RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 22 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 22 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 22/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 The defect of hypermetropia can be corrected by using which of the following?
Ans A. Cylindrical lens

B. Concave lens

C. Prism

D. Convex lens

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Q.2 Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).

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Assertion (A): If a substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is said to be reduced.
Reason (R): Reduction is defined as the gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true.
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B. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q.3 One volt (1 V), the SI unit of potential difference, is defined when ___________.
Ans A. 1 joule of energy is dissipated in 1 second

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B. 1 milliampere of current flows through 1 Ohm of resistance

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C. 1 joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 coulomb
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m.co D. 1 coulomb of charge flows in 1 second
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Ans
Which of the following statements about sound propagation is correct?
A. Sound travels faster in gases than in solids. a
a B. Sound can travel in vacuum.

C. Sound requires a medium for propagation.

D. Sound travels in the form of transverse waves in air.

Q.5 Which of the following statements correctly defines the atomic number of an element?
Ans A. The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

B. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
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C. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom

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D. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 Which statement is NOT true about smooth muscles?
Ans A. They have striations

B. They are uninucleate

C. They are spindle-shaped cells

D. They control involuntary movements

Q.7 Meenu starts from rest and pedals her bicycle to reach a speed of 5 m/s in 25 seconds.
What is her acceleration?
Ans A. 0.3 m/s2

B. 0.4 m/s2

C. 0.1 m/s2

D. 0.2 m/s2

Q.8 Which of the following statements best defines the term 'formula unit mass'?
Ans A. The mass of an individual atom of an element

B. The mass of one mole of a compound

C. The sum of the atomic masses of the ions in an ionic compound as represented by its formula

D. The sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a molecule

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT correct?
Ans A. The sky appears blue because air absorbs blue light.

B. Scattering depends on the wavelength of light.

C. Shorter wavelengths scatter more than longer wavelengths.

D. The Tyndall effect can be used to detect colloids.

Q.10 Which of the following statements correctly explains why carbon forms covalent bonds
in organic compounds?
Ans A. Carbon has a high tendency to form positive ions

B. Carbon atoms have a full outer shell and do not react

C. Carbon has four electrons in its outer shell and shares electrons to complete its octet

D. Carbon easily donates all its valence electrons to non-metals

Q.11 If the temperature of a gas is increased at constant volume, what happens to the
pressure?
Ans A. It decreases.

B. It cannot be determined.

C. It remains the same.

D. It increases.

Q.12 Which of the following nutrients is a macronutrient?
Ans A. Iron

B. Potassium

C. Zinc

D. Copper

Q.13 Which of the following metals reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen
gas?
Ans A. Copper

B. Gold

C. Zinc

D. Silver

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.14 When fertilisation takes place inside the female body, it is called _______.
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Ans A. external fertilisation

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D. internal fertilisation

Q.15 Which hormone triggers sexual maturation in boys?
Ans A. Estrogen

B. Testosterone

C. Progesterone

D. Oxytocin
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Q.16 A wire of a given material has length L and cross-sectional area A, with resistance R. If
the wire is stretched to twice its length while keeping the volume constant, what will be
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its new resistance?
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Ans A. ZERO

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B. 4R

C. R/2

D. 2R

Q.17 If a constant force (F) of 20 N moves an object through a displacement (d) of 5 m in the
same direction, then what will be the work (W) done?
Ans A. 25 J

B. 100 J

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C. 200 J

D. 50 J

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Q.18
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Which of the following plant tissues is made up of cells that are dead at maturity?
Ans A. Aerenchyma
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B. Parenchyma

C. Collenchyma

D. Sclerenchyma

Q.19 Based on the accepted values for the masses of the Earth and the Moon and the
distance between them, what is the calculated gravitational force exerted by the Earth
on the Moon?
Ans A. 9.8 N
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B. 6.67 x 10-11 N
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Ans
What happens to metabolic activities in the absence of thyroxin?
A. They slow down or become imbalanced

B. They only affect digestion

C. They speed up uncontrollably

D. They stop completely

Q.21 What happens during the oxidation of ethanol?

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Ans A. It is converted into ethene.

B. It is converted into methane.

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C. It forms an ester.
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D. It is converted into ethanoic acid.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 49

Q.22 Which of the following describe(s) the versatile nature of carbon?

a. The ability to form bonds with other carbon atoms giving rise to large molecules.
b. The ability to form double bonds with other carbon atoms.
c. The ability to form bonds with other atoms like oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, hydrogen
etc.
Ans A. Only a

B. Only b and c

C. All a, b and c

D. Only a and c

Q.23 Which statement is INCORRECT about contraceptive pills?
Ans A. They protect against sexually transmitted infections.

B. They can cause side effects like irregular bleeding or nausea in some users.

C. They contain synthetic hormones (estrogen and progesterone) that prevent ovulation,

D. They are a highly effective form of birth control when taken correctly.

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT an example of Newton’s Third Law?
Ans A. A horse pulling a loaded cart

B. A rocket rising upward as gases are expelled downward

C. A gun moving backward after firing a bullet

D. A stone dropping freely toward the ground

Q.25 Which of the following shows movement but not locomotion?
Ans A. Plant

B. Human

C. Dog

D. Bird

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 If A can complete a task in 10 days and B is 25% more efficient than A, how long (in
days) will it take them to complete 60% of the task when they work together?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.27 The price of fuel decreases by 45%, 35% and 30% in three successive months, but
increases by 45% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off the
answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. Increases by 61.52%

B. Increases by 59.57%

C. Decreases by 63.71%

D. Decreases by 64.78%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Q.28 The amount on a sum of ₹4,200 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually, in 2 years will be:

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Ans A. ₹5,348
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B. ₹6,048

C. ₹6,219
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D. ₹6,497

Q.29 A car covers three different segments of a journey: it travels 40 km at a speed of 60
km/hr, then 50 km at a speed of 50 km/hr and finally 60 km at a speed of 40 km/hr. What
is the car's average speed (rounded off to one decimal place) for the entire trip?
Ans A. 47.4 km/hr

B. 48.3 km/hr

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C. 52.9 km/hr

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D. 50.3 km/hr

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Q.30
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Simplify: (0.7 × 72 ÷ 14 + 6.25 − 8.34 × 0.15 + 5.95)
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Ans A. 14.549
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B. 21.549

C. 12.526

D. 14.823

Q.31
Ans A.

B.

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C.

D.

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Q.32
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A sphere of radius 14 cm is cut along three diametrical planes to form 6 equal parts.

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What would be the total surface area (in cm2) of all the new pieces so obtained?
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Ans A. 7392

B. 4312

C. 6160

D. 5544

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Q.33 A scheme like ‘Buy 6, Get 2 Free’ on the same kind of articles with the same MRP

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attracts a _____ % discount.890
Ans

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Q.34

Ans A. 315%

B. 310%

C. 600%

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D. 300%

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Q.35 The cost price of a toy car is 80% of its selling price. If the selling price is ₹100, what is
the profit percentage?
Ans A. 100%

B. 80%

C. 25%

D. 20%

Q.36 The average age of 31 students of a class is 30 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 31 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 62

B. 64

C. 65

D. 63

Q.37 What is the number of ordered pairs (x, y) where x, y are positive integers such that the
eight digit number 74x8935y is divisible by 11?
Ans A. 6

B. 9

C. 10

D. 7

Q.38 A cash payment that will settle a bill for 625 pairs of boots at ₹94 per pair of boots with
successive discounts of 20% and 7% with a further discount of 20% on cash payment
is:
Ans A. ₹34,972

B. ₹34,963

C. ₹34,968

D. ₹34,992

Q.39 The sum of the ages of a daughter and her mother is 56 years. After 8 years, the age of
the mother will be three times that of the daughter. Find the daughter's present age (in
years).
Ans A. 12

B. 10

C. 16

D. 18

Q.40 The monthly incomes of two friends David and Ashish, are in the ratio 5 : 8,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹81,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of David (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,83,500

B. 2,01,500

C. 2,03,500

D. 2,02,500

Q.41 ₹4,445 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹65, ₹39 and ₹77 are deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 18:3:20. Find the difference
between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹1,868

B. ₹1,918

C. ₹1,806

D. ₹1,718

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.42 The median of the following observations 46, 64, 87, 41, 58, 77, 35, 90, 55, 92, 33 is 58. If
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92 is replaced by 99 and 41 by 43 in the given data, then the new median is:

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Ans A. 56.5
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B. 55

C. 57.5
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D. 58

Q.43 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 22.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 4 : 5, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 2°

B. 1°

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C. 6°
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D. 5°

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Q.44
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If each edge of a cube is increased by 10%, then the percentage increase in its surface
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area is:
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Ans A. 21%

B. 22%
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C. 25%

D. 20%

Q.45 From a point 30 m away from the base of a tree, the angle of elevation of the top of the
tree is 60°. Find the height of the tree (take √3 = 1.73).
Ans A. 52.5 m

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B. 51.9 m

C. 54 m
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D. 51 m
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Q.46 ag
A basket contains 42 fruits, which are either apples or oranges. If there are 6 more
apples than oranges, how many oranges are there?
Ans A. 18

B. 24

C. 20

D. 22

Q.47 The ratio of the number of girls and boys participating in the sports of a school is 2 : 5.
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If the number of girls is 200, determine the number of boys participating in the sports.
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Ans A. 530

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Q.48 If an X-m long train running at a speed of 63 m/s crosses a railway platform in 28 sec,
find the value of X, if the length of the railway platform is 213 m.3704
Ans A. 1549

B. 1551

C. 1558

D. 1545

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Q.49 What is the number of natural numbers less than or equal to 1000 and divisible by 5 or
7?
Ans A. 314

B. 328

C. 342

D. 370

Q.50 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 12 and 12 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 12

B. 8

C. 5

D. 4

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. QUN

B. INE

C. OSL

D. UYR

Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pencils are erasers.
Some erasers are crayons.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pencils are crayons.
(II) Some erasers are pencils.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.53 QK 13 is related to TO 17 in a certain way. In the same way, IC 24 is related to LG 28. To
which of the given options is SM 35 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. VO 39

B. VQ 39

C. VO 38

D. UR 38

Q.54 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

88 B 3 D 615 A 15 C 152 = ?
Ans A. 360

B. 325

C. 340

D. 375

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that

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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans
position in the letter-cluster.)
A. KQ - PV ag
B. NT - SY

C. OU - TA

D. EK - JP

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

188 170 152 134 116 ?
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Ans A. 100
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B. 104

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C. 98

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D. 96
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Q.57 ag
Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the same sequence to
make the series logically complete?

3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ?
Ans A. 88

B. 98

C. 92

D. 96
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Q.58
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Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

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1408, 704, 176, 88, ? , 11
Ans A. 36

B. 64 ag
C. 22

D. 44

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘meal visit cat’ is coded as ' vs mo wm' and ‘rain meal
mango’ is coded as ‘wm or lo’. How is ‘meal’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. or

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B. wm

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C. mo

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D. vs

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end of the row, how many people are there in the row?
Ans A. 43

B. 44

C. 45

D. 42

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Q.61 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
A sits second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between A
and C. B sits to the immediate right of C. Only one person sits between B and D. F sits
third to the left of D. E sits at one of the positions to the right of G.
How many people sit between A and G?
Ans A. Three

B. None

C. Two

D. One

Q.62 Jyoti starts from point L and drives 8 km towards the north. She then takes a right turn,
drives 14 km, turns right and drives 15 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 14 km.
She takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach point L again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km towards the north

B. 2 km towards the east

C. 5 km towards the west

D. 1 km towards the south

Q.63 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

WTQ 69 URO 76 SPM 83 QNK 90 ?
Ans A. OMH 97

B. OKH 96

C. OPR 96

D. OLI 97

Q.64 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

11 ÷ 3 + 24 × 4 − 1 = ? + 5
Ans A. 33

B. 34

C. 32

D. 31

Q.65 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. All numbers
are single-digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 6 9 1 2 5 7 2 5 2 2 4 7 9 3 2 5 4 1 4 9 9 1 8 9 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Four

Q.66 Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 28 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 21 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 30 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 33 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 9 km to the south

B. 7 km to the north

C. 7 km to the east

D. 9 km to the north

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co FNK HPM JRO LTQ ?
s e m
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se Ans A. NUR

B. NUS ag l
C. NVR

D. NVS

Q.68 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits third to the left of
E. E sits second to the left of F. D sits to the immediate right of E. B sits to the
immediate left of C. How many people sit between C and F?
Ans A. Two

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B. None
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C. Three

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D. One

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Q.69 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 6 1 8 4 3 5 2 7 4 4 4 5 9 1 7 4 7 3 7 7 7 8 3 5 6 7 8 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

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D. 6

Q.70
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Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) € # 6 2 @ # 1 6 @ 1 € $ 3 9 $ 2 4 4 * £ 6 6 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 2

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Q.71 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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e mstatements.

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l as Statements:
ag
ag Some moons are stars.
Some stars are planets.

Conclusions:
(I): All stars are moons.
(II): Some moons are planets.
Ans A. Both follow

B. Only I follows

C. Neither follows

D. Only II follows
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Q.72 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 741 753 789 761 745 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to
the third digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 7

B. 8

C. 11

D. 6

Q.73 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 19, 10)
(13, 29, 20)
Ans A. (17, 37, 46)

B. (15, 33, 24)

C. (7, 13, 4)

D. (9, 21, 30)

Q.74 In a certain code language, ‘LEMA’ is coded as ‘6389’ and ‘PALM’ is coded as ‘3596’.
What is the code for ‘P’ in that language?
Ans A. 6

B. 5

C. 9

D. 3

Q.75 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

INFO - NOFI - OFNI
WAKE - AEKW - EKAW
Ans A. TIDE - TDIE - EDIT

B. HACK - AHCK - KACH

C. FEAR - ERAF - RAEF

D. GIRL - IGRL - LIRG

Q.76 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only three people sit between R and T when counted from the left of R. Only three
people sit between B and A when counted from the right of A.S sits to the immediate
right of B. U is an immediate neighbour of A as well as T. Who sits to the second to the
left of C?
Ans A. U

B. R

C. A

D. B

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.77 In a certain code language,
m
P + Q means ‘P is the father of Q’,

. co P # Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’,
P & Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
s e m
m a
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and P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

How is O related to L if ‘O # G + N # T + L’?
ag
Ans A. Mother’s father

B. Father’s mother

C. Sister's husband

D. Mother’s mother

Q.78 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.
m
DIGS - SDGI - DSIG
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WAVE - EWVA - WEAV
Ans A. MIST - TMSI - MITS
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B. SPIN - NSIP - SNPI
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C. HOST - THOS - OSTH

D. RIDE - IRDE - EIDR

Q.79 Rekha ranked 18th from the top and 9th from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 26

B. 28

C. 27

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D. 25

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Q.80 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in

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place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

6 − 3 + 32 × 4 ÷ 5 = ?
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Ans A. 21

B. 15

C. 11

D. 6

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81 As announced on 21 June 2025, Central Health Ministry is looking at integrating India’s
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Rare Donor Registry with the national online platform for blood bank management and
blood availability information, called ____.
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Ans
e m A. e-Rakt Sanchay
l as
l as B. e-Rakt Kosh
ag
ag C. e-Rakt Kawach

D. e-Rakt Sagar

Q.82 In June 2025, which ministry/institution released the Sustainable Development Goals –
National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025?
Ans A. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

B. Ministry of Finance

C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

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D. NITI Aayog

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 49

Q.83 In the weightlifting event at the 38th National Games, what was Mehak Sharma’s total lift
that earned her the gold medal and set a new national record?
Ans A. 247 kg

B. 311 kg

C. 299 kg

D. 289 kg

Q.84 In November 2025, which legislation was highlighted for merging nine Social Security
Acts, covering gig and platform workers, and strengthening women-centric provisions?
Ans A. Code on Social Security, 2020

B. Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020

C. Industrial Relations Code, 2020

D. Code on Wages, 2019

Q.85 Who won the 2025 Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award?
Ans A. Max Verstappen

B. Armand “Mondo” Duplantis

C. Cristiano Ronaldo

D. Usain Bolt

Q.86 The Union Government introduced a major overhaul of labour laws, consolidating
twenty-nine existing regulations into four new codes effective from which of the
following dates?
Ans A. 1 January 2026

B. 21 November 2025

C. 15 February 2026

D. 1 December 2025

Q.87 In March 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) an
additional how many years from financial year 2025 to amortise the additional
expenditure arising from the revision in pensions?
Ans A. Six

B. Four

C. Five

D. Three

Q.88 Which eminent economist was honoured with the Punyabhushan Puraskar in June 2025
for contributions to economics?
Ans A. Vijay Kelkar

B. C Rangarajan

C. P Chidambaram

D. Arvind Subramanian

Q.89 In May 2025, which Union Minister launched the Annual Calendar initiative under the
Khelo India programme to boost the country's sports ecosystem?
Ans A. Udhayanidhi Stalin

B. Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya

C. Anurag Thakur

D. Kiren Rijiju

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.90 As per the Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress
m
Report, 2025, published in June 2025, the number of start-ups rose from 453 in 2016 to

. co 34,293 in 2024. This growth in entrepreneurship primarily supports which Sustainable
Development Goal (SDG)?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. SDG 1

B. SDG 4 ag l
C. SDG 10

D. SDG 8

Q.91 As per the April 2025 monthly Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data, what was
India’s unemployment rate in April 2025?
Ans A. 4.9%

B. 6.4%
m
C. 5.1%
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D. 5.6%

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s e l a
a ag
Q.92 In 2025, which state in India is concerned about the invasive species Ruellia Elegans?
l
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Ans A. Chhattisgarh

B. Bihar

C. Assam

D. Kerala

Q.93 From 13 May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated that digital lending apps
must be _________.
Ans A. developed in India only

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B. operated only by banks

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C. free of cost to users

D. reported to a centralised portal
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Q.94
Ans
a
Who flagged off India’s first exported locomotive to Guinea in June 2025?
A. Jagdeep Dhankhar

B. Piyush Goyal

C. Narendra Modi

D. Ashwini Vaishnaw

Q.95 In how many languages was the new text-to-speech AI model which launched by
Sarvam AI in May 2025?
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Ans A. 9
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B. 11

m s e
s e C. 12

g l a
g l a D. 7
a
a Q.96 As of June 2025, who is the Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans A. Mufti Mohammad Sayeed

B. Omar Abdullah

C. PU Lalduhoma

D. Mehbooba Mufti

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 49

Q.97 Which event was scheduled for 27 June 2025, regarding the DR Congo–Rwanda
agreement?
Ans A. Initial talks

B. Deployment of peacekeepers

C. UN Security Council resolution

D. Formal signing by ministers

Q.98 In 2025, which athlete set a new meet record of 48.81 seconds in the women’s 400 m at
the Paris Diamond League?
Ans A. Salwa Eid Naser

B. Marileidy Paulino

C. Allyson Felix

D. Sydney McLaughlin

Q.99 During the 11th National Conference on Women, held in May 2025, which of the
following state's police showcased ‘Mission Shakti’ as a model initiative for women’s
safety?
Ans A. West Bengal

B. Karnataka

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Haryana

Q.100 In August 2025, which of the following countries temporarily closed the Dardanelles
Strait to maritime traffic following major forest fires in the Çanakkale province?
Ans A. Turkey

B. Italy

C. Greece

D. Bulgaria

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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a

Test Date 22/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is a compound?
Ans A. Salt (NaCl)

B. Soil

C. Lemon juice

D. Air

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Q.2 The image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm is real, inverted, and
enlarged in size as compared to the size of the object. Which of the following is true
about the position of the object?
e m
Ans

las
A. The object is placed at 20 cm from the pole of the mirror.

ag
B. The object is placed at 10 cm from the pole of the mirror.

C. The object is placed between 20 cm and 40 cm from the pole of the mirror.

D. The object is placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror.

Q.3 Cyclohexane is best classified as which type of organic compound?
Ans A. A branched hydrocarbon with one or more unsaturated carbon bonds

B. An aromatic compound containing a delocalised π-electron ring system

C. An organic aldehyde consisting of a linear chain of six carbon atoms
m
m .co
D. A saturated alicyclic compound composed of six carbon atoms in a ring

Q.4
m.co
Which compound from the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
s e m
s e
Ans A. Ethene
g l a
g l a B. Butane a
a C. Methane

D. Propane

Q.5 Which of the following best explains the liquefaction of gases under high pressure?
Ans A. Higher pressure reduces the space between particles, leading to liquefaction

B. Increased molecular size leads to condensation

C. Gases expand indefinitely, so pressure has no effect
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D. Higher pressure increases temperature, leading to phase change

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.6 The _________ helps in the movement of mucus along the lining of the respiratory tract.
Ans A. cuboidal epithelium

B. ciliated columnar epithelium

C. simple squamous epithelium

D. stratified squamous epithelium

Q.7 A ship floats on water because:
Ans A. the atmospheric pressure supports the ship

B. the weight of water displaced equals the weight of the ship

C. the surface tension holds it afloat

D. the density of water is greater than that of the ship material

Q.8 If two resistors are connected in series, then which of the following statements is
correct regarding the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
Ans A. It will decrease.

B. It will remain same.

C. It will increase at first and then will decrease.

D. It will increase.

Q.9 In which of the following reactions do two compounds combine to form a new
compound?
Ans A. CaO + CO₂ → CaCO₃

B. C + O₂ → CO₂

C. Na + Cl₂ → NaCl

D. H₂ + Cl₂ → HCl

Q.10 What colour does copper turn when it undergoes corrosion over time?
Ans A. Green

B. Red

C. White

D. Grey

Q.11 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about linear velocity?
Ans A. Linear velocity is constant for uniform motion.

B. Linear velocity depends on displacement and time.

C. It is the rate of change of displacement.

D. The SI unit of linear velocity is m/s².

Q.12 According to Joule’s law of heating, if the current flowing through a resistor is doubled
while resistance and time remain constant, then the heat produced (H) will increase by a
factor of ________.
Ans A. two

B. eight

C. sixteen

D. four

Q.13 Which of the following describes reproduction involving only one parent and no
gametes?
Ans A. Fertilisation in frogs

B. Seed formation in flowering plants

C. Binary fission in Amoeba

D. Internal fertilisation in mammals

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.14 Which of the following techniques is used for vegetative propagation in plants?
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Ans A. Seed dispersal

. e m
m B. Fertilisation
as
se C. Cutting
ag l
D. Pollination

Q.15 Which of the following structures are made up of nervous tissue?
Ans A. Kidneys and liver

B. Lungs and heart

C. Bones and muscles

D. Brain, spinal cord and nerves
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m .co
.co
Q.16 What is the formula unit mass of ZnO (zinc oxide)?

em
s
Ans A. 81 u

e m l a
B. 65 u

l as ag
ag
C. 16 u

D. 97 u

Q.17 Sounds of single frequency and mixture of several frequencies are known as
______________, respectively.
Ans A. tone and note

B. tone and noise

C. noise and tone

D. note and tone
m
Q.18
m .co
What is the role of sulphuric acid in the anodising process of aluminium?

s e
la
Ans A. It dissolves aluminium completely.

ag
B. It acts as an electrolyte to help form a thicker oxide layer.

C. It prevents oxidation of aluminium.

D. It reacts with aluminium to form aluminium chloride.

Q.19 Why do aquatic organisms breathe faster than terrestrial organisms?
Ans A. Because they absorb oxygen directly from sunlight through gills

B. Because diffusion of oxygen in water is faster than in air

C. Because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is very low
m
m
D. Because water exerts less resistance on breathing organs
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Q.20
m.co
Which of the following is an example of uniform circular motion?
s e m
s e
Ans A. A car moving on a straight road
g l a
g l a B. A stone dropped from a height a
a C. The Moon revolving around the Earth

D. A train moving on a straight track

Q.21 What is the correct path of the egg in the female reproductive system?
Ans A. Ovary → Vagina → Uterus

B. Fallopian tube → Ovary → Uterus

C. Uterus → Ovary → Fallopian tube
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D. Ovary → Fallopian tube → Uterus

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 49

Q.22 A patient is unable to move his left hand, but brain scans show no damage. Which part
of the nervous system is most likely to be affected?
Ans A. Central nervous system

B. Peripheral nervous system

C. Autonomic nervous system

D. Parasympathetic nervous system

Q.23 What is the main goal of crop variety improvement?
Ans A. To increase water content in soil

B. To develop crops with better yield and useful traits

C. To grow only ornamental plants

D. To reduce the number of crops grown

Q.24 If an object is placed at the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, then what is the
value of the magnification (m)?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.25 A force of 7 N acts on an object and displaces it through 8 m in the direction of the
force. What is the work done in this case?
Ans A. 7 J

B. 56 J

C. 56 N

D. 15 Nm

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 65 minutes and 26 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe B be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 30 minutes?
Ans A. 20 minutes

B. 15 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 14 minutes

Q.27

Ans A. 5842.2

B. 5821.2

C. 5812.2

D. 5832.2

Q.28 Ramesh bought an article for ₹5,000 and sold it to Suresh at a profit of 20%. Suresh
then sold it further at a loss of 10%. For how much did Suresh sell the article?
Ans A. ₹5,200

B. ₹5,400

C. ₹5,600

D. ₹5,800

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.29
m
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m
Ans A. 54.54%

se B. 37.27%
g l a
C. 42.27% a
D. 27.27%

Q.30 A train passes a station platform in 60 seconds and a man standing on the platform in
40 seconds. If the speed of the train is 63 km/hr, calculate the length of the platform.
Ans A. 300 metres

B. 350 metres

C. 550 metres
m
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D. 400 metres

em
Q.31
e m
The mode of the observations 21, 29, 35, 24, 25, 33, 24, 23, 26, 28, 35, 27, 20, 35 and 20
l as
is:4288

l as ag
ag
Ans A. 24

B. 29

C. 35

D. 21

Q.32 The average of 7 numbers is 23. If each number is decreased by 7, what will the new
average be?
Ans A. 23

B. 9
m
C. 7
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D. 16
s e
g la
Q.33
a
An item is sold for ₹6,500 after two successive discounts of 35% and 20%. What is the
marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A. 12,674

B. 12,500

C. 12,435

D. 12,560

Q.34 The monthly incomes of two friends Mukund and Sachin are in the ratio 5 : 9
respectively and each of them saves ₹45,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
m
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expenditure is 1 : 3, then find the monthly income of Mukund (in ₹).

.co m
Ans A. 74,000

m s e
s e
B. 1,05,000

g l a
g l a C. 75,000
a
a D. 76,000

Q.35 The price of a branded pen is ₹180 and that of a pencil is ₹3.50. If the total price of x
branded pens and y pencils is ₹935 and x + y = 15, then what is the value of (x2 + y2)?
Ans A. 125

B. 164

C. 205

D. 181
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 49

Q.36 Simplify: [(9x + 4y)2 − (9x − 4y)2] ÷ 24x
Ans A. 16x

B. 8x

C. 6y

D. 12xy

Q.37 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 36°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 18°

B. 21°

C. 25°

D. 22°

Q.38

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 4 and 4 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 9

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3

Q.40 Find the single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 6%,
5% and 11%.
Ans A. 21.73%

B. 20.52%

C. 23.23%

D. 21.86%

Q.41 ₹5,575 is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that if ₹85, ₹65 and ₹61 is deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 5:11:20. Find the difference
between the original shares of Y and Z.
Ans A. ₹1,191

B. ₹1,241

C. ₹1,337

D. ₹1,491

Q.42

Ans A. 47

B. 37

C. 52

D. 41

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.43 Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 4, 8 and 19 to the mean proportional of
m
9 and 4.

. co
Ans A. 19 : 3
s e m
m a
se l
B. 22 : 7

C. 16 : 9
ag
D. 19 : 4

Q.44 Find the smallest number which when increased by 10 is completely divisible by 12, 15,
18 and 20.
Ans A. 170

B. 200

C. 180
m
D. 190
m .co
Q.45
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. 26 cm

l a
ag
B. 80 cm

C. 13 cm

D. 169 cm

Q.46 A camp has provisions for 20 pupils for 12 days. In how many days will the same
provisions be used up, if the strength of the camp is increased to 80 pupils?
Ans A. 2

B. 6

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C. 4

D. 3

e m
Q.47
las
The amount on a sum of ₹4,800 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded

Ans
annually, in 2 years will be:
A. ₹7,194 ag
B. ₹6,348

C. ₹6,717

D. ₹6,836

Q.48 The distance between points A and B is 933 km. Namit travels from A to B at a speed of
70 km/hr and returns at a speed of 111 km/hr. Calculate Namit’s average speed for the

m
entire journey (rounded off to two decimal places).

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Ans A. 85.86 km/hr
m
m.co B. 81.26 km/hr

s e m
s e C. 88.58 km/hr

g l a
g l a D. 94.58 km/hr
a
a Q.49 The product of the present ages of Ram and Lalith is 216 years, and their age ratio is 6 :
1. Find the difference in their ages.
Ans A. 18 years

B. 36 years

C. 30 years

D. 24 years

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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 49

Q.50 The expenditure of Sudha is 200% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 10% and savings increase by 34%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 1%

B. 3%

C. 4%

D. 6%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only L is kept above Q. Only three boxes are kept between L and R.
Only O is kept below N. S is kept immediately above M. Which box is kept second above
M?
Ans A. Q

B. L

C. N

D. O

Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pilots are captains.
All captains are drivers.
Some drivers are teachers.

Conclusions
(I) All pilots are drivers.
(II) Some teachers are pilots.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.53 Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people sit between V and D. Only U sits to the right of T. Only one person sits between
D and T. C sits at some place to the right of B but at some place to the left of W. How
many people sit between W and B?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q.54 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. None

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co DER UVI LMZ CDQ ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. THU

B. HIT ag l
C. TUH

D. THI

Q.56 Mr. Akte ranked 54th from the top and 19th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 68

B. 72
m
C. 73
m .co
D. 70
m.co s em
s e l a
Q.57
l a
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
ag
ag
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

33 −15 ÷ 6 + 120 × 8 = ?
Ans A. 120

B. 108

C. 112

D. 115

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
e
s
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. LGJ
g la
B. RMQ
a
C. PKN

D. MHK

Q.59 XBYA is related to CGDF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, ZDAC is related to EIFH. To which of the given options is BFCE related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. GKHJ

m
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B. GLGK

m
.co m
C. GKGJ

m D. GJGJ
s e
s e g l a
g l a Q.60 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
a
a the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(14, 14.4, 13.7)
(32, 32.4, 31.7)
Ans A. (25, 25.4, 24.7)

B. (78, 78.4, 75.7)

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C. (63, 63.4, 61.7)

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D. (46, 46.4, 44.7)

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.61 RL 12 is related to VQ 16 in a certain way. In the same way, NH 15 is related to RM 19. To
which of the given options is IC 24 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. LG 29

B. MH 28

C. KJ 28

D. KH 29

Q.62 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All balls are hens.
All rabbits are hens.

Conclusions:
(I) Some balls are rabbits.
(II) Some hens are rabbits.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

100, 97, 91, 82, 70, ?
Ans A. 54

B. 53

C. 52

D. 55

Q.64 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

YCG 18 HLP 23 QUY 28 ZDH 33 ?
Ans A. IMQ 38

B. IRB 37

C. INP 38

D. ILP 37

Q.65 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 1 3 4 7 5 1 3 6 6 7 9 5 9 6 7 8 1 3 7 3 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square)
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.66 Oren starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the East. He then takes a left turn,
m
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He

. co takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
s e m
m a
se l
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km to the South
ag
B. 8 km to the South

C. 8 km to the North

D. 7 km to the North

Q.67 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) ? % 4 5 % & ^ ? \ \ 4 $ % & 5 4 / 4 % ^ 7 (Right)
m
m
How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
.co
.co m
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Two
m s e
s e l a
a ag
B. Three
l
ag
C. One

D. None

Q.68 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

KIH−DBA
OML−HFE
Ans A. TQO−LJI

B. TQO−MKJ
m
C. TRQ−MKJ

m .co
D. TRQ−LKI
s e
g la
Q.69
a
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

35 40 30 45 25 ?1105
Ans A. 50

B. 55

C. 60

D. 45

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Q.70 After walking 20 metres north from point A, Jane turns right and walks another 15

m
metres. Then she turns right again and walks 50 metres to stop at point B. In which

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direction is point A with respect to point B?
Ans
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A. South-west
s e
s e B. West
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g l a C. East a
a D. North-west

Q.71 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

71 ÷ 9 + 192 × 16 − 41 = ?
Ans A. 591

B. 619

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C. 668

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D. 523

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l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.72 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’, and ‘÷’ means
‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation?

25 – 6 ÷ 4 + 16 × 4 ÷ 16 + 22 = ?
Ans A. 146

B. 144

C. 142

D. 145

Q.73 A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B is sitting third to
the right of C. A is sitting third to the left of C. D and A are immediate neighbours. Who
is to the immediate left of C?
Ans A. D

B. B

C. E

D. A

Q.74 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. NMJ

B. RQN

C. XXT

D. CBY

Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘BACK’ is coded as ‘8561’ and ‘TACK’ is coded as ‘6458’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in that language?
Ans A. 5

B. 6

C. 1

D. 4

Q.76 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 4 1 7 2 6 5 1 6 7 8 8 5 9 4 6 1 6 8 8 8 3 5 2 6 7 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q.77 In a certain code language, ‘bowl tin leaf’ is coded as ‘ef cz bi’ and ‘leaf mode theme’ is
coded as ‘cz nx an’. How is ‘leaf’ coded in that language?
Ans A. ef

B. cz

C. nx

D. bi

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
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s e m
m Ans A. 157
a
se B. 156
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C. 159

D. 158

Q.79 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate
left of F. C sits third to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of C. E sits second to
the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end of the
line?
Ans A. B

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B. E
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C. A

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D. F

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.80 In a certain code language,

A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D ± R # A * C ₹ O’?
Ans A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Brother's wife
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D. Father's mother

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

g la
Q.81 a
What is the name of the initiative launched by the Punjab government to ensure
women’s safety and dignity in 2025?
Ans A. Mission Shakti

B. Project Hifazat

C. Project Suraksha

D. Mission Vatsalya

m
Q.82 Which of the following was released by the Reserve Bank of India in January 2025 to

.co
streamline credit information frameworks?

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Ans A. Priority Sector Lending Master Directions, 2025

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B. External Borrowing Guidelines, 2025

l as
l as C. Credit Information Reporting Directions, 2025
ag
ag D. Private Sector Credit Guidelines, 2025

Q.83 In May 2025, which advanced research facility was inaugurated by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with the aim to further strengthen
indigenous quantum capabilities for strategic and defence applications?
Ans A. Quantum Technology Research Centre, Delhi

B. Bharat Quantum Institute, Pune

C. Quantum Defence Lab, Hyderabad

m .
D. National Quantum Hub, Bengaluru

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.84 The National Red List Roadmap launched in 2025 aims primarily to _________.
Ans A. Reduce carbon emissions from industries

B. Promote eco-tourism across national parks

C. Increase and expand the country’s overall forest cover by 10% by 2030

D. Assess and monitor the conservation status of India’s flora and fauna

Q.85 Which country became the first team to qualify for the 2026 FIFA World Cup (excluding
host nations)?
Ans A. Japan

B. South Korea

C. Iran

D. Australia

Q.86 The Railways ordered which safety feature to be installed at stations in Pune in June
2025?
Ans A. Reserved coaches for women

B. Body scanning machines

C. Surveillance camera systems

D. Panic alert buttons

Q.87 Who among the following is the Chairman of the committee constituted to examine the
provision of "One Nation One Election" in India?
Ans A. Pratibha Patil

B. Ram Nath Kovind

C. Jagdeesh Dhankhad

D. Keshav Chand

Q.88 From March 9 to 12, 2025, the second part of India's fifth Khelo India Winter Games was
conducted in which of the following places?
Ans A. Shimla

B. Leh

C. Auli

D. Gulmarg

Q.89 What type of bridge is the new Pamban Rail Bridge, inaugurated in April 2025?
Ans A. Suspension bridge

B. Cable-stayed bridge

C. Vertical lift bridge

D. Arch bridge

Q.90 According to Union Budget 2025–26, approximately _______ was allocated for the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in India.
Ans A. ₹1,720 crore

B. ₹3,413 crore

C. ₹2,672 crore

D. ₹2,958 crore

Q.91 What is the name of DRDO's homegrown multi-layered defense system, showcased for
the first time at the 2025 Republic Day parade and Aero India 2025?
Ans A. Vayu-Prahar Kavach

B. Surya-Vajra

C. Agni-Shakti

D. Rakshak-Suraksha Kavach
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.92 What is India’s rank in the WEF Energy Transition Index, 2025?
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Ans A. 68th

. e m
m B. 71st
as
se C. 75th
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D. 63rd

Q.93 Which of the following political parties announced a nationwide protest on November
18, 2025, against rising atrocities on marginalized groups in India?
Ans A. Aam Aadmi Party

B. Communist Party of India

C. Bharatiya Janata Party

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D. Indian National Congress

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Q.94
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Where was the 2025 Hyundai Archery World Cup Grand Final held in October 2025?

m s em
Ans A. Japan

s e l a
B. USA
l a ag
C. China

D. Italy
ag
Q.95 What happens if the accused minister (Prime Minister / Chief Minister) is granted bail
within 30 days according to the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025?
Ans A. They are automatically disqualified for 5 years.

B. They are removed from office permanently.

C. No action is taken; they can continue in office.
m
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D. They are suspended from their post for 30 more days.

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Q.96
s
Who is the author of the Lithuanian novel, ‘The Last Day’, which was translated into

la
Hindi by the Sahitya Akademi in October 2025 as part of celebrating literary exchange

Ans
and cultural collaboration?
A. Vincas Mykolaitis-Putinas ag
B. Jurga Ivanauskaitė

C. Balys Sruoga

D. Jaroslavas Melnikas

Q.97 Which of the following bilateral agreements was signed between India and Singapore
and marked the upgrade of their relationship by exchanging several MoUs in areas such
as semiconductors, digital technologies and skills development?
m
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Ans A. India-Singapore Strategic Economic Cooperation Agreement

m.co B. India-Singapore Indo-Pacific Security Treaty

s e m
s e C. India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement

g l a
g l a D. India-Singapore Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
a
a Q.98 Which state hosted the Khelo India Youth Games, 2025?
Ans A. Tamil Nadu

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Bihar

Q.99 Which Ukrainian city suffered a deadly Russian missile strike in mid-June 2025?
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Ans A. Kharkiv

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B. Lviv

s e l a
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C. Kyiv

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D. Dnipro
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.100 Who was awarded the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award, the highest honour in
Indian cinema, at the 70th National Film Awards ceremony on 8 October 2024?
Ans A. Rekha

B. Vinod Mehra

C. Amitabh Bachchan

D. Mithun Chakraborty

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 22/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 2-methylpropane has the same molecular formula as that of which of the following?
Ans A. Pentane

B. Pentene

C. Butane

D. Butene

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Q.2 According to Bohr, electrons revolve:
Ans A. in fixed circular orbits called shells
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B. in elliptical orbits randomly
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C. only when energy is absorbed
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D. inside the nucleus of an atom

Q.3 A convex lens forms a real image of an object placed at a distance of 30 cm from it. If
the image is formed at 60 cm on the other side of the lens, the focal length of the lens
is:
Ans A. 20 cm

B. 30 cm

C. 10 cm
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D. 15 cm

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Q.4 mSome organisms show binary fission by division in any plane but some shows division
l as
l as in a definite orientation. Which of the following shows definite orientation of binary
fission?
ag
ag Ans A. Paramecium

B. Leishmania

C. Plasmodium

D. Amoeba

Q.5 What can be the consequences of improper storage of grains?
Ans A. Pest attack and spoilage

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B. More fragrance

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C. Better nutrition

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D. Stronger grains
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Q.6 Match the following columns on Apparatus and Purpose.
Column A Column B

A. Litmus paper 1. To detect acidic or basic nature

B. Watch-glass 2. To place drops of test solutions

C. Test tube 3. To hold and mix solutions safely

D. Indicator solution 4. Shows colour change to identify acid or base

Ans A. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3

B. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1

C. A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

D. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

Q.7 Which statement about parallel connection of resistors is true?
Ans A. The total current is the same as current through any branch.

B. The total current is the sum of the currents through individual resistors.

C. Each resistor carries the same current regardless of its resistance.

D. The total resistance increases when more resistors are added.

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT an olfactory indicator?
Ans A. Vanilla extract

B. Onion

C. Clove oil

D. Turmeric

Q.9 Which of the following statements about phloem is correct?
Ans A. Phloem transports water upward only.

B. Phloem transports food from leaves to other parts.

C. Phloem transports minerals from roots to leaves.

D. Phloem is made entirely of dead cells.

Q.10 Which of the following is true for saturated hydrocarbons?
Ans A. They have at least one double bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

B. They have at least one triple bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

C. They have only a single bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

D. They can have either double and triple bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

Q.11 Which of the following pairs of frequency and time period is correctly related?
Ans A. 2 Hz and 0.2 s

B. 5 Hz and 5 s

C. 1 Hz and 2 s

D. 10 Hz and 0.1 s

Q.12 What is the immediate result of the fusion between the male and female germ cells in
plants?
Ans A. Zygote

B. Seed coat

C. Pollen tube

D. Ovule

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.13 Select the correct statement about the properties of colloid.
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Ans A. The components of a colloid solution are not dispersed phase.

m . s e
se
B. A colloid is a homogeneous mixture.

g l a
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C. They can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.

D. Dispersing medium is the component in which its phase is suspended.

Q.14 What happens to particles on heating a solid?
Ans A. They break into other elements.

B. They freeze and become static.

C. They stop interacting completely.

D. They vibrate with more energy.
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.co m
Q.15 If a car moves 100 m in 5 seconds, its linear velocity is:

m s e
a
Ans A. 20 m/s

s e l
a ag
B. 25 m/s
l
ag
C. 15 m/s

D. 10 m/s

Q.16 A wooden block weighs 49 N (thrust). If this block is placed on a table
with a contact area of 0.02 m2, what is the resulting pressure exerted on
the table?
Ans A. 2450 Nm-2

B. 980 Nm-2
m
C. 49 Pa

m .co
D. 612.5 Nm-2
s e
Q.17
g la
a
Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue?
Ans A. Blood

B. Bone

C. Epithelium

D. Cartilage

Q.18 Which of the following generally forms the longest part of a neuron?

m
Ans A. Axon

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B. Synapse
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m .co C. Cell body
s e m
s e D. Nerve ending
g l a
g l a a
a Q.19
Ans
Which type of muscle is voluntary and shows light and dark bands?
A. Striated muscle

B. Unstriated muscle

C. Cardiac muscle

D. Smooth muscle

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m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.20 A potential difference of V volt is applied across a resistor of R Ω, then a current of I
ampere flows through it. Keeping the resistance the same, how should the value of
potential difference be changed so that the current flowing through the resistance gets
doubled? (Keep all the other parameters the same.)
Ans A. V/4 volts

B. V/2 volts

C. V volts

D. 2V volts

Q.21 A body undergoes a displacement of 10 m under the action of a constant force of 2.5 N,
in the opposite direction to the direction of force. What will be the work done under the
action of this force?
Ans A. +25 J

B. −2.5 J

C. +2.5 J

D. −25 J

Q.22 An object is placed anywhere along the principal axis of a concave lens. The image is
always formed ___________.
Ans A. between the focus (F) and the optical centre (O)

B. at the focus (F)

C. at twice the focal length (2F)

D. beyond twice the focal length (2F)

Q.23 If the applied force is quadrupled, how must the acceleration of the object change,
assuming its mass remains constant?
Ans A. The acceleration remains the same, but the duration of the change decreases.

B. The acceleration increases by a factor of 4.

C. The acceleration decreases by a factor of 4.

D. The acceleration increases by a factor of 2.

Q.24 The ‘p’ in pH stands for ____________and it is used for measuring _____________
concentration.
Ans A. Potential; hydrogen ion

B. Potenz; hydrogen ion

C. Potenz; hydroxide ion

D. Potential; hydroxide ion

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT an outcome of fertilisation?
Ans A. Placenta formation

B. Embryo formation

C. Zygote formation

D. Egg formation

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A.

B.

C. 15

D. 10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.27 Find the largest number which divides 62, 134 and 242 to leave the same reminder in
m
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each case.

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Ans A. 38
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se B. 32

C. 34 ag l
D. 36

Q.28 What price should Anjali mark on a shirt which cost her ₹7,000, so as to gain 17% after
allowing successive discounts of 35% and 30%?
Ans A. ₹18,138

B. ₹18,066

C. ₹18,070
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D. ₹18,000

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Q.29
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The ratio of two friends’ ages is 4 : 5. Together, their ages add up to 36 years. What is
l as
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the age of the older friend?

l a ag
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Ans A. 18 years

B. 20 years

C. 22 years

D. 16 years

Q.30 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 100 maximum marks. What
percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 150.19%

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B. 75.55%

C. 66.67%

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D. 82.35%

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Q.31
ag∠
PQRS is a trapezium with PQ parallel to SR and QRS = 60°. With R as centre and RQ
as radius, an arc QAB is drawn which intersects SR in B. A is an arbitrary point on the
arc QAB. If PQ = QR = 14 cm and SB = 8 cm, then find the area (in cm2, rounded off to
the nearest integer) of the region PQABSP.

Ans A. 102

B. 116

C. 96
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D. 110

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Q.32
m Raman's income is ₹43,000. He saves 26% of his income. If his income increases by
l as
l as 20% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
ag
ag Ans A. increase by ₹4,133

B. decrease by ₹4,128

C. decrease by ₹4,133

D. increase by ₹4,131

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.33 A regular polygon has 2n sides. What is the angle made between two adjacent sides (in
degrees)?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.34 What is the difference between the average of prime numbers between 20 and 40 and
the average of multiples of 2 between 10 and 30?
Ans A. 18

B. 1

C. 10

D. 20

Q.35 A car travels 128 km in the first hour and 146 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/hr) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans A. 131

B. 137

C. 133

D. 145

Q.36 A trader marks an item 40% above its cost price and gives a discount of 10%. Find his
profit percentage.
Ans A. 20%

B. 30%

C. 26%

D. 24%

Q.37 The monthly incomes of two friends Rupesh and Manjit, are in the ratio 5 : 9,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹36,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Rupesh (in ₹).
Ans A. 1,80,000

B. 1,79,000

C. 2,52,000

D. 1,81,000

Q.38 In a farm, there are chickens and rabbits, altogether, there are 20 animals. The total
number of legs is 56. How many chickens are there in the farm?
Ans A. 12

B. 6

C. 14

D. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.39 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
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with water in 48 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same

. cistern with water?
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Ans A. 4

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B. 8

C. 9
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D. 5

Q.40 If the radius of a cylinder is halved and its height is doubled, then its volume will be
_________________.
Ans A. Same

B. Halved
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C. Increased by four times
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D. Doubled

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Q.41
s
A total profit of ₹14,200 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C such that A : B = 13 : 9

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and B : C = 18 : 11. The share (in ₹) of C in the profit is:
ag
Ans A. 2,840
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B. 2,690

C. 2,940

D. 2,740

Q.42 The mode of the observations 7, 5, 6, 3, 3, 7, 1, 7, 8, 7, 1, 4, 8, 8 and 4 is:4294
Ans A. 3

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B. 5

C. 6

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D. 7

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Q.43
ag
The amount on a sum of ₹2,000 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹2,645

B. ₹2,575

C. ₹2,650

D. ₹2,667

Q.44 If the mean proportional of P and 150 is 120, then find the value of P.5767
m
Ans
mA. 96
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a
a Q.45

11135
Ans A. 7 minutes

B. 11 minutes

C. 15 minutes

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D. 12 minutes

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.46

Ans A. 6

B. 8

C. 4

D. 5

Q.47

Ans A. 76

B. 80

C. 84

D. 88

Q.48 If 4 lines of a print, in a column of a book, contain 63 words, how many words will a
column of 52 lines contain?
Ans A. 815

B. 829

C. 819

D. 823

Q.49 After allowing a discount of 9% on the marked price of an article, it is sold for ₹53,053.
Find its marked price (in ₹).
Ans A. 58,132

B. 58,204

C. 58,146

D. 58,300

Q.50 A can complete one-sixth of a work in 13 days, B can complete 34% of the same work in
17 days, C can complete one-third of the work in 19 days and D can complete three-
fourth of the work in 15 days. Who will be able to complete the work first?
Ans A. A

B. C

C. B

D. D

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is E related to T if ‘T – L # Q # P x E’?
Ans A. Wife’s brother

B. Mother’s father

C. Daughter’s husband

D. Daughter’s son

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.52 Six friends — Edwin, Preeti, Sunita, Jacob, Victoria, and Sagar — are sitting around a
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circular table facing the centre. Edwin is an immediate neighbour of both Preeti and

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Sunita. Jacob is sitting third to the left of Sunita. Victoria is sitting second to the right
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of Jacob. Who is sitting second to the left of Edwin?
as
se Ans A. Sagar

B. Victoria ag l
C. Preeti

D. Sunita

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

11 16 22 29 37 ?
Ans A. 43
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B. 44

C. 46

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D. 45
s e l a
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Q.54 Eight people (A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S) are sitting around a circular table facing towards
the centre.
B is an immediate neighbour of both S and P.
C sits second to the right of P.
R is an immediate neighbour of both D and Q.
A sits second to the left of Q.
What is the position of Q with respect to C?
Ans A. Immediate right

B. Second to the right

C. Immediate left
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D. Second to the left

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Q.55
s
Mohak starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the south. He then takes a left

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turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 14

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km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 3 km to the west

B. 4 km to the east

C. 3 km to the east

D. 4 km to the west

Q.56 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.
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(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
s e m
s e adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
g l a
g l a and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
a
a (14, 3, 42)
(12, 2, 24)
Ans A. (18, 2, 9)

B. (5, 8, 36)

C. (15, 45, 3)

D. (13, 3, 39)

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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

85 100 120 145 175 ?
Ans A. 195

B. 210

C. 205

D. 215

Q.58 In a row of 55 people facing north, Nalini sits 20th from the right end. If Ranjit sits 18th
from the left end of the line, how many people sit between Nalini and Ranjit?
Ans A. 16

B. 17

C. 14

D. 15

Q.59 If ‘A’ stands for ‘×’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘+’, then what
will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

27 B 3 D 5 A 10 C 12 D 15 C 27 = ?
Ans A. 35

B. 32

C. 36

D. 34

Q.60 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 7 3 6 2 9 5 1 3 5 2 1 7 8 4 6 5 7 9 4 3 1 4 6 7 2 9 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

Q.61 In a certain code language GYSU is coded as 74 and MAKZ is coded as 53. What is the
code for IHOW in that language?
Ans A. 59

B. 51

C. 60

D. 57

Q.62 Warner starts from Point A and drives 78 km towards the west. He then takes a right
turn, drives 79 km, turns right and drives 80 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
90 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 11 km to the north

B. 10 km to the north

C. 13 km to the south

D. 12 km to the south

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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Ans A. VPN81

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B. WPM79

C. WQM79
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D. VQM81

Q.64 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
73256, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. Two

B. One
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C. Three
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D. None

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Q.65
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MHSD is related to HDPB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

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the same way, LNPB is related to GJMZ. To which of the given options is SMUT related,
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following the same logic?
Ans A. NIRQ

B. NIRR

C. MJQR

D. MJQQ

Q.66 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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24 ÷ 5 + 18 × 6 − 17 = ?
Ans A. 132
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B. 130
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C. 136
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D. 134

Q.67 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.
B sits second to the left of F. C is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits to the immediate
right of A. D sits second to the left of E.
What is the position of E with respect to A?
Ans A. Immediate right

B. Third to the left
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C. Second to the right

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Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘TUNE’ is coded as ‘5279’ and ‘WAIT’ is coded as ‘1428’.

g l What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
a
a Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 8

D. 5

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.69 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

JLO−QSV
TVY−ACF
Ans A. NPS−UWZ

B. NOQ−UWZ

C. NOQ−TVY

D. NPS−TWY

Q.70 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GMOS

B. UACG

C. AGIM

D. BHIM

Q.71 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TX−YF

B. KO−QU

C. NR−TX

D. GK−MQ

Q.72 In a row of 58 people facing the north, Jolly sits 19th from the left end. If Bela sits 17th
to the right of Jolly, then what is Bela’s position from the right end of the line?
Ans A. 24th

B. 20th

C. 22nd

D. 23rd

Q.73 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

BZA 30 ZXY 41 XVW 52 VTU 63 ?
Ans A. TYE 73

B. TSR 74

C. TRS 74

D. TQR 73

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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se Statements: Some seats are plates. All plates are chairs.
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Conclusion (I): Some seats are chairs.
Conclusion (II): All chairs are plates.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.75
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Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
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below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

m s e
BFL : EIO

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KPI : NSL

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Ans A. LQW : OTZ

B. APH : BSJ

C. DBH : THY

D. DJH : GMJ

Q.76 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 5 7 4 5 2 5 7 9 8 7 4 2 3 4 3 6 9 3 6 2 3 7 1 8 4 1 5 (Right)

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How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

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Ans A. 3

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B. 4

C. 2 a
D. 5

Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All helmets are nuts.
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All helmets are bins.

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Conclusions:
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(I) Some nuts are bins.
(II) All bins are helmets.
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g l a Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows. a
a B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.78 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 745 768 729 716 721 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to
the third digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 14

B. 10

C. 13

D. 12

Q.79 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-
digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 5 2 8 1 6 3 7 9 4 2 8 7 1 9 6 4 3 5 9 8 2 1 1 7 6 3 (Right).

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. Five

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 6 8 16 18 36 38 ?
Ans A. 76

B. 56

C. 40

D. 84

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In 2025, Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Jayanti, also celebrated as Parakram Diwas, falls
on which date?
Ans A. 23 January

B. 17 March

C. 21 February

D. 19 April

Q.82 In 2025, senators from which of the following nations introduced the 'India Shrimp Tariff
Act'?
Ans A. United Kingdom

B. Australia

C. United States

D. Canada

Q.83 Which two countries initialed a peace agreement draft on 19 June 2025, aimed at ending
conflict in eastern DR Congo?
Ans A. DR Congo and Uganda

B. DR Congo and Rwanda

C. DR Congo and Burundi

D. DR Congo and South Sudan

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.84 Under India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission, what is the minimum annual green
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hydrogen production capacity targeted by 2030?

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Ans A. 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) per year
m a
se B. 10 million metric tonnes (MMT) per year

C. 8 million metric tonnes (MMT) per year ag l
D. 2 million metric tonnes (MMT) per year

Q.85 Where did DRDO successfully conduct the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air
Defence Weapon System (IADWS) on 23 August 2025?
Ans A. Mumbai Coast

B. Goa Coast

C. Chennai Coast
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D. Odisha Coast

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Q.86
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Who became the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025?
l as
Ans
l as
A. Professor DP Verma
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B. Hitesh Jain

C. Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi

D. Justice Dinesh Maheshwari

Q.87 Which stance did the Reserve Bank of India adopt after the April 2025 repo rate cut?
Ans A. Accommodative

B. Neutral

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C. Restrictive

D. Withdrawn

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Q.88
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Which female athlete became the second woman in history to win the Laureus World

Ans
Sportswoman of the Year four times by April 2025?
A. Rebeca Andrade ag
B. Serena Williams

C. Simone Biles

D. Naomi Osaka

Q.89 Which athlete clocked 58.11 seconds to win gold in women’s 400 m hurdles at the 2025
National Games?

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Ans A. Anjali Devi

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B. Vithya Ramraj

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C. Revathi Veeramani

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a Q.90 What is the name of India’s first AI teacher introduced in 2024?
Ans A. Mira

B. Sophia

C. Iris

D. Eva

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.91 In 2025, which country tested a revolutionary hydrogen bomb that functions without
traditional fissile materials like uranium or plutonium, using advanced fusion
techniques such as magnesium hydride-based fusion?
Ans A. The US

B. North Korea

C. Russia

D. China

Q.92 Which legendary surfer received the Lifetime Achievement Award at Laureus 2025?
Ans A. Stephanie Gilmore

B. Kelly Slater

C. Mick Fanning

D. Tom Carroll

Q.93 According to the NITI Aayog press release (July 2025) on the second edition of the NER
District SDG Index 2023–24, how are districts classified based on their SDG scores?
Ans A. Achiever 100; Front Runner 70–99; Performer 55–69; Aspirant <55

B. Achiever 100; Front Runner 65–99; Performer 50–65; Aspirant <50

C. Achiever 95–100; Front Runner 60–94; Performer 45–59; Aspirant <45

D. Achiever 90–100; Front Runner 70–89; Performer 50–69; Aspirant <50

Q.94 Which of the following states won the highest number of medals overall (gold, silver,
bronze combined) in National-Games 2025?
Ans A. Uttarakhand

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Punjab

D. Maharashtra

Q.95 Who captained India in the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup, 2025, in November 2025?
Ans A. Mithali Raj

B. Smriti Mandhana

C. Jhulan Goswami

D. Harmanpreet Kaur

Q.96 Which Union Minister inaugurated the Startup Mahakumbh 2025 and referred to his visit
as “an experience of a lifetime”?
Ans A. Piyush Goyal

B. Ashwini Vaishnaw

C. Rajeev Chandrasekhar

D. Dharmendra Pradhan

Q.97 As per the Sustainable Development Goals — National Indicator Framework Progress
Report 2025, published in June 2025, the rise in internet subscriptions in the year 2024–
25 primarily supports which of the following SDGs in India?
Ans A. SDG 1

B. SDG 9

C. SDG 6

D. SDG 13

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.98 The Population Census, 2027, will include which major new component for the first time
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since 1931?

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Ans A. Caste-based enumeration
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C. Religion-wise urban census ag l
D. Occupation-based mapping

Q.99 When did IndusInd Bank launch its 'Indus StartUp Banking' programme aimed at
supporting early-stage startups?
Ans A. April 2025

B. June 2025

C. July 2025
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D. August 2025

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Q.100
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In July 2025, which state government directed all department heads to ensure strict
l as
l as
compliance with the Prevention of Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act, 2013 at workplaces
to strengthen women’s safety?
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Ans
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A. Kerala

B. Haryana

C. Maharashtra

D. Odisha

"

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49