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CUET UG
ENTRANCE
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2023
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CUET 2023 Overview
CUET is a Common entrance exam. The full form of CUET is Common University Entrance Test. It
is organized by National Testing Agency at a National level. It is organized by National Testing
Agency as a National level exam in India for admission in All Central Universities, and State, Deemed,
Private Universities accepting CUET scores.
Highlights of the examination are as follows.
Aspects Details
Name of Exam CUET 2023
Full Form of CUET Common University Entrance Test
Organizing Body NTA
Full Form of NTA National Testing Agency
Type of Exam Common Entrance Exam
Level of Exam National
Region India
Official Website cuet.samarth.ac.in
Courses Where BA, BCA, B.Sc, B.Com, BJMC, B.Pharm, D.Pharm, B.Tech, B.Voc, BVA,
Admission is Through BFA, BPA, BSW, Integrated MA Integrated B.Ed, Integrated M.Sc,
CUET Integrated B.Tech-M.Tech, Integrated MPA, BA LLB, BBA LLB, Diploma,
Shastri,
Colleges Where All Central Universities, and State, Deemed, Private Universities acepting
Admission is Through CUET scores
CUET
Minimum Educational Class 12th
Qualification
Mode of Exam Computer Based Test-CBT
Type of Questions Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions
Marking Scheme +5, -1
CUET 2023 Exam Pattern
The exam pattern is as follows
▪ Mode of Exam – The exam is a Computer Based Test-CBT.
▪ Question type – The questions are Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions.
▪ Number of Subjects – A candidate can choose upto 10 Subjects for giving the Exam.
▪ Language of Question Paper – The question paper is in 13 languages (Assamese, Bengali,
English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, and
Urdu).
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Marking Scheme –
▪ Candidates get +5 marks for correct answer.
▪ And negative marks is -1 for incorrect answers
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List of Languages/ Domain Specific Subjects /General Test offered under CUET (UG)-2023
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Sample Paper
CUET 2023
Legal Studies
Q.No. 1
Who is called ‘the father of International Law’?
(A)
Hugo Grotius
(B)
Oppenheim
(C)
Suerez
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 2
What is the main purpose of equity?
(A)
To achieve justice
(B)
To achieve fairness
(C)
To achieve equality
(D)
To achieve damages
Q.No. 3
The jurisdiction of the international court of justice:
(A)
is binding on all the members of the UNO
(B)
is not binding on all the members of the UNO
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(C)
is binding only upon the members of the SECURITY COUNCIL
(D) CUET 2023
None of these
Q.No. 4
The provisions of 1996 Act have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by principles underlying under 1940
Act. This observation was laid down in:
(A)
M.M.T. C. Ltd. vs Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd, AIR 1997 SC 605
(B)
Sundamm Finace Ltd. vs N.E.P.C. India Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 565
(C)
Olympus Super Structures Pvt. Ltd. vs Meemz Vijay Khetan, AIR 1999 SC 2102.
(D)
Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. vs Nissuri Arb. Pte. Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 2871.
Q.No. 5
Assertion (A): The beginning of Indian codified common law is traced back to 1726 when a Mayor’s Court
in Madras, Bombay and Calcutta was established by the East India Company. Reason (R): This was the first
sign of Company’s transformation from a trading company to a ruling power with the added flavour of new
elements of the Judiciary.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)
Both (A) & (R) are not true
Q.No. 6
Under the provisions of section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the chance of an heir-apparent
succeeding to an estate, the chance of a relation abstaining a legacy on the death of a kinsman, or any other
mere possibility of like nature:
(A)
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Cannot be transferred
(B)
Can be transferred CUET 2023
(C)
Can be transferred subject to certain conditions
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 7
The Alabama Claims Arbitration case was decided in:
(A)
1872
(B)
1854
(C)
1890
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 8
What does a ‘conditional fee arrangement’ mean?
(A)
A litigant’s solicitor will be paid whether or not the claim is successful
(B)
A litigant’s solicitor will not be paid if the claim is successful
(C)
A litigant’s solicitor will only be paid if the claim is unsuccessful
(D)
A litigant’s solicitor will only be paid if the claim is successful
Q.No. 9
Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies where:
(A)
the place of arbitration is in India
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(B)
the place of arbitration is outside India, but is in Asia
(C) CUET 2023
the place of arbitration is outside India, but is in Europe
(D)
the place of arbitration is anywhere in the world
Q.No. 10
Who should be the chairman of the NHRC?
(A)
Supreme Court Judge
(B)
Retired Supreme Court Chief Justice
(C)
High Court Chief Justice
(D)
High Court Judge
Q.No. 11
Consider the following I. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937 with
appellate and advisory jurisdiction. II. According to this act, the four Circuit Courts were abolished and
transferred the functions of the abolished court to the collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of
revenue and circuit. Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct about the Government of India Act,
1935?
(A)
Only I
(B)
Only II
(C)
Both I and II
(D)
Neither I nor II
Q.No. 12
According to Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(A)
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Instrument means a non-testamentary instrument
(B)
Testamentary instrument CUET 2023
(C)
Both testamentary and non-testamentary instrument
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 13
In the matters governed by Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
(A)
a judicial authority can intervene generally
(B)
a judicial authority shall not intervene under any circumstances
(C)
a judicial authority cannot intervene except where so provided in this Part
(D)
either (A) or (C)
Q.No. 14
Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(A)
A public office cannot be transferred
(B)
A public office can be transferred
(C)
Such provision is absent in the Act
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 15
Extradition is normally granted:
(A)
in all cases
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(B)
in criminal cases only
(C) CUET 2023
in civil cases only
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 16
What was the effect of the Scotland Act, 1998?
(A)
It legally renamed the Scottish Executive to the Scottish Government
(B)
Allowed Scotland to set their own income tax rates
(C)
Established the Scottish Parliament
(D)
None of the options given are correct
Q.No. 17
The validity of an arbitration agreement does not depend on the number of arbitrators specified therein, as
the Act does not suggest the requirement of the number of arbitrators for an arbitration agreement’: this was
laid down in:
(A)
Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. vs Nissuri Arb. Pte Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 2871
(B)
Olympus Super Structures Pvt. Ltd. vs Meena Vijay Khetan, AIR 1999 SC 2102
(C)
M.M.T.C. Ltd. vs Sterlite Industris (India) Ltd., AIR 1997 SC 605
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 18
Where was the Universal Declaration adopted:
(A)
London
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(B)
New York City
(C) CUET 2023
Paris
(D)
Zurich
Q.No. 19
While drafting a contract_________.
(A)
it would be a bad idea to include a mediation clause as it would delay the resolution of the dispute
(B)
it would be a good idea to include a mediation clause so that the dispute could be resolved quickly
(C)
it is not necessary to include a mediation clause
(D)
there is no such thing called as a mediation clause there is only a mediation settlement agreement
Q.No. 20
Which of the following loan accounts can be referred to Lok Adalat?
(A)
All NPA accounts
(B)
Both suit filed and non-suit filed accounts
(C)
Where liability does not exceed Rs 20 lacs
(D)
All of the above
Q.No. 21
Which Article of the Protection of Human Rights Act prescribes for Human Rights courts?
(A)
Article 12
(B)
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Article 16
(C)
Article 31 CUET 2023
(D)
Article 13
Q.No. 22
Contains two statements—one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine whether the
statements are correct and related to each other with the help of the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Capital punishment (Death Sentence) is impermissible Under the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights (UDHR).
Reason (R): According to Article 5 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), no one shall be
subjected to Torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D)
(A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Q.No. 23
An appeal to the High Court lies in case the Session Court has awarded the punishment of:
(A)
One year or more
(B)
Two years or more
(C)
Three years or more
(D)
Four years or more
Q.No. 24
Universal declaration of human rights was passed in:
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(A)
Chicago
(B) CUET 2023
London
(C)
Berlin
(D)
Paris
Q.No. 25
The Supreme Court of India enjoys:
(A)
Advisory jurisdictions
(B)
Original jurisdictions
(C)
Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D)
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
Q.No. 26
“International law is not true law but a Positive International Morality”, said:
(A)
John Austin
(B)
Oppenheim
(C)
Hagel
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 27
Under the provisions of section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, no transfer can be made for an
unlawful object or consideration within the meaning of section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
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(A)
The statement is false
(B) CUET 2023
The statement is true
(C)
The statement is partly true
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 28
Law Commission for the Transfer of Property matters was appointed in England and the Draft Bill prepared
by the Commission was introduced in Legislative Council in:
(A)
1870
(B)
1875
(C)
1877
(D)
1882
Q.No. 29
Which of the following is not a “strategic objective” of the Legal Aid Agency?
(A)
Build and maintain strong partnerships to secure quality provision and contribute fully to wider justice and
government aims
(B)
Improve organizational capacity to meet the challenges ahead, including developing and engaging our people
(C)
Improve casework to reduce cost, enhance control, and give better customer service
(D)
Strike a fair balance between the rights of individuals to receive legal advice and representation whilst also
ensuring a tight constrain is kept on the budget
Q.No. 30
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Who among the following known for the establishment of sovereignty of law in India?
(A)
Lord Dalhousie CUET 2023
(B)
Warren Hastings
(C)
Lord William Bentinck
(D)
Lord Cornwallis
Q.No. 31
Which of the following committee/commission is related to the law commission during British India?
(A)
Sargent Plan
(B)
MacDonnell Commission
(C)
Fraser Commission
(D)
Macaulay Commission
Q.No. 32
When was the International Year for Human Rights?
(A)
1988
(B)
1968
(C)
1962
(D)
2008
Q.No. 33
The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came into effect from:
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(A)
17th February, 1882
(B) CUET 2023
27th February, 1882
(C)
17th March, 1882
(D)
1st July, 1882
Q.No. 34
Under the provisions of section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
(A)
a right to future maintenance can be transferred
(B)
a right to future maintenance cannot be transferred
(C)
no such provision is made in the Act
(D)
None of the above
Q.No. 35
Pacta Sunt Servanda means:
(A)
Treaties between states are to be respected
(B)
An unwanted person
(C)
International Law must be honoured
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 36
Conciliation proceeding come to an end when ______.
(A)
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it appears to the conciliator that there exists the possibility of a settlement
(B)
CUET 2023
the conciliator formulates the terms of a settlement
(C)
the parties along with the conciliator draw up a plan for settlement
(D)
the settlement agreement signed by the parties comes into existence
Q.No. 37
An arbitral award shall be enforced in the same manner as if it were a decree of:
(A)
local authority
(B)
the court
(C)
the tribunal
(D)
Both (B) and (C)
Q.No. 38
In __________, a neutral third party assists the disputing parties in reaching a settlement of their dispute.
(A)
Arbitration
(B)
Mediation
(C)
Negotiation
(D)
Infiltration
Q.No. 39
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
(A)
1920
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(B)
1945
(C) CUET 2023
1948
(D)
None of these
Q.No. 40
Vienna Conference of 1961 is related to:
(A)
Diplomatic intercourse and immunities
(B)
Prisoners-of-war
(C)
Recognition of states
(D)
None of these
Answer Sheet
Q.No Answer
Q.No. 1 (A)
Q.No. 2 (B)
Q.No. 3 (B)
Q.No. 4 (B)
Q.No. 5 (A)
Q.No. 6 (A)
Q.No. 7 (A)
Q.No. 8 (D)
Q.No. 9 (A)
Q.No. 10 (B)
Q.No. 11 (A)
Q.No. 12 (A)
Q.No. 13 (C)
Q.No. 14 (A)
Q.No. 15 (B)
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Q.No. 16 (C)
Q.No. 17 (C)
Q.No. 18 (C)
CUET 2023
Q.No. 19 (B)
Q.No. 20 (D)
Q.No. 21 (C)
Q.No. 22 (A)
Q.No. 23 (D)
Q.No. 24 (D)
Q.No. 25 (D)
Q.No. 26 (A)
Q.No. 27 (B)
Q.No. 28 (C)
Q.No. 29 (D)
Q.No. 30 (D)
Q.No. 31 (D)
Q.No. 32 (B)
Q.No. 33 (D)
Q.No. 34 (B)
Q.No. 35 (A)
Q.No. 36 (D)
Q.No. 37 (D)
Q.No. 38 (B)
Q.No. 39 (C)
Q.No. 40 (A)
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