in 26. The following are the parts of human respiratory
a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies during time system Arrange them in correct sequence through which
interval of 7 days, calculate the intrinsic rate of natural inhaled air reaches the alveoli
increase for fruit fly population week
(A) III, V, I, IV, VI, II, VIII, VII
(A) 0.03 (B) VII, VIII, VI, II, IV, I, V, III
(B) 0.3 (C) V, I, IV, II, VI, VIII, VII, III
(C) 0.01 (D) III, V, I, IV, II, VI, VIII, VII
(D) 0.1

27. A colour blind man married a woman who is a 28. Two of the following statements are correctly
daughter of a colour blind father and nonnal homozygous defined. Identify the correct combination i) Conversion of
mother. what are the chances of their daughters to hnRNA to mRNA - processing ii) Removal of introns and
become colour blind? joining of exons - splicing iii) Addition of adenylate
residues to 3 '-end in a template dependent manner -
(A) 25 %
Tailing iv) Methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to 5 '-
(B) 75 %
end of hnRNA - capping
(C) 100 %
(A) ii & iii
(D) 50 %
(B) i & ii

(C) i & iv

(D) iii & iv

29. Assertion [A] : Entamoeba histolytica is an obligate 30. Which of the following are the characteristic features
anaerobe Reason [R] : It lacks mitochondria of phloem? i) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and
sieve cells ii) Presence of tracheids iii) They store food
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
materials in the form of starch or fat. iv) They have sieve
explanation of [A]
tube elements that are long, tube-like structure v) Their
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
end walls are perforated in a sieve like manner.
explanation of [A]
(A) ii, iii, iv and i
(C) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) ii, iii and i
(D) [A] is false but [R] is true
(C) i, iv and v

(D) v, ii, iv and iii

31. Oriented locomotor movement of an organism 32.
towards or away from light source is called
Study the following statements [I] Camels are partial
(A) Photokinesis regulators or partial conformers [II] In the limnetic zone
(B) Phototropism of a lake. decomposers are almost absent [III] Ten

(C) Phototaxis percent law for the transfer of energy from one trophic
level to the next was proposed by Elton [IV] The natural
(D) Photoperiodism
reservoir of phosphorus is sea [V] In case of parasitic
food chain. the pyramid of number is inverted.

Among the above, the incorrect statements are:

(A) III,V

(B) II,III

(C) III,IV

(D) IV,V

33. Assertion [A] : Persons with O group of blood are 34. Match the changes which occur in the chromosomes
called universal donors Reason [R] : Their blood plasma during meiosis, with the different phase of prophase-I
contains both antigen A and antigen B
(A)
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct (B)
explanation of [A]
(C)
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
(D)
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

35.  Assertion [A] : Species is an evolutionary unit R 36. Left side shift of oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation
Reason [R] : Individuals of a species have similar curve occurs during
structure and characteristics
(A) Low pH, Low CO , low temperature
2
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct (B) High pH, low CO , low temperature
2
explanation of [A]
(C) High pH, high CO , low temperature
2
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
(D) Low pH, high CO , high temperature
explanation of [A] 2

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

37. Assenion ( A ) : Cellular thickenings at the micropylar 38. Study the following Among the above the correct
tip guide the pollen tubes into the synergids. Reason (R) : combinations are
Synergids have antipodals located at the chalazal end.
(A) I,II
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (B) II,III
explanation of ( A )
(C) III,IV
(B) Both ( A ) and (R) are tme, but (R) is not the correct
(D) I,IV
explanation of ( A )

(C) ( A ) is true. but (R) is false

(D) ( A ) is false, but (R) is true

39. Fibrous membrane in the middle of a sarcomere is 40. Assertion ( A ) : Euglenoids have a flexible body.
Reason (R) : They have a protein rich layer called pellicle.
(A) A
which makes their body flexible. Which of the following is
(B) I
true?
(C) Z
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(D) M
explanation of ( A )

(B) Both ( A ) and (R) are true. but (R) is not the correct
explanation of ( A )

(C) ( A ) is true, but (R) is false

(D) ( A ) is false, but (R) is true

ZOOLOGY

41. Choose the collect statements [A] Early detection of 42. Surrogate mother is
pathogen presence can be done by PCR [B] Biochemical
(A) The female that develops the offspring of another one in
products produced by bacteria are inferior to products
its womb.
produced in transgenic plants [C] Validity of the GM
(B) The male that donates the sperm to fertilize an egg
Research will be controlled by Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee [D] Use of bio resources by (C) The female that donates the egg for fertilization

multinational companies with proper authorization is not (D) Introduction of in vitro fertilized ovum into the same
possible female

(A) B,C

(B) A,B

(C) B,D

(D) A,C

43. Arrange the sequences in enzyme action [A] Product 44. Choose the correct combination The correct answer
releases and free enzyme again binds to another is
substrate molecule [B] Enzyme to alter its shape [C]
(A) A,B
Substrate binds to active site of enzyme [D] Fits in to the
(B) B,C
active site [E] Formation of enzyme product complex The
correct answer is (C) A,D

(D) C,D
(A) A,C,D,B,E

(B) A,B,D,C,E

(C) C,B,D,E,A

(D) C,D,B,E,A

45. Choose the correct statements [A] Porins allow 46. Find the wrong statements [A] To cut DNA with
molecules of small proteins present in the membrane of restriction enzyme it needs to be pure form, free from
Mitochondria. Chloroplast and bacteria [B] When a living RNA, Protein. Polysaccharides and lipids [B] RNA can be
cell kept in hypertonic solution, the water potential is removed by protease enzyme [C] DNA separated as
equal to solute potential [C] Carrier proteins will allow all suspension can be removed by spooling [D] DNA can be
substances across the membrane across the membrane precipitated by adding warm ethanol
where as pumps transport large molecules in a passive
(A) A,B
method [D] Bulk flow can be achieved through diffusion
(B) C,D
(A) A,B
(C) A,C
(B) C,D
(D) B,D
(C) A,D

(D) B,C

47. Match the following The correct answer is 48. Match the following The correct answer is

(A) A-i,II B-ii,III C-iii,IV D-iv,I (A) A-ii,III B-i,I C-iii,II D-iv,IV

(B) A-iii,I B-iv,IV C-i,II D-ii,III (B) A-i,III B-iii,II C-iv,I D-ii,IV

(C) A-i,III B-ii,IV C-iv,IV D-iii,I (C) A-i,II B-ii,I C-iv,III D-iii,IV

(D) A-iii,II B-i,IV C-iv,I D-ii,III (D) A-iv,III B-i,II C-iii,I D-ii,IV

49. Match the following: 50. Assertion [A]: Unlike coconut. groundnut consume
endosperm completely during embryo development
(A)
Reason [R]: Though the embryogeny is similar in
(B)
groundnut and coconut, perisperm is seen in coconut.
(C)
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
(D)
explanation of [A]

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

51. Partial pressures of O _ 2 and CO _ 2 in systemic vein 52. Match the following:
carrying deoxygenated blood are
(A)
(A) 95 & 40 mm Hg (B)
(B) 40 & 45 mm Hg (C)
(C) 104 & 40 mm Hg (D)
(D) 120 & SO Hg

53. Match the following: 54. Statement (S) : Mechanical vector merely transfers
the infective stage of a parasite. Reason (R) : In this
(A)
vector a part of development of parasite takes place
(B)
before it gets transferred to another host. Which of the
(C) following is true?
(D)
(A) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (S)

(B) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (S)

(C) (S) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (S) is false, but (R) is true

55. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), a type of blood 56.
cancer, is caused due to
Fill up the Blanks with suitable words The gametophytes
(A) reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in gymnosperms are ________ but Cycas shows ___________
(B) chromosomal inversions between 9 and 22 because of the presence of multiciliate male gametes.

(C) chromosomal translocations between S and 14 The retained multicellular female gametophyte is also
called ___________. In this thick cuticle and _____________ will
(D) trisomy
be useful to reduce water loss.

A. Sunken stomata

B. Zooidogamy

C. Endosperm

D. Dependent

(A) D,B,C,A

(B) B,C,D,A

(C) B,D,A,C

(D) D,A,C,B

57. Assertion [A] : DNA from Bacteriophage head passes 58. Choose the correct combination The Correct answer
through tail core through plasma membrane and enters is
bacterial cell Reason [R] : Plasma membrane of the host
(A) A,C
ceII gets dissolved due to lysozyme and releases the new
(B) B,D
virions
(C) B,C
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
(D) A,D
explanation of [A]

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

59. When blood vessel is injured a number of 60. Statement(S) : Less than 2% of the human genome
physiological mechanisms are activated that promote encodes for functional units called 'proteins ' Reason (R) :
hemostasis. Identify the correct group from the following Majority of the human genome is regulatory in nature
Which of the following is true?
(A) Vasoconstriction. increase in colloidal osmotic pressure.
tissue fluid formation (A) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct

(B) Platelet plug formation. tissue fluid formation. explanation of (S)

lymphocytes action (B) Both (S) and (R) are tnte, but (R) is not the correct

(C) Vasoconstriction. platelet plug formation, production of explanation of (S)

web of fibrin protein (C) (S) is true, but (R) is false

(D) Production of web of fibrin protein. plasma protein (D) (S) is false, but (R) is true
formation. tissue fluid formation

61. Choose the correct combination The correct answer 62. Assertion [A] : Chromosomes are inactive and not
transcribed to messenger RNA in phase of apparent
(A) A,D
division Reason [R]: Cells remains metabolically active
(B) B,D
but no longer divide in quiescent stage
(C) A,C
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct
(D) A,B
explanation of [A]

(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is true but [R] is false

(D) [A] is false but [R] is true

63. Match the following: The correct answer is 64. Theory of Biogenesis was proposed by

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (A) George Cuvier

(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (B) Louis Pasteur

(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (C) J.B.S.Haldane

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (D) Von Helmont

65. Identify the sequence of steps in DNA fingerprinting. 66. Which of the following produces testosterone?
a) Isolation of genomic DNA b) Separation by
(A) Primordial germ cells
electrophoresis c) Denaturation of DNA d) Hybridization
(B) Leydig cells
with probe e) Fragmenting DNA with restriction enzymes
f) Southem Blotting g) Exposure on film (C) Prostate gland

(D) Bulbourethral gland
(A) a b c d e f g

(B) a e b c f d g

(C) a c b e d f g

(D) a e c b f d g

67. Match the following: The correct answer is 68. Seymouria represents the evolutionary biological link
between the following orgamsms
(A)

(B) (A) fishes and amphibians

(C) (B) amphibians and reptiles

(D) (C) reptiles and birds

(D) reptiles and mammals

69. Match the following: 70. Statement (S): The amphibian blood is composed of
erythrocytes. leukocytes and thrombocytes. The
(A)
thrombocytes help in haemostasis. Reason (R) : The
(B)
haemostasis regulates the body temperature in
(C) poikilotherms. Which of the following is true?
(D)
(A) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of ( A )

(B) Both ( A ) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of ( A )

(C) ( A ) is true, but (R) is false

(D) A is false but R is true

71. Study the following lists and choose the correct 72. Choose the correct statements [A] Acid soluble
match fractions have more than one thousand daltons [B]
Common acid used in the living cell compound analysis is
(A) [A]-I, [B]-II, [C]-III, [D]-IV
Hydrochloric acid [C] Number of carbons in Arachidonic
(B) [A]-II, [B]-I, [C]-IV, [D]-III
acid is 20 [D] Serine is the hydroxy methyl group amino
(C) [A]-III, [B]-IV, [C]-II, [D]-I acid The correct answer is
(D) [A]-III, [B]-II, [C]-I, [D]-IV
(A) A,B

(B) B,C

(C) C,D

(D) A,D

73. Find the wrong statement [A] Polymers of 74. Choose the eon-ect statement's [A] In majority of
polysaccharides, fats and proteins are synthesised from algae formation of zygote occurs in female plant [B]
monomers by ionic bonding [B] Molecules with polar Cladophora produces identical garnets [C] In Bryophytes
heads and hydrophobic tails are present in cell and Pteridophytes the ratio of male gamets to female
membrane [C] Left end of protein chain is N-terminal end garnets will be several thousands [D] In Mangroves seeds
[D] Right and Left handed helices are observed in protein genninate while in mother plant to increase
environmental stress
(A) A,B

(B) B,C (A) A,B

(C) C,D (B) A,B,C

(D) A,D (C) B,C

(D) A,B,C,D

75. Statement (S) : Natural killer cells form the body's 76. With reference to temperature adaptations, identify
most important cells of defense and they destroy the A, B, C of the following graph
infected cells or altered self cells in an antibody
(A) A - Regulators, B - Partial Regulators, C - Conformers.
independent manner Reason (R) : The reaction time of NK
(B) A - Partial Regulators, B - Regulators, C - Conformers.
cells is fast as they are always in an active fonn to
identify and destroy even small cancer cells well before (C) A - Conformers, B - Regulators, C - Partial Regulators.

they fonn a tumor (D) A - Regulators, B - Conformers, C - Partial Regulators.

(A) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (S)

(B) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (S)

(C) (S) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (S) is false, but (R) is true

77. Cockroach has 'superposition vision'. This type of 78. Identify the wrong statements in the following [A]
vision has the following characteristic features 'EXCEPT' Winter varieties when planted in spring normally comes
to flower before growing [B] In short day plants above
(A) It generates a blurred image
critical photoperiod flowering will be initiated [C] Kinetin
(B) The ommatidium receives light not only through its own
has specific effect on cytokinesis which is a modified
comea but also from adjoining ommatidia
purine [D] Auxins are used as herbicides The correct
(C) It produces Mosaic Vision answer is
(D) Superposition image is formed in the dim light and these
(A) A,B
images are formed in nocturnal insects.
(B) B,C

(C) A,C

(D) A,D

79. The following equation describes the exponential 80. Epidermal hairs of shoot system I. Unicellular or
growth of a population Multicellular II. Multicellular, branched or unbranched III.
Secretary in function IV. Absorbs water V. Prevent
(A) ( d N )/( d t ) = r N ( K - N )/( K )
transpiratory water loss
(B) r N = ( d N )/( d t )
(A) II, III, V
(C) r N = ( d t )/( d N )
(B) I, III, V
(D) ( d t )/( d N ) = r N ( K )/( K - N )
(C) II, III, IV

(D) I, IV, V

PHYSICS

81. A solid sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 m 82. Assertion [A]: When a proton and a neutron enter
moving in a space becomes a circular disc of radius 20 m into a transverse magnetic field with equal speeds. then
in one hour. Then the rate of change of moment of inertia they tlace circular paths of equal radii. Reason [R] : In a
in the process is transverse magnetic field. the period of revolution of a
charged particle in a circular path is directly proportional
(A) (40)/(9) kg m2 s-1
to the mass of the particle.
(B) (10)/(9) kg m2 s-1
(A) Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the correct
(C) (50)/(9) kg m2 s-1
explanation of [A]
(D) (25)/(9) kg m2 s-1
(B) Both [A] and [R] are correct but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]

(C) [A] is correct but [R] is not correct

(D) [A] is not correct but [R] is correct

83. The magnetic field normal to the plane of a coil of ‘n’ 84. Assertion [A]: FM signal is less susceptible to noise
tums and radius ‘r’ carrying a current ‘i’ is measured on than AM signal. Reason[R]: FM has a small operating
the axis of the coil at a distance ‘h’ (h frequency range.

(A) 2 h23 r2 (A) Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the correct

(B) 3 r22 h2 explanation of [A]

(C) 3 h22 r2 (B) Both [A] and [R] are correct but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]
(D) 2 r23 h2
(C) [A] is correct but [R] is not correct

(D) [A] is not correct but [R] is correct

85. A stationary body explodes into four identical 86. The radius of a soap bubble is r and the surface
fragments such that three of them fly off mutually tension of the soap solution is S. The electric potential to
perpendicular to each other, each with a kinetic energy E which the soap bubble be raised by charging it so that
2 . The total energy of explosion is the pressure inside the bubble becomes equal to the
0
pressure outside the bubble is (∈- permittivity of free
(A) 6 E
0
space)
(B) 3 E
0
(A) √S r8 ε
(C) 3 E /2 0
0
(B) √S r4 ε
(D) 2 E /3 0
0
(C) √4S rε
0
(D) √8S r ε
0

87. An object is placed 0.1 m in front of a convex lens of 88. A fly is in rectilinear motion as described by the
focal length 20 cm made of a material of refractive index graph. The average speed of the fly is
1.5. The surface of the lens away from the object is
(A) 6.75 m/s
silvered. If the radius of curvature of the silvered surface
(B) 7.25 m/s
is 22 cm, then the distance of the final image from the
silvered surface is (C) 10.15 m/s

(D) 4.75 m/s
(A) 10 cm

(B) 11 cm

(C) 12 cm

(D) 13 cm

89. Object moves uniformly with a constant speed v to 90. The magnetic field at the centre C of the
reach object B. while B in tum moves rectilinearly with a arrangement shown in figure is
uniform velocity of u v. At the initial moment v is
(A) μ i2 π r(1+π)
0
perpendicular to u and the positions are separated by a
(B) μ i4 π r(1+π)
distance l. The object A meets the object B at time t. The 0

value of 't' is (C) μ i π r(1+π)
0
(D) μ i r(1+π)
(A) v l ( u ^ 2 - v ^ 2 ) 0

(B) u l ( u ^ 2 - v ^ 2 )

(C) u l ( v ^ 2 - u ^ 2 )

(D) v l v ^ 2 - u ^ 2

91. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. 92. A metal rod of length 10 cm and area of cross section
When loaded with a body in air. the wire extends by 6 2.8 x 10-4 m2 is covered with a non- conducting
mm and when the body is immersed completely in water, substance. One end of it is maintained at 80 °C. while the
the extension is reduced to 4 mm. The relative density of other end is put in ice at 0° C. It is found that 20g of ice
material of the body is melts in 5 min. The thermal conductivity of the metal in Js
-1m-1K-1 is (Latent heat of ice is 80 cal g-1)
(A) 3/2

(B) 3 (A) 70

(C) 2 (B) 80

(D) ⅔ (C) 90

(D) 100

93. In a p-type semiconductor the donor level is at 50 94. Consider two coils of radii r, and h. placed at a
meV above the valence band To produce one electron, distance 'd ' away as shown in the figure. Assuming the
the maximum wavelength of light photon required is length of the coils l _ 1 , l _ 2 > > d with n _ 1 , n _ 2 , the
(Planck's constant = 6.6 x 10¯34 J-s and speed of light in number of tums per unit length of the two coils
vacuum = 3 x 10 ms8) respectively. the mutual inductance of the two coils is

(A) 0.0248 μm (A) μ _ o n _ 1 n _ 2 π r _ 1 ^ 2 l

(B) 0.248 μm (B) μ _ o n _ 1 n _ 2 π r _ 1 r _ 2 l _ 1 l _ 2 d

(C) 2.48 μm (C) μ _ o n _ 1 n _ 2 π r _ 1 ^ 2 l _ 1 l _ 2 d

(D) 24.8 μm (D) Zero

95. Match the following List-I with the List-II 96. A gas expands with temperature according to the
relation V = kT ⅔ , where k is a constant. Work done
(A) A-III , B-IV, C-I, D-II
when the temperature changes by 60 K is (R-Universal
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II , D-I
gas constant)
(C) A-III, B-III C-I, D-IV
(A) 10 R
(D) A-I, B-II C-III, D-IV
(B) 20 R

(C) 50 R

(D) 40 R

97. In a photoelectric effect experiment, collector plate 98. The ends of a uniform metal rod of length 100 cm
is placed vertically above the emutier plate. Light is and area of cross-section 2 cm2 are maintained at 0 °C
allowed to incident on emitter and saturation and 100 °C. At the mid point of the rod. heat is supplied
photocurrent is recorded. Now parallel electric and at a constant rate of 40 Js-1. If the temperature gradient
magnetic fields are applied vertically downwards on the higher temperature side of the rod in steady state
between the plates. Then is 50x °Cm-1. then the value of x is (Thermal conductivity
of the metal = 400 Js-1 m-1 K-1)
(A) The photocurrent will increase

(B) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons will decrease (A) 2

(C) The stopping potential will increase (B) 3

(D) The threshold wavelength will increase (C) 6

(D) 9

99. A planet is revolving around the sun as shown in the 100. A solid copper cube of 7 cm edge is subjected to a
figure. The radius vectors joining the sun and the planet hydraulic pressure of 8000 KPa. Tile volume contraction
at points A and B are 90 x 106 km and 60 x 106 km of the copper cube is (Bulk modulus of copper = 140 GPa)
respectively. The ratio of velocities of the planet at A and
(A) 16 x 10-3cm3
B when its velocities make 30° and 60° with major axis of
(B) 19.6 x 10-6cm3
the orbit is
(C) 19.6 x 10-3cm3
(A) 32 √(3)
(D) 196 x 10-3cm3
(B) 2√(3)

(C) 1√(3)

(D) √(3)2

101. A standing wave pattern can be represented by an 102. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is
equation like √(3)2 times its initial speed. If the range of a projectile is
'p' times the maximum height attained by it, then the
(A) y ( x , t ) = 2 A ( k x - ω t )
value of 'p' is
(B) y ( x , t ) = A ( k x - ω x ) + A ( k x - ω t )
(A) 2√3
(C) y ( x , t ) = A k x ω t
(B) 3√2
(D) y ( x , t ) = A ( k x + ω t ) + A ( k x - ω t )
(C) √3

(D) 4√3

103. A soccer ball is travelling at a velocity 20 ms-1 due 104. If a kilo mole of methane gas weighs 16 kg, the
south. At the end of its travel. it moves with a velocity 2 density of methane at 20 ^ ° C and 5 atm pressure is (Use
ms-1 due south. If the change in the linear momentum of R = 8314 J/k mol-K)
the ball is is 18 kgms-1 due north. then the mass of the
(A) 3.33 kg / m ^ 3
ball is
(B) 48 kg / m ^ 3
(A) 3.0 kg
(C) 3.3 × 10 ^ - 5 kg / m ^ 3
(B) 0.81 kg
(D) 1 kg / m ^ 3
(C) 1.0 kg

(D) 0.5 kg

105. When an inductor of inductance (6)/(π) H a 106. A graph drawn between current ‘I’ and voltage ‘V’
capacitor of capacitance (50)/(π) μ F and resistor of in a conductor is as shown in the figure. The changes in
resistance R are connected in series with an ac supply of the resistance in 1“ and 3 parts respectively
rms voltage 220 V and frequency 50 Hz, the rms current
(A) Remains constant, Increases
through the circuit is 440 mA. Match the inductive
(B) Decreases. Increases
reactance (X ). the capacitive reactance (X ), the
L c
resistance (R) and the impedance (Z) of the circuit given (C) Increases. remains constant

in list- I with the corresponding values given in list-II. (D) Decreases, remains constant

(A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

107. A series LCR circuit with R = 43 Q and L = 0.5 H has 108. To measure a magnetic field between the magnetic
a leading phase angle of 45 ^ ° at a frequency of 50 Hz. poles of a loudspeaker, a small coil having 30 turns and
The capacitance used in the circuit is 2.5 cm2 area is placed perpendicular to the field and
removed immediately. If the total charge flown through
(A) 15.9 μ F
the coil is 7.5 10-3 C. and the Total resistance of wire and
(B) 20.2 μ F
galvanometer is 0.3Ω. then the magnitude of the
(C) 27.9 μ F magnetic field is
(D) 12.3 μ F
(A) 0.03 T

(B) 0.3 T

(C) 3 T

(D) 3 x 102 T

109. Two radioactive nuclei ‘x’ and ‘y’ initially contain 110. A signal of frequency 10 kHz and peak voltage 10 V
equal numbers of atoms. Their half-life periods are 1 hour is used to amplitude a carrier of frequency 1 MHz and
and 2 hours respectively. The ratio of their rates of peak voltage 20 V. The side band frequencies in kHz are
disintegration after 2 hours from the start is
(A) 1010, 990
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 910, 1090
(B) 1 : 2 (C) 10, 11
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1.01, 0.99
(D) 1 : 3

111. A diver. 30 m below water surface is trying to shine 112. A hypothetical radioactive element has a half-life of
a torch light towards the point O which is horizontally 30 20 years. The time it takes for 80% of the substance to
m away The amount and direction in which diver has to decay is (ln 5 = 1.6, In 2=0.7)
swim (in the figure) so that the light can not travel
(A) 30.6 years
outside the surface of water is (Refractive index of water
(B) 45.7 years
= 4/3 )
(C) 60.3 years
(A) 4 m to the left
(D) 80 years
(B) 4 m to the right

(C) 3.5 m to the right

(D) 3.5 m to the left

113. The number of degrees of freedom of a gas whose 114. Two particles P and Q each of mass 3m lie at rest on
specific heat capacity at constant pressure is 33.24 J mol- the X-axis at the points (-a, 0) and (+a,0) respectively. A
1 K-1, is (universal gas constant = 8 .31 J mol-1K-1) third particle R of mass 2m initially at the origin moves
towards particle Q. If all the collisions of the system of 3
(A) 2
panicles are elastic and head-on. the total number of
(B) 3
collisions in the system is
(C) 6
(A) 2
(D) 8
(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

115. A man standing far from a hill. fires a gun and hears 116. A thin bar magnet oscillates with a time period T. If
its echo after 4 s. Later he moves 320 m from his initial it is cut into two equal pieces ‘ons its axis, time period of
position away from the hill and fires the gun again and oscillation of each piece is
now he hears the echo after 6 s. Then the velocity of the
(A) T
sound in air is
(B) 2 T
(A) 330 ms-1
(C) T/2
(B) 340 ms-1
(D) T/4
(C) 320 ms-1

(D) 336 ms-1

117. If the maximum and minimum values of an 118. Determine the current passing through the diode in
amplitude modulated signals are respectively 5.9 V and I the circuit given. Assume these are
.2 V. the modulation index of the signal is
(A) 4.2 mA
(A) 66.2 \% (B) 8.8 mA
(B) 47 \% (C) 7.8 mA
(C) 79.7 \% (D) 9.7 mA
(D) 83.09 \%

119. At time t = 0, a body is dropped freely from the top 120. The current gain of a transistor in a common
of a tall building and at a later time t = T, another body is emitter circuit is 25. then the ratio of emitter current to
thrown vertically downwards with a velocity 'v’ from the base current is
top of the same building. The time at which the two
(A) 25/26
bodies will meet is
(B) 26
(A) (T)/(2)[(2 v-g T)/(v-g T)]
(C) 1/25
(B) (T)/(3)[(3 v-q T)/(2 v-g T)]
(D) 26/25
(C) (T)/(2)[(v-g T)/(2 v-g T)]

(D) (T)/(3)[(2 v-g T)/(3 v-g T)]

CHEMISTRY

121. In Portland cement. the major constituents (in mol 122. The emf of the following cell is 1.229V at 298 K. Pt ,
%) are H _ 2 ( 1 atm ) | H ^ + ( 1 M ) | O _ 2 ( latm ) , Pt H _ 2 + (
1 )/( 2 ) O _ 2 leftharpoons H _ 2 O The standard free
(A) MgO, Fe O . Cr O
2 3 2 3
energy change for the cell reaction is [ F = 9.649 × 10 ^ 4
(B) Al O , MgO, TiO
2 3 2 Cmol ^ - 1 ]
(C) CaO , SiO , Al O
2 2 3 (A) -212.77 k J
(D) Al O , B O , MgO
2 3 2 3 (B) -237.17 kJ

(C) -577.1 kJ

(D) -474.3 kJ

123. Which of the following statements is not correct ? 124. Which one of the following methods is used to make
gold sol?
(A) From SO to TeO
2 2
(B) The order of boiling points of hydrides of 16th group (A) Ultra filtration method

elements is H S H Se H Te O (B) Peptization method
2 2 2 2
(C) Rhombic sulphur has S molecules while monoclinic (C) Electrical disintegration method
8
sulphur has S molecules. (D) Dialysis method
6
(D) The bond angle in Ozone molecules is 117°

125. Lucas reagent is 126. If C and H estimation H O and CO formed are a
2 2
absorbed A and B respectively: A and B are
(A) Br /CCl
2 4
(B) KMnO /H (A) A- anhydrous CuSO B- Ca(OH) solution
4 + 4 2

(C) HCl/anhydrous ZnCl (B) A- anhydrous CuSO B- KOH solution
2 4

(D) C H SO Cl (C) A- anhydrous CaCl B- KOH solution
6 5 2 2
(D) A- anhydrous CaCl Ca(OH) solution
2 2

127. Sodium acetate was electrolysed by Kolbe's method 128. The radius (in pm) of the 3rd orbit of He is Li ^ 2 +
to form two gases A and B at anode. C and D are formed is respectively
when B is heated with regulated supply of O or air in the
2 (A) 476.1,158.7
presence of (CH COO) Mn C reacts with NaOH to form a
3 2
(B) 238.05,158.7
salt. A and D are respectively.
(C) 0.529,17.63
(A) CO , CH COOH
2 3
(D) 17.63,176.3
(B) CO , H O
2 2
(C) C H , H O
2 6 2
(D) CO , H O
2 2 2

129. The calculated spin only magnetic moment . μ ( in 130. A 10 litre cylinder contains equal volumes of H _ 2
BM ) of [ CoF _ 6 ] ^ 3 - is and He. If the mixture is allowed to diffuse from an
opening. estimate the percent composition of the output
(A) 4.90
gas. (Assume ideal behaviour of gas mixture)
(B) 0
(A) 50 \% H _ 2 , 50 \% He
(C) 3.87
(B) 41 \% H _ 2 , 59 \% He
(D) 2.84
(C) 59 \% H _ 2 , 41 \% He

(D) 30 \% H _ 2 , 70 \% He

131. In which of the following, the solubility of AgCl will 132.  The kinetic energy of an electron ejected from a
be minimum? metal surface is 0.70 eV. If the work function (Wp) of the
metal is 2.30 eV, the frequency of radiation falling on the
(A) 0.1 M KNO
3
metal surface
(B) 0.1 M KCl
(A) 7.25 x 1013
(C) 0.2 M KNO
3
(B) 38 x 1013
(D) Water
(C) 38 x 1014

(D) 7.25 x 1014

133. Which of the following metals exist in liquid state 134. Examples of fibrous (X) and globular (Y) proteins
during the summer season? are

(A) Ga (A) X- insulin Y- albumin

(B) Al (B) X- Keratin Y- albumin

(C) Pb (C) X- Keratin Y- thyroxine

(D) Sn (D) X- thyroxine Y- insulin

135. What are X and Y in the following reactions? 136. Match the following. The correct answer is

(A) (A) A-I, B-V C-III D-II

(B) (B) A-III B-V C-I D-II

(C) (C) A-III B-IV C-V D-II

(D) (D) A-IV B-II C-I D-V

137. What are X. Y and Z in the following reactions ? 138. Under which of the following conditions E value of
the cell for the cell reaction given is maximum ?
(A)

(B) (A) C = 0.1 M, C = 0.01 M
1 2

(C) (B) C = 0.1 M, C = 0.03 M
1 2

(D) (C) C = 0.1 M, C = 0.02 M
1 2
(D) C = 0.2 M, C = 0.01 M
1 2

139. Identify the set of acidic oxides. 140. In which of the following the electron gain enthalpy
of elements is correctly arranged?
(A) Na O, CaO, BaO
2
(B) ZnO, PbO, BeO (A) S > Se > Te > 0

(C) CO, NO, N O (B) F > Cl > Br > I
2
(D) Mn O , CrO , V O (C) Na > Li > K > Rb
2 7 3 2 5
(D) O > S > Se > Te

141. Which one of the following does not possess N--N 142. Conversion of molecular oxygen to ozone takes
bond? place only to the extent of 15%. Calculate the mass (in g)
of ozone that is formed from 67.2 L of oxygen at STP
(A) N _ 2 O _ 3

(B) N _ 2 O _ 5 (A) 96

(C) N _ 2 O (B) 64.1

(D) N _ 2 O _ 4 (C) 14.4

(D) 22.4

143. Which of the following is a homopolymer? 144. Sodium borohydride reacts with I to form Nal, H
2 2
and X. When X reacts with NaH in diethyl ether; Y is
(A) Bakelite
formed. What is Y ?
(B) Nylon 6,6
(A) B H
(C) Neoprene 2 6
(B) H BO
(D) Buna-S 3 3
(C) B O
2 3
(D) NaBH
4

145. 1g of an organic compound containing C and H. on 146. Solutions of CuSO and AgNO were electrolysed
4 3
complete combustion produced 3.04 g of CO _ 2 and 1.53 with a current of 1.93 amperes for 500 seconds
g of H _ 2 O . Find the approximate percentage separately. The amounts of copper and silver deposited
composition of C and H in the compound ? at cathode respectively in g are

(A) C \% =83 , H \% =17 (A) 0.063, 0.54

(B) C \% =80 , H \% =20 (B) 0.315, 0.54

(C) C \% =85 , H \% =15 (C) 0.315, 1.08

(D) C \% =88 , H \% =12 (D) 1.08, 0.315

147. When pH of rain water is below 'X', it is termed as 148. The wavelength. (in mn) of an electron moving with
acid rain. 'X' is? a velocity of 812 ms ^ - 1 (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 ^ -
31 kg and Planck's constant = 6.626 × 10 ^ - 34 Js ) is
(A) 7.0
approximately
(B) 5.6
(A) 626
(C) 6.0
(B) 347
(D) 6.6
(C) 978

(D) 897

149. In the van-Arkel method of refining Zr, the 150. If the ratio of radii of electrons in the first excited
impurities (x) and the substance (y) used are respectively states of He+ and Be3+ is 2:1. the energies of electron in
their corresponding excited states in J is
(A) x = (N , O ), y= Cl
2 2 2
(B) x = (N , O ), y= O (A) -18 x 10-18,-8.72 x 10-18
2 2 2
(C) x = (N , O ), y= I (B) -8.72 x 10-18, -18 x 10-18
2 2 2
(D) x = (SO , O ), y= I (C) -18 x 10-18, -4.26 x 10-18
2 2 2
(D) -4.36 x 10-18, -18 x 10-18

151. An element has a body-centered cubic structure 152. Structures of catechol (I), propiophenone (II) and
with a cell edge length of 300 pm. If the density of the phthalaldehyde (II) are
element is 7.2 g cm-3, the number of unit cells in 194.4g
(A)
of the element is
(B)
(A) 2.0 x 1024
(C)
(B) 6.0 x 1024
(D)
(C) 3.0 x 1024

(D) 1.0 x 1024

153. Identify the correct percentage of A, B and C formed 154. The molecule/ion having diamagnetic nature and a
in the following reaction Aniline HNO _ 3 + H _ 2 SO _ 4 bond order of 1.0 is
288 K o-Nitroaniline + p-Nitroaniline + m-nitroaniline
(A) He +
2
(A) A-51, B-2, C- 17 (B) Al +
2
(B) A- 2 , B- 51 , C- 47 (C) K
2
(C) A- 2 , B-47, C- 51 (D) Mn
2
(D) A-47 ,B-51 ,C-2

155. The gas produced when Zn metal is heated with 156. Which of the following compounds has zero dipole
aqueous NaOH is moment ( μ = 0 ) ?

(A) H _ 2 O _ ( g ) (A) trans - But - 2 - ene

(B) O _ 3 (B) cis - But - 2 - ene

(C) O _ 2 (C) 2 - Methylpropene

(D) H _ 2 (D) 3 - Methylbut - 1 ene

157.  The wavelength of a microscopic particle of mass 158. The order of reactivity of chlorobenzene (I), 4 -
9.1 x 10-31 kg is 182 nm, its kinetic energy in J is (h = nitrochlorobenzene (Il), 2, 4, 6 - trinitrochlorobenzene
6.625 x 10-34 Js) (III) and 2, 4 - dinitrochlorobenzene (IV) towards
nucleophilic substitution is
(A) 7.28 x 10-23

(B) 7.28 x 10-24 (A) III > II > IV > I

(C) 3.64 x 10-23 (B) III > IV > II > I

(D) 3.64 x 10-24 (C) II > III > IV > I

(D) I > II > IV > III

159. The ratio of packing efficiency in fcc, bcc and simple 160. 6 g of a mixture of naphthalene (C H ) and
10 8
cubic structure respectively. with respect to that of fcc is anthracene (C H ) is dissolved in 300 g of benzene. If
14 10
the depression in freezing point is 0.70 K, the
(A) 1 : 0.92 : 0.71
composition of naphthalene and anthracene in the
(B) 1 : 0.81 : 0.67
mixture respectively in g axe (molal depression constant
(C) 1 : 0.71 : 0.58 of benzene is 5.1 K kg mol-1)
(D) 1 : 0.65 : 0.55
(A) 2.60, 3.40

(B) 3.40, 2.60

(C) 2.90, 3.10

(D) 3.10, 2.90

ANSWER KEY

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B)

8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A)

15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C)

22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (B)

29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)

36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (A)

43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B)

50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (A)

57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (C) 61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (C)

64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (C)

71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C)

78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (A) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (C)

85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (B) 91. (B)

92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B)

99. (B) 100. (D) 101. (C) 102. (D) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C)

106. (A) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (A) 110. (A) 111. (A) 112. (B)

113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (A)

120. (B) 121. (C)
Get Free Sample122. (B)Question Papers,
Papers, 123. (C)Tests & Study Material
Mock 124. (C) 125. (C)
at 126. (C)

127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (A) 130. (C) 131. (B) 132. (D) 133. (A)

134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (B) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (A)

141. (B) 142. (C) 143. (B) 144. (D) 145. (A) 146. (C) 147. (B)

148. (D) 149. (C) 150. (A) 151. (D) 152. (D) 153. (B) 154. (A)

155. (D) 156. (A) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (A) 160. (B)