CEETA PG 2023 Question Paper Group A

NG 23 (GROUP A) No.

Time : 2 hours Maximum marks : 100
Name of the Signature of
Candidate : ...................................................................... the Candidate : ........................................................

Regn.
Subject code for Part III
Number :

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Code Part III – Subjects Page No. Code Part III – Subjects Page No.
01 Civil Engineering 8-13 04 Electronics and Communication Engineering 26-31
02 Computer Science and Engg./Information Tech. 14-19 05 Mechanical Engineering 32-38
03 Electrical and Electronics Engineering 20-25

NG 23 (GROUP A)
PART I — ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

(Common to all Candidates)

(Answer ALL questions)

1 2 3  4. A flat circular plate is heated so that
 
1. The rank of the matrix  2 4 6  is the temperature at any point (x, y ) is
1 2 3 
  u (x , y ) = x 2 + 2 y 2 − x . The coldest point on
the plate is
a. 0 1
a.
4
b. 1 1
b. −
4
c. 2 1
c.
2
d. 3 1
d. −
2

 0 2
2. The eigen values of the matrix   are
 − 2 0 5. The solution of the ordinary differential
equation
a. 2, 2 d2 y dy
(x + 2)2 − (x + 2 ) + y = 3x + 4
dx 2 dx
b. 2, –2 is
2
c. i, − i a. y = A ex + B e−x + log (x + 2) − 4
5
b. y = A (x + 2 ) + B e x +
d. 2i, − 2i
2
[log (x + 2)]2 − 2
5
c. y = A log (x + 2) + B (x + 2) +
2
3. The eigen values of the matrix corresponding log (x + 2) − 2
5
to the quadratic form 2x1 x 2 + 2x1 x 3 − 2x 2 x 3 d. y = [ A log (x + 2) + B ] (x + 2) +
3
are 1, 1, –2. Then, the canonical form of the [log (x + 2)]2 (x + 2) − 2
2
given quadratic form is

a. 2 y1 2 + y2 2 − y3 2
6. The complete integral of the partial
differential equation q = z p (1 − p2 ) is
2 2 2
b. y1 2 + 2 y2 2 − y3 2
2
a. az = ( y + ax + c ) + 1
c. y1 2 + y2 2 − 2y3 2 b. a 2 z 2 = ax + y + c
2
c. a 2 − z 2 = ( y + ax + c )
d. y1 2 + y2 2 + 2y3 2 d.
2
a 2 z 2 = ( y + ax + c ) + 1

7. The value of the integral 10. The curve u (x , y ) = C and v(x , y ) = C ′ are
orthogonal if
 [(2x − y) dx − yz dy − y z dz ] , where C is
2 2

C
a. u + iv is an analytic function
2 2
the circle x + y = 1 , corresponding to the
b. u − iv is an analytic function
surface of the sphere of unit radius, is
c. u − v is an analytic function
π
a.
2 d. u + v is an analytic function

b. π

3π
c.
2 11. The function f (z ) = z 2 is

d. 2π
a. everywhere analytic

→ b. nowhere analytic
8. The value of  F ⋅ nˆ dS , where
S c. analytic only at z = 0

( )
→ → → →
F = (2x + 3z ) i − (xz + y ) j + y 2 + 2z k and S is d. analytic except at z = 0
the surface of the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 9
with volume V, is

a. V z − sin z
12. The singularity of the function is,
z2
b. 2V
a. z = −2
c. 3V
b. z =2
d. 4V
c. z =0

d. z =4
9. The volume of the solid bounded by planes
x = 0 , y = 0 , x + y + z = a and z = 0 is
given by
13. The inverse Z-transform of
a3 1
a. X (z ) = −1
, given the region
6 1 − 1 .5 z + 0 . 5z − 2
of convergence as z > 1 is
5a 2
b.
8
a. {1, 3/2, 7/4, 15/8, 31/16, ….}
a3
c. b. {1, 2/3, 4/7, 8/15, 16/31, ….}
8
c. {1/2, 3/4, 7/8, 15/16, 31/32, ….}
5a 2
d.
6 d. {0.25, 0.75, 0.125, 1.5, 0.0525, ….}

NG 23 (GROUP A) 2

14. The inverse Laplace transform of 17. The nature of the nth divided differences of a
polynomial of nth degree is
(s + 2)
is
s (s + 3) (s + 4 ) a. of degree n

b. constant
1 1 1
a. + e − 3t + e − 4 t
6 3 2 c. of degree n + 1

1 1 − 3t 1 − 4t d. of degree n − 1
b. − e + e
6 3 2

c. 1 − 3 e −3t + 2e −4t
1
18. The error in Simpson’s rule is of order
1 1 1 3
d. + e − 3t − e − 4 t
6 3 2
a. O (h 3 )

b. O (h 4 )

15. Which of the following functions is c. O (h 2 )
self-reciprocal with respect to Fourier cosine
d. O (h )
transform?

x2
−
a. e 2

19. Let X be a random variable such that
b.
1 E ( X ) = 2 and E (X 2 ) = 7 , then Var ( X ) is
x
a. 5
2
c. cos x b. 4
π
c. 3
2
d. sin x d. 2
π

20. If the moment generating function of a
16. Which of the following methods is iterative 2
random variable X is given by M X (t ) = ,
for solving a system of linear algebraic 2−t
equations? then the value of E ( X ) is

a. Gauss-Jordan method a. 1

b. 2
b. Gauss elimination method
c. 1/2
c. Fixed point iteration method
d. 1/3
d. Gauss-Jacobi method

————————–––

3 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART II — BASIC ENGINEERING AND SCIENCES

(Common to all candidates)
(All correct answers upto a maximum number of 20 will be given credit, but all wrong answers will be taken
into account for negative marking)

21. Which of the following deals with thermal 26. A given application runs for 15 seconds on a
equilibrium and provides a means for desk top processor. When the compiler used
measuring temperatures? for the application is optimized, it requires
a. Zeroth law only 0.6 as many instructions as the old
b. First law compiler, but the CPI increases by 1.1. How
c. Second law much time will the application take to run
d. Third law with the new compiler?

a. 9.9 seconds
22. An ideal fluid is
b. 8.2 seconds
a. a real fluid
b. viscous c. 25.5 seconds

c. compressive and gaseous d. 0.044 seconds
d. incompressible and frictionless
27. Which of the following statements is false?
23. bh 3 / 6 is the moment of inertia of a. SRAM is very fast
a. Rectangle of width b and height h b. SRAM is used for cache
about the axis through its centroid
c. values stored in DRAM exist
b. Rectangle of width b and height h
indefinitely as long as there is power
about the axis through its base
d. DRAM is used in main memory
c. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its centroid
28. When does the Array Index Out Of Bounds
d. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its base Exception occur in JAVA?

a. Compile-time
24. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) primarily
b. Run-time
measures
c. When an array is declared
a. Types of microbes
b. Level of dissolved oxygen d. When an array is printed

c. Quantity of organic matter
29. What does the following declaration mean?
d. Quantity of dissolved impurities
int (*ptr)[10];
25. A DC series motor should not be run at no a. ptr is array of pointers to 10 integers
load, because it will
b. ptr is a pointer to an array of
a. draw excess current
10 integers
b. not start and damage the motor
c. ptr is an array of 10 integers
c. run at a dangerously high speed
d. ptr is an pointer to array
d. not develop starting torque

NG 23 (GROUP A) 4

30. Predict the output of the code 33. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains
void m(); a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It
expands quasi-statically at constant
void n() temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3.
{ The work output (in kJ/kg) during this
process will be
m();
a. 8.32
}
b. 12
void main()
c. 554.67
{ d. 8320
void m()
{ 34. Thermodynamic work is the product of
printf("Welcome"); a. Two intensive properties
} b. Two extensive properties
c. An intensive property and change in an
}
extensive property
a. Welcome
d. An extensive property and change in an
b. Compile time error intensive property
c. Nothing
35. In the temperature-entropy diagram of a
d. Varies
vapour shown in the given figure, the
thermodynamic process shown by the dotted
31. An Ideal heat engine operates between two line AB represents
temperatures 600 K and 900 K. What is the
efficiency of the engine?
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 10%
d. 33%

32. List – I List – II
a. Hyperbolic expansion
(A) Heat to work 1. Nozzle
b. Free expansion
(B) Heat to Lift 2. Endothermic c. Constant volume expansion
Weight chemical reaction
d. Polytropic expansion
(C) Heat to strain 3. Heat engine
energy 36. The specific conductance of the electrolyte
(D) Heat to 4. Hot air ————— on dilution.
electromagnetic balloon/evaporation a. Increases
energy b. Decreases
5. Thermal radiation c. Slightly increases
6. Bimetallic strips d. Cannot be determined

Codes :
37. The process of decomposition of an electrolyte
(A) (B) (C) (D) by passing electric current through its
a. 3 4 6 5 solution is called as
b. 3 4 5 6 a. Electrolyte
b. Electrode
c. 3 6 4 2
c. Electrolysis
d. 1 2 3 4
d. Electrochemical cell

5 NG 23 (GROUP A)

38. The correct order of different types of 44. Two coils, connected in parallel across 100 V
energies is DC supply mains, takes 10 A from mains.
a. Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> Etr The power dissipated in one coil is 600 W.
b. Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> Etr The resistance of each coil is:
c. Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> Erot a. R1 = 16.67 Ω and R2 = 25 Ω
d. Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> Eel b. R1 = 14.62 Ω and R2 = 10 Ω
c. R1 = 5.67 Ω and R2 = 9 Ω
39. The cuprous chloride used in Orsat apparatus
can absorb d. R1 = 7 Ω and R2 = 3 Ω

a. Only carbon monoxide
b. Both carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide 45. In electrostatic instrument for the linear
c. Both carbon monoxide and oxygen motion, the force between plates is given by
d. All carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide 1 2 2
a. F = V C
and oxygen 2
1 2 2
40. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is b. F = mC
2
characterised by the high ————— in the
flue gas 1 2 dc
c. F = V
2 dx
a. Smoke
b. Temperature d. F = V 2C 2

c. Oxygen
d. Carbon monoxide
46. You have probably noticed that during a
41. The rating of an electric lamp is 220 V and thunderstorm you see a lightning flash some
100 W. If it is operated at 110 V, the power time before you hear the thunder. That is
consumed by it will be:
because
a. 50 W
a. the thunder is generated only after the
b. 75 W lightning has stopped
c. 90 W b. lightning and thunder are unrelated
d. 25 W events
c. light travels a lot faster than sound
42. An Ideal current source should have
d. sound travels a lot faster than light
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. Large value of EMF
d. None of the above 47. In Young’s double slit experiment, if one of
the slits is covered with the blue and another
43. A pony motor is basically a one with red transparent papers,

a. DC series motor a. fringe width changes
b. DC shunt motor b. interference pattern is not observed
c. Double – winding AC/DC motor c. multicolour fringes are observed
d. Small Induction motor d. circular fringes are formed

NG 23 (GROUP A) 6

48. According to Plancks Quantum theory, the 52. In Ferri magnetic materials in dual dipoles
second energy level of a one second simple are

pendulum is a. parallel to each other with unequal
moments
a. 6.625 × 10–34 J
b. antiparallel to each other with unequal
b. 3.312 × 10 –34
J moments
c. antiparallel to each other with equal
c. 13.25 × 10–34 J
moments
–34
d. 16.562 × 10 J d. parallel to each other with equal
moments

49. The principle behind fibre optic
53. An electric bulb rated 200 V and 100 W is
communication is connected a 160 V power supply. What power
a. partial reflection will be consumed by the bulb?
a. 64 W
b. partial refraction
b. 80 W
c. total internal refraction
c. 100 W
d. total internal reflection d. 160 W

50. In which one of the following it is not possible 54. Donar levels in an extrinsic n type semi
conductors lie just
to achieve laser action?
a. above the conduction band
a. two level system
b. below the conduction band
b. multi level system c. above the valence band
c. four level system d. below the valence band

d. seven level system

55. Which one of the following is false about
super conductors?
51. Dielectric loss is the phenomenon in which a. super conductors have no resistance
the electrical energy is converted into b. electric current can destroy super
conductivity
a. dipole energy
c. superconductors are diamagnetic
b. light radiation
d. superconductors allow magnetic field to
c. liquid plasma pass through only below the critical
temperature
d. heat

——————————

7 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART III

01— CIVIL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Calculate the flow of backwash pump (m3/h) 61. Out of the following given methods, in which
required for the activated carbon filter for the of these organic matters is stabilized?
following details.
a. Sludge lagoons
Process flow : 2500 m3/h
b. Filter press
Process flow velocity : 15m/h
c. Centrifuge
Backwash pump velocity : 24 m/h d. Sludge drying bed
a. 2500
b. 3500
c. 4000 62. In which process, excess lime is converted

d. 4500 into bicarbonate?
a. Chlorination
57. Which of the following are formed in RSF due b. Liming
to insufficient washing of sand grains?
c. Re-carbonation
a. Sand boils
d. Super-chlorination
b. Mud balls
c. Clogging
d. Bubbles 63. In DAF unit suspended solids are collected at
the —————— of the unit.
58. Which of the following combines aeration a. Top
basin and secondary clarifier into single unit?
b. Bottom
a. RBC
b. MBBR c. Middle
c. SBR d. Side
d. PBR

64. What is noise?
59. Which type of reactor is not subjected to back
a. Desirable sound
mixing?
a. Plug flow b. Desirable and unwanted sound
b. Completely stirred reactor c. Undesirable and unwanted sound
c. Batch reactors d. Undesirable and wanted sound
d. Venturi reactor

65. Which gas is mainly produced due to
60. The sludge digestion process is independent
of which of the following? incomplete burning of wood?

a. Temperature of sludge a. CO
b. pH of sludge b. SO2
c. Shape of tank
c. NO2
d. Mixing of sludge
d. NO3

NG 23 (GROUP A) 8

66. If the relationship between the shear stress 71. The double mass curve technique is adopted
τ and rate of shear strain du/dy is expressed to
n a. check the consistency of rain gauge
 du 
as τ = k   . The fluid with exponent n < 1
 dy  records
is known as b. find the average rainfall over a number
a. Pseudoplastic fluid of years

b. Bingham fluid c. find the number of rain gauge required

c. Dilatant fluid d. estimate the missing rainfall data

d. Newtonian plastic
72. An isohyet is a line joining points having
equal
67. The predominant fluid property associated
with cavitation phenomenon is a. evaporation value

a. Surface tension b. barometric pressure

b. Vapour pressure c. height above the MSL

c. Mass density d. rainfall depth in a given duration

d. Bulk modulus of elasticity
73. A hydrograph is a plot of

68. Local atmospheric pressure is measured by a. Rainfall intensity against time
b. Stream discharge against time
a. Hydrometer
c. Cumulative rainfall against time
b. Barometer
d. Cumulative runoff against time
c. Hygrometer
d. Altimeter
74. Darcy’s law is valid only for
a. Laminar flow
69. The minor loss due to sudden contraction is b. Turbulent flow
due to c. Uniform flow
a. Flow contraction d. Steady flow
b. Expansion of flow after sudden
contraction 75. Water surface in a well located in an
c. Boundary friction unconfined aquifer is termed as
d. Cavitation a. Piezometric surface
b. Line of influence
c. Lineament
70. In a general sense, water turbines may be put
d. Water table
in the following decreasing order of specific
speeds as
a. Propeller turbine, Francis turbine and 76. Which of the following are a separate class of
Pelton wheel highways with superior facilities and design
standards and are meant as through routes
b. Pelton wheel, Francis turbine, Kaplan
having very high volume of traffic?
turbine
a. Expressways
c. Kaplan turbine, Impulse turbine and
b. National Highways
Francis turbine
c. State Highways
d. Francis turbine, Kaplan turbine and
d. Major district Roads
Pelton wheel

9 NG 23 (GROUP A)

77. The coefficient of lateral friction as 82. ICAO classifies airports based on
recommended by IRC is a. Pavement Strength and Runway
a. 0.15 Length
b. 0.20 b. Number of Aircrafts and Pavement
c. 0.25 Strength
d. 0.30 c. Number of Runways and Runway
Length

78. If the CBR value obtained at 5 mm d. Number of Aircrafts and Number of
penetration is higher than that at 2.5 mm, Runways
then the test is repeated for checking; and if
the check test reveals a similar trend, then 83. Which of the following is used for carrying
the CBR value is to be reported as the out maintenance work of vessels?
a. mean of the values for 5 mm and a. Wet Docks
2.5 mm penetrations b. Dry Docks
b. higher value minus the lower value c. Pier
c. lower value corresponding to 2.5 mm d. Wharf
penetration
d. higher value obtained at 5 mm
84. Peak Hour Factor (PHF) is used to represent
penetration
the proportion of peak sub-hourly traffic flow
within the peak hour. If 15-minute sub-hours
79. In a bituminous pavement, alligator cracking are considered, the theoretically possible
is mainly due to range of PHF will be
a. Inadequate wearing course a. 0 to 1.0
b. Inadequate thickness of sub-base b. 0.25 to 0.75
course of pavement
c. 0.25 to 1.0
c. Use of excessive bituminous material
d. 0.5 to 1.0
d. Fatigue arising from repeated stress
applications
85. Traffic sign ‘overtaking prohibited” is a
a. Mandatory sign
80. Maximum permissible Cant deficiency in a
b. Cautionary sign
B.G line
c. Informatory sign
a. 70 mm
d. Warning sign
b. 75 mm
c. 80 mm
86. The length of a line measured with a 20 m
d. 85 mm
chain was found to be 250 m. Calculate the
true length of the line if the chain was 10 cm
81. For coning of wheels, the slope maintained is
too long.
a. 1 in 10
a. 252.25 m
b. 1 in 15
b. 251.25 m
c. 1 in 20
c. 225.25 m
d. 1 in 25
d. 221.25 m

NG 23 (GROUP A) 10

87. Pick up the incorrect pair 92. The basic navigation message format consists
a. Plumbing fork : Accurate centering of —————— bits.
b. Trough compass : Orientation a. 6
c. Telescopic Alidade : Horizontal inclined b. 30
sights c. 300
d. Tracing paper: Two-point problem
d. 1500

88. What will be the normal equation for z if the
93. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be
equations are given as 3x + 9 y + 4 z − 43 = 0 ,
avoided by using
2x + 6 y + z − 5 = 0 ?
a. Compound curve
Assume these equations have equal weights.
b. Vertical curve
a. 17x + 42 y + 47z − 178 = 0
c. Reverse curve
b. 14 x + 17 y + 42z − 178 = 0
d. Transition curve
c. 14 x + 42 y + 17z − 178 = 0
d. 42x + 14 y + 17z − 178 = 0
94. Match the following :
A. 1.
89. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is
S 28°30′ E. Calculate the true bearing if the
declination is 7°30′ West.
a. N 36°00′ W B. 2.
b. S 21°00′ E
c. S 36°00′ E
d. N 21°00′ W C. 3.

90. Coordinate length measured parallel to an
assumed meridian direction may be defined Code :
as A B C
a. Latitude of a survey line a. 1 2 3
b. Departure of survey line b. 2 1 3
c. Length of survey line c. 2 3 1
d. Slope of survey line d. 3 1 2

91. In plane Table surveying, the following 95. The method adopted for locating sounding in
diagram refers to a narrow river is
a. Location by cross rope
b. Range and on angle
c. Range and time interval
d. By two angle method

96. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio
of steel ties likely to be subjected to possible
reversal of stress due to wind or seismic force
is
a. Orientation of the plane table a. 180
b. Orientation by fore sighting b. 250
c. Orientation by back sighting c. 350
d. Radiation method d. 450

11 NG 23 (GROUP A)

d. Below the neutral axis
97. A fixed beam AB is subjected to a triangular 102. The Poisson’s ratio for a perfectly
load varying from zero at end A to ‘w’ per unit incompressible linear elastic material is
length at end B. The ratio of fixed end
moment at B to A will be a. 1
1 b. 0.5
a.
2 c. 0
1 d. –1
b.
3
2
c.
3 103. In limit state design of concrete structures
3 the strain distribution is assumed to be
d.
2 a. parabolic
b. exponential
98. The degree of static indeterminacy of the
c. cubic
plane frame as shown in the figure is
d. linear

104. A 1st class brick immersed in water for
24 hours, should not absorb water (by weight)
more than
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
a. 10
b. 15 d. 25%
c. 16
d. 17
105. Bending moment at any section in a
99. Weep holes are provided at the back of conjugate beam gives —————— in the
retaining walls to actual beam.
a. reduce the active earth pressure on the a. Slope
walls
b. Curvature
b. reduce the build-up of hydrostatic
pressure c. Deflection
c. provide better compaction d. Shear Force
d. increase the passive earth pressure

100. As per IS287-1993, the permissible moisture 106. A soil in the borrow pit is at a dry density of
content of timber used as beam and rafter 17 kN/m3 with a moisture content of 10%.
varies from
The soil is excavated from this pit and
a. 4 to 6%
compacted in an embankment to a dry
b. 6 to 8%
c. 8 to 12% density of 18 kN/m3 with a moisture content
d. 12 to 20% of 15%. The quantity of soil to be excavated
from the borrow pit for 100 m3 of compacted
101. In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, soil in the embankment is,
main reinforcement is provided a. 105.9 m3
a. Above the neutral axis
b. 115.9 m3
b. As vertical stirrups
c. As helical reinforcement c. 95.9 m3

NG 23 (GROUP A) 12

d. 110.9 m3 111. A SPT is conducted in fine sand below water
107. A soil composed of 30% coarse grained table and a value of 25 is obtained for N.
particles and 70% fine grained particles. The What is the corrected value of N?
liquid and plastic limit of the soil is 55% and a. 25
25% respectively, The IS soil classification b. 20
group symbol is, c. 30
a. CH d. 35
b. MH
112. A raft of 6 m × 9 m is founded at a depth of
c. CI
3 m in a cohesive soil having cohesion of
d. MI 120 kN/m2. The ultimate net bearing capacity
of the soil in kN/m2 using the Terzaghi’s
theory will be nearly
108. A sand stratum is 10m thick. The water table
a. 920
is 2 m below ground level. The unit weights of
b. 1036
sand layer above and below water table are
c. 820
17 kN/m3 and 21 kN/m3 respectively. The
capillary rise above water table is 1 m. The d. 1067
effective stress at the level of capillary rise is,
113. A square pile of section 30 cm × 30 cm and
a. 0 kN/m2
length 10 m penetrates a deposit of clay
b. 17.00 kN/m2 having c = 5 kN/m2 and the adhesion factor is
c. 9.81 kN/m2 0.8. What is the load carried by the pile by
d. 26.81 kN/m2 skin friction only?
a. 75 kN/m2
b. 60 kN/m2
109. The potential shear strength on a horizontal c. 48 kN/m2
plane at a depth of 3 m below the surface in a
d. 192 kN/m2
formation of cohesionless soil with unit
weight of 21.14 kN/m3, angle of internal
114. In a plate load test on a soil, at a particular
friction 30° and water table at the ground magnitudes of the settlement, it was observed
surface is, that the bearing pressure beneath the footing
a. 24.6 kN/m2 is 100 kN/m2 and the perimeter shear is
b. 39.2 kN/m2 25 kN/m2. Correspondingly, the load
capacity of a 2 m square footing at the same
c. 19.6 kN/m2
settlement in kN will be
d. 54.6 kN/m2 a. 300
b. 600
110. An embankment has a slope of 30° to the c. 200
horizontal. The properties of the soil are : d. 400
c = 15 kN/m2, φ = 22°, γ = 18 kN/m3. The
required factor of safety with respect to 115. In a cohesionless soil deposit having unit
cohesion is 1.5. If Taylor’s stability number is weight of 15 kN/m3 and an angle of internal
friction of 30˚, the active and passive lateral
0.046, The safe height of the embankment is,
earth pressure intensities (kN/m2) at a depth
a. 12.1 m of 10 m will respectively be
b. 6.05 m a. 45 and 5
c. 9.08 m b. 10 and 20
d. 15.13 m c. 20 and 10
d. 5 and 45

—————————

13 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART III
02 – COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING / INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
(Answer ALL questions)
56. The optimization technique which is typically 61. Consider the page reference string
applied on loops is 1,2,3,4,5,1,2,3,4,5 and assume the demand
paging with four frames. How many page
a. Removal of invariant computation
fault will occur if the system follows
b. Peephole optimization FIFO page replacement algorithms?
c. Constant folding a. 9
d. All of the above b. 10
c. 5
57. Dead-code elimination in machine code d. 11
optimization refers to the removal of
a. all tables 62. Which is not part of process?
b. values that never get used a. List
c. function which are not involved b. Heap
d. a module after its use c. Stack
d. Data section
58. Which of the following is the advantage of
declarative languages over imperative 63. Which of the following is used after fork() to
languages? replace process memory space with a new
a. Can use abstract data type program.
a. Exec()
b. Easy to verify the properties of the
program b. Wait()

c. Is more efficient c. Exit()
d. Replace()
d. Can be implemented by an interpreter
or compiler
64. Which one of the following are the
characteristics of distributed file system?
59. What formal system provides the semantic
a. Service activity is not carried out
foundation for Prolog?
across the network
a. Predicate calculus b. There are multiple dependent storage
b. Lambda calculus devices
c. Hoare logic c. Its users, servers and storage devices
are dispersed
d. Propositional logic
d. They have single centralized data
repository
60. If the base register holds 256000 and the
limit register holds 120900, the program can
65. Process Fail - Stop in process omission faults
access the addresses from
can be detected in
a. 256000 through 376900
a. asynchronous system.
b. 120900 through 256000 b. synchronous system.
c. 120900 through 241800 c. synchronous and asynchronous system.
d. 241800 through 256000 d. stand alone system

NG 23 (GROUP A) 14

66. Which of the following techniques is based on 71. A leftist tree with n nodes on the right path
compile-time program transformation for must have atleast
accessing remote data in a distributed- a. n nodes
memory parallel system? b. n +1 nodes
a. cache coherence scheme c. 2n nodes
b. computation migration d. 2n – 1 nodes
c. remote procedure call
d. message passing 72. Which one of the following hash functions on
integers will distribute keys most uniformly
67. When data items in the same data block are over 10 buckets numbered 0 to 9 for i ranging
being updated by multiple nodes at the same from 0 to 2020?
time is known as a. h(i) = i ∗ i mod 10
a. thrashing b. h(i) = i ∗ i ∗ i mod 10
b. consistency c. h(i) = (11 ∗ i ∗ i ) mod 10
c. granularity d. h(i) = (12 ∗ i ) mod 10
d. None of the above
73. Let S be an NP-complete problem and Q and
68. A hash function defined as f(key) = key R be two other problems not known to be in
mod 7, with linear probing insert the keys NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and
0, 2, 11, 12, 3, 6. Maximum number of S is polynomial-time reducible to R. Which
comparisons needed in searching a key 4, one of the following statements is true?
that is not present is a. R is NP – complete
a. 1 b. R is NP – hard
b. 2 c. Q is NP – complete
c. 5 d. Q is NP – hard
d. 6
74. Dynamic Programming uses
69. Consider the following tree a. Divide-and-conquer strategy
b. Memoization
c. Categorization
d. Approximation

75. For which of the following problems the
greedy algorithm is not suitable?
a. Largest sum of subset
If the post order traversal gives
AB+CD*- then the label of the nodes b. Traveling Salesman Problem
1, 2, 3, ….. will be c. Huffman Coding
a. *, +, –, A, B, C, D d. path finding in a graph
b. A, B, C, D, –, *, +
c. –, +, *, A, B, C, D 76. Assume that registers $s0 and $s1 hold the
d. *, C, D, +, A, B, – values 0 × 80000000 and 0 × D0000000,
respectively, what is the value of $t0 for the
following assembly code?
70. The height of AVL tree is atmost
Add $t0, $s0, $s1
a. 1.6 log n2
a. 0 × 150000000
b. 1.44 log (n+1)
b. 0 × 160000000
c. log n/2
c. 0 × 140000000
d. log n+1
d. 0 × FFFFFFFFFF

15 NG 23 (GROUP A)

77. 8085 microprocessor executes “STA 1234H” 83. The number of complex additions required to
with starting address location 1FFEH. While compute DFT of any sequence with length N
the instruction is fetched and executed, the using the FFT algorithm would be
sequence of values written at the address
pins A15 − A8 is a. N log 2 N
a. 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 12H b. 2N log 2 N
b. 1FH, FEH, 1FH, FFH, 12H
c. 1FH, 1FH, 20H, 12H c. 2 / N log 2 N
d. 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 20H, 12H d. 2 log 2 N

78. What is the value of the register formed from
D flip flop using Q0, Q1 and Q2 as output 84. Which of the following protocols is used in
(Q0, Q1, Q2) after 14 cycles? Ethernet LAN for media access control?
a. 000 a. Sliding Window Protocol
b. 011
b. Stop and Wait Protocol
c. 001
c. Go Back N Protocol
d. 110
d. CSMA/CD Protocol

79. Which of the following does not interrupt a
running process? 85. In the TCP/IP model, fragmentation of
a. Scheduler process messages is carried out by
b. Timer a. The Application Layer
c. Power failure
b. Transport Layer
d. A device
c. Network Layer
d. Data Link Layer
80. Given x (n) = {0, 1, 2, 3}, find X(k) using
DIT FFT algorithm
a. {6, –2+2j, –2, –2–2j} 86. Which are the state-transitions possible on
b. {0, 0, 0, 0} the server side during TCP’s normal 3-way
c. {6, –2+2 j, 2, –2+2 j } handshake?
d. {8, –2+2j, –8, –2–2j} a. CLOSED - SYN_RCVD -
ESTABLISHED
81. The total number of complex multiplications b. CLOSED – LISTEN - ESTABLISHED
required to compute N point DFT by radix-2
c. LISTEN - SYN_RCVD -
FFT is given by
ESTABLISHED
a. (N/2) logN
b. N log2N d. LISTEN – SYN_SENT –
c. (N/2) log2N ESTABLISHED
d. (N-1) log2N
87. If there are two routers between a source and
82. In the Overlap save method in case of the a destination node, the number of layers
long sequence filtering, then how many zeros traversed by an application packet is
do we need to append to the FIR filter’s
a. 20
impulse response?
a. L+2 b. 16
b. L–1 c. 12
c. L d. 14
d. 2L

NG 23 (GROUP A) 16

88. Choose the correct option. 91. Which of the following is the part of third
A. When you access a bank website and generation DBMS?
retrieve your bank balance and a. ORDBMS
transaction information, you are b. OODBMS
controlling the data stored. c. ER Data Model
B. When you are accessing a online d. NDBMS
bookstore and browse a book or music
collection, you are accessing the data 92. Which of the following statements about
stored. Software Requirement Specification (SRS) is
C. Databases are widely used for not true?
information about, employees, salary a. SRS document is known as black-box
specification
payroll taxes and benefits in
b. SRS document concentrates on what
department of Human Resources.
needs to be done
a. Only A is incorrect c. SRS document serves as a context
b. Only B is incorrect between the developer and customer
c. Only C is correct d. SRS document serves as system
manual
d. Only A is correct

93. In the context of modular software design,
89. Suppose relation R(A, B, C, D, E) has the which one of the following combinations is
following functional dependencies: desirable?
A -> B a. High cohesion and high coupling
B -> C b. Low cohesion and high coupling
c. Low cohesion and low coupling
BC -> A
d. High cohesion and low coupling
A -> D
E -> A
94. Which of the following is not a technique used
D -> E in software maintenance?
Which of the following is not a key? a. Re-engineering
a. A b. Technology change management
b. E c. Software configuration management
c. B, C d. Reverse engineering

d. D
95. Which of the following is not a valid goal of
the requirement analysis and specification
90. Which of the following is true about phase?
distributed database? a. Fully understand user requirements
a. A single logical database that is spread b. Remove inconsistencies from user
to multiple locations and is requirements
interconnected by a network. c. Produce system design based on user
requirements
b. A loose collection of file that is spread
d. Properly record user requirements in
to multiple locations and is SRS document
interconnected by a network
c. A single logical database that is limited
96. Which of the following algorithms will
to one location.
require less memory?
d. A database that has multiple files a. BFS
located in different sites either on same b. DFS
or different networks. c. Linear Search
d. Optimal Search

17 NG 23 (GROUP A)

97. Which of the following are used by an 103. The process of transferring an active call
AI agent to perceive and act upon environment? from one cell to another cell is called as
a. Sensors and Perceivers a. Handoff
b. Perceivers and Actuators b. Switching
c. Actuators and Sensors c. Routing
d. Sensors and decipher d. Forwarding

98. Which is not a knowledge representation 104. Mr. X claims that he has discovered a prime
approach ? number ‘p’ greater than the largest known
a. Semantic net prime number. Two of his colleagues A and B
decide to test his claim.
b. Frames
 A chooses a random number ‘a’. He
c. Conceptual dependency
applies the Miller Rabin test on ‘p’
d. List using ‘a’ as the probe and finds that
both the conditions are not satisfied.
99. A. Knowledge base (KB) consists of set of He claims that the number is
statements. composite.
B. Inference is deriving a new sentence  B also decides to use the Miller Rabin
from the KB. test but chooses a different random
number ‘b’. When he applies the Miller
Choose the correct option. Rabin test on `p' using `b' as the probe,
a. A is true, B is false one of the two conditions is satisfied
b. A is false, B is false and he claims that the number is
c. A is true, B is true indeed prime.
d. A is false, B is true Who do you think is right?
a. A is right and B is right.
b. A is wrong and B is wrong.
100. A wireless LAN is used for implementing
security in which of the following layers. c. A is right and B is wrong.
a. Data link layer d. A is wrong and B is right.
b. Physical layer
c. Network layer 105. Triple DES uses
d. Transport layer a. 168 bit keys on 64-bit blocks of plain
text
b. Working on 64-bit blocks of plain text
101. For digital communication systems, the bit
and 56 bit keys by applying DES
rate is specified as M kbps and the
algorithm for three times.
modulation is 16 QAM. What is the
bandwidth required for ideal data c. Works with 144 bit blocks of plain text
transmission? and applies DES algorithm once
a. M/16 kHz d. Uses 128 bit blocks of plain text and
112 bit keys and apply DES algorithm
b. M/8 kHz
thrice
c. M/4 kHz
d. M/2 kHz
106. Which one of the following has the highest
preference in the environment of an
102. The details of stolen and lost mobile devices Operating System?
are stored in a. Device Drivers
a. Visitor location register b. Application software
b. Home location register c. Kernel
c. Equipment identity register d. Utility software.
d. Authentication centre

NG 23 (GROUP A) 18

107. Which of the following statements are 110. The probability of an empty system for an
correct? ( M / M / 1) : ( FCFS / ∞ / ∞ ) queueing model
is
(i) Physical separation – in which process
λ
use different physical objects like a. p0 =
μ
separate printers.
λ
b. p0 = 1 −
(ii) Physical separation – in which process μ
having different security requirements c. μ
p0 =
at different times λ
d. μ
p0 = 1 −
(iii) Logical separation – in which users λ
operate under illusion that no other
processes exist 111. The value that separates the acceptance
region and the rejection region of the null
(iv) Logical separation – in which processes hypothesis is called
conceal their data and computations a. p value
b. acceptance value
a. (i)
c. critical value
b. (i) and (iii) d. F value

c. (ii) and (iii)
112. Which type of following languages does a
d. (iii) and (iv) finite automaton accept?
a. Type 0
b. Type 1
108. If the probability density function of a
c. Type 2
random variable X is given by d. Type 3
−x
f (x ) = 1 e 2 , x > 0 , then P (X > 1) = 113. The regular expression for all strings starting
2
with “01” and ending with “10” is
−1
2 a. 010 ∗ 1 ∗ 10
a. −e
b. 01 (0 +1)∗10
−1

b. e
2
c. 01 (01)∗10

−1 d. (0 +1) (01) ∗ (0 +1)
2
c. e −1
−1
2
114. The value of the Ackermann function A(1, 2)
d. 1−e is
a. 3
109. A random process for which the mean is b. 2
c. 5
constant and the autocorrelation is a function
d. 4
of time is called

a. Wide Sense Stationary Process 115. Given a graph G with 21 edges, 3 vertices of
degree 4 and other vertices each of degree 3,
b. Strict Sense Stationary Process
the number of vertices of G is
c. First Order Stationary Process a. 13
b. 9
d. Second Order Stationary Process c. 12
d. 11

—————————

19 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART III

03 – ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. If A, B and C are three vectors, then 61. A capacitor of 8µf capacitance is connected to
a. A × ( B × C ) = B ⋅ (C × A ) a DC source through a resistance of 1M Ω
b. A ×(B × C ) = C ⋅ (B ⋅ A)
c. A × (B × C ) ≠ ( A × B) × C
d. A × (B × C ) = ( A × B) × C

57. An electron and a proton separated by a
distance of 10–11 meters are arranged
Calculate the time taken by the capacitor to
symmetrically along the ‘Z’ axis with the Z=0,
charge fully
as its bisecting plane. The E field at P(3,4,12)
a. 40 seconds
is
b. 20 seconds
a. 4.69ax + 4.0a y + 10.2 az ) × 10 −24 v/m c. 6 seconds
b. 4.189a x + 5.58a y− + 10.2 az− ) × 10 −24 v/m d. 8 seconds

c. 2 .29 a x + 5 .5a y − 8 .2a z × 10 −12 v / m
62. Lagging power factor load
d. 1.98ax + 6.5a y + 9.2az ) × 10 −24
v/m a. Draws reactive power from supply, load
current lags the voltage
b. Supplies reactive power from supply,
58. The equation for a Equipotential surface in a load current lags the voltage
dipole is
c. Draws reactive power from supply,
cos θ load current leads the voltage
a. = constant
r2 d. Supplies reactive power from supply,
sin θ load current leads the voltage
b. = constant
r2
63. Stepper motors are widely used because of
cos θ
c. = constant a. Wide speed range
2r b. Large rating
2 cos θ c. No need for field control
d. = constant
r3 d. Compatibility with digital systems

59. The displacement current density Jd is 64. Motor which can produce uniform torque
a. Jd = D from standstill to synchronous speed is
a. Universal motor
∂D b. Stepper motor
b. Jd =
∂t c. Reluctance motor
c. Jd = ∇ × H d. Hysteresis motor

d. 
J d = H ⋅ dl
65. If the applied voltage across a three phase
induction motor is reduced to ‘x’ times, the
60. When σ ≈ α , ∈=∈0 , μ = μ r μ 0 or σ >>> ωε starting current and starting torque will be
reduced to ————— and ————— times
then it is a
respectively.
a. Free space a. x, x
b. Lossless dielectric b. x, x2
c. Lossy dielectric c. x2, x
d. Good dielectric d. x2, x2

NG 23 (GROUP A) 20

66. Skew of rotor bar eliminates 73. What is the type of fault for a boundary
a. The effect of harmonics condition of a fault on phase 'a' of a power
b. The effect of crawling system are Ib = –Ic, Ia = 0, and Vb – Vc = 0?
c. Magnetic noise a. Single line to ground fault
d. Vibration due to unequal force b. Line to line fault
developed on rotor c. Double line to ground fault
d. Three phase fault
67. A salient pole synchronous generator
connected to an infinite bus will deliver 74. The abnormal voltage due to arching grounds
maximum power at a power angle of is reduced by
a. 0 degree a. Ground wire
b. 90 degree b. Capacitor
c. 45 degree c. Arching horns
d. 75 degree d. Peterson coil

68. Synchronous motor will behave like a resistor 75. A Reactance relay is
while operating with a. Voltage restrained directional relay
a. rated field current b. Directional restrained over-current
b. 1.5 times the rated field current relay
c. 2 times the rated field current c. Voltage restrained over-current relay
d. 0.5 times the rated field current d. Current restrained voltage relay

69. Which of the following connection of 76. A transmission line can generate VARs
transformer will give the highest secondary a. When loading is less than Surge
voltage? Impedance loading
a. Delta primary, Delta secondary b. When loading is equal to Surge
b. Delta primary, Star secondary Impedance loading
c. Star primary, Star secondary c. When loading is more than Surge
Impedance loading
d. Star primary, Delta secondary
d. When Synchronous condenser is
70. The purpose of Moderator in a Nuclear Power employed
plant is to
77. For a Series RLC circuit, R = 10 Ω ; L = 1mH;
a. Control the flow of water inlet
C = 10μF, unit step input given to the circuit.
b. Control the amount of nuclear fuel into The overshoot in the output would be
the reactor a. 0%
c. Control the steam flow to the turbine b. 16%
d. Control the nuclear fusion or fusion
c. 48%
rate by slowing down the neutrons
d. 56%
71. Which type of insulator is used on 132kV
78. For a type 1 second order system if the input
transmission line?
is given as unit ramp then what would be the
a. Pin type steady state error?
b. Disc type a. e ss = 1 / 1 + K p
c. Shackle type
d. Pin and Shackle type b. e ss = 1 / K v
c. ess = 1 / K a
72. The transmission line reactance is 100 ohms
and base MVA is 90 MVA and the base kV is d. e ss = 0
145.2 kV. The per unit value of the line is
a. 0.575 pu 79. For the limitedly stable continuous system,
poles must
b. 0.265 pu
a. lie on the right half plane
c. 0.427 pu
b. lie on the left half plane
d. 0.726 pu
c. be on the imaginary axis
d. be at infinity

21 NG 23 (GROUP A)

80. The Gain Margin for a marginally stable 84. The VI characteristics of ideal diode is
system would be
a. infinity
b. zero
c. positive a.
d. negative

81. The compensator Gc(s) = 5(1+0.3s)/1+0.1s is a
a. Lead compensation
b. Lag compensation b.
c. Lead - lag compensation
d. PI compensation

82. Loop transfer function of a feedback system is
k c.
G ( s) H ( s) = . The root locus
s ( s + 1) ( s + 2)
branch crosses the imaginary axis at
a. ±j 2

b. ±j 3 d.

c. ±j 5

d. ±j 7
85. A buck converter with Vin = 25V,
83. A system is described by the following state fs = 50kHz and the power delivered to the
and output equations load is 25W. The value of D for an average
dx1 (t ) output current of 2A is
= −3x1 (t ) + x 2 (t ) + 2u (t )
dt
a. 0.4
dx 2 (t )
= −2x 2 (t ) + u (t )
dt b. 0.5

Y (t ) = x1 (t ) when u (t ) is the input and c. 0.2

y (t ) is the output. The state-transition d. 0.3
matrix of the above system is
 e −3t 0 
a.   86. A single phase full wave uncontrolled bridge
 3 −3t + e −2t e −2t 
 rectifier has a purely resistive load of R. The
 e −3t −e −3t
+e −2t
 average output voltage for source voltage of
b.  
 0 e − 2t 
  Vs = 220 sinωt is
 e −3t e −3t
+e −2t
 a. 70V
c.  
 0 e −2t 
  b. 140 V
e 3t
−e −3t
+e −2t

d.   c. 99 V
0 e − 2t 
 
d. 220 V

NG 23 (GROUP A) 22

87. In the given circuit diagram, V01, V02 are the 89. The conduction angle of the thyristor in the
given circuit diagram if triggered
outputs of inverter 1 and inverter 2. The load
continuously for Vs = 100 sin ωt and E = 50V
voltage waveform Vo is is

a. 150°
b. 120°
c. 180°
d. 100°

90. In a three phase inverter, harmonics existing
in the line voltages are
a. triplen harmonics
b. Non - triplen harmonics
c. Harmonics are absent
a. d. Fifth order harmonics and third order
harmonics
91. What can you comment about the data bus
widths of microprocessors: 8085 and 8086?
a. Both of these microprocessors have
b. 8-bit data bus only
b. Both of these microprocessors have
16-bit data bus only
c. Whereas 8086 has a 8-bit long data
bus, 8085 has 16-bit long data bus.
d. Whereas the data bus width of
c.
microprocessor 8085 is of 8-bit size,
that of 8086 is of 16-bit size.
92. What can you comment about the time taken
for the machine cycles of the microprocessor
8085?
a. Whereas ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle
d.
takes 4 or 5 T-states, the ‘ memory
read’ machine cycle always takes
4 T-states only.
b. Whereas ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle
88. A full converter fed separately excited DC takes 4 or 6 T-states, the ‘memory read’
machine cycle always takes 3 T-states
motor with field current remaining constant, only.
is c. Both ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle and
‘memory read’ machine cycle uniformly
a. Constant torque drive take 5 T-states only.
b. Constant kW drive d. Both ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle and
c. Constant speed drive ‘memory read’ machine cycle uniformly
d. Variable load speed drive take 4 T-states only.

23 NG 23 (GROUP A)

93. The highest priority interrupt of 99. Which one of the following is the appropriate
microprocessor 8085, which is also expression corresponding to x (n) * δ (n − k ) =
non-maskable, is a. x (n)
a. RST 6.5
b. x (k )
b. TRAP
c. x ( k) * δ (n − k )
c. INTR
d. x( k) * δ (k)
d. INTA
100. What is the inverse z-transform of
94. The instruction at the physical location X ( z ) = 1 /(1 − 1.5z −1 + 0.5z −2 ) if ROC is
21234h is to be pointed by the instruction
0. 5 < z < 1 ?
pointer register. Assuming the contents of the
code segment register to be 2111h, the a. − 2u( −n − 1) + (0.5)n u(n )
contents of the instruction pointer is
b. − 2u( −n − 1) − (0.5)n u(n )
a. 0123h
b. 0124h c. − 2u( −n − 1) + (0.5)n u( −n − 1)
c. 1234h d. 2u(n ) + (0.5)n u( −n − 1)
d. 0234h
101. Which of the following parameters are
required to calculate the correlation between
95. When a ‘PUSH’ instruction is executed by the the signals x (n ) and y(n) ?
microprocessor 8085, what happens to the
contents of the stack pointer? a. Time delay
b. Attenuation factor
a. incremented by two
c. Noise signal
b. incremented by one
d. All of the above
c. decremented by two
d. decremented by three 102. What is the value of the coefficient α 2(1) in
the case of FIR filter represented in direct
96. The 8051 instruction required to switch to form structure with m = 2 in terms of K1 and
bank 2 from the default bank is, K2?
a. SETB 0D4h a. K1 K 2
b. SETB 0D3h b. K1 (1 − K 2 )
c. CLR 0D4h c. K1 (1 + K 2 )
d. CLR 0D3h
d. K1 / K 2

97. Find the Nyquist rate and Nyquist interval 103. Paschen’s law states that
for the signal f (t ) = sin(500πt ) . a. breakdown voltage is a function of pd
a. 500 Hz, 2 sec b. breakdown voltage is a function of
b. 500 Hz, 2 msec electric field
c. 2 Hz, 500 sec c. electronegative gases have high
d. 2 Hz, 500 msec breakdown strength
α and γ depends on E/p
d.
98. Zero-state response of the system is response
of the system 104. The reflection coefficient for a travelling
voltage wave at a junction of two impedances
a. when initial state of the system is zero
Z1 and Z 2 is
b. due to input alone
a. ( Z1 + Z 2 ) /( Z1 − Z 2 )
c. due to input alone when initial state of
the system is zero b. ( Z 2 − Z1 ) /( Z 2 + Z1 )
d. due to input alone when initial state is c. 2Z1 /( Z1 + Z 2 )
neglected
d. 2Z2 /( Z1 + Z2 )

NG 23 (GROUP A) 24

105. For a 1 cm gap in air at 760 mm pressure and 110. Which of the following motor is preferred for
20°C temperature, the breakdown voltage is electric traction?
a. 41kV a. DC Shunt motor
b. 39.7kV b. DC Series motor
c. 22.92kV c. Synchronous motor
d. Universal motor
d. 30.3kV

111. A solid angle is expressed in terms of
106. Voltage stabilizers used for regulating high
a. Radians / metre
dc voltages are
b. Radians
a. series type c. Steradians
b. shunt type d. Degrees
c. both series and shunt type
112. The efficiency of high pressure mercury
d. shunt or series or degenerative
vapour lamp is
a. 30-40 watts/lumen
107. Indirect strokes near overhead transmission
b. 30-40 lumens/watt
lines induce over voltage’s due to
c. 40-50 watts/lumen
a. electrostatic induction d. 40-50 lumens/watt
b. both electrostatic and electromagnetic
induction 113. A slab of insulating material 130 cm2 in area
and 1 cm thick is to be heated by dielectric
c. only electromagnetic induction
heating. The power required is 400 W at
d. conduction currents through line 30 MHz. The material has a relative
conductors permittivity of 5 and power factor of 0.05.
Determine the necessary voltage
108. An impulse voltage generator has a generator a. 960 V
capacitance of 0.01 μF , load capacitance of b. 960 kV
c. 859 V
1 nF, front resistance of R1 = 110 Ω and tail
d. 859 kV
resistance of R2 = 400 Ω. The tail time is
a. 60 µs 114. In atomic hydrogen welding, the electrode is
b. 40 µs made of
c. 28 µs a. Carbon
d. 2 µs b. Graphite
c. Tungsten
109. For an RC divider to be compensated, the d. Mild steel

condition is
115. The efficiency of solar cell panel is
a. R1C1 = R2C2
a. 90-95%
b. R1C2 = R2C1 b. 85-95%
c. 45-50%
c. R1C1 = R2C1
d. 20-25%
d. ( R1 + R2 )(C1 + C2 ) < 1μ sec

——————

25 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART III

04 - ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Small signal model of MOSFET has a current 61. The transistor is specified to have Vt = 0.5 V,
source between ————— and ————— kn′ = 0.3 mA/V2, W/L = 10, and λ = 0. Also,
let VDD = 1.8 V, RD = 20 kΩ, and VGS = 0.7 V.
a. Gate, source
Find the gain of the amplifier circuit given in
b. Source, drain the figure.
c. Gate, drain
d. Gate, body

57. Depletion layer capacitance is also called
a. Bypass capacitance
b. Diffusion capacitance
c. Transition capacitance
d. Signal capacitance

58. Voltage series feedback reduces a. – 24 V/V
a. Input resistance b. – 4 V/V
c. – 12 V/V
b. Bandwidth
d. – 30 V/V
c. Input capacitance
d. Output resistance 62. Negative feedback amplifier is designed with
feedback factor of 20%. Open loop gain is
150V/V. What is the closed loop gain?
a. 160V/V
59. Phase angle provided by the feedback b. 14V/V
network in the Wein bridge oscillator is c. 4.8V/V
d. 9.4V/V
————— at resonant frequency.
a. 180° 63. For a voltage series feedback amplifier, input
b. 60° of the feedback network is _______ and output
of feedback network is _________.
c. 0°
a. Voltage, voltage
d. 270°
b. Voltage, current
c. Current, current
d. Current, voltage
60. A PN junction diode has a diffusion
capacitance of 0.5 nF and forward current of
64. A two input OR gate is designed for positive
10 mA at 0.7 V. Find the transit time of logic. Consider that this gate is operated with
carriers. negative logic. Then the logic operation will
be
a. 70 nS
a. OR
b. 50 nS
b. AND
c. 100 nS c. NOR
d. 35 nS d. Ex-OR

NG 23 (GROUP A) 26

65. Which of these flip–flops cannot be used to 70. The negative feedback topology of the circuit
construct a serial shift register? shown in the below Figure is
a. D Flip-flop
b. T Flip-flop
c. SR Flip-flop
d. JK Flip-flop

66. Find the output offset voltage of an
741 op-amp, if the gain of the non-inverting
amplifier is 8.5 and feedback resistor is
15 kΩ (IB =200 nA for 741 op-amp)
a. 1 μV
a. Voltage Voltage Feedback
b. 2 μV b. Current Voltage Feedback
c. 3 μV c. Voltage Current Feedback
d. Current Current Feedback
d. 4 μV
71. For the small signal equivalent circuit shown
67. Consider the following specifications: Voltage in the below Figure, small signal current gain
across the load is 5 V and Voltage across the Io/Ii is given by
internal resistor is 350 mV. Then, the difference
between output current having a load of 100 Ω
and 120 Ω for 7805 IC regulator is
a. 3.4mA
b. 7mA
c. 8.4mA
d. 9mA
68. The Q of a series RLC circuit is given by
a. ωCR
b. R/(ωL)
c. 1/LC a. 1
d. (ωL)/R b. β1 + β 2 (1 + β1 )
c. β1 + β 2
69. For the circuit and the respective
characteristic of VP versus Vin,CM shown in the d. β12 + β1 (1 + β 2 )
below Figure, the expression for Vx is given
by 72. For the circuit shown in the Figure below,
the slope of ac load line characteristic is
given by

a. − 1 / (RC + RE1 )
  β  
b. − 1 /  RC +   RE1 
  β + 1  
  β +1 
a. VDD – 2VTN c. − 1 /  RC +   RE1 
  β  
b. VDD – VTN
c. 2VTN d. − 1 / (RC + ( β + 1)RE1 )
d. VTN

27 NG 23 (GROUP A)

73. The value of LSB and MSB of a 12-bit DAC 79. Which of the following is not a valid 8085
for 10 V is instruction?
a. LSB = 2.4mV, MSB = 5V a. LDAX B
b. LSB = 4.2mV, MSB = 5V b. LDAX D
c. LSB = 4.8mV, MSB = 5V c. LDAX H
d. LSB = 8.4mV, MSB = 5V d. MOV A, M

74. The following Circuit is 80. Consider the sequence of 8085 instruction
given below
LXI H, 9258H
MOV A, M
CMA
MOV M, A
The contents of memory location after the
execution of the above program, the contents of
a. 9258 H are complemented
b. 9258 H are compared with contents of
the accumulator
a. High pass filter c. 8529 H are complemented and stored
b. RC Oscillator at location 8529 H
c. Wien Bridge Oscillator d. 5829 H are complemented and stored
at location 5892 H
d. Low Pass filter

75. How many RC stages are used in an RC 81. In 8051, ————— in Program Status Word
Phase shift oscillator and what is the Phase is used as the single bit accumulator for
shift provided by the network? Boolean processor.
a. 2, 120° a. Carry flag
b. 3, 180° b. Auxiliary Carry flag
c. 3, 120° c. Overflow flag
d. 2, 180° d. User definable flag

76. A particular microcontroller has an in built 82. The instruction INC source in 8086
8-bit ADC. Controller operates at 10 V. What microprocessor where
can be the resolution of the ADC? a. Source cannot be memory location
a. 19.608 mV b. Source maybe immediate data
b. 1.9608 mV c. Source maybe register
c. 39.063 mV d. The result is stored in Accumulator
d. 3.9063 mV
83. Match the following : Jump instructions with
77. Which among the following has best
its conditions of 8086 microprocessor
immunity to induced noise?
A. JA 1. ZF = 1
a. Non-inverting amplifier
B. JC 2. OF = 0
b. Inverting amplifier
c. Differential amplifier C. JO 3. CF = 0 and ZF = 0
d. Voltage follower
D. JE 4. CF = 1
78. Which IC is a fixed positive voltage
regulator? a. A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
a. LM78XX b. A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
b. LM79XX c. A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4
c. LM2576 d. A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
d. LM2596

NG 23 (GROUP A) 28

84. What is the current density, for the 89. The dominant mode for TM waves and TE
corresponding drift velocity of 5.3 × 10–4 m/s waves in a circular waveguide are,
in aluminum? Given, aluminum conductivity a. TM01 and TE11
is σ = 3.82 × 107 S/m and the mobility b. TM00 and TE01
μ = 0.0014 m2/V.s c. TM11 and TE10
a. 1.45 × 107 A/m2 d. TM10 and TE00
b. 14.5 × 107 A/m2
c. 145 × 107 A/m2 90. An antenna in free space receives 2μ W of
d. 1450 × 107 A/m2 power when the incident electric field is
20 mV/m rms. The effective aperture of the
antenna is
85. The curl of a gradient is
a. 0.005 m 2
a. 1
b. infinity b. 1.885 m 2
c. 0 c. 0.05 m 2
d. –1
d. 3.77 m 2

86. Find the skin depth δ at a frequency of
1.6 MHz in aluminum, where, aluminum 91. Which equations are regarded as wave
conductivity is σ = 38.2 MS/m and μ r = 1 equations in frequency domain for lossless
media?
a. 64.4 μ m a. Maxwell’s
b. 78.4 μ m b. Lorentz
c. 46.4 μ m c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
d. 39.4 μ m

92. If the carrier in 100 % amplitude modulated
87. By what factor is the magnitude of a phasor wave is suppressed, the percentage power
voltage wave reduced, if the wave experiences saving will be,
an attenuation of 1 neper? a. 100
a. 1 b. 33.3
b. infinity c. 50
c. 0 d. 66.6
d. 0.368
93. Identify the analog pulse modulation system
88. The characteristic impedance of a from the following.
transmission line was originally defined in a. PCM
terms of the lines distributed circuit b. DPCM
constants and given by c. PWM
R + jω L d. DM
a. z0 =
L + jω G
94. Let an error control scheme produces
R + jω L
b. z0 = codewords with minimum distance of 7. If
G + jω C Nd and Nc denote the number of all possible
error bits detectable and correctable
R + jω L
c. z0 = respectively then, (Nd, Nc) will be equal to
G + jω C a. (6,6)
R + jωC b. (6,3)
d. z0 = c. (3,6)
G + jω L
d. (3,3)

29 NG 23 (GROUP A)

95. In a rate 1/2 convolutional encoder with 4 flip 100. A 20 kbps baseband signaling requires
flops, the constraint length is equal to minimum bandwidth of
a. 2 a. 5 kHz
b. 3 b. 10 kHz
c. 4 c. 15 kHz
d. 5 d. 20 kHz

101. In a frequency hopping spread spectrum
96. If the spread spectrum communication system, message symbols are emitted at a
system uses chip rate of 2048 for the bit rate rate 20 kSps and carrier hops every milli
of 1 μ s , the processing gain offered by the second. This system is a
system is a. slow FHSS
a. 33 dB b. fast FHSS
c. slow fading system
b. 3.3 dB
d. fast fading system
c. 33
d. 3.3
102. Twiddle factor WNk+(N/2) =
a. −1
97. A 15 kHz band limited signal is frequency b. − WNk
modulated with modulation index of 5. In the c. WNk
spectrum of modulated signal, the energy will
d. 1
be distributed over the band by considering
1% unmodulated carrier level as reference
103. Which one of the following is not present in
will be
TCP/IP model?
a. within 180 kHz bandwidth a. Application
b. equal to 180 kHz bandwidth b. Session
c. greater than 180 kHz bandwidth c. Network
d. 15 kHz bandwidth d. Physical

104. Which of the following statements could be
98. A single tone signal with 50 Hz is sampled at valid with respect to the ICMP (Internet
a rate 75 samples/s and samples are passed Control Message Protocol)?
through an ideal low pass filter with cut off a. A redirect message is used when a
frequency of 60 Hz. The reconstructed signal router notices that a packet seems to
will have have been routed wrongly.
a. 50 Hz component b. It reports all errors which occur during
transmission.
b. 60 Hz component
c. It informs routers when an incorrect
c. 75 Hz component
path has been taken
d. 25 and 50 Hz component d. The "destination unreachable" type
message is used when a router cannot
locate the destination.
99. In a Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) system,
6 bit encoder is replaced by 12 bit encoder. 105. How many 4 bit parallel binary adders will be
The SQNR improvement offered at the output required to construct a 4 bit parallel
of PCM system will be multiplier?
a. 36 dB a. 8
b. 72 dB b. 4
c. 6 dB c. 2
d. 12 dB d. 1

NG 23 (GROUP A) 30

106. In a step-index fiber in the ray 111. The first three values of the DFT coefficients
approximation, the ray propagating along the of x(n)={0,1,2,3} are X (0) = 6 , X (1) = −2 + 2 j ,
axis of the fiber has the shortest route, while
X (2) = −2 . The value of X (3) is
the ray incident at the critical angle has the
longest route. Determine the difference in a. −6
travel time (in ns/km) for the modes defined
b. 2 − 2j
by those two rays for a fiber with ncore = 1.5
and ncladding = 1.485. c. −2 − 2j
a. 50.51 ns/km d. 2
b. 50.51 μ s /km
c. 50.51 ms/km
d. 50.51 s/km 112. The number of real multiplications required
in the direct computation of N-point DFT is
a. 4N (N − 1)
107. The type of coding that is based on blocks of
data is known as b. N(N − 1)
a. Entropy Coding c. 2N 2
b. Huffman Coding
d. 4N 2
c. Runlength Coding
d. Vector Quantization
113. Peak sidelobe level for a Rectangular window
is
108. The poles of analog Chebyshev filter
magnitude squared function lie on a. – 13 dB
a. ellipse b. – 32 dB
b. circle c. – 43 dB
c. jw-axis d. – 58 dB
d. real axis

114. The following is a valid denominator
109. The condition to be satisfied for linear phase
polynomial of a normalized Butterworth
in an M-tap FIR filter is
transfer function.
a. h(n ) = h( M − 1) n = 0, 1, 2... M − 1
a. s −1
b. h(n) = −h( M − 1) n = 0, 1, 2...M − 1
b. ( s 2 + s + 0.5) ( s + 1)
c. h(n) = ±h( M − 1 − n) n = 0, 1, 2...M − 1
d. h( −n) = ±h( M − n) n = 0, 1, 2...M − 1 c. ( s 2 + 0.77 s + 1) ( s 2 + 1.18 s + 1)

d. s 2 + 1 .4 s + 0 .3

110. In bilinear transformation, the left-half
s-plane is mapped to which of the following in
the z-domain? 115. The equation describing the relation between
a. Outside the unit circle s and z variables in bilinear transformation is
b. Re(z) a. s = (2 / T ) [(1 + z −1 ) /(1 − z −1 ) ]
c. Im(z) b. z = [(2 / T ) + s] /[(2 / T ) − s]
d. Inside the unit circle
c. s = (2 / T )[(1 − z ) /(1 + z )]
d. z = [ (2 / T ) − s] /[ (2 / T ) + s]

——————

31 NG 23 (GROUP A)

PART III

05 - MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The manufacturing area of a plate is divided 60. In a steam power plant, the power output of
into four quadrants. Four machines have to the turbine is 4200 kW when the enthalpy of
be located, one in each quadrant. What is the steam at the entry and exit of the turbine is
measured as 3400 kJ/kg and 2600 kJ/kg,
total number of possible layouts? respectively. Considering the power
a. 4 consumed by the feed pump as 200 kW, what
b. 8 is the steam flow rate through the turbine?
a. 5.0 kg/s
c. 16
b. 1.3 kg/s
d. 24 c. 1.6 kg/s
d. 0.7 kg/s

57. The shaft of a motor starts from rest and
attains its full speed of 1800 rpm in 61. A cylindrical shaped vessel of internal
10 seconds. What is the angular acceleration diameter of 100 cm and height of 80 cm
contains a gas. The mercury manometer that
of the shaft?
is connected to the vessel shows 640 mm of
a. π rad/s2 Hg above the atmosphere when the
b. 6 π rad/s2 barometer reads 760 mm of Hg. What is the
absolute pressure of gas inside the vessel?
c. 12 π rad/s2 Take: 1 mm of Hg = 133.4 N/m2
d. 24 π rad/s2 a. 186.8 kPa
b. 101.4 kPa
c. 085.4 kPa
58. The Reynolds number for a flow of a certain d. 016.1 kPa
fluid in a circular tube is specified as 2500.
What would be the Reynolds number for the
62. One reversible heat engine operates between
same fluid when the tube diameter is the temperature limits of 1000 K and Tx K
increased by 20% and the fluid velocity is and another heat engine operates between
decreased by 40%? the temperature limits of Tx and 360 K.
If both the heat input and the output of the
a. 900
first engine is twice that of the second engine,
b. 1800 what is the value of Tx?
c. 2700 a. 720 K
b. 680 K
d. 3600
c. 600 K
d. 640 K
59. A steel (Specific heat of steel = 0.4 kJ/kg-K)
ball of mass 1 kg and at a temperature of 63. In Morse test on a 4-cylinder, 4-stroke, spark
60°C is dropped into 1 kg of water that is at ignition engine, the brake power was 24 kW
20°C. What would be final steady state whereas the brake powers of individual
cylinders with spark cut off were 17.2 kW,
temperature of water?
16.6 kW, 16.8 kW, and 16.0 kW. What is the
a. 23.5 °C mechanical efficiency of the engine?
b. 40°C a. 77.6 %
b. 81.6 %
c. 35°C
c. 85.6 %
d. 30°C
d. 89.6 %

NG 23 (GROUP A) 32

64. What is the function of flash chamber in 68. A hollow sphere of internal diameter of
vapour compression refrigeration system? 100 mm and an external diameter of 150 mm
a. The flash chamber is used for doing is to be insulated by an insulation material
subcooling of refrigerant, thereby having a thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/m-K.
refrigerating effect would be increased. If the convective heat transfer coefficient for
the system is 20 W/m2K, what is the critical
b. The flash chamber is used for removing thickness of insulation?
the dry vapour after the throttling
a. 120 mm
process.
b. 50 mm
c. The flash chamber is used for removing c. 75 mm
the liquid particles after the
d. 45 mm
evaporator, thereby entrance of liquid
particles would be avoided.
d. The flash chamber is used for heating 69. Fin efficiency defined as
the refrigerant vapour after the a. the ratio between the actual amount of
evaporator, thereby entrance of liquid heat transfer with fins and the amount
particles would be avoided. of heat transfer without fin
b. the ratio between the actual amount of
heat transfer with fins and the amount
65. The latent heat of evaporation at critical of heat transfer when the entire surface
point is of the fin is maintained at base
temperature
a. Sensible heat
c. the ratio between the ideal amount of
b. Equal to zero
heat transfer with fins and the amount
c. Twice that of sensible heat of heat transfer when the entire surface
d. Indeterminate of the fin is maintained at base
temperature
d. the ratio between the actual amount of
66. The gravimetric analysis of a fuel is given as heat transfer with fins and the amount
80 % of carbon, 8 % of Hydrogen and 8 % of of heat transfer when the entire surface
oxygen and the remaining is incombustible. of the fin is maintained at tip
What is the stoichiometric air/fuel ratio of the temperature
fuel?
a. 9.3 70. A 5 kW water heater with 30 litres of water is
b. 11.7 switched on for 20 minutes. What is the rise
c. 12.1 in temperature of water? Assume zero loss in
electrical energy and specific heat of water as
d. 14.5
4 kJ/kg-K.
a. 40 °C
67. A hot-fluid flows at a velocity of 1.2 m/s b. 50 °C
through a pipe having a diameter of 100 mm c. 45 °C
and 1000 m long. If the heat loss across the d. 55 °C
wall of the pipe is estimated as 1000 W/m2,
density of the fluid is 780 kg/m3 and
Cp = 2.3 kJ/kg-K, what is the difference in 71. A composite wall consists of three different
materials (slabs) with the thermal
temperature of fluid between the inlet and
conductivities of k, k/2, k/4, respectively. The
exit of the pipe?
temperature drop across the individual will
a. 09.3 K be in the ratio of
b. 18.6 K a. 1:1:1
c. 27.9 K b. 1:2:4
d. 37.2 K c. 4:2:1
d. 16 : 4 : 1

33 NG 23 (GROUP A)

72. An enclosure consists of four surfaces 1, 2, 3, 76. In case of sensible cooling of air, the bypass
and 4. The view factors for radiative heat factor is given by (where td1 = Dry bulb
temperature of air entering the cooling coil,
transfer are F11 = 0.1, F12 = 0.4, F13 = 0.25. If
td2 = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the
the surface area of A1 and A4 are 4m2 and
cooling coil, and td3 = Dry bulb temperature of
2m2, respectively, what is the value of view the cooling coil)
factor, F41? (td 1 − td 3 )
a.
a. 0.50 (td 2 − td 3 )
b. 0.25 (td3 − td1 )
b.
c. 0.75 (td 2 − td 3 )
d. 0.40 (td3 − td1 )
c.
(td3 − td 2 )
(td 2 − td1 )
73. A refrigerator is working on a reversed d.
(td1 − td 3 )
Carnot cycle has a COP of 4. If the same
system is employed as a heat pump for
supplying heat of 10 kW, what is the required 77. What is the meaning of regeneration in a
work input? steam power plant?
a. It means doing some useful work by the
a. 3.0 kW
steam after its complete expansion in
b. 2.5 kW the turbine.
c. 2.0 kW b. Bypassing a fixed quantity of steam
during the expansion in the turbine to
d. 3.3 kW control the speed.
c. Extraction of some useful steam during
the expansion in the turbine stage and
74. What is the process in which the addition of heating the feed water by the extracted
moisture to air at constant dry bulb steam.
temperature called as? d. Heating of steam after the expansion in
high pressure turbine.
a. Sensible cooling
b. Humidification
78. The reheat factor of multi-stage steam
c. Dehumidification
turbine is normally in the range of
d. Sensible heating a. 0.5 to 0.80
b. 0.8 to 0.98
c. 1.03 to 1.07
75. A room is to be maintained at 50% relative d. 1.20 to 1.50
humidity and 25°C dry bulb temperature
when the outside condition is 75% relative
79. Work ratio of a gas turbine unit is defined as
humidity and 45°C. Which of the following
a. Ratio between the work required for
processes is (are) to be applied? the compressor and the heat supplied
a. Sensible heating only b. Ratio between the net-work output and
heat supplied
b. Humidification and cooling
c. Ratio between the net-work output and
c. Dehumidification and cooling the compressor work
d. Sensible cooling only d. Ratio between the net-work output and
the turbine work

NG 23 (GROUP A) 34

80. Air enters into the combustor of a gas turbine 84. Governor power is defined as the product of
unit at a velocity of 112 m/s and a a. Mean force exerted on the governor
temperature of 223°C. What is the Mach sleeve due to change in speed and
number at the entry?
mean radius of the governor balls.
a. 0.125
b. Mean force exerted on the governor
b. 0.250
sleeve due to change in speed and the
c. 0.375
d. 0.325 sleeve lift.
c. Force required to stop the movement of
sleeve while there is 1% change in
81. The velocity of steam at the exit of nozzle rated speed and radius of fly balls.
vanes of a simple axial flow impulse turbine
d. Force required to stop the movement of
is 500 m/s and the tangential velocity of rotor
blades is 250 m/s. The nozzle vanes are set at sleeve while there is 2% change in
angle of 30° (with reference to direction of rated speed and the radius of fly balls.
rotation of rotor) and the steam leaves rotor
exactly parallel to the axis of the rotor.
By neglecting the effects of friction, what is 85. If the unbalanced force developed by an
diagram power and blade efficiency for a eccentric mass that is rotating at 3000 rpm is
mass flow rate of 1 kg/s?
X times more than the 50% of the unbalanced
a. 108.3 kW and 86.6 %, respectively.
force that is developed by the same mass
b. 108.3 kW and 43.3 %, respectively.
rotates at 300 rpm, what is the value of X?
c. 125.0 kW and 86.6 %, respectively.
a. X = 10
d. 125.0 kW and 43.3 %, respectively.
b. X = 100
c. X = 50
82. What is the purpose(s) of providing lacing d. X = 200
wires in a steam turbine? Lacing wires is
used to
a. control the disturbance of water 86. The Whitworth quick return mechanism is
particles
formed in a slider-crank chain when the
b. keep the blades alignment and to
control the effects of vibration in longer a. Coupler link is fixed
blades in low pressure stages b. Longest link is a fixed link
c. increase mechanical strength of blades c. Slider is a fixed link
d. control the disturbance due to
d. Smallest link is a fixed link
impurities

87. The rotor of a turbine is generally rotated at
83. A mechanism has 7 links with all binary
pairs except one, which is a ternary pair. The a. a speed much below the critical speed
number of instantaneous centres of this b. a speed slightly less than the critical
mechanism is
speed
a. 21
b. 42 c. a speed much above the critical speed
c. 14 d. The operating speed does not have any
d. 28 relation with the critical speed

35 NG 23 (GROUP A)

88. Consider the given two sets and select the 92. Which one of the following statements is
correct answer using codes. correct in terms of direction of linear velocity
Set I Set II of any point on a kinematic link relative to
1. Flywheel 5. Speed control any other point on the same link?
on par with a. Dependent on the angular velocity of
load the link.
2. Governor 6. Turning b. At 45° to the line joining the points.
moment c. Parallel to the line joining the points.
diagram d. Perpendicular to the line joining the
3. Critical speed 7. D’Alembert’s points
principle
4. Inertia force 8. Dunkerley’s
method 93. Two shafts; P and Q are made up of same
a. 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8 material. If the diameter of the shaft P is
b. 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7 1.5 times of that of Q, the torque transmitting
c. 1-7, 2-8, 3-5, 4-6 capacity of shaft P is
a. 50% more than the capacity of shaft Q
d. 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 b. 100% more than the capacity of
shaft Q
89. In a slider-crank mechanism, what is the c. 125% more than the capacity of
position of the crank at which the velocity of shaft Q
the slider is maximum? d. 337.5% more than the capacity of
a. Crank and connecting rod are in-line shaft Q
with each other
b. Crank and connecting rod are mutually
perpendicular. 94. A boiler shell having an internal diameter of
c. Crank is perpendicular with the line of 2 m and plate thickness of 15 mm is subjected
motion of slider. by an internal pressure of 1.5 MPa. What is
d. Crank is 120° with the line of stroke the hoop stress and longitudinal stress
induced in the shell wall?
90. Consider the following follower motions with a. 150 MPa and 75 MPa, respectively
respect of given lift, speed of rotation of cam b. 75 MPa and 150 MPa, respectively
and angle of stroke of cam; X. Cycloidal c. 100 MPa and 50 MPa, respectively
motion, Y. Simple harmonic motion, Z. d. 50 MPa and 100 MPa, respectively
Uniform velocity motion. What is the correct
sequence of the above stated motions in the
descending order of maximum velocity? 95. A solid shaft is subjected to a bending
a. X–Y–Z moment and a twisting moment of 3 kN-m
and 4 kN-m. If the allowable shear stress for
b. Z–Y–X
the shaft material is 50 MPa, what is the
c. Z–X–Y minimum diameter of the shaft based on
d. X–Z–Y equivalent twisting moment?
a. 75 mm
91. In a simple epicyclic gear train, the number b. 80 mm
of teeth in sun gear, and planetary gear is c. 90 mm
18 and 24, respectively. If the internal gear d. 85 mm
is kept as stationery and the sun gear rotates
at 100 RPM, what is the speed and direction
of rotation of the arm that is connected to 96. The deflection of a spring with 24 active
planetary gear? turns under a load of 2400 N is 24 mm.
a. 78.6 RPM, direction of rotation is same The spring is cut into two springs in such a
as sun gear way that one spring has 16 turns and another
b. 21.4 RPM, direction of rotation is same with 8 turns. If the two springs are arranged
as sun gear in parallel and subjected under the same
c. 78.6 RPM, direction of rotation is load; 2400 N, what would be deflection of the
opposite to the direction of rotation of system?
sun gear a. 9.33 mm
d. 21.4 RPM, direction of rotation is b. 8.33 mm
opposite to the direction of rotation of c. 7.33 mm
sun gear d. 5.33 mm

NG 23 (GROUP A) 36

97. In a simple quick return mechanism shown in 101. What is the composition of Germen Silver?
the figure, AC (Continuously rotating a. 60% Silver, 20% Nickel and 20% Zinc
link) = 100 mm, AB (Fixed link) = 200 mm.
What is the ratio of time for forward motion b. 60% Copper, 20% Nickel and 20% Zinc
to that for return motion? c. 60% Copper, 20% Zinc, 20% Silver
d. 60% Silver, 40% Copper

102. Which of the following materials has better
A C shock absorbing capacity?
a. Stainless steel
b. Mild steel
c. Cast iron
d. White iron

a. 4.0 B
103. What is the tensile strength of a structural
b. 3.0
steel that is represented as St50?
c. 2.0
a. 45 to 55 MPa
d. 0.5
b. 500 to 600 Pa
c. 450 to 550 MPa
98. What is the purpose of cages in deep grove d. 500 to 600 kgf/cm2
ball bearings?
a. To separate the internal and external
races 104. Impact strength is the combination of
b. To separate the balls from the inner a. Hardness and strength
race
b. Toughness and strength
c. To separate the balls from the outer
race c. Malleability and ductility
d. To ensure that the balls do not cluster d. Yield strength and compression
at one point and maintain the proper strength
angular position of balls

105. Creep can be defined as
99. To ensure the self-locking in screw jack, it is a. the formation of cracks by stress or
essential that the helix angle is
strain
a. 1.5 times of the angle of friction
between the nut and screw b. elongation of materials in the elastic
region at high temperature
b. twice the angle of friction between the
nut and screw c. time dependent strain occurs under
c. less than the angle of friction between stress at high temperature
the nut and screw d. failure of material due to cyclic loading
d. No mandatory relation between them

106. Thermit welding process involve
100. In a power transmission, the maximum shear a. heating of base metals by using thermit
stress induced in a solid shaft is 50MPa. mixture and d.c.
If the solid shaft is replaced by a hollow shaft,
whose outer diameter is same as solid shaft b. local heating of base metals by means
diameter, inner diameter is 0.6 times of outer of ignition powder followed by
diameter and made up of same material, exothermic reactions produced by
what would be maximum induced shear thermit
stress in the hollow shaft? c. heating of base metals by using
a. 57.45MPa thermit, flux and electric arc
b. 50.45MPa d. heating of base metals by using thermit
c. 83.45MPa with ignition powder
d. 30.45MPa

37 NG 23 (GROUP A)

107. Whether coolant is needed for Gray cast iron 112. The cost of a machine is Rs.24,000 and the
tool during machining? Why? estimated scrap value after an average life of
a. Yes needed, because it is brittle 30,000 hours is Rs. 1,200. What will be the
b. Yes needed, because it contains hot depreciation charge at the end of the first
inclusions year if the machine is operated for a total
duration of 1,500 hours?
c. Not needed, because of the presence of
graphite a. Rs.1,260
d. Not needed, because it is soft b. Rs.1,200
c. Rs.1,140
d. Rs.1,080
108. The mechanism of material removal in EDM
process is
a. Melting and Evaporation
113. Which one of the following metals is
b. Melting and Corrosion unsuitable for testing with Ultrasonics?
c. Erosion and Cavitation a. Copper
d. Cavitation and Evaporation b. Aluminum
c. Cast Iron
109. In unilateral system of tolerance, the d. Stainless Steel
tolerance is allowed on
a. both sides of actual size
b. both sides of nominal size 114. A compound gear train consists of six gears,
c. one side of the actual size namely A, B, C, D, E and F and the number
of teeth on the gears is 60, 40, 50, 25, 30, and
d. one side of the nominal size.
24, respectively. The gears B and C are on
one shaft while the gears D and E are on
another shaft. The gear A drives gear B, gear
110. The force required for metal cutting operation
C drives gear D and gear E drives gear F. If
a. increases with increase in the feed of the gear A transmits 1.5 kW at 100 rpm. and
the tool and decreases with increase in the gear train has an efficiency of 80 per cent,
the depth of cut find the torque on gear F.
b. increases with increase in both the feed a. 68.62 Nm
of the tool and the depth of cut
b. 47.75 Nm
c. decrease with increase in both the feed
c. 30.56 Nm
of the tool and the depth of cut
d. 38.23 Nm
d. decreases with increase in the feed of
the tool and increases with increase in
the depth of cut
115. It takes 10 minutes to empty the contents of
a prismatic tank through an orifice at the
111. In connection with network analysis, dummy bottom of the tank. The time taken to empty
activity top half of the tank will be
a. does not require both time and a. 2 min
utilization of resources b. 2.93 min
b. does not require time but requires c. 3 min
utilization of resources
d. 3.93 min
c. requires both time and resources
d. requires time but does not require any
resources
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NG 23 (GROUP A) 38

FOR ROUGH WORK

39 NG 23 (GROUP A)

FOR ROUGH WORK

NG 23 (GROUP A) 40