CEETA PG 2023 Question Paper Group B

NG 23 (GROUP B) No.

Time : 2 hours Maximum marks : 100
Name of the Signature of
Candidate : ...................................................................... the Candidate : ........................................................

Regn.
Subject code for Part III
Number :

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Code Part III– Subjects Page No. Code Part III – Subjects Page No.
06 Automobile Engineering 8-13 16 Geo-Informatics 63-67
07 Aeronautical & Aerospace Engg. 14-18 17 Instrumentation, Electronics and Control Engineering 68-73
08 Architecture 19-23 18 Leather Technology 74-78
09 Agricultural and Irrigation Engg. 24-28 19 Material Science & Ceramic Technology 79-83
10 Bio-Technology 29-33 20 Pharmaceutical Technology 84-88
11 Bio-Medical Engineering 34-39 21 Physics 89-94
12 Chemical Engineering 40-46 22 Printing Technology 95-99
13 Chemistry 47-51 23 Production and Industrial Engineering 100-105
14 Earth Sciences 52-56 24 Social Sciences 106-111
15 Food Technology 57-62 25 Textile Technology 112-117

NG 23 (GROUP B)
PART I — ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

(Common to all Candidates)

(Answer ALL questions)

1 2 3  4. A flat circular plate is heated so that
 
1. The rank of the matrix  2 4 6  is the temperature at any point (x, y ) is
1 2 3 
  u (x , y ) = x 2 + 2 y 2 − x . The coldest point on
the plate is
a. 0 1
a.
4
b. 1 1
b. −
4
c. 2 1
c.
2
d. 3 1
d. −
2

 0 2
2. The eigen values of the matrix   are
 − 2 0 5. The solution of the ordinary differential
equation
a. 2, 2 d2 y dy
(x + 2)2 − (x + 2 ) + y = 3x + 4
dx 2 dx
b. 2, –2 is
2
c. i, − i a. y = A ex + B e−x + log (x + 2) − 4
5
b. y = A (x + 2 ) + B e x +
d. 2i, − 2i
2
[log (x + 2)]2 − 2
5
c. y = A log (x + 2) + B (x + 2) +
2
3. The eigen values of the matrix corresponding log (x + 2) − 2
5
to the quadratic form 2x1 x 2 + 2x1 x 3 − 2x 2 x 3 d. y = [ A log (x + 2) + B ] (x + 2) +
3
are 1, 1, –2. Then, the canonical form of the [log (x + 2)]2 (x + 2) − 2
2
given quadratic form is

a. 2 y1 2 + y2 2 − y3 2
6. The complete integral of the partial
differential equation q = z p (1 − p2 ) is
2 2 2
b. y1 2 + 2 y2 2 − y3 2
2
a. az = ( y + ax + c ) + 1
c. y1 2 + y2 2 − 2y3 2 b. a 2 z 2 = ax + y + c
2
c. a 2 − z 2 = ( y + ax + c )
d. y1 2 + y2 2 + 2y3 2 d.
2
a 2 z 2 = ( y + ax + c ) + 1

7. The value of the integral 10. The curve u (x , y ) = C and v(x , y ) = C ′ are
orthogonal if
 [(2x − y) dx − yz dy − y z dz ] , where C is
2 2

C
a. u + iv is an analytic function
2 2
the circle x + y = 1 , corresponding to the
b. u − iv is an analytic function
surface of the sphere of unit radius, is
c. u − v is an analytic function
π
a.
2 d. u + v is an analytic function

b. π

3π
c.
2 11. The function f (z ) = z 2 is

d. 2π
a. everywhere analytic

→ b. nowhere analytic
8. The value of  F ⋅ nˆ dS , where
S c. analytic only at z = 0

( )
→ → → →
F = (2x + 3z ) i − (xz + y ) j + y 2 + 2z k and S is d. analytic except at z = 0
the surface of the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 9
with volume V, is

a. V z − sin z
12. The singularity of the function is,
z2
b. 2V
a. z = −2
c. 3V
b. z =2
d. 4V
c. z =0

d. z =4
9. The volume of the solid bounded by planes
x = 0 , y = 0 , x + y + z = a and z = 0 is
given by
13. The inverse Z-transform of
a3 1
a. X (z ) = −1
, given the region
6 1 − 1 .5 z + 0 . 5z − 2
of convergence as z > 1 is
5a 2
b.
8
a. {1, 3/2, 7/4, 15/8, 31/16, ….}
a3
c. b. {1, 2/3, 4/7, 8/15, 16/31, ….}
8
c. {1/2, 3/4, 7/8, 15/16, 31/32, ….}
5a 2
d.
6 d. {0.25, 0.75, 0.125, 1.5, 0.0525, ….}

NG 23 (GROUP B) 2

14. The inverse Laplace transform of 17. The nature of the nth divided differences of a
polynomial of nth degree is
(s + 2)
is
s (s + 3) (s + 4 ) a. of degree n

b. constant
1 1 1
a. + e − 3t + e − 4 t
6 3 2 c. of degree n + 1

1 1 − 3t 1 − 4t d. of degree n − 1
b. − e + e
6 3 2

c. 1 − 3 e −3t + 2e −4t
1
18. The error in Simpson’s rule is of order
1 1 1 3
d. + e − 3t − e − 4 t
6 3 2
a. O (h 3 )

b. O (h 4 )

15. Which of the following functions is c. O (h 2 )
self-reciprocal with respect to Fourier cosine
d. O (h )
transform?

x2
−
a. e 2

19. Let X be a random variable such that
b.
1 E ( X ) = 2 and E (X 2 ) = 7 , then Var ( X ) is
x
a. 5
2
c. cos x b. 4
π
c. 3
2
d. sin x d. 2
π

20. If the moment generating function of a
16. Which of the following methods is iterative 2
random variable X is given by M X (t ) = ,
for solving a system of linear algebraic 2−t
equations? then the value of E ( X ) is

a. Gauss-Jordan method a. 1

b. 2
b. Gauss elimination method
c. 1/2
c. Fixed point iteration method
d. 1/3
d. Gauss-Jacobi method

————————–––

3 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART II — BASIC ENGINEERING AND SCIENCES

(Common to all candidates)
(All correct answers upto a maximum number of 20 will be given credit, but all wrong answers will be taken
into account for negative marking)

21. Which of the following deals with thermal 26. A given application runs for 15 seconds on a
equilibrium and provides a means for desk top processor. When the compiler used
measuring temperatures? for the application is optimized, it requires
a. Zeroth law only 0.6 as many instructions as the old
b. First law compiler, but the CPI increases by 1.1. How
c. Second law much time will the application take to run
d. Third law with the new compiler?

a. 9.9 seconds
22. An ideal fluid is
b. 8.2 seconds
a. a real fluid
b. viscous c. 25.5 seconds

c. compressive and gaseous d. 0.044 seconds
d. incompressible and frictionless
27. Which of the following statements is false?
23. bh 3 / 6 is the moment of inertia of a. SRAM is very fast
a. Rectangle of width b and height h b. SRAM is used for cache
about the axis through its centroid
c. values stored in DRAM exist
b. Rectangle of width b and height h
indefinitely as long as there is power
about the axis through its base
d. DRAM is used in main memory
c. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its centroid
28. When does the Array Index Out Of Bounds
d. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its base Exception occur in JAVA?

a. Compile-time
24. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) primarily
b. Run-time
measures
c. When an array is declared
a. Types of microbes
b. Level of dissolved oxygen d. When an array is printed

c. Quantity of organic matter
29. What does the following declaration mean?
d. Quantity of dissolved impurities
int (*ptr)[10];
25. A DC series motor should not be run at no a. ptr is array of pointers to 10 integers
load, because it will
b. ptr is a pointer to an array of
a. draw excess current
10 integers
b. not start and damage the motor
c. ptr is an array of 10 integers
c. run at a dangerously high speed
d. ptr is an pointer to array
d. not develop starting torque

NG 23 (GROUP B) 4

30. Predict the output of the code 33. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains
void m(); a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It
expands quasi-statically at constant
void n() temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3.
{ The work output (in kJ/kg) during this
process will be
m();
a. 8.32
}
b. 12
void main()
c. 554.67
{ d. 8320
void m()
{ 34. Thermodynamic work is the product of
printf("Welcome"); a. Two intensive properties
} b. Two extensive properties
c. An intensive property and change in an
}
extensive property
a. Welcome
d. An extensive property and change in an
b. Compile time error intensive property
c. Nothing
35. In the temperature-entropy diagram of a
d. Varies
vapour shown in the given figure, the
thermodynamic process shown by the dotted
31. An Ideal heat engine operates between two line AB represents
temperatures 600 K and 900 K. What is the
efficiency of the engine?
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 10%
d. 33%

32. List – I List – II
a. Hyperbolic expansion
(A) Heat to work 1. Nozzle
b. Free expansion
(B) Heat to Lift 2. Endothermic c. Constant volume expansion
Weight chemical reaction
d. Polytropic expansion
(C) Heat to strain 3. Heat engine
energy 36. The specific conductance of the electrolyte
(D) Heat to 4. Hot air ————— on dilution.
electromagnetic balloon/evaporation a. Increases
energy b. Decreases
5. Thermal radiation c. Slightly increases
6. Bimetallic strips d. Cannot be determined

Codes :
37. The process of decomposition of an electrolyte
(A) (B) (C) (D) by passing electric current through its
a. 3 4 6 5 solution is called as
b. 3 4 5 6 a. Electrolyte
b. Electrode
c. 3 6 4 2
c. Electrolysis
d. 1 2 3 4
d. Electrochemical cell

5 NG 23 (GROUP B)

38. The correct order of different types of 44. Two coils, connected in parallel across 100 V
energies is DC supply mains, takes 10 A from mains.
a. Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> Etr The power dissipated in one coil is 600 W.
b. Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> Etr The resistance of each coil is:
c. Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> Erot a. R1 = 16.67 Ω and R2 = 25 Ω
d. Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> Eel b. R1 = 14.62 Ω and R2 = 10 Ω
c. R1 = 5.67 Ω and R2 = 9 Ω
39. The cuprous chloride used in Orsat apparatus
can absorb d. R1 = 7 Ω and R2 = 3 Ω

a. Only carbon monoxide
b. Both carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide 45. In electrostatic instrument for the linear
c. Both carbon monoxide and oxygen motion, the force between plates is given by
d. All carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide 1 2 2
a. F = V C
and oxygen 2
1 2 2
40. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is b. F = mC
2
characterised by the high ————— in the
flue gas 1 2 dc
c. F = V
2 dx
a. Smoke
b. Temperature d. F = V 2C 2

c. Oxygen
d. Carbon monoxide
46. You have probably noticed that during a
41. The rating of an electric lamp is 220 V and thunderstorm you see a lightning flash some
100 W. If it is operated at 110 V, the power time before you hear the thunder. That is
consumed by it will be:
because
a. 50 W
a. the thunder is generated only after the
b. 75 W lightning has stopped
c. 90 W b. lightning and thunder are unrelated
d. 25 W events
c. light travels a lot faster than sound
42. An Ideal current source should have
d. sound travels a lot faster than light
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. Large value of EMF
d. None of the above 47. In Young’s double slit experiment, if one of
the slits is covered with the blue and another
43. A pony motor is basically a one with red transparent papers,

a. DC series motor a. fringe width changes
b. DC shunt motor b. interference pattern is not observed
c. Double – winding AC/DC motor c. multicolour fringes are observed
d. Small Induction motor d. circular fringes are formed

NG 23 (GROUP B) 6

48. According to Plancks Quantum theory, the 52. In Ferri magnetic materials in dual dipoles
second energy level of a one second simple are

pendulum is a. parallel to each other with unequal
moments
a. 6.625 × 10–34 J
b. antiparallel to each other with unequal
b. 3.312 × 10 –34
J moments
c. antiparallel to each other with equal
c. 13.25 × 10–34 J
moments
–34
d. 16.562 × 10 J d. parallel to each other with equal
moments

49. The principle behind fibre optic
53. An electric bulb rated 200 V and 100 W is
communication is connected a 160 V power supply. What power
a. partial reflection will be consumed by the bulb?
a. 64 W
b. partial refraction
b. 80 W
c. total internal refraction
c. 100 W
d. total internal reflection d. 160 W

50. In which one of the following it is not possible 54. Donar levels in an extrinsic n type semi
conductors lie just
to achieve laser action?
a. above the conduction band
a. two level system
b. below the conduction band
b. multi level system c. above the valence band
c. four level system d. below the valence band

d. seven level system

55. Which one of the following is false about
super conductors?
51. Dielectric loss is the phenomenon in which a. super conductors have no resistance
the electrical energy is converted into b. electric current can destroy super
conductivity
a. dipole energy
c. superconductors are diamagnetic
b. light radiation
d. superconductors allow magnetic field to
c. liquid plasma pass through only below the critical
temperature
d. heat

——————————

7 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

06 – AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The principle of transmissibility of forces 61. The balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved
states that, when a force acts upon a body, its by appropriately placing the balancing
effect is masses in
a. Same at every point on its line of action a. A single plane
b. Different at different points on its line b. Two planes
of action c. Three planes
c. Minimum, if it acts at the centre of d. Four planes
gravity of the body
d. Maximum, if it acts at the centre of
62. Match list I with list II and select the correct
gravity of the body
answer using the code given
List – I List – II
57. When a particle moves with a uniform A. Simply 1. More than two
velocity along a circular path, then the supported beam supports
particle has —————— acceleration.
B. Fixed beam 2. One roller and one
hinged support
a. Tangential
b. Centripetal C. Continuous 3. One end fixed and
beam one end is free
c. Linear
d. Traverse D. Cantilever 4. Two rigid
beam supports
Code :
58. In a reciprocating engine, which of the A B C D
following forms a kinematic link? a. 2 4 1 3
a. Cylinder and piston b. 3 4 1 2
b. Piston rod and connecting rod c. 2 4 3 1
c. Crankshaft and flywheel d. 1 2 3 4
d. Flywheel and engine frame

63. The validity of torsion formula for pure
59. For high-speed engines, the cam follower torsion indicates that the shaft is subjected to
should move with a. Bending stress only
a. Uniform velocity b. Shear stress only
b. Simple harmonic motion c. Axial stress only
c. Uniform acceleration and retardation d. Bending stress and shear stress only
d. Cycloidal motion

64. A bar of diameter 30mm is subjected to a
60. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle tensile load such that the measured extension
between the direction of the follower motion on a gauge length of 200mm is 0.09mm and
and a normal to the the change in diameter is 0.0045m, then the
a. Pitch circle Poisson’s ratio will be
b. Base circle a. 1/2
c. Pitch curve b. 1/3
d. Prime circle c. 1/4
d. 1/5

NG 23 (GROUP B) 8

65. Match list I with list II and select the correct 67. In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft
answer using the code given a. Pulley is made the weakest
List – I List – II b. Shaft is made the weakest
(Description) c. Key is made the weakest
d. All the three are designed for equal
A. Single plate 1. Scooters strength
friction clutch

B. Multi plate 2. Rolling mill 68. Consider the following statements:
friction clutch i. A quasi-static process is a succession of
equilibrium states
C. Centrifugal 3. Trucks ii. Infinite slowness is the characteristic
clutch feature of a quasi-static process
iii. Pure substance consists of a single
D. Jaw clutch 4. Mopeds phase
iv. Atmospheric air is the example of pure
Code : substance
A B C D Of these statements
a. 1 3 4 2 a. i and iii are true
b. 1 3 2 4 b. i and ii are true
c. 3 1 2 4 c. ii and iv are true
d. i, ii, iii and iv are true
d. 3 1 4 2

69. A Rankine cycle consists of
a. One isobaric, one isochoric and two
66. Match list I with list II and select the correct adiabatic processes
answer using the code given b. Two isobaric and two adiabatic
processes
List – I List – II
c. Two isobaric and two isothermal
(Description)
processes
A. Interference 1. Arc of approach, d. Two isobaric and two isochoric
processes
arc of recess,
circular pitch
70. For the same compression ratio and heat
B. Dynamics load 2. Lewis equation release rate, what is the order of efficiency of
on tooth Otto, Diesel and Dual cycle?
a. ηotto > ηdiesel > ηdual
C. Static load 3. Minimum number
b. ηotto > ηdual > ηdiesel
of teeth on pinion
c. ηdual > ηotto > ηdiesel
D. Contact ratio 4. In accuracies in d. ηdiesel > ηdual > η otto
tooth profiles

Code : 71. Dryness fraction is expressed as (mv and ml
A B C D are masses of vapour and liquid respectively)
a. 3 4 1 2 a. mv / (mv + ml )
b. 3 4 2 1 b. ml / (mv + ml )
c. 1 2 3 4
c. (mv + ml ) / mv
d. 4 3 2 1
d. mv / (mv − ml )

9 NG 23 (GROUP B)

72. Heat addition to water in a boiler in Rankine 76. Which of the following operations is an
cycle takes place at constant example of orthogonal cutting?
a. Entrophy a. Shaping
b. Enthalpy
b. Drilling
c. Pressure
d. Volume c. Milling

d. Turning
73. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Gases show ideal gas behavior at very
low pressure 77. Which one of the following welding method is
not a fusion process?
b. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is the
basis of entropy measurement a. Resistance welding

c. Specific heat has SI units of kJ/K b. Gas welding
d. Pressure is a microscopic quantity c. Arc welding

d. Thermit welding
74. A pattern is made up of the following
materials
i. Wood 78. Which one of the following methods requires
vacuum?
ii. Plastics
iii. Metal a. LASER beam machining (LBM)

a. i and ii only b. Electron beam machining (EBM)
b. i and iii only c. Electric discharge machining (EDM)
c. ii and iii only d. Electro chemical machining (ECM)
d. i, ii, iii

79. Match list I with list II and select the correct
75. Consider the following statements with answer using the code given
respect to a lathe List – I List – II
i. A headstock contains a hollow spindle
A. Rolling 1. Discrete parts
and a motion control unit containing of
transmission gears B. Forging 2. Rod and wire
ii. The tool post is mounted on a compound C. Extrusion 3. Flat plates and sheets
rest
D. Drawing 4. Solid and hollow parts
iii. Both workpiece and single point cutting
tool will be rotating Code :
iv. A lead screw is used for thread cutting A B C D

a. i, ii and iii only a. 3 1 4 2

b. i, ii and iv only b. 3 4 1 2
c. i, iii and iv only c. 1 4 3 2
d. ii, iii and iv only d. 1 2 3 4

NG 23 (GROUP B) 10

80. What is the fundamental equation for correct 85. Based upon power flow, the two basic type of
steering? axles are
Where
a. Dead and floating
C - Distance between pivot centres
b. Dead and live
B- Wheel base
c. Floating and semi floating
θ - inner turning angle
d. Live and floating
φ -outer turning angle
c
a. cot φ − cot θ = 86. Cushion springs in a clutch plate is meant to
b
c a. reduce torsional vibration
b. cot θ − cot φ =
b b. reduce the shock of engagement
c c. synchronize the speed of the driving
c. cot φ + cot θ = and driver plates
b
b d. avoid slippage
d. cot θ + cot φ =
c

87. Wilson gear box is combination of
81. The torque tube is a tubular member which
encloses the a. Sliding gear box

a. Propeller shaft b. Helical gears
b. Half shafts c. Bevel gears
c. Differential d. Epicycle gear box
d. Axle

82. Which of the following works with the 88. Which one of the following flows of fluid
steering system to keep the wheels in correct coupling is maximum when the slip is 100%?
alignment? a. Vortex
a. Engine b. Rotary
b. Suspension system
c. Turbulence
c. Rear axle
d. Tyre d. Laminar

83. In a half floating rear axle, the whole weight
of the vehicle is first transmitted to 89. Stall torque ratio of three element torque
a. Axle case converter is in the region of
b. Suspension spring a. 3:1
c. Rear axle b. 2:1
d. Front axle c. 4:1
d. 5:1
84. To take care of the difference in the driving
angle as rear axle moves up and down, the
propeller shaft has one or more 90. Main advantage of electric vehicle is
a. Zero emission
a. Slip joint
b. High cost of battery
b. Elbow joint
c. Less vehicle weight
c. Release joint d. Charging time
d. Universal joints

11 NG 23 (GROUP B)

91. Which of the following is composed of two 98. The electrolyte for a fully charged lead-acid
rigid sections connected by joint, with battery has a relative density of
passenger accommodation spaces situated in approximately:
each rigid section?
a. Single ducker bus a. 1.000
b. Double ducker bus b. 1.100
c. Articulated bus c. 1.280
d. Split level bus d. 1.500

92. Which one of the following detail
99. Sulphation in lead acid battery occurs due to
optimizations increases the drag area?
a. Increase in windshield angle a. Heavy Charging
b. Increase in c-pillar thickness b. Fast Charging
c. Increase in roof camber c. Trickle Charging
d. Increase in backlight angle
d. Incomplete Charging

93. What type of wind tunnel is used for full 100. Which among the distributorless ignition
scaled car model testing? system is false statement?
a. Sub-sonic
a. more moving parts, therefore less
b. Transonic
friction and wear
c. Supersonic
b. flexibility in mounting location
d. Hypersonic
c. less maintenance required
d. Elimination of mechanical timing
94. The ratio of the maximum displacement of
adjustments
the forced vibration to the deflection due to
the static force, is known as
a. damping factor 101. What does an actuator do?
b. damping coefficient a. It selects transmission gear ratio
c. logarithmic decrement b. It measures some variable for an
d. magnification factor engine control system
c. It is an output device for an engine
95. Which one of the following influence rolling control system
resistances? d. It sends signal to the driver
a. density of air
b. coefficient of drag
102. Which system gives the technician access to
c. vehicle speed
the status of the various vehicle sub systems?
d. coefficient of lift
a. Adaptive Cruise Control
b. Electronic Brake Force Distribution
96. Which of the following moments tends to
rotate a road vehicle about its vertical axis? c. Traction Control
a. pitching d. Onboard Diagnostics
b. rolling
c. yawing
103. In many electronic ignition system,
d. up thrust
______________ is used to trigger the ignition
system.
97. Modern Heavy Commercial Vehicle is built
a. Crankshaft speed sensor
upon —————— chassis layout.
a. Forward control b. Knock sensor
b. Normal control c. Coolant sensor
c. Rearward control
d. Reverse control d. EGO sensor

NG 23 (GROUP B) 12

104. Fuel spray impingement on surface walls 110. The oxygen content of Methanol by mass is
causes —————— emission a. 50%
a. Carbon mono oxide b. 25%
b. Unburned hydrocarbon c. 75%
c. Particulate matter d. 35%
d. Carbon di oxide

111. Thermal Dilution refers to
a. Dilution of exhaust gas
105. Which governs selection and optimization of
many engine design variables in CI engines? b. Dilution of engine coolant
c. Catalytic reduction
a. PM- HC trade off
d. Exhaust Gas Recirculation
b. NOx - PM trade off
c. CO - PM trade off
d. CO - HC trade off
112. The reduced Nitric oxide emission in
vegetable oil fuelled diesel engine is due to
106. What is applied to the ceramic substrate to
make the surface porous in catalytic a. Increased ignition delay of the fuel to
get ignited
converter?
b. Improved atomization and vaporization
a. Filler
of the fuel
b. Washcoat
c. Slow combustion of the injected fuel
c. Top Coat d. Complete combustion of the fuel
d. Synthanols

107. ARAI stands for
113. The flammability limit of Hydrogen in air by
a. Automotive Research Association of
volume is
India
a. 5-55 %
b. Automotive Reservation Association of
b. 3-35 %
India
c. 4-75 %
c. Automobile Research Association of
d. 3-25 %
India
d. Automation Research Association of
India
114. Use of High-Octane fuels in CI engines have
108. Which of the following is used as an a tendency to produce
adsorbent in charcoal canister? a. Reduced Ignition Delay
a. SIC b. Increased diffusion combustion phase
c. Extended late burning phase
b. NiO
d. Knocking Combustion
c. Activated Carbon
d. Austenite ferrite

109. EUDC stands for 115. The carbon to hydrogen ratio of natural gas is
a. Extra urban driving cycle a. 1:4
b. European Union driving cycle b. 1:2
c. Extra universal driving cycle c. 1:1
d. 1:6
d. Ex- Union driving cycle
—————————

13 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

07 - AERONAUTICAL AND AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Consider a steel pipe vertically hanging from 59. Consider a bar of solid circular cross-section
a fixed support. The mass per unit length of being subject to pure torsion of magnitude T.
the pipe is m. What would be the shape of the If the diameter of the bar is doubled, the
axial force diagram for the given pipe? maximum shear stress would be
a. reduced by a factor of two
a. a straight line
b. reduced by a factor of four
b. rectangular
c. reduced by a factor of eight
c. triangular
d. remain the same
d. parabolic
60. A simply-supported beam of length L is
57. A statically indeterminate stepped bar is subject to a linearly varying distributed load
given in Figure 1. Which of the following of intensity zero at the left end A of the beam
equations are required in order to obtain and maximum intensity qo at the right end B.
Find the support reaction at the right end B.
support reactions and displacements?
a. qo L/2
(i) equation of equilibrium in the axial
direction b. qo L/3
(ii) the equation of compatibility c. qo L/4
(iii) force-displacement relations
d. qo L/6

61. What would be the shape of the bending-
moment diagram of a uniform cantilever
beam of length L subjected to a tip
concentrated moment M o ?
a. rectangular
b. trapezium
c. triangular
d. parabolic
Figure 1
a. (i) alone 62. Consider a uniform rectangular section
b. (i) and (ii) wooden beam reinforced on the top surface
with a metallic plate and subject to pure
c. (i) and (iii)
bending in the vertical plane. Which of the
d. (i), (ii) and (iii) following statements would be true?
(i) Normal strains in the beam will vary
linearly with distance from the neutral
58. A circular shaft is being subject to pure
surface regardless of the shape of the
torsion. On a stress element on the surface of stress-strain curve of the material.
the shaft orientated at 45o to the shaft axis, (ii) Normal strains in the beam will vary
the stresses acting would be linearly with distance from the neutral
surface only when material behaviour
is linear.
(iii) Normal stress variation will be
a. tensile and compressive parabolic.
a. (i)
b. shear and tensile
b. (ii)
c. shear and compressive c. (i) and (iii)
d. state of pure shear d. (ii) and (iii)

NG 23 (GROUP B) 14

63. A cylindrical pressure vessel has inner radius 67. The deflection of a simply-supported beam
r = 1.8 m and wall thickness t = 20 mm. The subject to uniformly distributed load acting
material is steel with modulus E = 200 GPa throughout the beam length is considered.
and Poisson’s ratio = 0.30. The internal Maximum deflection would be proportional to
pressure p is equal to 800 kPa. Calculate the (i) applied load intensity
circumferential strain at a point on the outer (ii) the square of applied load intensity
surface. (iii) the square of beam length
a. 36 × 10 −6 (iv) beam flexural rigidity
a. (i) alone
b. 72 × 10 −2 b. (ii) and (iii)
c. 306 × 10 −6 c. (i) and (iv)
d. 720 × 10 −3 d. (i), (iii) and (iv)

64. A simply-supported beam is loaded with a 68. A simply-supported beam and a fixed-fixed
beam of the same length are both subject to a
vertical load P at x = a from the left end and transverse vertical force at mid-point. Which
another vertical load P (acting in the same of the following statements are true?
direction as the first load) at x = a from the (i) Shear force diagram for both beams are
right end. In the given beam, what are the the same.
stress resultants in the cross-section at (ii) Maximum bending moment is higher
x = L/2? for the simply-supported beam.
a. bending moment (iii) Maximum bending moment is higher
b. shear force for the fixed-fixed beam.
c. bending moment and shear force (iv) For the fixed-fixed beam, bending
moment is zero at beam mid-length
d. two normal stresses and one shear (x = L/2).
stress a. (iii)
b. (i) and (ii)
65. A variation of normal stress across the depth
c. (i) and (iii)
of a cross-section is given below. What could d. (ii) and (iv)
the variation possibly represent?
69. The number of independent elastic constant
for a 3-D anisotropic material is
a. 5
b. 9
c. 2
d. 21
70. A closely-coiled helical spring is to carry a
a. normal stress variation in a beam of load of 500 N and the mean coil diameter
two materials subject to bending must be 10 times that of the wire diameter. If
b. shear stress variation in a beam the maximum shear stress in the wire
subject to pure bending material is not to exceed 80 MPa, find the
c. normal stress variation when a required wire diameter.
cantilever beam is subject to eccentric a. 8.4 mm
axial load P b. 10.3 mm
d. shear stress variation in a beam c. 12.6 mm
subject to non-uniform bending d. 13.9 mm

66. Identify the statements which are TRUE. 71. In a closely-coiled helical spring having
(i) maximum shear stress is equal to circular cross-section where applied axial
one-half the difference of the principal load is W, the spring end deflection is
stresses (i) proportional to W
(ii) shear stresses are zero on principal (ii) proportional to W2
planes (iii) proportional to number of coils
(iii) principal stresses always exist on (iv) inversely proportional to number of
mutually perpendicular planes coils
a. (i) and (ii) a. (i) and (iii)
b. (ii) and (iii) b. (i) and (iv)
c. (iii) alone c. (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii) d. (ii) and (iv)

15 NG 23 (GROUP B)

72. A common aluminium alloy used in aircraft 79. Consider a NACA 2412 airfoil of chord length
construction, Al 7075-T6, has a tensile 2.4 m. The location of maximum camber,
strength of approximately measured from the trailing edge along the
a. 220 MPa chord line is
b. 570 MPa a. 1.44 m
b. 1.55 m
c. 43 GPa c. 1.66 m
d. 72 GPa d. 1.77 m
73. A 3 m long steel bar (E = 200 GPa) has a 80. According to Prandtl’s lifting line theory,
square cross-section of 4 cm × 4 cm. Find the which of the following shape of the wing has
strain energy in the bar when it is subject to minimum induced drag?
128 kN axial force. a. straight rectangular
a. 76.8 Nm b. elliptical
b. 101 Nm c. straight tapered
c. 253.5 J d. tapered sweptback
d. 492.6 J
81. If the aspect ratio of a wing of finite span is
74. Piston rods, connecting rods and side links in increased, the lift curve slope will
a forging machine can fail by a. decrease
b. increase
a. pure bending c. remain same
b. pure compression d. cannot say
c. combination of pure compression and
buckling 82. For a finite wing, if the coefficient of lift is
d. combination of bending and pure shear doubled while the aspect ratio is reduced to
half then the induced drag will be
75. In beam bending, the unit of beam a. doubled
curvature is b. three times the original
a. m c. four times the original
d. eight times the original
b. m2
c. m −2 83. Panel methods are ideal for computing
−1 a. incompressible viscous flows
d. m
b. compressible viscous flows
c. compressible inviscid flows
76. The physical principle used for the derivation
d. incompressible inviscid flows
of energy equation is
a. First law of thermodynamics 84. Consider an airfoil system with N control
b. Second law of thermodynamics points giving N equations for the N + 1
c. Newton’s second law strengths. The final equation to solve this
d. Law of conservation of mass system is obtained by
a. Kutta condition
77. Stream function for the doublet of strength μ b. Helmholtz method
is c. Kelvin’s circulation theorem
μ cos θ d. The system can be solved without a
a. − final equation
2π r
μ cos θ 85. In the flow of a calorically perfect gas, the
b. −
4π r 2 static and stagnation temperatures are 260 K
μ sin θ and 460 K, respectively. The Mach number
c. − for this flow is
2π r a. 1.66
μ sin θ b. 1.76
d. − c. 1.86
4π r 2
d. 1.96
78. For a positively cambered airfoil, if the angle
of attack is increasing then the distance 86. Consider an isentropic flow at Mach 0.5 in a
between the aerodynamic center and the streamtube. Somewhere in the streamtube if
center of pressure will be the cross-sectional area is increased by 3%
the change in flow density will be
a. increasing up to wing stall
a. 1%
b. remain same b. 2%
c. increasing c. 3%
d. decreasing d. 4%

NG 23 (GROUP B) 16

87. In fluid flows, ratio of the surface tension 95. An airplane requires a longer ground roll to
force and the inertia force gives which of the lift-off on hot summer days because
following non dimensional number? a. the runway friction is high on hot
a. Reynolds number summer days
b. Euler number b. the thrust is directly proportional to
c. Weber number free-stream density
d. Froude Number c. the thrust is directly proportional to
weight of the aircraft
88. In which of the following flow regime, the d. the lift-off distance is directly
Hodograph transformation accurately solves proportional to free-stream density
the flow equations?
a. subsonic flow 96. Pressure ratio across the compressor
b. transonic flow is 1. Efficiency of the Braytons cycle in
c. supersonic flow percentage is
d. hypersonic flow a. 100
b. 20
89. For an incompressible laminar flow over a c. 50
flat plate, if the Reynolds number is 1000, the
d. 0
drag coefficient is
a. 0.02 97. An aircraft is moving with a velocity of
b. 0.04 300 m/s and the exhaust velocity is the same
c. 0.06 as the aircraft speed. Propulsive efficiency in
d. 0.08 percentage is
a. 100
90. In supersonic wind tunnels, the oblique shock b. 50
diffusers are preferred over normal shock
c. 30
diffusers because of
a. lower thermal effects d. 0
b. lower total pressure losses 98. Sutherland’s formula related to
c. higher speed a. Change in dynamic viscosity with
d. lesser number of shock waves temperature
91. Which of the following is not a principle b. Change of density with temperature
involved in shock–boundary layer interaction c. Change of kinematic viscosity with
control? temperature
a. mass injection d. Change of kinematic viscosity with
b. momentum re-energization density
c. localized boundary layer suction
99. Intake of a gas turbine engine is to
d. pre-heated walls
a. Increase the static pressure of free
92. Schlieren system gives the ___________ of the stream air
incident rays. b. Increase the velocity of free stream air
a. Refractive index c. Increase the total pressure of free
b. Displacement stream air
c. Optical changes d. Increase the total temperature of free
d. Deflection angles stream air

93. For an airplane to be statically stable, its 100. Inlet buzz is related to
centre of gravity must always be a. Subsonic inlet
a. ahead of wing aerodynamic centre b. Supersonic inlet
b. ahead of neutral point c. Entry to the compressor
c. aft of the wing aerodynamic centre d. Exit of the compressor
d. aft of neutral point
101. Which one of the engines takes relatively
94. The instrument used for flow direction in the lower mass flow rate of air for producing
wind tunnel is thrust?
a. Pitot tube a. Turboprop
b. Pitot Static tube b. Turbojet
c. Yaw head probe c. Turbofan
d. Anemometer d. Both turboprop and turbofan

17 NG 23 (GROUP B)

102. Compressor of a gas turbine engine is 109. Equal enthalpy drop occurs in the rotor and
a. to increase static pressure the stator of the turbine whose degree of
b. to increase total pressure reaction is
c. to increase the static pressure and total a. 1
pressure b. 0.5
d. to decrease the total pressure c. 0.75
d. 0
103. When the air passes through the impeller of a
centrifugal compressor, 110. For a combustion process to be effective,
a. Velocity of the air decrease and total entropy change should be
pressure increases
a. zero
b. Velocity of the air increase and total
pressure decreases b. small
c. Velocity and total pressure of the air c. high
increase d. negative
d. No change in air velocity and total
pressure 111. In a convergent-divergent nozzle flow, the
mass flux is highest at
104. The value of slip factor is 1.0 when a. Nozzle inlet
a. The blade tip speed is less than exit b. Nozzle outlet
tangential velocity of the impeller c. 2/3rd of diverging length of the nozzle
b. The blade tip speed greater than the from throat
exit tangential velocity of the impeller d. Nozzle throat
c. The blade tip speed is equal to exit
tangential velocity of the impeller 112. A convergent nozzle delivers a flow at exit
d. Impeller tip velocity is zero Mach number 1.0. The pressure ratio i.e
stagnation pressure to static pressure ratio is
105. Which of the following components changes
a. 1.5
the direction of airflow in the centrifugal
compressor? b. 1.7
a. Collector c. 0.582
b. Diffuser d. 1.893
c. Impeller
d. Both collector and diffuser 113. Effective cooling methods are introduced in
turbine blade mainly
106. Pressure ratio range for axial flow a. to increase the maximum temperate
compressor used in jet engines is limit
a. 1-5 b. to increase the thrust
b. 10-20 c. both (a) and (b)
c. 6-9 d. neither (a) nor (b)
d. 25-50
114. In a convergent divergent nozzle, if you keep
107. Air enters into the compressor axially and on reducing the back pressure, during the
leaves axially in the axial flow compressor, process
a. tangential component at the entry and a. Overexpansion occurs with no
exit of the compressor are equal formation of normal shock at the exit
b. tangential component at the entry is b. Overexpansion occurs with the
less than that at the exit of the formation of normal shock at the exit
compressor
c. No formation of normal shock at the
c. tangential component at the entry is
throat before the start of overexpansion
greater than that at the exit of the
compressor d. Expansion fan occurs before the
d. both (b) and (c) are possible formation of normal shock at the exit

108. Static pressure drop occurs only in the stator 115. When gas enters into the turbine and leaves,
of a turbine whose degree of reaction is the tangential velocity of the gas
a. 1 a. Is constant along the radius
b. 0.5 b. Increases along the radius
c. 0.75 c. Decreases along the radius
d. 0 d. Initially decreases and then increases

—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 18

PART III

08 - ARCHITECTURE

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Grey pig iron is also known as 62. Which one among the choices given below is a
a. Forge pig iron semi rigid DPC material?
b. Mottled pig iron a. Cement concrete
c. Foundry pig iron b. Plastic sheet
d. Bessemer pig c. Stone
d. Asphalt

57. In mechanical treatment of steel the process
of giving blows to a red hot metal with 63. For DPC at plinth level the grade of concrete
hammer is known as used is
a. Forging a. M10
b. Pressing
b. M15
c. Rolling
c. M20
d. Drawing
d. M25

58. Potash lime glass is also known as
64. Thickened part of a flat slab over its
a. Flint glass
supporting column, is technically known as
b. Bottle glass
a. Drop panel
c. Bohemian glass
b. Column head
d. Soft glass
c. Gusset plate
d. Capital
59. Cuprous oxide imparts ————— colour to
glass.
a. Red 65. Which of the following can be added to
b. Violet cement to delay its setting action?
c. Yellow a. More water
d. Blue b. More sand
c. More gypsum
d. More Calcium carbonate
60. Which are used in plastic to separate the
polymer chain by a great distance to make
crystallization difficult? 66. The strength of tensile members is not
a. Pigments influenced by
b. Hardeners a. type of fabrication
c. Fillers b. net area of cross section
d. Plasticizers c. length of plate
d. length of connection
61. The process of direct transmission of heat
through a material is known as
67. Which one is not used as air entraining
a. Conduction agents?
b. Radiation
a. Alumina
c. Convection
b. Natural resins
d. Evaporation
c. Fat
d. Oil

19 NG 23 (GROUP B)

68. Which temple has an apsidal end ? 75. Who designed the ‘Walking city’?
a. Lad Khan temple, Aihole a. Warren Chalk
b. Durga Temple, Aihole b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Virupaksha temple, Aihole c. Michael Webb
d. Mallikarjuna temple, Aihole d. Ron Herron

69. The stalactite vaulting in the mosque is 76. The Jaipur column and the star atop in
called as Rashtrapathi bhavan, New Delhi is made of
————— respectively.
a. Mihrab
a. Concrete and Sandstone
b. Dikka
b. Sandstone and Glass
c. Muqurna
c. Concrete and Granite
d. Sahn
d. Granite and Limestone

70. The council hall is called as
77. Which building won the aga khan award for
a. Triclinium architecture in 1996 - 1998 cycle?
b. Tablinum a. Vidhan Bhavan, Bhopal
c. Stoa b. Capital Complex, Dhaka
d. Bouleuterion c. Amdavad ni Gufa, Ahmedabad
d. Bahai Temple, New Delhi

71. ‘Caulicoli’ feature is found in
a. Doric Capital 78. Electronics corporation of India Ltd,
b. Ionic Capital Hyderabad is designed by
c. Corinthian capital a. Charles Correa
d. Spires b. B.V.Doshi
c. Raj Rewal
d. A. Kanvinde
72. A high raised platform reserved for the clergy
in the church is
a. Bema 79. Which of the following is an octagonal tomb
b. Chancel made of tapering brick masonry walls?
c. Apse a. Sher shah Suri’s tomb
d. Vestibule b. Iltumish’s tomb
c. Jehangir’s tomb
d. Rukh- E- alam’s tomb
73. Which of the following building has a sloped
vaulted roof?
a. Diwan – I – aam, Fatehpur Sikri fort 80. World’s tallest building is
b. Diwan – I – khas, Agra fort a. Taipei 101, China
b. Bhurj khalifa, Dubai
c. Diwan – I – khas, Lahore fort
c. Shanghai Tower, China
d. Diwan – I – aam, Red fort
d. One World Trade Center, USA

74. Which vaulting is used in Henry VII Chapel,
Westminster? 81. Belapur Housing,Navi Mumbai by Charles
Correa is an example of
a. Sexpartite
a. Clustered organization
b. Barrel
b. Organic organization
c. Fan
c. Radial organization
d. Quadripartite d. Grid organization

NG 23 (GROUP B) 20

82. Which one of the following architects is part 88. Shape grammar in architecture is a design
of “Archigram Movement” process through
a. Walter Gropius a. Shapes and transformation
b. Peter Cook b. Only forming initial shape
c. Christopher Alexander c. Only subtraction
d. Standardization of shapes
d. Peter Eisenmann

89. One of the fractal type, Seirpinski carpet
83. Which one of the following is an example for starts with ————— basic shape.
Post-Modern Architecture?
a. Dodecahedron
a. Gustavo Capanema Palace b. Circle
b. Abbey Church c. Square
c. Vanna Venturi House d. Equilateral triangle
d. Hampton Court Palace

90. The term “Fractal” is coined by
84. A Pattern language book provides a. Oscar Niemeyer
a. 233 patterns b. Felix Hausdorff
b. 253 patterns c. Helge Von Koch
c. 243 patterns d. Benoit Mandelbrot
d. 263 patterns
91. The example for Responsive facade is
a. Al Bahar Towers,Abu Dhabhi
85. Parti diagram illustrates
b. Vitra Design Museum, Weil am Rhein,
a. Abstract notions and contains scaled Germany
comparison of volumes
c. Tel Aviv Museum of Art, Israel
b. Elements in relation to building form d. Kaohsiung Port terminal, Taiwan
after the design is completed
c. Sensorial or Experiential aspects of
design concept 92. The unit of illuminance is
d. Simple illustration debiting overall a. lumen
concept of design b. lux
c. foot candle
d. percentage
86. In the field of digrammatic reasoning, ‘‘The
Set and the Script in Architecture: The
Manhattan Transcripts’’ is a theoretical 93. For a three phase connection, the voltage for
visual work done by residential facilities would be,
a. Cedric Price a. 240
b. Peter Cook b. 415
c. 230
c. Bernard Tschumi
d. 400
d. Thomas Heatherwick

94. Class B fire refers to fire caused by
87. Which city is known as blue city of India?
a. Solid materials
a. Jaipur b. flammable liquids and gases
b. Udaipur c. Appliances and electrical equipments
c. Jaisalmer d. Metallic substances.
d. Jodhpur

21 NG 23 (GROUP B)

95. In dry riser system, the inner diameter of the 101. The distance between 2 lamp post is
pipe shall not be less than a. Less than 2 times the height of the pole
a. 50 mm b. 2.5 – 3 times the height of the pole
b. 75 mm c. More than 4 times the height of the
c. 100 mm pole
d. 80 mm d. Equal to the height of the pole

96. In a transformer, efficiency is calculated as 102. The luminous efficacy of LED lamps is
a. Output/input a. 100 lm/W
b. Input / output b. 150 lm/W
c. (Output /input )*100 c. 300 lm/W
d. (Input / output) *100 d. 220 lm/W

97. Which refrigerant is banned in India? 103. The maximum reverberation time in an
unoccupied, furnished classroom with a
a. R22
volume under 10,000 cubic feet is
b. R410 A
a. 0.6 secs
c. R290
b. 1.5 –2 secs
d. R32
c. 2 -2.5 secs
d. 3 secs
98. The unit of color rendering index is indicated
by
104. Duany Plater Zyberk formulated
a. percentage
a. New urbanist neibourhood concept
b. number
b. Incremental housing concept
c. mm
c. Energy efficient housing concept
d. cm
d. Self-sufficiency in housing

99. Humidification means 105. Transit oriented development was
a. Removal of water from air conceptualised by
b. Greatest amount of water vapor a. Manual Castells
contained in air b. Peter Calthorpe
c. Act of increasing moisture content in c. Christopher Alexander
air d. Tony Garnier
d. Act of increasing temperature in air

106. As per Ministry of Housing and Urban
100. In air conditioning systems, the following is Affairs, the bench mark for Urban water
considered to be most efficient supply is
a. VAV a. 135 lpcd
b. VRV b. 165 lpcd
c. CAV c. 30 lpcd
d. CVV d. 65 lpcd

NG 23 (GROUP B) 22

107. Per capita open space in Mumbai is 112. Private sector participation is built into
a. 1.2 sq.m ————— scheme
a. Valmiki-Ambedkar AWAS yojna
b. 10 sq.m
b. PMAY
c. 5 sq.m
d. 2 sq.m c. Integrated housing and slum
development programme
d. Development scheme for small and
108. Space standards for residential local street as
medium towns
per UDPI guidelines is
a. 20 to 30 m
b. 10 to 20 m 113. Which of the following Integrated townships

c. 30 to 30 m is in Chennai

d. 6 to 10 m a. Tata city

b. Dwaraka

109. Rental housing is an example for affordable c. SPR city
housing at d. Garodia nagar
a. Belapur, Mumbai
b. ZED homes, Bangalore
114. Detrimental effects of open ground storey can
c. Aarusha homes, Hyderabad be avoided by
d. Yerawada, Pune
a. Partial height infill wall
b. Introducing braced frames in the open
110. Which of the following project land owners storey
pooled their land and created township
c. Discontinuing RC wall in the ground
a. Bhardachalam township floor
b. Margapatta township
d. Introducing offsets in the floors above
c. Hiranandini, Panvel
d. Virar, Mumbai
115. Which of the following organisations
launched a programme on 10,000 housing
111. Which of the following Architects is a pioneer
units by 10 different teams in Navi Mumbai?
in community participation and autonomy in
a. HUDCO
housing design and construction?
b. DDA
a. John F C Turner
c. CIDCO
b. Vinod Gupta
c. Shigeru Ban d. SPARCH

d. Tanmay Tathagat

—————————

23 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

09 – AGRICULTURAL AND IRRIGATION ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The Gudgeon pin of an engine piston is made 62. A man can develop
up of a. 0.1 HP
a. Bell metal b. 0.5 HP
b. Cast iron c. 0.75 HP
c. Aluminium alloy d. 1.0 HP
d. Case hardened steel

63. Medium size bullock can develop
57. The speed range of a medium speed engine is a. 0.50 to 0.75 HP
a. Less than 350 rpm b. 0.75 to 1.0 HP
b. Between 350 and 1000 rpm c. 1.0 HP to 1.25 HP
c. Between 1001 and 1500 rpm d. 1.25 to 1.5 HP
d. More than 1501 rpm

64. The largest wind power plant in India is in
58. The camshaft controls the state of

a. Valve Closing a. Tamil Nadu
b. Rajasthan
b. Valve Timing
c. Gujarat
c. Valve Opening
d. Maharashtra
d. All of the above

65. In two stroke cycle engine, one power stroke
59. Tilt angle of a standard disk plough varies
is obtained after every
from
a. Half revolution of crankshaft
a. 15° – 25°
b. One revolution of crankshaft
b. 25° – 35°
c. Two revolution of crankshaft
c. 35° – 40°
d. Three revolution of crankshaft
d. 40° – 45°

66. The carburetor of an engine is used to mix
60. An instrument used to measure soil fuel with
compaction is a. Air
a. Hydrometer b. Water
b. Cone Penetrometer c. Oil
c. Tachometer d. None of the above
d. Hygrometer

67. The cross sectional area of one cylinder of an
61. A ridger is used for engine multiplied by its stroke is
a. Clod crushing a. Clearance volume
b. Making channel b. Combustion volume
c. Mulching c. Swept volume
d. Seed bed preparation d. Piston volume

NG 23 (GROUP B) 24

68. A power tiller operates most satisfactory with 74. The ratio of volume of pores to volume of
a. Reaper solids is
b. M B plough a. Porosity
c. Disc harrow b. Void ratio
d. Rotary tillage tool
c. Particle density
d. None of the above
69. Function of transmission system is
a. To transmit the power from engine to
rear wheel 75. Water held by the force of surface tension is
b. To reduce the crankshaft speed to give a. Gravitational
desired speed
c. To transmit power through right angle b. Hygroscopic
d. All of the above c. Capillary
d. None of the above

70. Essential feature of good clutch is its
a. Ability to taking load without dragging
76. Infiltration rate is generally lower in soils of
and chattering
b. Capacity to transmit maximum load a. Heavy texture
without slipping b. Light texture
c. High resistant to friction and easy
control by hand or pedal lever c. Medium texture
d. All of the above d. None of the above

71. Which among the following is an assumption 77. Which of the following is a non-recording rain
of Hagen - Poiseuille equation?
gauge?
a. Fluid is uniform
b. Fluid is laminar a. Weighing type
c. Fluid is turbulent b. Tipping Bucket
d. Fluid is compressible c. Simon’s
d. Float type
72. A rectangular pontoon is 5m long, 3m wide
and 1.40m high. The depth of immersion of
the pontoon is 0.60m in seawater. If the 78. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
centre of gravity is 0.7m above the bottom of
a. runoff and time
the pontoon, determine the metacentric
height. The density for seawater = 1045 b. infilteration rate and time
kg/m3. c. groundwater flow and time
a. 0.850 m
d. rainfall and time
b. 0.543 m
c. 1.350 m
d. 0.271 m
79. Which one of the following is NOT a direct
stream flow measurement technique?
73. The continuity equation is based on the a. Dilution method
principle of conservation of
b. Area-velocity method
a. mass
b. momentum c. Slope-area method
c. energy d. Ultrasonic method
d. force

25 NG 23 (GROUP B)

80. The length of a chain is measured from 86. Porosity is calculated by the formula
a. centre of one handle to centre of other a. 1 + (BD/PD)
handle b. 1 + (PD/BD)
b. outside of one handle to outside of c. 1 – (PD/BD)
other handle d. 1 – (BD/PD)
c. outside of one handle to inside of other
handle
87. Which of the following crops is low sensitive
d. inside of one handle to inside of other to moisture stress?
handle a. Citrus
b. Maize
c. Cotton
81. The maximum tolerance in a 20m chain is
d. Paddy
a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 5 mm 88. Based on loose chemical bonds what is the
name of the part of field capacity water
d. 8 mm
a. Hygroscopic water
b. Gravity water
82. Which of the following methods of offsets c. Capillary water
involves less measurement on the ground? d. Residue water
a. method of perpendicular offsets
b. method of oblique offsets 89. What are the types of sediment load?
c. method of ties a. Bedload and Suspended load
d. all involve equal measurement on the b. Bedload and Dissolved load
ground c. Bedload, Dissolved load and Suspended
load
d. Suspended load and Dissolved load
83. The intensity of wind erosion is affected by
a. Wind speed
90. In no wind condition, the lateral spacing in a
b. Soil particle size
sprinkler system should be
c. Soil structure a. 100 m
d. All of the above b. 65% of the wetted diameter
c. 45% of the wetted diameter
d. 125m
84. Contour farming is recommended for lands
with slope range of
a. 2 – 7% 91. Who is the Father of modern drip irrigation?
b. 12 – 24% a. Simcha Blass
c. 7 – 12% b. Hazen Williams
c. Darcy Wiesbach
d. 0 – 5%
d. Bavarlal Jain

85. Universal Soil Loss Equation was developed
92. Modified Hooghoudt’s equation for the
by
computation of drain spacing is applicable to
a. Wischmeier and Smith a. Homogeneous soils
b. Muskingam b. Anisotropic soils
c. Williams c. Heavy clay soils only
d. Horton and Strahler d. Layered soils

NG 23 (GROUP B) 26

93. The area of land draining into a watercourse 99. Specific yield is a property of
at a given location is known as a. Confined aquifer
a. Catchment area b. Semi-confined aquifer
b. Drainage area c. Unconfined aquifer
c. Drainage basin d. All of the above
d. All of the above

100. In forced air drying method, the moisture
94. Which type of following drains is used for moves from
small quantity of water removal? a. Grain to air
a. Blind inlet b. Centre to grain surface
b. Shallow surface drains c. Air to grain
d. All of the above
c. Deep surface drains
d. Open drains
101. The recommended drying air temperature of
a LSU dryer for raw paddy is about ————
95. Field capacity of a ground aquifer equals °C
a. specific yield a. 80
b. 100 – specific yield b. 75
c. 100/ specific yield c. 70
d. specific yield / 100 d. 60

96. Water wells excavated through confined 102. In a mixing type of columnar type continuous
aquifers are known as flow dryer, drying air temperature is
a. artesian wells a. 65°C
b. 70°C
b. non-artesian wells
c. 75°C
c. gravity wells
d. 80°C
d. water table wells

103. Statement 1 : Grinding laws are based on
97. The line joining the static water levels in the energy required for
several wells excavated through a confined creation of new surface area.
aquifer is known as the Statement 2 : Leaching requires size
a. cone of depression reduction
b. piezometric surface a. True, False
c. perched water-table b. True, True
d. hypsometric curve c. False, False
d. False, True

98. The volume of water discharged per unit time
is 104. Which of the following mechanical conveyors
does not come under the division ‘Carriers’ ?
a. Drawdown
a. Belt conveyor
b. Well yield
b. Bucket elevator
c. Specific capacity
c. Screw conveyor
d. Hydraulic gradient d. None of the above

27 NG 23 (GROUP B)

105. Which of the following is the use of 111. CIPHET is located in
Centrifugal separation? a. Ludhiana
a. Clarification b. Bhopal
b. Skimming c. Trivandrum
c. Bactofuge treatment d. Mysore
d. All of the above

106. What is the maximum storage period of food 112. The farming management strategy based on
grains in rural godowns? observing, measuring and responding to
temporal and special variability to improve
a. 2 months
agricultural production sustainability is
b. 5 months
called
c. 10 months
a. Smart agriculture
d. 15 months.
b. Climate smart agriculture
c. Precision agriculture
107. As per NABARD’s model scheme for setting d. Ultratech agriculture
up rural godowns, a capacity of medium type
rural godown should be
a. 50, 100 and 250 MT 113. Which resolution refers to the size of one
b. 500, 1000 and 2000 MT pixel to the ground of the image acquired
c. 2500, 2600 and 2800 MT with a drone?
d. > 3500 MT a. Spatial
b. Spectral
c. Temporal
108. Safe storage moisture level of food grain crops
d. None of the above
is generally in the range of ————— for a
safe storage period of 6 – 12 months.
a. 4 to 6%
114. The full form of NWDPRA is
b. 8 to 9%
a. National Wasteland Development
c. 10 to 12%
Project for Rainfed Areas
d. 13 to 14%
b. National Watershed Development
Project for Rainfed Areas
109. Which of the following reactions commonly c. National Watershed Development
does not depend upon sunlight? Project for Rural Areas
a. conversion from ergosterol to d. National Watershed Development
cholecalciferol Programme for Rainfed Areas
b. rancidity of oils
c. protein denaturation
d. chlorophyll degradation 115. The cultivable command area of a medium
irrigation project is
a. 1000 – 2000 hectares
110. Who is regarded as a Father of Canning?
b. 2000 – 10000 hectares
a. Nicolas appert
c. 500 – 1000 hectares
b. Louis Pasteur
d. 10000 – 15000 hectares
c. John Hall
d. Bryan Dokin

—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 28

PART III

10 - BIO-TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. B.subtlis culture is inoculated with 1g of cells 61. Anaerobic bio-reactor is 2m diameter. For
into 1 liter bioreactor containing 16 g/l of efficient aeration depth recommended is
glucose. The specific growth rate during log a. 3m
phase is 0.693/h. The biomass yield from b. 1m
glucose is 0.5 g/g. After 3 hours, the amount
c. 2m
of residual glucose concentration would be
d. 4m
a. 8 g/l
b. 4 g/l
c. 2 g/l 62. In ideal continuous flow stirred tank reactor,
d. 1 g/l the composition of the exit stream
a. is same as that in the reactor
b. is less than that in the reactor
57. In the presence of maintenance requirements,
c. is more than in the reactor
the biomass yield (YX/S )
d. cannot be predicted
a. increases with decline in specific
growth rate
b. decreases with decline in specific 63. If k is the rate constant, the half-life period of
growth rate a first order reaction is given by
c. remains unchanged with decline in a. 1.5k
specific growth rate b. 2.5k
d. initially increases and then decreases c. 0.693/k
with decline in specific growth rate d. 6.93k

58. The Effectiveness factor for diffusion 64. The major advantage of steam sterilization
controlled reaction in a porous catalyst over dry heat sterilization is that steam
a. increases with increasing size of the sterilization:
catalyst a. can be used for the sterilization of
b. decreases with increasing size of the anhydrous materials
catalyst b. kills a greater spectrum of organisms
c. is independent of the size of the c. is not as destructive to materials
catalyst
d. sterilizes in less time
d. is independent of the Thiele modulus

65. Fed-batch process is a desirable mode of
59. Airlift reactor is suitable for reactor operation is case of
a. anaerobic process a. substrate-inhibited growth
b. for less viscous broth b. product-inhibited growth
c. for more viscous broth c. shear-sensitive cultures
d. aerobic process d. exo-polysaccharide production

60. A first order reaction requires two equal sized 66. Culture prepared by inoculating cells directly
CSTR, the conversion is from the normal tissue of an organism to
a. less when they are connected in series culture media is
b. more when they are connected in series a. Primary cells
c. more when they are connected in b. Immortalized cells
parallel c. Cell lines
d. same whether they are connected in d. Transformed cells
series or parallel

29 NG 23 (GROUP B)

67. Which one of the followings is not true about 73. Fluidity of cell membrane is due to the
chloroplast and mitochondria? presence of
a. Both of them contain their own DNA a. Hyaluronic acids
b. Both of them contain circular DNA b. Cholesterol
c. Both of them contain their own c. Polysaccharides
ribosome d. Peripheral proteins
d. Both of them contain linear DNA
74. The cell that expresses messenger molecule
68. Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and and also produces receptors for the same is
microtubules are collectively referred as a. Paracrine
a. Profilaments b. Heterocrine
b. Cytoskeleton c. Autocrine
c. Lamins d. Endocrine
d. Cytokeratin
75. The proteins which mediate precise fusion in
vesicular transport in the cell are
69. Large size molecules like hormones and
a. SNARE proteins
cholesterol are taken up by the cells through
b. Rab proteins
the process of
c. Ras proteins
a. Active transport
d. Cdk proteins
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Passive transport
d. Endocytosis 76. CO2 is primarily released from the following
metabolic reaction
a. Urea cycle
70. Vesicles are made when part of the b. TCA cycle
membrane pinches off from
c. Cori cycle
a. Nucleus d. Glycolysis
b. Golgi Complex and ER
c. Mitochondria
77. An apoenzyme is a
d. Lysosome
a. Inactive Protein portion of an enzyme
b. Non-protein component of enzyme
71. For each ATP molecule hydrolysed by Na+/K+ c. Complete active enzyme with coenzyme
ATPase d. Inactive enzyme with coenzyme
a. 3Na+ are transported into the cell and
2K+ are transported out of the cell
78. Which one of the following metabolic
b. 3K+ are transported into the cell and
pathways converts lactate into glucose?
2Na+ are transported out of the cell
a. Cori cycle
c. 3Na+ are transported out of the cell and
b. TCA cycle
2K+ are transported into the cell
c. Glyconeogenesis
d. K+ are transported out of the cell and
d. Glycogenolysis
2Na+ are transported into cell

79. Enzymes synthesised in various tissue that
72. Phosphorylation of Retinoblastoma protein
differ in amino acid sequence but catalyze the
allows cell cycle to allow
same biochemical reaction are called as
a. G1-S Transition
a. Allosteric enzymes
b. G0-G1 Transition b. Abzymes
c. S-G2 Transition c. Isomerase
d. G2-M Transition d. Isoenzymes

NG 23 (GROUP B) 30

80. Which one of the following amino acid 86. Which technique cannot be used for the
residues in the protein often gets detection of a microdeletion in
phosphorylated? Y chromosome?
a. Alanine a. Karyotyping
b. Tyrosine b. PCR
c. Microarray
c. Glycine
d. Hybridization
d. Histidine

87. Which of the following is used as a rate
81. The adherence of erythrocytes to viral enhancer in nucleic acid hybridization?
proteins is called a. Dried milk
a. Hemadsorption b. Heparin
b. Interference c. Dextran sulphate
c. Expression d. Urea
d. Immunogenicity
88. Which one of the following is not a
thermostable enzyme?
82. The scientist who discovered aerobic nitrogen
a. Taq polymerase
fixing bacteria
b. DNA polymerase III
a. Winogradsky
c. Pfu Polymerase
b. Beijernick d. Vent polymerase
c. Behring
d. Pasteur 89. Which technique can be used to detect
specific DNA sequence?
83. The rare amino acid which is seen in the a. Southern blotting
peptidoglycan cell wall is b. Northern blotting
a. L alanine c. Microarray
b. L glutamic acid d. RT-PCR
c. D glutamic acid
d. D leucine 90. Which statement is correct for Amplified
Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)?
a. PCR using a combination of random
84. Which one of the following is not a function of and gene specific primers
lipo polysaccharides (LPS)? b. PCR amplification followed by
a. LPS contributes to the negative charge digestion with restriction enzymes
of the bacterial cell surface c. DNA digestion with restriction
b. LPS stabilize the outer membrane enzymes followed by PCR with one
primers
structure
d. DNA digestion using restriction
c. Lipid A portion entering the blood enzymes followed by PCR with two
stream can cause septic shock primers
d. LPS allows passage for the entry of
antibiotics, bile salts, detergents etc.
91. Which one of the following is not true about
Yeast centromere plasmids (YCps)?
85. Which one of the following has optimal a. Is a Low copy vector
growth at a water activity of less than 0.85? b. Replicates like they are independent
a. Xerophiles chromosome
c. Not stable without integration
b. Osmotolerant
d. Contain ARS (Autonomous Replicating
c. Neutrophiles
Sequence) with part of CEN
d. Psychrotolerant (centromere sequence)

31 NG 23 (GROUP B)

92. The second primer in 5’ RACE is 97. Which one of the following is the co-receptor
a. Internal primer that is expressed by helper T cells?
b. Oligo dA sequence a. CD 8
c. Adaptor oligo dT primer b. CD 4
d. Oligo dT adaptor molecule c. CD 40
d. CD 80
93. A student tried to clone two genes A and B
independently for overexpression and 98. The peroxidase positive granule of neutrophil
purification in E. coli. Gene B could be cloned is known as
easily but all attempts to clone Gene A failed. a. Primary granules
However, Gene A could be cloned in the
b. Azurophilic granules
plasmid containing gene B. The statements
given below were proposed to explain this c. Specific granules
result d. Secretary granules
1. Protein coded by gene B is not lethal to
the cell. 99. Poly-Ig receptors which is present on the
2. Gene A has introns, which prevents its epithelial cells, transport and secrete
expression in E. coli a. Ig M
3. Expression of the protein coded by A is b. Ig E
lethal to the cell
c. Ig D
4. The B gene product inhibits the activity
d. Ig A
of A gene product.

Which one of the following options gives 100. Asthma, Hay fever are due to
the correct combination of statements to a. Genetic disorder
explain the observed result?
b. Deficiency disorder
a. 1 and 2 c. Type I hypersensitive reaction
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. Type II hypersensitive reaction
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4 101. Somatic hypermutation in the Ig polypeptide
causes
94. The Charon series belongs to a series of a. Gene Deletion in B-cell
a. Genes b. Translocation in B-cell
b. Hosts c. Gene insertion in B-cell
c. Vectors d. Point mutation in B-cell
d. Enzymes
102. Which one of the following binds with Killer-
95. Libraries containing a particular sequence Immunoglobulin like receptors and are used
present in one organism but absent in by NK cell to recognize the target?
another organism are known as a. MHC class I molecules
a. Normalized libraries b. MHC class II molecules
b. Subtractive libraries c. HLA-DM molecules
c. Selective libraries d. MHC I and MHC II
d. Partial libraries
103. Which one of the following is the clinical
96. In fetus the lymphopoiesis occurs in marker of inflammation?
a. Liver a. Bilirubin
b. Bone marrow b. C-Reactive Protein
c. Spleen c. Ferritin
d. Thymus d. Uric acid

NG 23 (GROUP B) 32

104. Cellular activation of B-cells are triggered by 110. BLOSUM62 substitution matrix is used for
the Co-stimulatory molecule scoring
a. CD 28 a. Docking of protein-ligand complex
b. CD 4 b. Simulation of proteins
c. CD 8 c. Protein sequence alignments
d. CD 40
d. Searching of proteins
105. Lymphotoxin is also known as
a. Interleukins 111. Smith-Waterman algorithm is used for
b. Membrane proteins a. Local alignment of sequences
c. Tumor necrosis factor beta b. Global alignment of sequences
d. Haptens c. Searching of sequences
106. An algorithm that examines every possible d. Minimal alignment of sequences
alternative to find one particular solution is
112. In evolution, if the same letter occurs in two
known as
aligned sequences, then that position is called
a. Greedy algorithm
as
b. Genetic algorithm
a. Protection
c. Branch and Bound algorithm
b. Conservation
d. Exhaustive search algorithm
c. Duplication
107. Statement I: The running time and d. Deviation
Complexity of an algorithm is
denoted by Big-O notation. 113. Which one of the following statements is NOT
Statement II: An Algorithm is recursive if it TRUE? An evolutionary tree is
calls itself. a. Composed of outer branches
Which one of the following is CORRECT with representing taxa
respect to the above two statements I and II? b. Always a binary tree
a. Statement (I) is true and (II) is false
c. Composed of nodes and branches
b. Statement (I) is false and (II) is true
representing relationships among taxa
c. Both statements (I) and (II) are true
d. Having more than one branch
d. Both statements (I) and (II) are false
emanating from a node if the event
108. The Edit distance between two sequences is separating taxa are so close.
the
a. Number of matches between two 114. A graph is called complete if there is an edge
sequences a. between any one pair of vertices
b. Number of mismatches between two b. between every pair of vertices
sequences c. only between first and last pair of
c. Maximum number of editing operations vertices
needed to transform one sequence into
another sequence d. between any two pair of vertices
d. Minimum number of editing operations
needed to transform one sequence into 115. Which one of the following statements is NOT
another sequence TRUE? Hidden Markov Model is
a. Statistical model that considers all
109. In biological databases (I) GEO is a public
functional genomics data repository. possible combinations of matches,
(II) UniProt is a nucleotide sequence mismatches and gaps to generate an
database. alignment of a set of sequences
Which one of the following is CORRECT with b. Used to analyze sequence composition
respect to the above two statements I and II? and patterns
a. Both statements (I) and (II) are true c. Used for protein structure predictions
b. Statement (I) is true and (II) is false d. One where future states depend on
c. Statement (I) is false and (II) is true past given the present
d. Both statements (I) and (II) are false

—————————

33 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

11 - BIO-MEDICAL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Sodium and Potassium pumps are examples 63. Which of the following hormones increases
of the cholesterol synthesis by regulating
a. Passive transport HMG-CoA reductase?
b. Active transport a. Insulin
c. Osmosis b. Glucagon
d. Plasmolysis c. Glucocorticoids
d. Adrenaline
57. Dendrites is a part of
a. Nephron 64. The current i(t ) , through a 20Ω resistor in
b. Neuron series with an inductance, is given by
c. Red Blood cell i(t ) = 4 sin(300t + 65°) + 4 sin(100t + 45°) . Find
d. Chondrocytes the rms value of current.
a. 4A
58. The ____________ is the resident cell type in b. 2A
articular cartilage. c. 15A
a. Chondrocytes d. 8A
b. Adipocytes
c. Cardiomyocytes 65. If i1 (t ) = 20 cos(ωt + 10°) and i2 (t ) = 10 cos(ωt + 10°) ,
d. Myocytes which of the following statements is true?
a. i1 (t ) = i2 (t )
59. Which of the following cell organelles does b. i1 (t ) lags i2 (t )
not contain DNA?
c. i1 (t ) leads i2 (t )
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosomes d. i1 (t ) and i2 (t ) in-phase
c. Chloroplast
d. Mitochondria 66. Consider a DC voltage source connected to a
series RC circuit. When the steady-state
60. The chair conformation of sugar is found in reaches, the ratio of the energy stored in the
capacitor to the total energy supplied by the
a. D-glucopyranose
voltage source, is equal to
b. Sugar with SH group
a. 0.362
c. Pyranose form
b. 0.5
d. D-galactopyranose
c. 0.632
d. 1
61. The blood glucose level cannot be augmented
by muscle due to lack of
67. For a parallel RLC circuit, which of the
a. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase
following statements is not correct?
b. Glucose-6-phosphatase
a. The bandwidth of the circuit decreases
c. Aldolase if R is increased
d. Phosphofructokinase b. The bandwidth of the circuit remains
same if L is increased
62. The most abundantly found enzyme in c. At resonance, input impedance is a real
adipocytes is quantity
a. Cellulase d. At resonance, the magnitude of input
b. Protease impedance attains its minimum value
c. Amylase
d. Lipase

NG 23 (GROUP B) 34

68. For the depletion mode MOSFET amplifier 70. Consider the negative feedback system shown
shown in below Fig. VDS (sat) that defines in the below Figure with the amplifier as a
saturation region for MOSFET is given by single pole system with 3dB frequency ω0 .
The overall bandwidth of the negative
feedback system is given by

ω0
a.
1 + Aβ
b. ω0 (1 + Aβ )
ω0
c.
β
d. ω0 β

71. Consider a pn junction diode at T = 300 K in
which IS = 10−15 A and n = 1. The diode
a. VDD current for vD = +0.70 V is given by
b. VDD- VTN a. 0.49mA
b. 0.35mA
c. VTN
c. 1.22mA
d. -VTN d. 0.05mA

72. In the following circuit, the boolean
69. Assume transistor parameters of all expression at X is
transistors as β = 100 and VBE = 0.7V and
transistors Q1, Q2 are operating in linear
region. The current I1 in the circuit shown
below is

a. X = A B + ABC
b. X = A C + AC
c. X = A B + AC
d. X = ABC + A B C

73. The states in the counter are

a. 0.23mA
b. 0.45mA a. 00, 01, 10…
c. 0.5mA b. 00, 11, 01…
d. 0.11mA c. 00, 10, 11…
d. 00, 11, 10…

35 NG 23 (GROUP B)

74. In the figure below, assume 78. Consider a 4-bit DAC. The analog value
Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0 initially. The output corresponding to digital signals of values
sequence at Q1 is 0000 and 0001 are 0 V and 0.25V,
respectively. The analog value (in Volts)
corresponding to the digitals signal 1111 is,
a. 4.000
b. 3.750
c. 0.400
d. 0.375

a. 00,01,10,00,01… 79. An input triangular wave of 2Vpp (peak to
b. 00,01,10,11,00… peak) is applied to a schmitt trigger circuit.
c. 00,10,11,00,10… What will be the output waveform, if the
d. 00,01,11,00,01… upper and lower threshold voltages are
0.25V?
75. The number of flipflops required in a Johnson
ring counter to generate 8 states is a. Square Waveform
a. 2 b. Pulse waveform
b. 3 c. Sawtooth waveform
c. 4 d. Sinusoidal waveform
d. 8

76. Output of the following Circuit is 80. In signed arithmetic in 8051, adding of two
numbers 0C2H and 0AAH results in
a. Carry flag will be set
b. Carry flag will be reset
c. Overflow flag will be cleared
d. Overflow flag will also be set along
with the carry flag

81. In 8051 microcontroller, the special function
registers have address between
a. 00H to 77H
a. 17V
b. 40H to 80H
b. 3V
c. -5V c. 7FH to 80H
d. -2V d. 80H to FFH

77. The following Circuit is 82. Match the following for 8086 instruction set
A. POP 1. Bit manipulation
instruction
B. CMP 2. Data transfer instruction
C. JMP 3. Arithmetic instruction
D. SHL 4. Unconditional branching
instruction

a. High pass filter a. A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1
b. RC Oscillator b. A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1
c. Wien Bridge Oscillator c. A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
d. Low pass filter d. A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

NG 23 (GROUP B) 36

83. Match the following 87. Consider a discrete time system is described
A. TCON 1. It is used to control by y(n) + 2.5 y(n − 1) + y(n − 2) = x (n ) . Select
8051 microcontroller’s the right statement
power modes a. It can be stable as well as causal
b. It can be causal but, not stable
B. TMOD 2. It enables
SFR timer/counter and also c. It can be stable while it is anti-causal
consists of interrupt d. It can be neither stable nor causal
related bits
88. Butterworth filter meets the desired
C. PCON 3. It is used to configure frequency response specifications with ______
SFR serial port of 8051 and _________ when compared to Chebyshev
D. SCON It is used to set the
4. filter.
SFR operating modes of a. Low number of poles and wider
TIMER 8051 transition band
a. A-1,B-4,C-3,D-2 b. High number of poles and smaller
b. A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3 transition band
c. A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3 c. High number of poles and wider
d. A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4 transition band
d. Equal number of poles and wider
84. Consider a finite duration signal which is transition band
non-zero in the range (-5,6) is convolved with
another finite duration signal which is non-
89. The order of FIR filter with smallest length
zero in the range (-3,9). The resultant signal
for specifications given by pass band edge
is
frequency of 200 Hz, stop band edge
a. an infinite duration signal and non-
frequency of 250 Hz, sampling frequency of
zero in the range (-∞, ∞)
1000 Hz and attenuation band ripple of 0.002
b. a finite duration signal and non-zero in is
the range (-8,15)
a. 55
c. a finite duration signal and non-zero in
the range (-5,9) b. 66
d. an infinite duration signal and non- c. 80
zero in the range (0, ∞) d. 110

85. Let a continuous time signal x (t ) has Laplace 90. The symmetric impulse response of linear
transform X ( s ) = 1 /( s + 2) , Re{ s } < −2 . If its phase FIR filter designed as h(n ) = {–0.07,
Fourier transform is denoted as X(ω) then, –0.16, –0.23, 0.75, 0.75, –0.23, –0.16, –0.07}
a. X (ω ) = 1 /(ω + 2) is unsuitable for
b. X (ω ) = 1 /( jω + 2) a. Low pass filter
b. Band pass filter
c. X (ω ) = 1 /( e jω + 2)
c. Band reject filter
d. X (ω ) does not exist
d. High pass filter

86. Let a continuous time signal x (t ) = cos (100 πt ) 91. The maximum value of input to the FIR
is sampled at a rate 400 samples per second. system whose output is limited to 1 and
The 16 point DFT is performed with the impulse response given by {1, 2, –3, 5, –3,
samples to get X (k ) . Then, X (k ) is non-zero 2, 1} is
for a. 1
a. k=4 b. 0.4
b. k = 2, 4 c. 0.2
c. k = 2, 14 d. 0.6
d. none of the values of k

37 NG 23 (GROUP B)

92. A system has fourteen poles and two zeroes. 97. Consider that the modulation indices of AM
Its high frequency asymptote, in its and FM systems are 1 and β respectively. If
magnitude plot, has having a slope of the modulating signal is m(t ) = cos ωmt , the
a. -40 dB / decade ratio of output SNR FM and AM systems is
b. -240 dB / decade a. β
c. -280 dB / decade b. 3β
d. -320 dB / decade
c. 3β 2
93. Consider the signal flow graph shown in d. β2
Figure. The gain X5/X1 is
98. If the source emits 8 symbols with equal
probabilities then the entropy of the source is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
1 − (be + cf + dg ) d. 0
a.
abcd
99. Determine the percentage of power carried by
bedg lower side band of AM signal with
b.
1 − (be + cf + dg ) modulation index of 0.7
abcd a. 10
c. b. 20
a − (be + cf + dg ) + bedg
c. 30
a − (be + cf + dg ) + bedg d. 40
d.
abcd
100. Which of the following transducers is used in
Ultrasonic blood pressure monitor?
a. Strain gauge
94. The system with open loop transfer function
b. Piezoresistive
1 c. Piezoelectric
G ( s )H ( s ) = 2
has a gain margin of
s( s + s + 1) d. Capacitive
a. –6 dB
101. Motion artifacts in ECG signal are eliminated
b. 3.5 dB by using
c. 6 dB a. Highpass filter with cutoff frequency
d. 0 dB 20 Hz
b. Highpass filter with cutoff frequency
95. For a second order system, if the damping 0.05 Hz
ratio lies between 0 to 1, the roots of the c. Lowpass filter with cutoff frequency
characteristics polynomials are 20Hz
d. Lowpass filter with cutoff frequency
a. Complex and conjugates
0.05 Hz
b. Real and equal
102. Right leg driven circuit in a Bioamplifier is
c. Real but not equal used to increase
d. Imaginary a. CMRR
b. Gain
96. In a PCM system, if the number of bits c. Bandwidth
change from 'n' to 'n-1', the noise power d. Input impedance
increases by 103. In EEG signal, the power of alpha band is
a. 6 dB high in ____________ lobe when the eyes are
closed
b. –6 dB
a. Frontal
c. 12 dB b. Temporal
d. –12 dB c. Parietal
d. Occipital

NG 23 (GROUP B) 38

104. When the pacemaker pulse has high energy 110. The fluid has a density of 860kg/m3 and
and occurs during the vulnerable part of the kinematic viscosity of 40mm2/sec. When the
T wave then the heart is in fluid flow inside a tube with the diameter
a. Normal state 30mm with the velocity of 1.6 m/s, calculate
b. Atrial fibrillation the Reynolds number.
c. Ventricular fibrillation a. 1200
d. Low pressure b. 830
c. 400
105. In defibrillator, find the energy stored in a d. 2000
16 μF capacitor that is charged to a
potential of 5000V. To produce ventricular 111. At the time of shock absorbent, the synovial
contraction with an electric pulse, the
fluid possess ____________ type of fluid
minimum energy required is
property.
a. 80 J a. Pseudo plastic
b. 200 J
b. Thixotropic
c. 500 J
c. Dilatant
d. 312 J
d. Bingham Plastic
106. Intensity and time curve in normal muscle
signifies chronaxie is 112. The advantage of Fourth generation CT is for
a. Half the Rheobase a. Cardiac imaging
b. Double the Rheobase b. Fast imaging
c. Same as Rheobase c. Removal of Artifacts
d. Half the Chronaxie d. Multi slice imaging
107. What is the frequency range of the sound
used for ultrasound diathermy? 113. Protons in different molecules differ in all of
a. 0.75 – 1 MHz the following ways except
b. 0.1 – 0.75 MHz a. Precession frequency
c. 3 – 5 MHz b. T1
d. 5 –15 MHz c. T2
d. Gyromagnetic ratio
108. Identify the given visco elastic model
114. In MRI, what is the frequency needed to
excite spins in a xy-plane located at
z = −5.0 cm. The resonance frequency at the
isocenter is 63.85 MHz and the slice selection
gradient is 1 G/cm.
a. 63.829 MHz
b. 63.289MHz
a. Maxwell model c. 63.829 KHz
b. Kelvin-Voigt model d. 63.289KHz
c. Burgers Model
d. Standard linear solid 115. In Gamma Camera, the Pulse height
analyzer is used to
109. A brass specimen 10mm in diameter and a
length of 50mm is loaded with 20KN force in a. Reject photons that have been Compton
tension. Calculate the stress experienced in scattered
the specimen. If the elastic modulus is b. Reject photons that have been absorbed
100GPa, calculate the strain. c. Allow photons that have been Compton
a. 230MN/m2 , 2300 µ strain scattered
b. 255KPa, 2.55 µ strain d. Allow photons that have been scattered
c. 230KN/m2 , 23 µ strain
d. 255MPa, 2550 µ strain
—————————

39 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

12 – CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. For a mixing tank operating in the laminar 60. Glycerine (µ = 1.5 Pa.s and ρ = 1260 kg/m3)
regime, the power number varies with the flows at a velocity of 6.0 m/s in a 20 cm
diameter pipe. The head loss in a length of
Reynolds number (Re) as
12 m of pipe will be
a. Re–1/2
a. 3m
b. Re1/2 b. 4m
c. Re c. 6m
d. Re–1 d. 7m

61. A generalised relation for crushing is
57. The Prandtl number of a fluid is the ratio of n
d(P/m) = –K (d Ds/ Ds ). Solution of this
a. Thermal diffusivity to momentum
equation leads to Rittingers law for ‘n’ equal
diffusivity
to
b. Momentum diffusivity to thermal
diffusivity a. 1
b. 2
c. Conductive resistance to convective
c. 3/2
resistance
d. 5/2
d. Thermal diffusivity to kinematic
viscosity
62. Filtration operation when carried out by
continuous increase of the inlet pressure of
58. For laminar flow of fluid through a packed slurry is called as
bed, the valid equation is a. Constant rate filtration
a. Hagen – Poiseuille equation b. Varying pressure filtration
c. Varying rate filtration
b. Fanning equation
d. Constant pressure filtration
c. Blake – Plummer equation
d. Kozeny – Carman equation
63. The most suitable agitator for handling
fibrous and dense slurries is
a. Propeller agitator
59. A bed of spherical glass beads (density 3000
b. Cone type agitator
kg/m3, diameter 1 mm, bed porosity 0.5) is to
c. Turbine agitator
be fluidised by a liquid of density 1000 kg/m3
d. Radial propeller agitator
and viscosity of 0.1 Pa.s. Assume that the
Reynolds number based on the particle
64. The critical speed (Nc) of a ball mill is equal
diameter is very small compared to one. If
to
g = 10 m/s2, then the minimum velocity
(in m/s) required to fluidize the bed is a. (1 4π )( g R1 − R2 )1 2
a. 3.33 × 10–4 b. (1 2π )( g R1 − R2 )1 2
b. 3.33 × 10–1
c. (1 4π )( g R1 − R2 )−1 2
c. 3
d. (1 2π )( g R1 − R2 )−1 2
d. 30

NG 23 (GROUP B) 40

65. Two solids of the same volume, one of steel 68. Match the product in Group I with the
and the other of stone, are immersed in nature of reaction in Group II :
water. Which one will suffer a greater loss of Group – I Group – II
weight?
P. Polyethylene 1. Condensation
a. Steel
polymerisation
b. Stone
c. Equal for both Q. Nylon 2. Addition

d. Depends on their mass polymerisation

R. Polystyrene

a. P– 1, Q – 1, R – 2
66. Match the process in Group I with the
product in Group II b. P – 1, Q – 2, R – 1

Group – I Group – II c. P – 2, Q – 2, R – 1
d. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 2
P. DCDA process 1. Sodium hydroxide

Q. Mercury cell 2. Sulphuric acid

3. Sodium Carbonate 69. Match the process in Group I with the
catalyst used in Group II :
4. Nitric acid
Group – I Group – II
a. P – 1, Q – 4
P. Sulphuric acid 1. Platinum
b. P – 1, Q – 3
manufacture
c. P – 2, Q – 3
d. P – 2, Q – 1 Q. Vegetable oil 2. Vanadium
hydrogenation pentoxide

3. Iron
67. Match the product in Group I with the raw
material in Group II : 4. Nickel

Group – I Group – II a. P – 3, Q – 1

P. Urea 1. Ammonia and carbon b. P – 2, Q – 2
dioxide c. P – 2, Q – 4

Q. Polyester 2. Dimethyl terephthalate d. P – 4, Q – 2

and ethylene glycol

3. Ammonia and carbon
monoxide 70. If 90 g of iron react with sulphuric acid, how
many litres of hydrogen are liberated at STP?
4. Hexamethylenediamine
(Atomic weight of Fe : 55.85)
and adipic acid
a. 36.12 L
a. P – 1, Q – 4
b. 0.0361L
b. P – 1, Q – 2
c. 90L
c. P – 2, Q – 3
d. 1.62L
d. P – 2, Q – 1

41 NG 23 (GROUP B)

71. A gaseous reaction A2B + C takes place 75. Air enters an adiabatic compressor at 300 K.
isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. The exit temperature for a compression ratio
Starting with a gaseous mixture containing of 3, assuming air to be an ideal gas
50% A and the rest inert materials, the ratio ( γ = Cp/Cv = 7/5) and the process to be
of final to initial volume is found to be 1.8.
The percent conversion of A is reversible, is
a. 80 a. 300(32/7)
b. 50 b. 300(33/5)
c. 60 c. 300(33/7)
d. 70 d. 300(35/7)

72. A gas above its critical temperature can be 76. A first order gaseous phase reaction is
condensed to the liquid state by catalyzed by a non – porous solid. The kinetic
a. Reducing the temperature at constant rate constant and the external mass transfer
pressure coefficient are k and kg respectively. The
b. Increasing the pressure at constant effective rate constant (keff) is given by
temperature
a. keff = k + kg
c. By reducing the temperature at
constant pressure or by increasing the b. keff = (k + kg)/2
pressure at constant temperature c. 1/keff = (k kg)1/2
d. Cannot be condensed d. 1/keff = 1/k + 1/kg

73. A vessel of volume 1000 m3 contains air 77. For a packed bed reactor, the presence of a
which is saturated with water vapour. The long tail in the residence time distribution
total pressure and temperature are 100 kPa
curve is an indication of
and 293 K respectively. Assuming that the
vapour pressure of water at 293 K is a. Ideal plug flow
2.34 kPa, the amount of water vapour in b. Bypass
kilograms in the vessel is approximately c. Dead zone
a. 17 d. Channelling
b. 20
c. 25
d. 34
78. The following gas phase reaction takes place
in a plug flow reactor.

74. One mole of methane at 298 K undergoes A + 12 B → C
complete combustion in a stoichiometric
amount of air also at 298 K. Both the A stoichiometric mixture of A and B at 300 K
reactants and products are in the gas phase. is fed to the reactor. At 1m along the length
CH4 + 2CO2 → CO2 + 2H2O of the reactor, the temperature is 360 K. The
pressure drop is negligible and an ideal gas
ΔH0298 = −730 kJ/mol
behaviour can be assumed. Identify the
If the average specific heat of all the correct expression relating the concentration
gases/vapours is 40 J/mol K, the maximum of A at the inlet (CAO) to the concentration of
temperature rise (in K) of the exhaust gases A at 1 m and the corresponding conversion of
would be approximately
A (X)
a. 1225
a. CA = 1.2 CAO (1 – X)/(1 – 0.33X)
b. 1335
b. CA = 1.2 CAO (1 – X)/(1 – 0.5X)
c. 1525
d. 1735 c. CA = 0.83 CAO (1 – X)/(1– 0.33X)
d. CA = 0.83 CAO (1 – X)/(1 – 0.5X)

NG 23 (GROUP B) 42

79. For an isothermal second order aqueous 83. The internal energy of an ideal gas does not
phase reaction A → B , the ratio of the time change in a reversible —————— process.
required for 90% conversion to the time a. Isothermal
required for 45% conversion is b. Adiabatic
a. 2 c. Isobaric
b. 4 d. Isometric
c. 11
d. 22
84. A liquid mixture of benzene and toluene is in
equilibrium with its vapour at 101.3 kPa and
80. An isothermal aqueous phase reversible 373 K. The vapour pressures of benzene and
reaction P ←→ R is to be carried out in a toulene at 373 K are 156 and 63 kPa
respectively. Assuming that the system obeys
mixed flow reactor. The reaction rate in
Raoults law, the mole fraction of benzene in
kmol/(m3h) is given by
the liquid phase is
r = 0.5 C p − 0.125C R
a. 0.65
A stream containing only P enters the b. 0.41
reactor. The residence time required
c. 0.065
(in hours) for 40% conversion of P is
d. 0.04
a. 0.8
b. 1.33
c. 1.6 85. For an air – water vapour mixture, the
d. 2.67 partial pressure of air is 6 Pa and the total
pressure of system is 18 Pa. The mass
absolute humidity is
81. A pollutant P degrades according to first a. 0.50
order kinetics. An aqueous stream containing b. 0.31
P at 2 kmol/m3 and a volumetric flow rate of c. 0.80
1 m3/h requires a mixed flow reactor of d. 0.62
volume V to bring down the pollutant level to
0.5 kmol/m3. The inlet concentration of the
pollutant is now doubled and the volumetric 86. The Henrys law constant of O2 dissolved in
flow rate is tripled. If the pollutant level is to water is 4.06 × 109 Pa at 293 K. Determine
be brought down to the same level of the solution concentration of oxygen in water
0.5 kmol/m3, the volume of the mixed flow which is exposed to dry air at 1.013 × 105 Pa
reactor should be increased by a factor of and 293K?
a. 7
a. 1.386 × 10 −3 M
b. 6
b. 8.54 × 10 −3 M
c. 3
d. 7/3 c. 2.35 × 10 −3 M
d. 4.39 × 10 −3 M

82. What is the amount of work done by a
compressor (kJ/kmol) to compress an ideal 87. Which of the following is a unit of fraction
gas isothermally at a temperature of 25°C surface renewal rate?
from 1 bar to 10 bars? a. cm/s
a. 5706 b. ft2/hr
b. 3293 c. 1/hr
c. 57.07 d. ft2/s
d. 32.093

43 NG 23 (GROUP B)

88. For the nth tray (counted from the bottom of a 93. In distillation column sizing calculation by
distillation column), the Murphree tray short cut methods, match the following :
efficiency is given by
P. Underwood’s 1. Number of trays
a. (Yn +1 − Yn ) (Yn* − Yn −1 )
equation
b. (Yn − Yn −1 ) (Yn* − Yn −1 )
Q. Fenske’s 2. Column diameter
c. (Yn −1 − Yn ) (Yn +1 − Yn )
equation
d. (Yn* − Yn−1 ) (Yn* − Yn+1 )
R. Gilliland’s 3. Minimum number
equation of ideal trays
89. In a single stage extraction process, 10 kg of
pure solvent S (containing no solute A) is S. Vapour 4. Actual number of
mixed with 30 kg of feed F containing A at a
velocity at trays
mass fraction XF = 0.2. The mixture splits
into the extract phase E and a raffinate flooding
phase R, containing A at XE = 0.5 and
5. Minimum reflux
XR = 0.05 respectively. The total mass of the
extract phase is (in kg) ratio
a. 6.89 6. Tray efficiency
b. 8.89
c. 10 a. P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-6
d. 8.25 b. P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3
c. P-5, Q-3, R-6, S-2
90. The Lewis relation for air-water d. P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
humidification is given by ( kγ : mass transfer
coefficient of moisture in air; hG : heat
transfer coefficient; CS : heat capacity of
vapour – gas mixture) 94. A furnace is made of fire brick length
2 L = 0.5 m, k = 0.7 w/mK. For the same heat
a. hG kγ CS = 1
loss and temperature drop, another material
2
b. kγ CS hG = 1 having k = 0.14 w/mK will have its thickness
c. hG kγ CS = 1 a. 0.05 m
2
d. kγ hG CS = 1 b. 0.1 m
c. 0.2 m
d. 0.5 m
91. Which of the following surfaces has the least
emissivity?
a. Smooth glass
b. Plaster 95. Why fins are provided on a heat transfer
c. Aluminum foil surface?
d. Concrete a. increase turbulence in flow for
enhancing heat transfer
92. The specific heat of concentrated orange juice b. increase temperature gradient to
is 5.8 kJ per kg°C. How much heat must be enhance heat transfer
removed to cool 3 kg of juice from 30°C to
0°C? c. pressure drop of the fluid should be
a. 24 kJ minimized
b. 38 kJ d. surface area is maximum to promote
c. 522 kJ the rate of heat transfer
d. 600 kJ

NG 23 (GROUP B) 44

96. The unit step response of the transfer 101. Under optimal condition, the number of
(
function 1 s2 + 2s + 3 ) arithmetic operations required for
a. has a non zero slope at the origin convergence using the SOR method varies
b. has a damped oscillatory characteristic with the number of equations, n, as
c. is overdamped
a. n5 4
d. is unstable
b. n3 2

97. For feedback control system to be stable the c. n7 4
a. Roots of the characteristic equation d. n1 2
should be real
b. Poles of the closed loop transfer
function should lie in the left half of the
complex plane 102. Runge-Kutta method is used to solve the
c. Bode plots of the corresponding open —————— equation.
loop transfer function should
a. Simultaneous equation
monotonically decrease
d. Poles of the closed loop transfer b. Differential equation
function should lie in the right half of c. Linear equation
the complex plane
d. Partial differential equation

98. The time constant of a unity gain, first order
plus time delay process is 5 min. If the phase 103. The K-E model focusses on the mechanism
lag at a frequency of 0.2 rad/min is 60°, then
that affects
the dead time (in minutes) is
a. 5π 12 a. the turbulent kinetic energy
b. π 6 b. the transport of scalar fluxes
c. π 12 c. the Reynolds stresses
d. π 3 d. the cross stresses

99. An ideal PID controller has the transfer 104. In a feed-back control system G and H denote
function [1 + 1 / (0.5s ) + 0.2s] . The frequency at
open loop and closed loop transfer functions
which magnitude ratio of the controller is
1, is respectively. The output-input relationship
a. 0.5/0.2 is :
b. 0.2/0.5 a. G / (1 + H)
c. 0.2 × 0.5 b. H / (1 + G)
d. 1/ (0.2 × 0.5)1/2
c. G/H
d. H/G
100. A second order system can be obtained by
connecting two first order systems 1 (τ1s + 1)
and 1 (τ 2s + 1) in series. The damping ratio of
105. The open loop transfer function of a control
the resultant second order system for the case
system is KR/(1 + τs), This represents :
τ1 ≠ τ 2
a. >1 a. a first order system
b. =1 b. dead time system
c. <1 c. a first order time lag
d. τ 2 τ1 d. a second order system

45 NG 23 (GROUP B)

106. A packed bed has a bulk density 111. Ringelmann chart is used to assess
ρb = 510 Kg / m 3
and the particles have a a. water pollution
b. noise pollution
density ρ p = 770 Kg / m3 . The bed porosity
c. air pollution
a. 66% d. radioactive pollution
b. 51%
c. 72%
d. 34% 112. The WHO classifies biomedical waste into
a. 2 types
b. 7 types
107. Adsorption capacity of a regenerated bed c. 4 types
compared to the fresh bed is generally d. 6 types
a. Slightly less
b. Slightly more
c. Half of that of fresh bed after the first 113. If the depth of partial flow in a sewer of
regeneration diameter 2 m is 50 cm, its wetted perimeter
d. Very low compared to fresh bed will be
a. 2π 3
b. π 3
108. How is the break through concentration c. π 2
defined for adsorption in a packed bed
d. π
a. It is minimum detectable or maximum
allowable concentration in the effluent
from the bed
b. It is approximately half of the solute 114. The dilution ratio at which the odor is hardly
concentration in the feed detectable is generally called threshold odor
c. It is maximum solute concentration in number and for public supplies it should not
the effluent exceed
d. It is the maximum solute concentration a. 5
in the influent b. 7
c. 3
d. 9
109. The Entropy change for adsorption is
a. Negative
b. Zero 115. To detect the turbidity of the order 0 to
c. Positive 1000 ppm the instrument used is
d. Unity a. Holmes Turbidimeter
b. Jackson Turbidimeter
c. Baylis Turbidimeter
110. Metallic soap (eg. Aluminium or calcium salts d. Hallige Turbidimeter
of fatty acids) can be used
a. As a lubricant
b. As a rust preventive
c. In hard water for cleaning clothes
d. As a foam depressant in distillation
column
—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 46

PART III

13 – CHEMISTRY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Rate of diffusion of a gas is 61. For an equilibrium reaction, an increase in
a. directly proportional to its density temperature will
b. directly proportional to its molar mass a. increase the rate of the exothermic
c. directly proportional to the square root reaction more than that of the
of its molar mass endothermic reaction
d. inversely proportional to the square b. increase the rate of the endothermic
root of both vapour density and molar reaction more than that of the
mass exothermic reaction
c. increase both rates equally
57. A real gas is expected to behave more or less d. decreases both rates equally
ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
62. The conjugate acid of NH2− is
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure a. NH3
b. NH2OH
58. A gas undergoing expansion through a porus c. NH4+
plug exhibits neither heating nor cooling if its d. N2H4
temperature is equal to
a. Boyle temperature
b. Critical temperature
63. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by
c. Inversion temperature
mixing the solutions of
d. Consolute temperature
a. sodium acetate and acetic acid
b. ammonium chloride and ammonium
59. For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that hydroxide
a. the lowering of vapour pressure is
c. sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide
equal to the mole fraction of the solute
b. the relative lowering of vapour d. sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide
pressure is equal to the mole fraction of
solute
c. the relative lowering of vapour 64. For an acidic buffer solution, pH = pKa. It
pressure is proportional to the amount implies that
of solute in the solution a. [salt] = [acid]
d. the vapour pressure of the solution is
b. [salt] > [acid]
equal to the mole fraction of solvent
c. [salt] < [acid]
d. [salt] + [acid] is minimum
60. A semipermeable membrane used in the
measurement of osmotic pressure of a
solution allows the passage of
a. solvent molecules through it 65. The unit of rate of a reaction is
b. solute molecules through it a. s −1
c. both solvent and solute molecules mol s −1
b.
through it
d. either solvent or solute and not both c. mol L−1 S −1
through it
d. mol −1 Ls −1

47 NG 23 (GROUP B)

66. For a First order reaction, the plot of log [A]t 73. The negative catalyst retards the speed of a
versus t is linear with a reaction because,
a. positive slope and zero intercept a. it lowers the activation energy of the
b. positive slope and nonzero intercept reaction
c. negative slope and zero intercept b. it deactivates the reactant molecules
d. negative slope and nonzero intercept c. it decreases the speed of reactant
molecules
d. it deactivates the product molecules
67. The point at which all the three phases of a
system exist is known as,
a. Triple point 74. Which one of the statements is true?
b. Sublimation point a. Catalyst changes equilibrium
concentration
c. Vapor point
b. A catalyst increases forward reaction
d. Eutectic point
and decreases backward reaction
c. Composition of equilibrium mixture is
68. The condense phase rule is given as not changed by the catalyst
a. F = C−P+2 d. Pressure change does not change the
b. F = C − P +1 equilibrium concentration
c. F = C+P−2
d. F = C + P −1 75. In solution, the hydrogen ion exists as,
a. H+
69. For single component system the number of b. either H + or H −
phases for a single degree of freedom is, c. H + surrounded by water molecules
a. 0 d. H3 O +
b. 2
c. 1
76. Which one of the following sets of quantum
d. 3
numbers represents an impossible
arrangement?
70. Which of the following statements is true n l ml ms
about Galvanic cell? a. 3 2 –2 1/2
a. Left electrode is cathode b. 4 0 0 1/2
b. Right electrode is anode c. 3 2 –3 1/2
c. Left electrode is positive terminal d. 5 3 0 –1/2
d. Right electrode is positive terminal

77. The outermost electronic configuration of the
71. The electric charge for electrode deposition of most electronegative element is
one gram equivalent of a substance is, a. ns2
a. One ampere per second b. ns2 np4
b. 96500 coulombs per second c. ns2 np5
c. One ampere for one hour d. ns2 np6
d. Charge on one mole of electrons
78. Which one of the following isotopes is used in
72. Units of Faraday are, determination of the age of dead plants and
a. amperes animals?
b. C a. 6C12

b. 6C13
c. C mol −1
c. 6C14
d. C sec −1 d. 1H2

NG 23 (GROUP B) 48

79. The electronegativity of the following 85. According to the VSPER theory, the molecule
elements increases in the order IF5 has a shape of
a. C, N, Si, P a. trigonal bipyramid
b. N, Si, C, P b. tetrahedron
c. P, Si, N, C c. pentagonal bipyramid
d. Si, P, C, N d. octahedron

80. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al 86. Mineral that does not contain Aluminium is
and Si are in the order a. Feldspar
a. Na < Mg > Al < Si b. Fluorspar
b. Na > Mg > Al > Si c. Cryolite
c. Na < Mg < Al > Si d. Mica
d. Na > Mg < Al > Si

87. The oxide of nitrogen isoelectronic with CO2
81. Amongst the following elements, the one is,
having the highest ionization energy is a. NO
a. [Ne] 3s2 3p1 b. N2O3
b. [Ne] 3s2 3p3 c. NO2+
c. [Ne] 3s2 3p2
d. N2
d. [Ne] 3d10 4s2 4p3

88. The highest oxidation state of nitrogen is
82. In the periodic table, electronegativity of achieved in
elements
a. nitrogen dioxide
a. decreases (i) from left to right across a
b. dinitrogen trioxide
period and (ii) on descending a group
c. dinitrogen tetroxide
b. decreases from left to right across a
period and increases descending a d. dinitrogen pentoxide
group
c. increases from left to right across a 89. How many unit cells share a unit cell, in a
period and decreases descending a face-centred cubic (fcc) lattice?
group
a. 4
d. increases (i) from left to right across a
period and (ii) on descending a group b. 2
c. 8
d. 6
83. The compound with no dipole moment is
a. methyl chloride
90. Which type of crystal is formed by a
b. carbon tetrachloride
combination of a cation and anion?
c. methylene chloride
a. metallic
d. chloroform
b. ionic
c. dipole-dipole
84. Which of the following molecules has a d. covalent
tetrahedral shape?
a. HgCl2
91. Compound which obeys 18 electron rule is,
b. CO2
a. Mn(CO)3
c. NH4+
b. Fe(CO)4
2−
d. Ni(CN)4 c. V(CO)6
d. Cr(CO)6

49 NG 23 (GROUP B)

92. Wilkinson’s catalyst is, 98. An electrophilic reagent must have
a. (Ph3P)3RhCl a. a vacant orbital
b. (Ph3P)RhCl b. an orbital containing two electrons
c. Ph3P3RhCl c. an orbital containing one electron
d. (Ph3P)2RhCl2 d. all completely filled atomic orbitals

93. Which of the following statements about 99. The major product obtained in the
Ferrocene is not true? photobromination of 2-methylbutane is
a. it obeys 18 e-rule a. 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
b. it is diamagnetic b. 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
c. it is an orange solid c. 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
d. it resists electrophilic reaction d. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

94. The rate of radioactive disintegration follows 100. Which of the following radicals has maximum
stability?
a. First order
b. Second order a. 3
c. Zero order b. 2
d. Third order c. vinly
d. benzyl

95. A process that produces a one unit increase in
atomic number is, 101. Anti-Markownikoff addition of HBr is not
a. α emission observed in
a. propene
b. β - emission
b. butane
c. γ ray
c. 2-butene
d. electron capture d. 2-pentene

96. The compound 2,3-dichlorobutane has 102. The addition of HBr to an alkene in the
a. four stereoisomers presence of peroxide is an example of
b. two pairs of enantiomers a. electrophilic addition reaction
c. one pair of enantiomers and one meso b. nucleophilic addition reaction
compound c. free radical addition reaction
d. one pair of enantiomers and two meso d. the formation of carbanion as the
compounds intermediate

97. Which of the following orders of relative 103. The treatment of propene with Cl2 at
strength of acids is correct? 500 – 600 °C produces
a. CH3COOH > HCN > H2O > H2CO3 a. 1,2-dichloropropane
b. CH3COOH < HCN < H2O < H2CO3 b. allyl chloride
c. CH3COOH > HCN < H2O < H2CO3 c. 2,3-dichloropropene
d. CH3COOH < HCN < H2O > H2CO3 d. 1,3-dichloropropene

NG 23 (GROUP B) 50

104. The compound that is most reactive towards 110. For which of the following compounds
electrophilic nitration is enantiomer is not possible?
a. toluene a. phenyl ethane
b. benzene b. α -hydroxy propionic acid
c. benzoicacid c. 2-amino pentane
d. nitrobenzene d. 1-chloro-1-phynylethane

105. In aniline, the – NH2 group, 111. The thermal ring opening reactions of
a. activates the benzene ring via both cyclobutenes are,
inductive and resonance effects a. conrotatory
b. deactivates the benzene ring via both b. disrotatory
inductive and resonance effects c. conrotatory or disrotatory depending on
c. activates the benzene ring via the temperature
resonance effect and deactivates it via d. both conrotatory and disrotatory
inductive effect
d. activates the benzene ring via inductive
effect and deactivates it via resonance 112. Cope rearrangement is,
effect a. [2,3] sigmatropic rearrangement
b. [3,2] sigmatropic rearrangement
c. [3,3] sigmatropic rearrangement
106. The dehydration of 1-butanol gives
d. [1,3] sigmatropic rearrangement
a. 1-butene as the main product
b. 2-butene as the main product
c. equal amounts of 1-butene and 113. Which one of the following heterocyclic
2-butene compounds is not aromatic?
d. 2-methylpropene a. Pyridine
b. Pyrrole
c. Furan
107. The compound that gives a positive iodoform
test is d. Piperidine
a. 1-pentanol
b. 2-pentanone
114. Pyridine has a delocalized π molecular orbital
c. 3-pentanone containing
d. pentanal
a. 4 π e−
b. 6π e−
108. The dihedral angle between C-H in a
staggered form of ethane is, c. 8π e−
a. 240° d. 12 π e −
b. 180°
c. 120°
d. 60° 115. Pyrrole is less basic than pyridine because
the one pair of e- on N-atom in pyrrole,
a. is part of the delocalized π molecular
109. The most stable conformation of ethylene orbital
glycol is, b. is not part of the delocalized π
a. anti molecular orbital
b. gauche c. resides in sp2 hybrid orbital
c. partially eclipsed d. resides in sp hybrid orbital
d. fully eclipsed
—————————

51 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

14 – EARTH SCIENCES

(Answer ALL questions)
56. The stress developed in the top layers of the 62. What type of drainage pattern would you
rocks which disintegrate due to repeated expect to find on a volcano?
variations in temperatures is
a. dendritic
a. Tensile stress b. rectangular
b. Compressive stress c. radial
c. Shear stress
d. radical
d. Bending stress

57. Identify the pair mismatched. 63. The intermittent jumping motion of sand
a. Cold and humid – Both mechanical and grains along a river bottom is called
chemical weathering a. saltation
b. Dry and cold – Neither of them b. rippling
c. Hot and humid – Mechanical c. suspension
weathering is predominant
d. meandering
d. Hot and dry – Mechanical weathering
is predominant
64. The chemical reaction: 2Fe2SiO4 + 4H2O +
58. The particle size in a Loess is around O2 = 2Fe2O3 + 2H4SiO4 is an example of:
a. 2-3 mm in diameter a. Dissolution
b. 1-2 mm in diameter b. Hydration
c. 0.01-0.05 mm in diameter
c. Reduction
d. 0.1-1 mm in diameter
d. Oxidation
59. The type of valley formed when the incision
and denudation are approximately equal
65.
a. Saw cut valleys
b. V-shaped valleys
c. Flat-floored valleys
d. Glacial valleys

60. What is the principal method of stream
erosion and involves wearing away of the
bedrocks?
a. Hydraulic action
b. Abrasion
c. Attrition
d. Corrosion

61. The condition not favouring the formation of This pattern most closely resembles
delta is ——————— drainage
a. Absence of strong sea currents a. Dendritic
b. Presence of good quality of load
b. Rectangular
c. Slope of seashore where the stream
c. Radial
enters must be gentle
d. Trellis
d. Presence of strong sea currents

NG 23 (GROUP B) 52

66. Which of the following is not related to wind 72. A disconformity is
erosion? a. a rock unit that does not contain fossils
a. loess b. an erosional surface between igneous
b. ventifact and metamorphic rocks
c. an erosional surface between horizontal
c. deflation
sedimentary rocks
d. blowout
d. an erosional surface between different
rock types
67. New seafloor is created at a
73. Match the followings:
a. deep sea trench Type of Changes occurs
b. mid-ocean ridge preservation

c. subduction zone A. Recrystallization 1. Substitution of
original skeletal
d. transform fault material by a
secondary mineral
B. Permineralization 2. Change in crystal
68. The type of mineral showing variable colour structure
is? C. Replacement 3. Organism is
preserved as a
a. Idiochromatic residual
b. Allochromatic D. Carbonization 4. Occurs in porous
tissue
c. Iridescence
Code :
d. Pseudochromatic
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
69. Hardness of a mineral depends upon b. 2 4 1 3
a. Chemical composition c. 2 3 1 4
b. Atomic constitution d. 1 3 2 4
c. Chemical composition and atomic
74. The concordant bodies associated with
constitution
structural basins are
d. Physical makeup
a. Sills
b. Lopolith
70. The density range lies between 2.5 and 4.5 c. Laccolith
g/cc for d. Phacolith
a. Metallic minerals
75. The igneous rock with flow texture is
b. Non-metallic minerals
c. Metalloid minerals a. Gabbro
b. Pumice
d. Ore minerals
c. Rhyolite
d. Basalt
71. The smallest division of geological time scale
is: 76. Which of the following is finest grain sized?
a. Eon a. Rudaceous rock
b. Era b. Arenaceous rock
c. Argillaceous rock
c. Period
d. Psephite
d. Epoch

53 NG 23 (GROUP B)

77. Identify the class to which the fold below 82. Which of the following mineral deposit is
belongs to formed exclusively by surface geological
processes?
a. Wollastonite
b. Asbestos
c. Corundum
d. Bauxite

83. The following pathfinder element is useful in
the exploration of Au
a. Class 1 a. Cu
b. Class 2 b. As
c. Class 3 c. Cr
d. Ag
d. Class 4
84. In geobotanical prospecting Lonicera-
confusais used to indicate
78. Which fault causes offset?
a. Nickel
a. Normal fault b. Arsenic
b. Reverse fault c. Copper
c. Oblique fault d. Silver
d. Dip fault
85. Polymetallic nodules are generally restricted
to the
79. Joints traverse linear structure right angles a. Continental shelf
in which type? b. Beach
c. Deep ocean floor
a. Q joints
d. Marine subsoil
b. S joints
c. B joints 86. Placer deposits are formed by:
d. T joints a. Fluid boiling
b. Magma segregation
c. Gravitational separation
80. Deposits that were formed subsequent to the d. Wall-rock alteration
formation of the host rocks are called
a. Syngenetic 87. Which of the following is a magnesium
carbonate ore?
b. Epigenetic
a. Pyrite
c. Syncgenetic
b. Malachite
d. Sinclogenetic
c. Rhodochrosite
d. Pyrolusite

81. When gravity is the agent of placing of 88. Malachite and Azurite are characteristics ore
deposit, the deposit is called minerals of
a. Deluvial deposit a. Gossan zone
b. Aeolian deposit b. Zone of oxidation
c. Alluvial deposit c. Zone of supergene enrichment
d. Protore
d. Beach placers

NG 23 (GROUP B) 54

89. Geiger Müller counter is commonly used for 96. While mapping land use and land cover,
the exploration of: which scale is recommended?
a. Bauxite deposit a. 1: 25000
b. Pb-Zn deposit b. 1: 50000
c. 1: 250000
c. Uranium deposit
d. 1: 25
d. Iron ore deposit

90. Supergene sulphides enrichment occurs: 97. Focal plane is provided at
a. Above the water table a. Point of resection
b. A depth independent of water table b. Point of intersection
c. Below the water table c. Point of contraction
d. Both above and below the groundwater d. Point of collimation
table
98. Which of the following types is remnant
91. The bulk chemical composition of a rock magnetism?
during metamorphism: a. Thermo-remnant
a. Decreases b. Chemical remnant
b. Increases c. Detrital-remnant
d. All of the above
c. Remain constant
d. Uncertain
99. The acceleration due to gravity 'g' is
minimum at
92. Remote sensing uses which of the following
waves in its procedure? a. Subtropical region
a. Electric field b. Tropical region
c. Poles
b. Sonar waves
d. Equator
c. Gamma- rays
d. Electro-magnetic waves
100. What is the process by which water enters
the small pore spaces between particles in
93. In visible region, the blue light is having a soil or rocks
wave length range of
a. transpiration
a. 0.42-0.52 micrometer b. inflitration
b. 0.24-0.52 micrometer c. precipation
c. 0.42-0.92 micrometer d. sublimation
d. 0.22-0.32 micrometer
101. What is the term for a relatively
94. Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed impermeable geologic unit?
at an altitude range of
a. an artesian
a. 7-15km b. an aquiclude
b. 7000-15000km c. an aquifer
c. 700-1500km d. none of the above
d. 70-150km
102. With respect to the Earth's land surface,
95. IRS P3 satellite uses which of the following which of the following expressions is correct?
sensors? a. precipitation = evaporation – runoff
a. PAN b. precipitation = runoff – evaporation
b. LISS-III c. precipitation = evaporation + runoff
c. MOS d. precipitation = evaporation * runoff
d. LISS-II

55 NG 23 (GROUP B)

103. Which of the following rocks has the highest 109. Which type of geological structure can be
permeability? rectified by grouting?
a. an unfractured shale a. Joints
b. a cemented sandstones b. Folds
c. an uncemented sandstone c. Faults
d. Inclined strata
d. all of these rocks have approximately
the same permeability
110. Which of the following is not a desirable of a
road stone?
104. Which type of compressive strength is taken a. Hydrophobic in nature
as the most important index property of b. Sufficient hardness and toughness
stones? c. Durability at the place of use
a. Confined d. Hydrophilic in nature
b. Drained
c. Undrained 111. Bodies of seawater of considerable volume
moving along and parallel to the shore are
d. Unconfined
called
a. Oscillatory waves
105. Which rock possesses very high compressive b. Translatory waves
strength? c. Littoral currents
a. Igneous d. Lateral currents
b. Sedimentary
112. The area between two breaker zones is called
c. Metamorphic
d. Sedimentary and metamorphic a. surf
b. breaker
c. undertow
106. The density of the rock with natural moisture d. long shore
content is
113. The movement of water to surface which is
a. Dry density
not only cold but also is nutrient rich is called
b. Wet density
a. upwelling
c. Bulk density
b. surface current
d. Natural density
c. nutrient water
d. surface water
107. The resistance offered by a stone against
rubbing action is called 114. Fresh water can be produced by removing the
a. Rubbing resistance salt from ocean water using a process called
b. Abrasive resistance a. salt water cleanup
c. Frictional resistance b. desalination
c. water purification
d. Shear resistance
d. wastewater treatment

108. In synclinal bends, dams placed on which 115. Average salinity of water of Arabian Sea is
part would run risk of leaking?
a. 55 ppt
a. Upstream limb b. 45 ppt
b. Downstream limb c. 25 ppt
c. Core d. 35 ppt
d. Sloping side
—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 56

PART III

15 – FOOD TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Which one of the following is an essential 61. Which one of the following vitamins readily
amino acid? lost during drying of food?
a. Vitamin D
a. Serine
b. Vitamin C
b. Alanine c. Vitamin B3
c. Lysine d. Vitamin K
d. Aspartic acid

62. Caramelization and Maillard reactions are
examples of
57. The major difference between incomplete and
a. Enzymatic browning
complete protein is based on
b. Lipid peroxidation
a. Digestibility c. Non-enzymatic browning
b. Amino acid content d. Browning of vegetables
c. Solubility
d. Its structure
63. The enzyme abundantly expressed during the
ripening stage of fruit development is
a. Hyaluranidase
58. Recommended daily intake of iron for adult b. Polygalacturonase
male is c. Polyphenol oxidase
a. 4 mg d. Papain
b. 8 mg
c. 70 mg
64. Resistant starch type-4 is
d. 30 mg a. Lipid bound starch
b. Heat induced modified starch
c. Hydrolysed starch
59. Dietary deficiency manifestation of biotin d. Chemically modified starch
results in
a. Dermatitis
65. The ability of the fats to be spread and
b. Tetany
shaped is termed as
c. Joint pain a. Softening of fats
d. Anemia b. Emulsification of fats
c. Solid fats
d. Plasticity of fats
60. Prebiotics are
a. Source of food for the growth or activity
66. Water content of food is measured by
of beneficial microorganisms
a. Formol titration
b. Precursor of probiotics b. Biuret test
c. Mutants of probiotics c. Karl Fischer titration
d. Having similar activity of antibiotics d. Polarimetry

57 NG 23 (GROUP B)

67. Methyl anthranilate, used as flavoring agent 73. Which of the following is said to be the
to provide flavor of “Doctor” of confectionary
a. Grape a. Invertase
b. Orange b. Mono sodium glutamate
c. Butter c. Sorbitol
d. Caramel d. Aspartame

68. Mention the test organism of penicillin 74. Dry storage means at a temperature about
detection in milk —————— and humidity below —————.
a. B. sterothermophilus (ATCC 7953) a. 20, 50-100%
b. B. pumilus (ATCC 27142) b. 20, 50%
c. B. subtilis (ATCC 6633) c. 100, 50-100%
d. B. subtilusvarniger (ATCC 9372) d. 100, 50%

69. SPS under WTO stands for 75. What is the purpose of blanching (immersing
a. Standards, prevention and specification food in hot water) vegetables during canning
b. Sanitary and phytosanitary measures a. To soften products to feel better
c. Specifications for products and b. To denature enzyme that change
supplements colour, texture
d. Safety and prevention of sickness c. To reduce microbial population
d. All of the above

70. ISO 19011: 2011 Quality management
systems deals with
76. NATO is produced from the fermentation of
a. Specifications with guidance for use
a. Milk
b. Guidelines for performances
b. Soybeans
improvements
c. Customer’s satisfaction c. Cabbages
d. Guidelines for quality and or d. Barley
environmental management system
auditing
77. Rapid heating of cream is accomplished by
injecting steam or by a combination of steam
71. How many scientific panel have been injection and evacuation in a process known
constituted in Food Authority? as
a. 16 a. Flash pasteurization
b. 7 b. Vat pasteurization
c. 9 c. Vacreation
d. 5 d. Aseptic packaging

72. As per the definition for Food under the food 78. The yellow colour in onion is due to the
act in India, Food does not include pigment of
a. Alcoholic beverages a. Lyconene
b. Caffeinated beverages b. Caraotene
c. Chewing gums c. Quereitin
d. Chewing tobacco d. Anthocyanin

NG 23 (GROUP B) 58

79. Entamoebahistolytica is a parasite 84. XYZ Company takes its customer feedback
contaminant of food responsible for very seriously. Hence when suggestions such
a. Bacterial dysentery as – food processed product should have
b. Fungal dysentery minimum loss of actual flavour, no added
colour etc., the company planned on shifting
c. Amoebic dysentery
to the latest trend in the industry called
d. Histolic dysentery
a. Minimal Optimization
b. Advanced refining
c. Minimal processing
80. Percentage of water in buffalo milk is:
d. All of the above
a. 65-67 %
b. 70-75 %
c. 80-85 %
85. The fruit of rice and wheat is called
d. 89-92 %
a. Caryopsis
b. Achene
c. Siliqua
81. Percentage of mineral matter in milk is about
d. Follicle
a. 1%
b. 0.7 %
c. 1.5 %
86. In climatic fruits during maturation
d. 0.05 %
a. Starch converted to sugars
b. Starch accumulated
c. Lipids accumulated
82. Which of the following statements are
correct? d. Proteins converted to amino acids

Statement 1 : Pulsed Electric field needs to
follow by refrigeration storing
to increase shelf life and 87. Which of the following parameter does not
change during ripening process of fruit ?
prevent spoilage.
a. Color
Statement 2 : Structural changes at cell
membrane and inactivation of b. Acidity
enzymes, is how high c. Sugar content
hydrostatic pressure works for d. Oil content
the food industry.
a. True, False
b. True, True 88. Which of the following is NOT a step in Black
c. False, False tea manufacture?
d. False, True a. Drying/Firing
b. Rolling
c. Withering
83. Which of the following combination of d. Lump formation
processing and preservation techniques
works best for smoked products?
a. Salt and acidification 89. Which is the effect of Ionizing radiation on
b. Heat and solid content the thickness of albumin?
c. Heat, salt, acidification/minimal a. Increases
moisture content b. Decreases
d. Heat, salt, dipping in brine/minimal c. Remains constant
moisture content d. None of the above

59 NG 23 (GROUP B)

90. The edible fleshy part of mango is called 95. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a
a. Pericarp liquid, is

b. Mesocarp a. Directly proportional to the area of the
c. Endocarp vessel containing liquid

d. Epicarp b. Directly proportional to the depth of
liquid from the surface

c. Directly proportional to the length of
91. What dairy product is made by heating milk
the vessel containing liquid
along with substance called rennet?
d. Inversely proportional to the depth of
a. Cheese
liquid from the surface
b. Butter
c. Chakka
d. Ghee 96. When the flow in an open channel is
gradually varied, the flow is said to be

a. Steady uniform flow
92. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynolds
b. Steady non-uniform flow
number is
a. Less than 2000 c. Unsteady uniform flow

b. Between 2000 and 4000 d. Unsteady non-uniform flow

c. Between 4000 and 5000
d. Between 5000 and 6000
97. Property of a fluid by which molecules of
different kinds of fluids are attracted to each
other is called
93. A Newtonian fluid is defined as the fluid
which a. Adhesion

a. Obeys Hook’s law b. Cohesion

b. Is compressible c. Viscosity

c. Obeys Newton’s law of viscosity d. Compressibility
d. Is incompressible

98. Assuming constant temperature condition
94. Which of the following is true about and air to be an ideal gas, the variation in
Centrifugal pumps? atmospheric pressure with height calculated
a. It’s suitable for corrosive and toxic from fluid statics is
fluids a. linear
b. It has a high pressure head b. exponential
c. Priming is not needed c. quadratic
d. None of the mentioned
d. cubic

NG 23 (GROUP B) 60

99. From the given reaction. N2 + 3H2 2NH3. 103. HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
For producing 34 gms of NH3, how many For producing 1 mole of NaCl , how many
moles of NaOH are required? (Consider HCl
moles of N2 is required?
in excess)
a. 1 a. 1
b. 2 b. 4
c. 5
c. 3
d. 6.5
d. 4

104. Heat transfer by convection is evaluated as
100. For the given unbalanced reaction CaSO4 + a. The rate of heat transfer across a solid
NaCl → CaCl2 + Na2SO4. How many CaSO4 b. The temperature gradient between a
fluid and solid
in kg is required for producing 1 mole of
c. The rate of heat exchange at the
Na2SO4? Assume NaCl in excess.
interface between a fluid and a solid
a. 136 d. The rate of variation of the volume
fractions of a fluid and a solid
b. 156

c. 176

d. 196 105. Which of the following statements is NOT
CORRECT?
a. The heat transfer in liquid and gases
takes place according to convection
101. When 32gms of CH4 is burned with excess
b. The amount of heat flow through a
oxygen, how many grams of CO2 are
body is dependent upon the material of
produced? the body
a. 44 c. The thermal conductivity of solid
metals increases with rise in
b. 88
temperature
c. 132 d. Logarithmic mean temperature
d. 176 difference is not equal to the arithmetic
mean temperature difference

102. For the given combustion reaction
106. In free convection heat transfer transition
a C4H10 + b O2 → c CO2 + d H2O. What is the from laminar to turbulent flow is governed by
value of a? the critical value of the

a. 1 a. Reynold’s number and Prandtl number
b. Grashoff ’s number and Peclet number
b. 4
c. Reynold’s number and Grashoff ’s
c. 2 number
d. 6.5 d. Prandtl number and Grashoff ’s number

61 NG 23 (GROUP B)

107. Total heat is the heat required to 112. The oxygen transfer rate of packaging
a. Change vapour into liquid materials is independent of
b. Change liquid into vapour
a. Temperature
c. Increase the temperature of a liquid or
b. Relative humidity
vapour
d. Convert water into steam and super c. Material thickness
heat it d. Water activity of food

108. What is the ratio of output amplitude to
input amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing 113. An example of anti-aging additive used in
function in a first order system?
packaging materials is
a. 0
a. Sodium sorbate
b. 1
c. >1 b. Benzyl benzoate

d. <1 c. Butylated hydroxyl toluene
d. Sodium metabisulphate

109. Response of a linear control system for a
change in set point is called
a. frequency response
114. Polymers whose monomers are derived from
b. transient response
petrochemical-based monomers is
c. servo problem
a. Poly(caprolactone)
d. regulator problem
b. Polyhydroxyalkanoates
c. Polylactic acid

110. Gain margin is equal to the d. Cellulose acetate
a. Amplitude ratio
b. Reciprocal of amplitude ratio
c. Gain in P-controller
d. Gain in P-I controller 115. Transmission rate of a packaging material is
proportional to the
a. amount of permeant
111. Continuous measurement of moisture in
b. surface area
paper is done by
c. time
a. Sling psychrometer
b. Hair-hygrometer d. water activity
c. Weighing
d. High resistance Wheatstone’s bridge
circuit

—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 62

PART III

16 – GEO-INFORMATICS

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Select the incorrect statement. 60. Correction to be applied on observed distance
a. In Geodetic surveying, the true at non-uniform atmospheric condition
meridians at different places are prevailing around the instrument and the
prism is called as
parallel to each other.
a. Temperature and Atmospheric
b. The true meridian at any place is not
pressure correction
variable.
b. Atmospheric pressure and Humidity
c. In Geodetic surveying, the true correction
meridians converge to a point in c. First velocity correction
northern and southern hemispheres. d. Second velocity correction
d. The maps prepared by national survey
departments of any country are based 61. Different grades are joined together by a
on true meridian. a. Vertical curve
b. Transition curve
57. The slope correction for a length of 50m along c. Reverse curve
a gradient of 1 in 20 is d. Compound curve

a. – 6.24mm
b. – 6.24cm 62. The latitude (θ) of place and the altitude (α)
of the pole are related by
c. 6.24mm
a. θ = 90º – α
d. 6.24cm b. θ=α
c. θ = α – 90º
58. The back sight reading on a staff held vertical d. Always θ < α
on a bench mark of R.L. 100.000m, is 1.395m
and fore sight reading on a staff held 63. The cone angle within which incident energy
vertically inverted against a beam is 2.665m. is focused onto detector is called as
Determine the reduced level of the beam. a. field of view
a. 101.270m b. instantaneous field of view
c. angle of view
b. 96.940m
d. instantaneous angle of view
c. 104.060m
d. 98.730m
64. The radiation from the sun is a combination
of
59. The bearing of a line is 300º and length is a. electric and magnetic waves in two
100m, then the latitude and departure mutually perpendicular planes
respectively of the line will be b. electric and magnetic waves in two
a. –50.0m, –86.6m mutually parallel planes
c. Labert and Planck waves in two
b. +50.0m, +86.6m
mutually perpendicular planes
c. –86.6m, +50.0m d. Labert and Planck waves in two
d. +50.0m, –86.6m mutually parallel planes

63 NG 23 (GROUP B)

65. What is the measure of the radiant flux per 71. PPD refers to Polarimetric phase
unit area? a. distance
a. radiant power b. direction
b. radiance c. decomposition
c. irradiance d. difference
d. radiant intensity
72. The maximum depth up to which the Radar
energy can penetrate is known as
66. The passive energy from the sea water that
a. Bulk depth
can be observed by IR radiometers is emitted
from the depth b. Penetration depth

a. 100 µm c. Skin depth
d. Extinction depth
b. 200 m
c. 100 m
d. 200 µ 73. An image is considered to be a function of
a(x,y) where a represents
a. height of image
67. Which of the following energy is not utilized b. width of image
by LiDAR system?
c. amplitude of image
a. Shortwave infrared
d. resolution of image
b. radiowave
c. ultraviolet
74. ISODATA stands for
d. visible
a. Iterative self-organizing data analysis
technique
68. Which of the following sensors is useful to b. Interactive self- organizing data
observe the colour of the sea water? analysis technique
a. LISS c. Interpolating organizing data analysis
b. Seasat technique
d. Information organizing data analysis
c. AVHRR
technique
d. SEAWiFS

75. Which of the following filtering techniques
69. Which of the following laser systems is can be used to detect the Roads and railway
designated to extract the chemical properties line?
of target? a. Sobel filter
a. DORIS b. Roberts filter
b. ALOS c. Gaussian filter
c. DIAL d. Low pass filter
d. Laser Altimeter
76. Decorrelation refers to
70. Which of the following missions possesses the a. removal of highly correlated bands
capability of circular polarimetry? from the image
a. Radarsat b. reassign values of highly correlated
b. Sentinel pixels between two bands
c. nothing to do with band correlation
c. RISAT
d. removes the auto correlative effect
d. PALSAR
among bands

NG 23 (GROUP B) 64

77. The number of grey values are integer powers 83. The ground coverage of aerial photograph is
of: least and maximum, when the photographs
are
a. 4
a. True vertical photographs and oblique
b. 2 photographs
c. 8 b. Near Vertical photographs and oblique
d. 1 photographs
c. Near Vertical photographs and high
oblique photographs
78. Semantic net is used in d. True vertical photographs and high
a. fuzzy logic oblique photographs
b. Expert system
c. Artificial Neural Network 84. What is overlap between the 9 & 12
photographs of a strip, if the photographs
d. Boundary detection were taken with the forward overlap of 82%?
a. 82%
79. Separability of a image class depends on b. 28%
a. image statistics c. 64%
d. 46%
b. the difference in spectral property of
the image features at a particular band
85. The displacement of the statue of Liberty (to
c. number of training sites
the top of the torch) using a single photo as
d. all of the above 13.02 mm and the distance from the principal
point to the top of the torch as 14 cm. The
flying height of the mission was 1000 m. The
80. In principal component transformation of height of the statue of Liberty is
image the first principal component mostly a. 930.0m
refers to b. 93.00m
a. Overall noise c. 107.53m
b. Overall brightness d. 10.753m
c. Spatial variation
d. Spectral correlation 86. The minimum number of ground control
points required in the first model, to do the
analog aerotriangulation are
81. Expert system is a a. Two horizontal control point and three
a. set of computer program for narrow vertical control point
problem area b. Three horizontal control point and
three vertical control point
b. set of computer program for wider
c. Three horizontal control point and four
problem area vertical control point
c. set of rules d. Two horizontal control point and two
d. set of knowledge vertical control point

87. In a stereo pair of aerial photographs, the left
82. Which of the following is associated with
aerial photo base is 9.6 mm and right photo
fuzzy logic? base is 9.2 mm. The x-parallax at right photo
a. Crisp set logic principal point is
b. Many-valued logic a. 9.2 mm
b. 9.4 mm
c. Two-valued logic
c. 9.6 mm
d. Binary set logic
d. 0.4 mm

65 NG 23 (GROUP B)

88. The numerical relative orientation to be 93. The ratio in the form of 1: 1,000,000 is a
carried out in analytical stereo plotter using a. Statement Scale
collinearity condition. How many observation b. Bar Scale
equations were formed and how many c. Representative Fraction
unknown parameters were introduced, if d. Graphical Scale
eight points were measured for numerical
relative orientation?
a. 30 and 32 94. 1:1000,000 can be verbally stated as
b. 32 and 30 a. One cm to one Km
b. One m to one Km
c. 32 and 29
c. One mm to one Km
d. 29 and 32
d. One mm to one m

89. Generation of True orthophoto requires 95. The projection used to preserve shape is
a. Aerial photo, Control point, DEM and called
DHM a. Equivalent Projection
b. Aerial photo, Control point, DEM and b. Conformal Projection
DSM c. Equidistant Projection
c. Aerial photo, Control point, DEM and d. True Direction Projection
DTM
d. Aerial photo, Control point, DEM and
96. The projection used to preserve area is called
TIN
a. Equivalent Projection
b. Conformal Projection
90. Digital elevation model height plus height of c. Equidistant Projection
trees, buildings, and other features elevated d. True Direction Projection
above the bare earth is called
a. Digital Surface Model
97. The attribute levels of measurements which
b. Digital Terrain Model uses names as labels is
c. Digital Height Model a. Ordinal
d. Digital Vertex Model b. Nominal
c. Interval
91. The entire system required for advanced d. Ratio
drone operations including the aircraft,
ground control station, and communications 98. Vector data model that is not structured is
system is called known as
a. MAV a. Arc-node Topological Data Model
b. UAV b. TIN
c. UAS c. Spaghetti Data Model
d. MUAS d. DEM

92. The components of a LIDAR system are 99. Which one of following is a Vector Data File?
a. PCX
1. Scanner
b. GRID
2. GNSS
c. BMP
3. IMU
d. DLG
4. Clock
5. Total Station
100. Which one of following is a Raster Data File?
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. DLG
b. 1, 2 and 4
b. DGN
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. PNG
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5 d. CGM

NG 23 (GROUP B) 66

101. The measure of how close data are to true or 109. RADAR is sensitive to
accepted values a. alignment of the crop
a. precision b. age of the crop
b. Error c. phenology of the crop
c. Accuracy d. health of the crop
d. Uncertainty

102. The measure of how exact data are measured 110. For generating spectral signature of
and stored is vegetation species, the best data required is
a. Precision a. panchromatic
b. Error b. multispectral
c. Accuracy c. hyperspectral
d. Uncertainty d. temporal

103. Uncertainty refers to 111. The land / water interface is quite easily
a. Lack of accuracy in the data discriminated with
b. Lack of confidence in the use of data a. Optical data
c. Lack of precision in the data
b. SAR data
d. Lack of error in the data
c. Sounding data
104. The process that creates an output layer on d. RAR data
which the value of each cell is function of the
cell at the same location on the input layer is 112. Which of the following flood causing factors
a. Neighborhood operations can not be directly extracted from satellite
b. Regional operations imagery?
c. Extended Neighborhood operations a. Soil Moisture
d. Local operations b. Land cover
c. Topography of land
105. The process that create an output layer by d. Interception
identifying cells that intersect with or fall
within each region on the input layer is
a. Neighborhood operations 113. The spectral band suitable for underground
b. Regional operations coal fires in mining areas is
c. Extended Neighborhood operations a. Visible
d. Local operations b. NIR
c. Thermal
106. TIN is a d. Microwave
a. Raster Data Model
b. ER Model
114. Which of the following satellite data is useful
c. Vector Data Model for air quality monitoring?
d. Object Oriented Data Model
a. Sentinel - 1
b. Sentinel - 2
107. The GIS server is an interface between HTTP
server and c. Sentinel - 3
a. Web Browser d. Sentinel - 5P
b. HTTP documents
c. Geographic database 115. Which of the following satellite can capture
d. Web Server the reflection of ocean surface in visible
and NIR bands?
108. For land-use analysis, data captured in which a. MODIS
of the following portions of spectrum is most b. CMS
useful? c. INSAT
a. visible and infrared portion
d. GSAT
b. thermal portion
c. Microwave portion
d. UV portion
—————————

67 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

17 –INSTRUMENTATION, ELECTRONICS AND CONTROL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The effective resistance of two equal resistors 60. In a series RL circuit, VL ——————— VR
connected in parallel is equal to by ——————— degrees.
a. twice the resistance of one resistor a. lags, 45
b. ½ the resistance of one resistor b. lags, 90
c. the resistance of one resistor divided by c. leads, 90
the other d. leads, 180
d. ¼ the resistance of one resistor
61. The bandwidth of an RLC series resonant
circuit
57. According to Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law, the
algebraic sum of all IR drops and EMFs in a. Depends on its resistance and
capacitance
any closed loop of a network is always b. Depends on resonance frequency.
a. greater than unity c. Depends of Q-factor
b. positive d. All of the above

c. negative  y(z ) 
62. Transfer function of the system   with
d. zero  x (z ) 
difference equation
y(n ) − 4 y(n − 1) + 3 y(n − 2) = x (n ) + 2x (n − 1) is
58. For abstracting maximum power from any
1 − 4 z + 3z 2
a.
two given terminals of a circuit, the load 1 + 2z
resistance across the terminals should be 1 + 2z
b.
a. four times the internal resistance of the 1 − 4 z + 3z 2
1 + 2z −1
network c.
1 − 4 z −1 + 3z −2
b. less than the circuit resistance 1 − 4 z −1 + 3z −2
d.
c. equal to the circuit resistance when 1 + 2z −1
viewed back from the two terminals
d. greater than the circuit resistance 63. The fundamental period of signal
x (t ) = cos 60πt + sin 50πt
a. 0.1 Sec
59. While calculating Thevenin resistance Rth, b. 0.2 Sec
constant-current sources in the circuit are c. 0.3 Sec
d. 0.4 Sec
a. replaced by ‘opens’
b. replaced by ‘shorts’
64. Frequency response of impulse function
c. treated in parallel with other voltage contains
sources a. Only low frequencies
b. Only high frequencies
d. converted into equivalent voltage
c. Only resonant frequency
sources d. All of the above

NG 23 (GROUP B) 68

65. Convolution of x1 (t ) = tu(t ) and x 2 (t ) = u(t ) is 71. An OPAMP added circuit is constructed using
inverted amplifier configuration. If the three
a. u(t )
inputs are –2 V, +7 V and –1 V and if all the
b. tu(t ) resistors connected in the circuit are 1K, the
t2 output voltage is
c. u(t ) a. –5 V
2
b. +5 V
t3
d. u(t ) c. –4 V
3
d. +4 V
66. Number of complex multiplication required
for N-point DFT using direct computation 72. A Colpitts oscillator circuit having the value
method is of 12 nf of two capacitors connected in
a. 2N parallel with an inductor of 10mH.
b. (N − 1) Determine the frequency of oscillations.
a. 0.0486 Hz
c. N (N − 1)
b. 0.0486 kHz
d. N2 c. 20.547 kHz
d. 20.547 Hz
S 2 + 5S + 5
67. Final value of X(t) whose X (S ) =
S 2 + 7S + 2
73. In a Phase Locked Loop, the widest frequency
is given by
range among the following is
a. 0
a. lock in range
b. 5
b. free running range
c. 2
c. topped range
5 d. capture range
d.
2

68. Which of the following circuits is used to 74. A "2n:1" MUX can be used to obtain
prevent a signal from exceeding a a. Select 1 input from n inputs using
predetermined reference voltage level? 2n control lines
a. Instrumentation amplifier b. Select n inputs from 2n inputs using
1 control line
b. Rectifier
c. Select 2n inputs from n inputs using
c. Clamper
1 control line
d. Clipper
d. Select 1 input from 2n inputs using
n control lines
69. If a transistor has a β of 300 and a base
current and IB of 15 μ A , then the collector
75. Which of the following flip-flops has more
current IC is
number of don’t care conditions in its
a. 45 mA excitation table?
b. 4.5 mA a. RS flip-flop
c. 0.45 mA b. JK flip-flop
d. 0.05 μ A c. D flip-flop
d. T flip-flop
70. Which of the following is the region where
the drain current has a linear response to
76. Which one of the following provides
changes in the drain to source voltage?
protection against software lock-up?
a. Breakdown region
a. Real Time clock
b. Ohmic region b. Watchdog Timer
c. Saturation region c. Counter
d. Pinch off region d. Timer

69 NG 23 (GROUP B)

77. In an ADC, the signal EOC is 82. Identify the damping method that is
a. “Enabling of chip” and is an input preferably used with dynamometer type
signal instruments
b. “End of conversion” and is an output a. Air friction damping
signal b. Eddy current damping
c. “Enabling of chip” and is an output c. Fluid friction damping
signal d. Electromagnetic damping
d. “End of conversion” and is an input
signal
83. A dc potentiometer is designed to measure up
to about 2 volts with a slide wire of 800 mm.
78. The 8051 microcontroller has __________ bit A standard cell of emf 1.18 volt obtains
addressable SFRs. balance at 600 mm. A test cell is seen to
a. 8 obtained balance at 680 mm. The emf of the
b. 11 test cell is
c. 16 a. 1.50 volts
d. 21 b. 1.00 volts
c. 1.34 volts
d. 1.70 volts
79. An 8-bit bipolar ADC acquires an input
signal ranges from –5V to +5V. What is the
smallest input change that can cause the 84. Flux density in instrument transformers
ADC to provide one LSB change? must be designed to be
a. 39.22 mV a. sufficiently low to reduce core losses
b. 19.6 mV b. sufficiently high to reduce core section
c. 9.78 mV and hence reduce length of winding
d. 4.89 mV c. sufficiently low to prevent core
saturation
d. properly optimized to have a balance
80. A Wheatstone bridge is balanced with all the among (a)-(c)
four resistances equal to 1k Ω each. The
bridge supply voltage is100 V. The value of
85. In a CRO, the sawtooth voltage is applied at
one of the resistances is changed to 1010 Ω .
the
The output voltage is measured with a
voltage measuring device of infinite a. cathode
resistance. The bridge sensitivity is b. accelerating anode
a. 2.5 mV / Ω c. vertical deflecting plates
b. 10 mV / Ω d. horizontal deflecting plates
c. 25 mV / Ω
d. 10 V / Ω 86. The ‘dip effect’ is an effect which is observed
in ________________ apparently due to
contraction in liquid volume.
81. What are the disadvantages of PMMC
a. Mercury in steel thermometer
instruments?
b. Thermocouple
(i) The scale is uniformly divided
c. RTD
(ii) The torque-weight ratio is found to be
d. Pyrometers
high
(iii) The power consumption is very low
(iv) Instruments can be used for dc 87. In mounting of orifice, the common tapping of
measurements only d1 = 2½ D and d2 = 8D is _____________ type
of tapping.
a. (i) and (ii)
a. Pipe taps
b. (i) and (iii)
b. Radius taps
c. (iii) and (iv)
c. Flange taps
d. (iv) only
d. Corner taps

NG 23 (GROUP B) 70

88. A strain gauge with gauge factor 2 and 94. Which of the following information can be
resistance 100 Ω is placed in an equal arm obtained from a chromatogram graph?
bridge circuit. The supply voltage is 10V. If a. Number of components in a sample
the detector resistance is also 100 Ω . Then
b. Concentration of each component in the
the sensitivity of the detector is
sample
a. 0.025 μA/μcm/cm
c. Number of components in a sample&
b. 0.25 μA/μcm/cm
concentration of each component in the
c. 0.25 μA/cm/μcm sample
d. 0.025 μA/cm/μcm
d. Number of components in a sample,
concentration of each component in the
89. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution sample and retention time
is 1 × 10 −8 M. Then, the pH value of the
solution is 95. Ion selective electrodes measure
a. 6 a. activity of a specific ion dissolved in a
b. –6 solution
c. 8 b. Potential of specific ion dissolved in a
d. –8 solution
c. Movement of specific ion dissolved in a
90. A hall effect transducer is used for solution
measurement of a magnetic field of 1.5 Wb/m2 d. Migration rate of specific ion dissolved
with a copper transducer for which the Hall in a solution
effect coefficient is –52 × 10–12 V-m/A-Wbm2.
The thickness of the element is 2mm and the 96. Choose the correct sequence of mass
current passing is 5A. Then, the voltage spectroscopy procedure
generated is p. The ion signal is processed into mass
a. –390mV spectra.
b. –390 × 10 −9 V q. The ions are detected usually by a
quantitative method.
c. 0.195 μA
d. –0.195 μA r. The ions are separated according to
their mass to charge ratio in an
analyzer by electromagnetic fields.
91. The thermodynamical relationship between s. The components of the sample are
the output millivolt and junction temperature
ionized by one of a variety of methods
in thermocouples is established by
___________ effect. (e.g. by impacting them with an
electron beam) which result in the
a. Joule
formation of charged particles.
b. Seebeck
t. A sample is loaded into the MS
c. Law of intermediate metals
instrument and undergoes vaporization
d. Law of intermediate temperatures
a. p→ q→ r→ s→ t
b. t→ s→ r→ q→ p
92. For spectroscopic analysis, large sized
cuvettes are used for c. p→ t→ r→ s→ q
a. samples having components of lesser d. q→ t→ r→ s→ p
concentration
b. samples whose concentration is more 97. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in
c. large sized solid samples strong magnetic field must be irradiated by a
d. samples having more number of ——————— field which is ——————
components to it
a. Strong, parallel
93. Which of the following statements is false for b. Strong, perpendicular
double beam instruments? c. Weaker, perpendicular
a. Fluctuations due to radiation source d. Weaker, parallel
are minimized.
b. It requires adjustment of 98. An optical time-domain reflectometer used to
transmittance at 0% and 100% at each find
wavelength a. Cable fault position
c. Calibration is done only at the b. Cable length
beginning c. Cable fault position and cable length
d. Results are fast and accurate d. Cable type

71 NG 23 (GROUP B)

99. Multimode step index fiber has 106. In a synchro error detector, the angular
a. Large core diameter and large difference of shaft positions are converted
numerical aperture into
b. Large core diameter and small
a. AC voltage using a synchro control
numerical aperture
c. Small core diameter and large transformer at the input and a synchro
numerical aperture transmitter at the output
d. Small core diameter and small b. DC voltage using a synchro control
numerical aperture transformer at the input and a synchro
transmitter at the output
100. Which of the following is described by the
c. AC voltage using a synchro transmitter
concept of numerical aperture in an optical
fibre? at the input and a synchro control
a. Light scattering transformer at the output
b. Light collection d. DC voltage using a synchro transmitter
c. Light dispersion at the input and a synchro control
d. Light polarization transformer at the output

101. Which optical devices are adopted for routing
signals from one waveguide to another? 107. A PID controller has the transfer function
a. Optical combiner 0 .4
b. Optical splitter 2+ with the unit of time expressed in
S
c. Optical coupler
minute. The parameter proportional band
d. Optical enhancer
and reset time for the above controller are
respectively,
102. If the angle of incidence is 25° and angle of
refraction is 32°, find the refractive index of a. 200% and 0.4 minute
the media. b. 50% and 0.4 minute
a. 0.08
c. 200% and 5minutes
b. 0.01
d. 50% and 5 minutes
c. 0.8
d. 0.1

108. The Nyquist plot of loop transfer function
103. When light travels from higher refractive
index medium to lower refractive index G(s)H(s) of a closed loop control system
medium passes through the point (–1, j0) in the
a. It is reflected away G(s)H(s) plane. The phase margin of the
b. It is absorbed partially system is
c. It is scattered in all directions a. 0°
d. It is refracted away from the normal
b. 45°
c. 90°
104. In a signal flow graph loops are said to be
non-touching if they d. 180°
a. do not touch alternate nodes
b. do not touch any node
c. do not posses any common node 109. The transfer function of a compensating
d. posses one common node S+z
network is given as GC (S ) = when
S+p
105. The root locus is the path of the roots of the z < p , the network is called the
characteristic equation traced out in the
s-plane as a. Phase lag network
a. the input of the system is changed b. Phase lead network
b. the output of the system is changed
c. Phase lead lag network
c. a system parameter is changed
d. the sensitivity is changed d. Phase shifting network

NG 23 (GROUP B) 72

110. Consider the following series RLC circuit. It 112. The requirement for controllability for the
is having an input voltage, vi (t ) and the following controllability matrix is, the
current flowing through the circuit is i(t ) . determinant of QC
Obtain the system matrix with the state QC = [B AB A 2 B ... A n −1 B ]
 i(t )  a. Equal to zero
vector X given by   where vC (t ) the
vC (t ) b. Equal to one
voltage across capacitor. c. Not Equal to zero
d. Not Equal to one

113. The condition required to turn ON the Motor
according to the following ladder diagram is

R 1
L L
a. 1 
 0
C 
− R −1 a. Start and stop buttons pressed and OL
 L L not energised
b.  1 
 0  b. Start and stop buttons pressed and OL
 C  energised
− R −1 c. Start button pressed, stop not pressed
 C L and OL energised
c.  1 
 0  d. Start button pressed, stop not pressed
 C  and OL not energised
− R −1
 L L
d.  1 
 0  114. Which of the following is a digital automated
 L  industrial control systems that uses
geographically distributed control loops?
111. Obtain the transfer function of the following a. SCADA
system b. DCS
 x  − 1 − 1  x1  1  c. DDC
X =  1  =     +   [u] d. PLC
x 2   1 0  x 2  0
x 
Y = [0 1]  1 
x 2 
1 115. Which of the following is the only protocol
a. which supports simultaneous analog and
S + S +1
2

digital communication?
1
b. a. Fieldbus
S3 + S +1
1 b. Profibus
c. c. HART
S3 + S2 + S +1
1 d. 4 – 20 mA signal
d.
S2 − S −1
—————————

73 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

18 – LEATHER TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Which is the external layer of epidermis? 62. The length of a type I collagen triple helix is
a. Stratum spinosum a. 30 nm
b. Stratum granulosum b. 300 nm
c. Stratum lucidum c. 300 mm
d. Stratum corneum d. 50 nm

57. Which type of cells are predominantin 63. With respect to Collagen, telopeptides are
epidermis? a. Non-helical overhangs on both terminal
a. Keratinocyte ends
b. Fibroblast b. Helical regions
c. Chondrocyte c. Carbohydrate moieties
d. Melanocytes d. Lipid moieties

58. Based on histological structure which 64. To estimate/quantify collagen in tissue or
animal’s raw material have trios pattern in solution, which assay is carried out?
the grain layer, which is prominent in the a. Fehling’s Assay
leather.
b. Benedict’s Assay
a. Buff
c. Hydroxyproline assay
b. Cow
d. Chrome Assay
c. Goat
d. Sheep
65. In which of the following tissues, collagen is
not the major structural protein?
59. Which amino acid doesn’t occur in keratin? a. Skin
a. Glycine b. Bone
b. Proline c. Hair
c. Hydroxylysine d. Cartilage
d. Tyrosine

66. In which part of the hide,fibers are weak?
60. Type II collagen is a a. Neck
a. Homotrimer b. Belly
b. Exotrimer c. Butt
c. Heterotrimer d. Shoulders
d. Heterotetramer

67. At critical temperature, the surface tension of
61. Which of the following amino acids is liquid is
hydrophobic in nature? a. Infinity
a. Threonine b. Zero
b. Serine c. Remain same as in other temperature
c. Valine d. Similar to the density of liquid
d. Glutamine

NG 23 (GROUP B) 74

68. The hydrophilic-lipophilic balance of a 74. Which type of following tanning agents
————— is a measure of the degree to involves interaction with basic amino acid to
which it is hydrophilic or lipophilic towards form covalent bond?
any compounds
a. Chromium
a. Surfactant
b. Aluminium
b. Binder
c. Aldehyde
c. Dye
d. Resin d. Iron

69. Which of the following preservation methods 75. Case hardening in vegetable tanning process
may contribute to halophilic bacterial attack is due to
to skin/hide? a. Discoloration of phenols
a. Chilling b. Improper fixation
b. Heating c. High astringent tannins
c. Salting
d. Denaturation of collagen
d. Gamma Irradiation

76. Which of the following is an important
70. If you were given a specimen of an active, property of sole leather?
motile microorganism, which of the following
types of microscopy would be the most a. Run
effective in visualizing the live microbe? b. Drape
a. bright-field microscopy c. Apparent density
b. dark-field microscopy d. Stretch
c. fluorescence microscopy
d. phase-contrast microscopy
77. Ageing of chrome tanned leathers leads to
a. Fixation Chromium
71. In tanneries, sulphuric acid is preferred over
formic acid for pickling is because sulphuric b. Striping of Chromium
acid is c. Distribution of Chromium
a. Non swelling acid d. Diffusion of Chromium
b. Very expensive
c. Slow action
78. In normal chromic chloride, the chloride
d. Strong acid
atoms are attached to chromium by ————
valence forming electrovalent linkages.
72. Which type of tanning is suitable for making a. Primary
Chamois leather? b. Secondary
a. Chromium tanning c. Outer
b. Zirconium tanning
d. Auxiliary
c. Vegetable tanning
d. Oil tanning
79. Which type of tanning is prepared to achieve
better abrasion property in leather?
73. Tannins present in plants are
a. Chromium
a. Secondary metabolites
b. Aluminium
b. Primary metabolites
c. Zirconium
c. Protein
d. Complex carbohydrate d. Aldehyde

75 NG 23 (GROUP B)

80. What is the degree of tannage preferred for 86. Which type of syntan is mainly prepared by
vegetable tanned upper leather? the condensation of urea, thio-urea,
a. Minimum 20 dicyandiamide, and melamine either as a
single amino base or in mixture?
b. Minimum 30
a. Phenolic Syntan
c. Minimum 40
b. Amino resin Syntan
d. Minimum 50
c. Neutralization Syntan
d. Bleaching Syntan
81. Gallotannins and ellagitannins are a type of
a. Hydrolysable tannin 87. Auxochrome is responsible
b. Condensed tannin a. for abrasion
c. Complex tannin b. for fastness property
d. Catechol tannins c. to form stable crosslinks
d. to increase the color intensity

82. Vegetable tannin predominantly react with
collagen through 88. Synthetic tanning agents prepared by
sulphonation followed by condensation is
a. Covalent bonding called as
b. Coordinate covalent bonding a. Novalac
c. Hydrogen bonding b. Neradol
d. Peptide bonding c. Melamine resin
d. Acrylic resin

83. The amount of fixed tannin bound to 100g of
hide substance is 89. Which of the following syntans are preferable
for belly filling?
a. Water insoluble tannins
a. Melamine resins
b. Reddening effect
b. Phenol- Formaldehyde
c. Degree of tannage c. Formaldehyde
d. Collagen stabilization d. Vegetable Tannins

84. Barkometer is used to measure the 90. Which one of the following is the precursors
a. amount of tannin in solution for phenol-formaldehyde syntan?
a. Resorcinol
b. shrinkage temperature
b. Sulfonyl chloride
c. protein content
c. Acetone
d. abrasion resistance
d. Ethylene oxide

85. Which of the following aldehyde tanning 91. Which chemical is used as a crosslinker for
systems involves in unipoint fixation? phenol-formaldehyde syntan?
a. Glutaraldehyde a. Chromium
b. Glyoxal b. Phenol
c. Formaldehyde c. Toluene
d. Wattle d. Formaldehyde

NG 23 (GROUP B) 76

92. Building blocks for triglycerides and 98. Covering ability of pigment can be enhanced
phospholipids are called as by
a. Carbohydrates a. Decreasing the particle size
b. Proteins b. Increasing the particle size
c. Fatty acids c. Decreasing the contact surface
d. Amino acids d. Decreasing the Interfaces

93. Condensation is an important step in syntan 99. Compound added to provide elasticity of the
manufacture, which contributes towards grain layer to withstand crack during natural
a. Solubility movement is
b. Crosslinking a. surfactants
c. Dispersion b. pigments
d. Diffusion c. binders
d. Plasticizers

94. Temperature at which an amorphous
material like glass, high polymer etc., changes 100. Low refractive index pigments is also called
from a brittle, vitreous state to a plastic is as
defined as a. Extender
a. Denaturation temperature b. Binder
b. Glass Transition temperature c. Wax
c. Shrinkage temperature d. Plasticizer
d. Cold crack temperature

101. Water soluble acid or basic dyes that are
95. Attenuated Total Reflectance is one of the converted to insoluble pigments by
modes of the following spectroscopic precipitation with metallic salts or acids is
technique called as
a. Circular Dichroism a. Toners
b. NMR b. Dyestuffs
c. X-ray Diffraction c. Earth colours
d. FTIR d. Lakes

96. If Poly unsaturated fatty acid has first double 102. Which finishing coat is used to fill up the
bond, 6 carbons away from the methyl end empty spaces between the corium major and
known as minor for better break and tightness of the
grain?
a. omega 3 Fatty acid
a. Bottom Coat
b. omega 6 Fatty acid
b. Intermediate Coat
c. omega 2 Fatty acid
c. Top Coat
d. omega 1 Fatty acid
d. Fixing Coat

97. Which of the following agents is involved in
preparing white pigment? 103. Which layer in finishing protects against
scratch, frictional damages and abrasion?
a. Titanium dioxide
a. Top coat
b. Chromic oxide
b. Intermediate coat
c. Iron oxide
c. Base coat
d. Chromium sulphate
d. Clearing coat

77 NG 23 (GROUP B)

104. Which type of chemical is preferred for 110. In Crockmeter test, which kind of standard
covering the defect in corrected grain finish? material is used for colour transfer?
a. Albumin a. Square felt
b. Casein b. Circular felt
c. Acrylic c. Cotton lawn
d. Wax d. Blue wool

105. Removal of unfixed vegetable tannins is 111. The initial step in consumer decision making
known as _________ process is
a. Scudding a. Need recognition
b. Scouring b. Information search
c. Bleaching c. Evaluation of alternatives
d. Stripping d. Purchase

106. What is the unit of water vapour
112. Objective of crimping operation is
permeability test?
a. Discoloration of upper by heating
a. mg/cm2/h
b. Ironing the vamp in symmetric manner
b. mg/cm2
c. Ironing the vamp in asymmetric
c. mg/h
manner
d. cm2/h
d. Reduce the thickness of upper
materials
107. Which type of shape felt pads are used in
Veslic rubbing test?
113. Bell knife is used in
a. Square
a. splitting machine
b. Circular
b. edge setting machine
c. Rectangular
c. skiving machine
d. Triangular
d. ink marking machine

108. The property, which indicates lasting
characteristic of upper leather 114. Which of Maslow's need involves the desire
for self-fulfilment, to become all that one is
a. Tensile strength
capable of becoming?
b. Tear strength
a. Safety
c. Stretching of leather at different
b. Self-actualization
percentages
c. Physiological
d. Uni-directional stretching over round
shape mandle d. Self Esteem

109. Principle of mean forming 115. Groups in which a person interacts
continuously and informally such as family,
a. Conversion of 3D surface of last in 2D
friends, neighbours and co-workers
form
a. Secondary groups
b. Conversion of 2D leather into 3D shoe
shape b. Tertiary groups
c. Calculation of leather requirement for c. Primary groups
a given style d. Reference groups
d. Converting shoe upper in lasting form

—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 78

PART III

19-MATERIAL SCIENCE & CERAMIC TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The stacking sequence in a face centered 61. Choose the wrong statement
cubic (FCC) close packed structure is a. In Laue method monochromatic X-ray
a. AAAAAA beam is used
b. ABABAB b. In powder method monochromatic X-
c. ABCABC ray beam is used
d. AABBAA c. In rotating method monochromatic X-
ray beam is used
d. In Laue method white X-radiation is
57. The lattice parameter ‘a’ in a FCC unit cell is used
given by
r
a. 62. Burgers vector defines
2 2
a. The magnitude of point defect
r
b. b. Orientation of different crystal planes
2
c. Magnitude and direction of dislocation
2
c. 2r d. Volume defect
d. 2r
63. Interstitial diffusion is generally faster than
58. Crystals like diamond and silicon are brittle diffusion by vacancy mode. This is because
because a. Number of interstitial sites is greater
a. They contain no dislocations than vacancies
b. They are non crystalline b. Vacancy diffusion requires more energy
c. The stress to move a dislocation is high than interstitial diffusion
in them c. Interstitial species are smaller than
d. They contain very few dislocations substitution species
d. All of the above
59. A plane intersects the coordinate axes
at x = 2 / 3, y = 1 / 3 and z = 1 / 2 , the miller
64. In a crystal if a = b ≠ c and interfacial
indices of t this plane is angles α = β = γ = 90° then it belongs to the
a. 9,3,2 system
b. 4,3,2 a. Cubic
c. 4,2,3 b. Tetragonal
d. 3,6,4 c. Orthorhombic
d. Triclinic
60. X-rays are used for diffraction studies in
crystals because
a. The wavelength of radiation is of the 65. In ionic crystals an ion displaced from a
same range as that of interatomic regular site to an interstitial site is called
spacing a. Electronic defect
b. X-rays penetrate crystals b. Schottky defect
c. Crystals have atoms / molecules c. Frenkel defect
capable of scattering X-rays
d. None of the above
d. None of the above

79 NG 23 (GROUP B)

66. In a single component system, the maximum 72. Condensation polymerization of
number of phases that can coexist in _____________ produces Bakelite.
equilibrium is a. Propylene
a. 2
b. Phenol and formaldehyde
b. 3
c. Phenol and acetaldehyde
c. 4
d. Urea and formaldehyde
d. 5

67. The reaction that yields two solid phases on 73. Which of the following types of composite is
cooling a single solid phase is called not classified under the category of a number
of layers
a. Eutectoid
a. Unidirectional fiber reinforced
b. Peritectoid
b. Laminar
c. Eutectic
d. Peritectic c. Sandwich panels
d. Particulate composites
68. Martensitic transformations
a. Are diffusion controlled 74. Nanoscale aluminum oxide increases the
b. Yield two products of different a. Conductivity
composition
b. Resistance
c. Are shear processes
c. Ductility
d. Yield a soft product in steels
d. Stability

69. The process of reheating the martensitic steel
to reduce its brittleness without any 75. When does a shape memory alloy return to its
significant loss in its hardness is called original shape?
a. Normalizing a. At transition temperature
b. Annealing b. At curie temperature
c. Quenching
c. At memory transfer temperature
d. Tempering
d. At normal temperature

70. Fe-C alloys with __________ percentage of
carbon content are called as cast iron 76. Which of the following is true regarding the
a. 0.3 – 0.6 true stress - strain curve and engineering
Curve
b. 0.8 – 1.4
a. The true stress-strain curve shifts up
c. 0.6 – 0.8 and to the left of the engineering stress
d. >2 strain curve before necking
b. The true stress-strain curve shifts up
71. Which of the following is a false statement for and to the right of the engineering
grain growth? stress strain curve before necking
a. The grains start growing c. The true stress-strain curve shifts
b. Grain growth accelerates with increase down and to the left of the engineering
in temperature stress strain curve before necking

c. Decrease in free energy d. Both the true stress - strain and
Engineering stress strain curves are
d. Increase in surface energy
identical.

NG 23 (GROUP B) 80

77. Fatigue failure occurs due to 83. Electronic polarization
a. Extended constant loading a. Increases with temperature
b. Extended cyclic loading b. Decreases with temperature
c. Diffusion of atoms c. is independent of temperature
d. Movement of dislocations d. None of the above

78. Which of the following is known as the
Griffith equation? 84. The most characteristic feature of an
antiferromagnetic material is
a. σ = (2γE / πC )1 / 2
a. Appearance of magnetic domains
b. σ = (γE / πC )1 / 2 b. Hysteresis behavior
c. σ = (γE/2πC) 1/2 c. A sharp minimum in the susceptibility
versus temperature curve
d. σ = (πC / γE )1 / 2 d. A sharp maximum in the susceptibility
versus temperature curve
79. Hall-Petch relation is connected with
a. Mechanical properties 85. The area of the hysteresis loop of a ferro
b. Ferromagnetic materials magnetic material gives
c. Resistivity of impure metals a. The coercive force
d. Diffusion b. The remanent flux density
c. Intensity of magnetization of the
80. If K and σ be the thermal and electrical material
conductivities of a metal at temperature T
d. Energy that is consumed in taking the
then
material through one complete cycle of
KT magnetization
a. = constant
σ
Kσ 86. For an electrically neutral atom, the atomic
b. = constant
T number is —————— number of electrons
σ a. Greater than
c. = constant
KT
b. Less than
K c. Equal to
d. = constant
σT
d. Zero

81. According to Matthiessen’s rule, if ρ0 and
ρ (T ) are the temperature independent and 87. Which of the following quantum numbers
designates the subshell?
dependent parts of the resistivity of a metal,
then the total resistivity is a. Principal
a. ρ = ρ 0 − ρ (T ) b. Azimuthal
b. ρ 0 = ρ + ρ (T ) c. Magnetic
d. Spin
c. ρ = ρ 0 + ρ (T )
d. ρ = ρ 0 / ρ (T )
88. The weight of Cu and Si are 63.54 and 28.09
respectively. Find the % of Si in Cu5Si
82. At 0 K a semiconductor acts as
a. Superconductor a. 9.12
b. A good conductor b. 8.12
c. An insulator c. 10.12
d. Same as semiconductor d. 11.12

81 NG 23 (GROUP B)

89. Elastic strain energy E in terms of Burger 96. Measure of ductility is
vector b is given by a. Percentage Elongation
a. E = − μb 2 / 2 b. Modulus of resilence
2
b. E = μb / 4 c. Modulus of toughness
2
c. E = μb / 2 d. Ultimate tensile strength
d. E = − μb 2 / 4
97. Proof stress corresponds to
90. Finer grains are less susceptible to a. Elastic limit
a. Brittle fracture
b. Lower yield point
b. Ductile fracture
c. Higher yield point
c. Intergranular
d. Transgranular d. A specified strain

91. In which of the following phases of steel will 98. Which hardness method can measure
cementite be in particle form hardness of a grain?
a. Martensite
a. Knoop
b. Ferrite
b. Shore
c. Perlite
c. Rockwell
d. Bainite
d. Vicker
92. The maximum number of phases that coexist
in a C system is
99. In the Griffith equation, if C is the crack
a. (C + 2) length, then the fracture stress is
b. (C − 1) proportional to

c. P (C − 1) a. C

d. C−P +2 b. 2C

c. C
93. Diffusion flux is proportional to
a. Concentration gradient d. 1/ C
b. Thermal gradient
c. Magnetic gradient 100. In S-N curve, the stress at which the curve
d. Electric gradient becomes horizontal is known as
a. Endurance limit
94. The slowest cooling rate is obtained when
b. Elastic limit
steel is quenched in
a. Air c. Plastic limit
b. Brine d. Proportionality limit
c. Fused salt
d. Oil 101. Which of the following polymorphic
transformations of silica has the maximum
95. The side group in polyvinyl chloride is high volume expansion?
a. H , Cl, Cl, Cl a. Alpha quartz to beta quartz
b. H , H , H , Cl b. Alpha cristobalite to beta cristobalite
c. H, H, H, H c. Beta quartz to beta tridymite
d. H , H , CH 3 , Cl d. Beta quartz to beta cristobalite

NG 23 (GROUP B) 82

102. The method suitable for size separation in 109. Colemanite is a source of
clays is a. Lime
a. Levitation technique b. Lime and boron oxide
b. Acid leaching
c. Soda and lime
c. High intensity magnetic separator
d. Soda and boron oxide
d. Froath flotation
110. In glaze composition, sum of ——————
103. Feldspar is rich in the —————— variety of
oxides should be equal to unity.
Cornish stone.
a. Acidic
a. Black
b. Purple b. Amphoteric
c. Yellow c. Basic
d. White d. Acidic and basic

104. Presence of —————— impurity in 111. Whitlockite is a polymorph of
magnesite is susceptible to polymorphic
a. Tri Calcium Phosphate
transformation leading to crumbling.
b. Hydroxyapatite
a. Alumina
b. Lime c. Al2O3
c. Monticellite d. ZrO2
d. Dicalcium silicate
112. Which of the following is the potential on the
105. Decomposition products that will be observed surface of the charged particle moving
when dolomite is fired at 600°C are through the liquid?
a. CaCO3 + MgCO3 a. Zeta potential
b. CaO + MgCO3 b. Electrostatic potential
c. CaCO3 + MgO c. Electric potential
d. CaO + MgO d. Work potential

106. Sanitary wares are predominantly produced 113. Natural fiber is
by ___________ process. a. Sisal
a. Pressing
b. Nylon
b. Extrusion
c. PAN
c. Gel casting
d. PET
d. Slip casting

107. Difference in count between the ware 114. Fiber flexibility is given as ——————
fabricated in green state and that placed for where E is modulus and d is diameter.
bisque firing is called as a. 32 / πEd 4
a. Ware count
b. 18 / πEd 2
b. Bisque loss
c. Clay loss c. 64 / πEd 4
d. Bisque count d. 128 / πEd 2

108. Wash basins for use in factories or hospitals 115. Mrozowski cracks are
are of —————— body type.
a. Basal plane cracks
a. Earthenware
b. Grain boundary cracks
b. Stoneware
c. Surface cracks
c. Vitreous China
d. Fireclay d. Interfacial cracks
—————————

83 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

20 — PHARMACEUTICAL TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The conversion of NAD to NADH is an 61. In the breakdown of muscle glycogen, the
example of reduction because predominant product is
a. the pyridine ring loses electrons (and a
a. glucose
hydrogen)
b. the pyridine ring gains electrons (and a b. glucose 1-phosphate
hydrogen) c. UDP-glucose
c. the adenine ring loses electrons
d. maltose
d. the adenine ring gains electrons

62. Which of the following enzymes is activated
57. Which of the following statements about
homeostasis is correct? by direct binding of cAMP to a regulatory
a. Homeostasis involves large changes subunit?
within the normal range a. adenylate cyclase
b. Homeostasis is usually maintained by b. protein kinase A
positive feedback
c. Homeostasis of extracellular fluids is c. phosphorylase kinase
not dependent on exchanges with the d. protein phosphatase
intracellular fluid
d. A disruption to homeostasis can result
in pathophysiological changes in the 63. The protein that binds and directly reduces
body the terminal electron acceptor in
mitochondrial electron transport is
58. The process of glycolysis a. cytochrome oxidase
a. requires a pathway of chemically b. succinate dehydrogenase
coupled phosphoryl-transfer reactions
c. coenzyme QH2
b. uses 2 ATP molecules and forms 2 ATP
molecules and one NADH molecule d. NADH:Q reductase
c. occurs in the mitochondria
d. converts glucose into two glycerate 64. Which combination of cofactors is involved in
molecules
the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA?
a. NAD+, biotin, and TPP
59. Which of the following is an optically inactive
amino acid? b. TPP, lipoic acid and NAD+
a. glycine c. Pyridoxal phosphate, FAD and lipoic
b. serine acid
c. phenylalanine
d. Biotin, FAD and TPP
d. valine

65. Glycine and proline are the most abundant
60. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in
solution would be predominantly amino acids in the structure of
a. dipolar ions a. Hemoglobin
b. nonpolar molecules b. Myoglobin
c. positive and monovalent c. Insulin
d. hydrophobic
d. Collagen

NG 23 (GROUP B) 84

66. Which of the following products is obtained 72. Which of the following immunoglobulins are
when the peptide P-S-T-W-M-R is treated secretory and present in the milk?
with CNBr? a. IgG
a. P-S-T-W-M and R b. IgM
b. P, S-T and W-M-R c. IgE
c. P-S-T-W and M-R d. IgA
d. P and S-T-W-M, R

73. The specificity of an antibody is due to
67. The precursor of the prostaglandins is
a. Its valence
a. Palmitic acid
b. The heavy chains
b. Linolenic acid
c. The Fc portion of the molecule
c. Oleic acid
d. The variable portion of the heavy and
d. Arachidonic acid
light chain

68. Name the type of culture which is prepared
by inoculating directly from the tissue of an 74. A positive tuberculin test is an example of
organism to culture media? a. Delayed type hypersensitivity
a. Primary cell culture b. Acute contact dermatitis
b. Secondary cell culture c. Type I hypersensitivity
c. Cell lines d. Eczema
d. Transformed cell culture

75. Which of the following is an NOT an example
69. Thayer-Martin and Martin-Lewis media are
of adjuvant accepted for human use?
used to isolate and identify
a. Magnesium hydroxide
a. E. coli
b. Aluminium hydroxide
b. Mycobacteria
c. Aluminum phosphate
c. Neisseria
d. Salmonella d. Calcium phosphate

70. Very low dose of antigen may induce 76. Name the class of immunoglobulin which
a. hypersensitivity takes part in hypersensitivity reaction?
b. immunological ignorance a. IgG
c. low zone tolerance b. IgE
d. low zone immunity c. IgA
d. IgM
71. Polymers of N-acetylglucosamine and
N-acetylmuramic acid are found in which of
77. The class of antibodies, which can cross the
the following structures?
placenta is
a. Teichoic acid
a. IgD
b. Cell wall
b. IgA
c. Glycocalyx
c. IgG
d. Lipopolysaccharide
d. IgM

85 NG 23 (GROUP B)

78. What is a cell line? 85. A drug powder was poured through the
a. Multilayer culture funnel and formed a cone 1.5 cm high and
b. Transformed cells 9 cm in diameter. The angle of repose is
c. Multiple growth of cells a. 30°
d. Sub culturing of primary culture b. 45°
c. 60°
79. Bacteria capable of growth in a high salt d. 15°
concentration are best isolated in which of
the following media?
a. Minimal growth media 86. Method of choice for mixing solids capable of
b. Complex growth media forming eutectic mixtures is
c. Differential growth media a. Tumbling
d. Selective growth media b. Spatulation
c. Trituration
80. Which one of the following peroral dosage
d. Sifting
forms is likely to exhibit the longest lag time?
a. delayed-release tablet
b. enteric-coated tablet 87. The dissolution rate of drugs from tablets
c. osmotic tablet may be increased by
d. sustained-release capsule a. Increasing the compression stress
during tableting
81. The ratio of oil, water and gum added for b. Increasing the concentration of
primary emulsion in dry gum method is lubricants
a. 4:2:1 c. Increasing the concentration of
b. 3:2:1 disintegrants
c. 2:2:1 d. Film coating with ethylcellulose
d. 4:3:2
88. Glossant used for tablet coating is
82. The molal elevation constant of water is
–1.86°C. The decrease in freezing point of a a. Cetostearyl alcohol
solution containing 50 g dextrose in 1000 mL b. Beeswax
of water is c. White soft paraffin
a. –2.6°C
d. Polyvinyl alcohol
b. –5.2°C
c. –0.26°C
d. –0.52°C 89. Which of the following is not suitable as
liquid fills for hand gelatin capsules?
83. Which of the following has negative heat of a. Polyethylene glycol
solution?
b. Arachis oil
a. Sorbitol
c. Fatty acid esters
b. Mannitol
d. Purified water
c. Xylitol
d. Glucitol
90. Which of the following is not a property of
84. For a surfactant to be a wetting agent it flocculated suspension?
should
a. A low sedimentation volume
a. exhibit a large contact angle
b. A high degree of flocculation
b. have HLB of 6 – 9
c. A high rate of sedimentation
c. have high lipid solubility
d. have high molecular weight d. Homogeneity of drug concentration per
unit dose

NG 23 (GROUP B) 86

91. For a drug to be intravenously injected the 98. In which type of chromatography, the
osmolality should be adjusted to stationary phase held in a narrow tube and
a. 100 mOsm the mobile phase is forced through it under
pressure?
b. 200 mOsm
a. Column chromatography
c. 300 mOsm
b. Planar chromatography
d. 400 mOsm
c. Liquid chromatography
92. Which mass number of nuclei are NMR d. Gas chromatography
active?
99. Which of the following cannot be used as an
a. Odd
adsorbent in Column adsorption
b. Even chromatography?
c. High a. Magnesium oxide
d. Low b. Silica gel
c. Activated alumina
93. The ratio between the nuclear magnetic
d. Potassium permanganate
moment and angular moment is called
a. Magnetogyric ratio 100. Thermospray is used as an interface in
b. Precessional movement a. GC-MS
c. Gyromateric ratio b. HPLC-MS
d. Rotational movement c. GC-FTIR
d. HPLC-FTIR
94. What is length in cm of sample holder in
NMR?
101. Which of the following main components of
a. 30 mass spectroscopy deal with resolving the
b. 25 ions into their characteristics mass
c. 20 components according to their mass-to-charge
ratio?
d. 35
a. Ion Source
95. Which part is used to measure unabsorbed b. Analyzer
radio frequency in NMR? c. Detector System
a. RF receiver d. Analyzer tube
b. Magnet
102. Which type of ionic species are allowed to
c. Sample Holder
pass through the slit and reach the collecting
d. Recorder plate?
a. Negative ions of all masses
96. Which solvent is used in NMR?
b. Positive ions of the specific mass
a. Water c. Negative ions of the specific mass
b. Chloroform d. Positive ions of all masses
c. Benzene
d. Dinitro benzene 103. In a time-of-flight mass spectrometer, the
velocity v of an accelerated ion is related to
97. In normal phase chromatography, Which its mass by which of the following?
compound is held by stationary phase? a. proportional to its mass
a. Polar compound b. inversely proportional to its mass
b. Non polar compound c. proportional to the square root of its
c. Saturated compounds mass
d. Coloured compounds d. inversely proportional to the square
root of its mass

87 NG 23 (GROUP B)

104. Calcium channel blockers can be divided into 110. Which receptor does the binding of cardiac
three class based on their chemical structure. glycoside digoxin to?
Which of the following is not a class of
a. ATP-dependent K+ channel
calcium channel blockers?
b. Na+/K+ antiporter
a. Nitrates
b. Penylalkylamines c. ATP-dependent Ca2+ channel
c. Dihydropyridines d. Na+ /Ca2+ antiporter
d. Benzothiazepine
111. Which of the following drugs requires o-nitro
105. Which of following is having a xylidine benzaldehyde as the starting material?
moiety? a. Amlodipine
a. Lidocaine b. Nifedipine
b. Phenytoin c. Nicardipine
c. Aspirin d. Piperin
d. Benzocaine

112. Enzyme on which imatinib acts is
106. Metformin belongs to which of the chemical
a. Histone Deacetylase
class of anti-diabetic drug?
b. DHFR
a. Biguanides
b. Thiazolidinediones c. Tyrosine kinase
c. Sulfonylureas d. Thymidylate synthase
d. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
113. H2 receptor antagonists containing thiazole
107. Which of following hypoglycemic agent is ring is
thiazolidinedione derivative? a. Famotidine
a. Rosiglitazone b. Cimetidine
b. Metformin c. Ranitidine
c. Tolbutamide d. Lafutidine
d. Miglitol

114. Furosemide is
108. The active metabolite of anticancer
a. Phenoxy acetic derivative
cyclophosphamide is
b. Anthranilic acid derivative
a. N-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
b. N-methyl cyclophosphamide c. Propionic acid derivative
c. N-acetyl cyclophosphamide d. Acetic acid derivative
d. N-propyl cycloposphide
115. Thymidine, Trityl chloride and methyl
109. Which of the following diuretics is sulfonyl chloride are starting materials for
metabolised into the active substance synthesis of
canrenone? a. Chlorambucil
a. Amiloride b. Cyclophosphamide
b. Spironolactone c. Zidovudine
c. Epelerenone d. Acetohexamide
d. Furosemide

—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 88

PART III

21 – PHYSICS

(Answer ALL questions)

56. The length of an elastic string is a meter 60. A wire 3 m in length and 1 mm in diameter
when the tension is 4 newton and b meter at 300 C is kept in a low temperature at
when the tension is 5 newton. The length in – 1700 C and is stretched by hanging a weight
meters when the tension is 9 newton is of 10 kg at one end. This change in length of
the wire is [Y = 2 × 1011 N / m2 , g = 10m / s2 and
a. 4a – 5b
α = 1.2 × 10 −5 I 0C ]
b. 5b – 4a
a. 5.04 mm
c. 9b – 9a
b. 2.5 mm
d. a+b
c. 52 mm
d. 25 mm
57. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a
circle of radius R = 2 m with an angular
61. Reverberation time in a cinema theatre when
acceleration α = (π / 4 ) rad / s2 . The magnitude it is empty is
of average velocity of the particle over the a. 1 second
time it rotates quarter circle is b. 1 to 2 seconds
a. 1.5 m/s c. 3 seconds
b. 1.0 m/s d. Above 5 second
c. 2.0 m/s
d. 1.25 m/s 62. A bimetallic strip is made of copper
(α = 1.8 × 10 −5 K −1 ) and steel (α = 1.2 × 10 −5 K −1 )
is heated, then it
58. First law of thermodynamics is a special case
a. bends with steel on concave side
of
b. bends with copper on concave side
a. Law of conservation of energy
c. does not expand
b. Charles’ law
d. data is insufficient
c. Law of conservation of mass
d. Boyle’s law
63. Hooke’s law essentially defines
a. Stress
59. If a pendulum, which gives correct time beats b. Strain
seconds on ground at a certain place, is
c. yield point
moved to the top of a tower 320 in high, the
d. elastic limit
loss of time of the pendulum clock in one day
in sec is
a. 2.16 sec 64. The Poisson ratio cannot have the value
b. 1.08 sec a. 0.7

c. 0.54 sec b. 0.2
c. 0.1
d. 4.32 sec
d. 0.5

89 NG 23 (GROUP B)

65. Wave nature of the light is evidenced by 70. A pendulum bob of mass 80 mg carrying a
a. Photoelectric effect charge of 2 × 10−8 C is at rest in uniform
horizontal electric field (E) = 20,000 V/m.
b. interference Find the tension in the thread of the
c. Black body radiation pendulum and the angle it makes with the
vertical
d. Nuclear emission
a. 9°1', 2.2 × 10 −4 N

b. 18°2', 4.4 × 10 −4 N
66. In glass, which colour of the visible spectrum
c. 27°3', 6.6 × 10 −4 N
has the smallest critical angle for total
internal reflection? d. 27°3', 8.8 × 10 −4 N

a. Violet
b. Red 71. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μ F withstands a
maximum voltage of 6 k V, while another
c. Green
capacitor of capacitance 2 μ F, the maximum
d. Yellow voltage 4 k V. If they are connected in series,
the combination can withstand a maximum of
a. 6kV
67. A thick rope of rubber of density b. 4kV
1.5 × 103 kg/m3 and Young’s modulus
c. 10 k V
5 × 106 N/m2, 8 m in length is hung from the
d. 9kV
ceiling of a room. The increase in its length
due to its own weight is (g = 10 m/s2)
72. Capacity of an isolated sphere is increased
a. 9.6 × 10 −2 m
n times when it is enclosed by an earthed
b. 9.6 × 10 −7 m concentric sphere. The ratio of their radii is
n2
c. 9.6 × 102 m a.
n −1
d. 9.6 m
n
b.
n −1
68. Two sources are said to be coherent if they 2n
c.
produce waves of n +1

a. equal wavelength 2n + 1
d.
n +1
b. equal velocity
c. having constant phase difference
73. The wire of the electric fire element glows red
d. having some shape of wave front
hot but the copper wire in the leads from the
plug remains cool, although the same current
is passing through each. This is because the
69. The bending of light rays round the corners of element wire
an obstacle is called
a. is longer than the copper wire
a. Interference b. has much higher resistance than the
b. diffraction copper wire
c. is coiled but the copper wire is not
c. dispersion
d. has a much lower resistance than the
d. polarisation copper wire

NG 23 (GROUP B) 90

74. A potentiometer wire has a resistance of 79. Magnetic moment due to the motion of the
4 ohm and is connected to a cell of steady electron in the nth energy state of hydrogen
e.m.f. 2 volt and internal resistance 1 ohm.
atom is proportional to
This potentiometer can measure a maximum
voltage of a. n
a. 2.0 V
b. n0
b. 1.9 V
c. 1.6 V c. n5
d. 1.0 V d. n3

75. An iron rod of cross- sectional area is 4 cm2
80. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than
placed with its length parallel to a magnetic
field of intensity 1600 amp/m. The flux the sum of the masses of its constituents. The
through the rod is 4 × 10 −4 weber. What is mass defect is
the permeability of the material of the rod? a. wasted
(In weber/amp-m)
b. converted into heat energy
a. 0.625
b. 6.25 c. converted into energy which binds the
nucleons together
c. 0.625 × 10 −3
d. 2.3 d. converted into electric energy

76. An electron moving in a uniform magnetic 81. deBroglie wavelength associated with a
field of induction of intensity B, has its radius material particle is
directly proportional to
a. inversely proportional to momentum
a. Its charge
b. Magnetic field b. inversely proportional to its energy
c. speed c. directly proportional to momentum
d. size d. directly proportional to its energy

77. Velocity of matter wave is always
82. Which of the following elements has the
a. slower than velocity of light lowest first ionization energy?
b. equal to velocity of light
a. Al
c. greater than velocity of light
b. Si
d. constant
c. B
d. C

78. The velocity of a helium nucleus travelling in
a curved path in the magnetic field is v. The
velocity of a proton moving in the same 83. In nuclear physics liquid drop model explains
curved path in the same magnetic field is a. Gamma ray emission
a. 4 v
b. Alpha particle emission
b. 2v
c. Beta particle emission
c. v
d. v/2 d. Nuclear fission

91 NG 23 (GROUP B)

84. The Miller indices of a plane which cuts the 89. The wavelength of radiation emitted by an
intercepts of 2, 3 and 4 units along the three LED made up of a semiconducting material
with band gap energy 2.8 eV is
aces, respectively are
a. 2.8 A°
a. ( 6 4 3)
b. 4.9308 A°
b. ( 2 3 4)
c. 5548.4 A°
c. (3 2 1 ) d. 4430.8 A°
d. ( 2 3 2)

90. At 0 K semiconductor acts as
85. The packing density of BCC is a. A super conductor
b. A good conductor
a. 52%
c. An insulator
b. 74%
d. Same as semiconductor
c. 68%
d. 34%
91. Negative feedback is employed in
a. Oscillators
86. The work done by a cantilever beam is given b. Rectifiers
by the following expression c. Amplifiers
1 d. Receivers
a. Work done = × stress × strain
2
1
b. Work done = × stress × volume
2 92. The classical free electron theory was
1 developed by
c. Work done = × strain × volume a. Sommerfeld
2
b. Bloch
1
d. Work done = × stress × strain × volume c. Drude and Lorentz
2
d. Planck

87. The battery connections required to forward
93. Pure metals like nickel and aluminium are
bias a pn junction are
used as cathode materials in Photoemissive
a. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n cells for
b. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n a. Infrared radiation
b. Visible light
c. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
c. Ultra violet radiation
d. +ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
d. radiowaves

88. If the Hall coefficient is negative then the 94. The number of degree of freedom for a
semiconductor is diatomic gas is
a. p - type a. 6

b. instrinic b. 5
c. 4
c. n - type
d. 3
d. extrinsic

NG 23 (GROUP B) 92

95. The mass of an electron varies with variation 100. The property of becoming electrically
in polarized when mechanical stress is applied
is known as
a. Electrostatic field
a. Ferro–electric
b. Magnetic field
b. Piezoelectric
c. Gravitational field
c. Pyro electric
d. Speed
d. Electro–optic

96. Which of the following is the heaviest?
101. Diamagnetic susceptibility is
a. Molecule
a. Large, negative
b. Atom b. Small, positive
c. Electron c. Small, negative

d. Proton d. Large, positive

102. Ferrox cube is the commercial name of
97. An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency
a. Ferromagnetic materials
determined by
b. Paramagnetic materials
a. the stiffness of the bond it makes with c. Ferrimagnetic materials
its neighbours d. Diamagnetic materials
b. the temperature of the crystal

c. the heat content of the crystal ∈r −1 Nα
103. = is
∈r +2 3 ∈0
d. the atomic number of the metal
a. Lorentz relation
b. Clausius–Mosotti relation
98. Which of the following is not electromagnetic c. Einstein relation
in nature? d. Curie
a. Cathode rays

b. X-rays 104. In a dielectric the power loss is proportional
to
c. Gamma rays
a. ω
d. Infrared rays b. ω2
c. 1/ω

99. At normal temperature, the polarizations d. 1/ω2

which are independent of temperature are

a. Electronic and ionic 105. Below transition temperature, a
superconducting material exhibits
b. Ionic and orientational a. Only zero resistance
c. Orientational and space charge b. Only diamagnetic property

d. Space charge and electronic c. Zero resistance and diamagnetism
d. Zero resistance and ferromagnetism

93 NG 23 (GROUP B)

106. The transition temperature of most low 111. Which nanomaterial is used for cutting tools?
temperature superconducting elements is in
a. Fullerene
the range
b. Tungsten Carbide
a. Zero to 10 K
c. Gold
b. 10 K to 20 K
c. 20 K to 50 K d. Aerogel

d. Above 50 K

112. A Carbon monoxide sensor made of zirconia
107. Superconductivity results due to uses which characteristic to detect any
a. All electrons having Fermi energy at change?
0K a. Capacitance
b. Crystal structure having no atomic b. Resistivity
vibrations at 0 K
c. Permeability
c. All electrons interacting in the super
conducting state d. Chemical Activity
d. Crystals structure having infinite
atomic vibrations at 0 K
113. Which components of an automobile are
envisioned to be coated with zirconia?
108. A superconducting material on being
a. Spark plugs
subjected to critical field changes to
a. Normal state b. Tyres

b. Critical conductivity c. Liners
c. Superconductivity which is d. Brakes
independent of temperature
d. Remains uninfluenced
114. The main purpose of CNTs in fuel cells is
a. Production of energy
109. Superconductors are popularly used for
a. Generating very strong magnetic field b. Active medium

b. Reducing I2R losses c. Storage

c. Generating electrostatic field d. Catalyst
d. Generating regions free from magnetic
field
115. Nanoscale aluminium oxide increases the
a. Conductivity
110. Nano crystalline materials synthesised by
b. Ductility
sol-gel technique results in a foam like
structures called c. Resistance
a. Gel d. Stability
b. Aerosol
c. Aerogel
d. Foam
—————————

NG 23 (GROUP B) 94

PART III

22 — PRINTING TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. An element of art that refers to the lightness 62. In the visual reference test element in UGRA
or darkness of a color is a FOGRA digital plate wedge, under
a. Value theoretical ideal condition and linear tone
reproduction, the two fields in __________
b. Form
step should show same tone value.
c. Space a. 30%
d. Intensity b. 40%
c. 50%
57. Which of the following helps to diagnose d. 60%
problems with DTP documents or pdf files? 63. Which of the following specifications is not
a. Preflighting software recommended by ISO 12647-6?
b. Illustrating software a. Density
b. Hue angle
c. Word-processing software
c. Dot gain
d. Trapping Software
d. Trapping
64. The ____________ imposition requires gripper
58. Is a graphic data file stored as outline based margin on both leading and trailing edge.
data? a. Work and turn
a. .png b. Full Sheet
b. .bmp c. Work and tumble
c. .eps d. Work and twin
d. .gif 65. Well formed XML document means it
contains
a. a root element
59. Which gives the nonprinting areas storage-
b. an element
resistant hydrophilic properties?
c. one or more elements
a. IPA
d. one or more elements and a root
b. Fountain solution element must contain all other
c. Gum arabic elements
d. Antimicrobial additive 66. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct?
60. Which of the following metals is not used in a. Vector images can be resized, rescaled
and reshaped infinitely
gravure cylinder making process?
b. Vector images can be magnified upto
a. Copper 2400% only
b. Chrome c. Vector images use paths to define the
c. Nickel graphic objects
d. Manganese d. Vector images cannot be used to define
photographs

61. In offset printing the dotgain will be 67. Which of the following holds diecut pieces
maximum in together as they travel through the diecutting
machine?
a. Highlight
a. Nick
b. Shadow b. Creep
c. Midtone c. Edge
d. Uniform in all tonal regions d. Crossover

95 NG 23 (GROUP B)

68. Which of the following statements is /are not 72. Which one of the following statements is
correct about offset printing? correct about an 8-page half sheet work?
a. 4 pages in front and 4 pages in
(i) Image and non-image areas are only backside of the paper is printed
physically differentiated.
b. 8 pages in front and 8 pages in
(ii) The readable image from plate, offsets backside of the paper is printed
on blanket and then on the substrate
c. 4 pages in front and 8 pages in
(iii) The image area should be hydrophilic backside of the paper is printed
and non-image should be oleophilic.
d. 8 pages in front and 4 pages in
a. Only (i) and (ii) backside of the paper is printed
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. All of the above 73. Which folder controls the passage of printed
sections through the fold with tapes and used
to reduce the trim waste?
69. In continuous flow dampening systems if the a. Ribbon folder
metering nip rollers rotates in the same b. Kite folder
direction (clockwise or anti clockwise), then c. Pinless folder
a. The surfaces of the two rollers are d. Hi-tech folder
travelling in the same direction at the
point of contact
b. The surfaces of the two rollers are 74. Find the correct statement regarding
travelling in the opposite direction at Flexography printing
the point of contact
a. Back exposure is done with image
c. The surfaces of the two rollers are negative on the plate
travelling in the no direction at the
b. Face exposure forms the floor of the
point of contact
plate
d. No influence at all
c. Face exposure is done with image
negative on the plate.
70. Which one of the following statements is d. Post exposure forms the relief on the
correct? plate
a. The screen printing process is made up
of the basic items: Stencil, Squeegee,
Ink, Substrate, Machine 75. The advantages of ————— press is its
b. The screen-printing process is made up ability to hold good registration when
of the basic items: Stencil, Squeegee printing on thin, extendable packaging
holder, Printer, Substrate materials.
c. The screen-printing process is made up a. Stack
of the basic items: Stencil, Vacuum b. Inline
Bed, Ink, Substrate c. Common Impression
d. The screen-printing process is made up d. Variable Data
of the basic items: Stencil, Squeegee
Sharpener, Ink, Substrate
76. What is/are common limitations of Gravure
press?
71. Which of the following printers utilize a dye
from a page size ribbon that vaporizes and a. High quality color reproduction is
condenses on the paper? possible on suitable substrates
a. Dye sublimation b. Possible to produce continuous design
without cut off gap
b. Dye freezing
c. Process only viable for high run lengths
c. Dye evaporation
d. Low wastage and consistent quality
d. Dye saturation
through the run

NG 23 (GROUP B) 96

77. Which of the following devices in the web 84. In guillotine machine, a metal bar that runs
offset machine is used to change the direction parallel to the knife is
of the web? a. Clamp
a. Folders b. Trimmer
b. Festoon c. Cutting stick
c. Kicker d. Cutting mark
d. Turner Bar
85. Lamination process in which film coated with
78. Which of the following types of blanket is liquid adhesive, dryed and nipped with board
used for printing on high speed machine and and paper is called
substrates like board and coated stock? a. Dry lamination
a. Medium Blanket b. Hot lamination
b. Hard Blanket c. Film with adhesive and release paper
c. Soft Blanket d. Wet lamination
d. Sub Blankets
86. The size of paper used for post card
79. An instrument which measures the length a. A4
and tack of an ink is b. A5
a. Viscometer c. A6
b. Inkometer d. A3
c. Densitometer
d. Durometer
87. Checking whether all the sections of a book
are in correct sequence is
80. The sheets are folded exactly in half each a. Gathering
time, edge to edge is known as b. Collating
a. Fold to print c. Insetting
b. Fold to machine d. Stitching
c. Fold to paper
d. Fold book
88. The process in which gold leaf is applied to
the edges of a book
81. Ring binding is also called as a. Foil stamping
a. Loose leaf binding b. Embossing
b. Mechanical binding c. Gilding
c. Perfect binding d. Debossing
d. Case binding
89. The vibrating table that squares the stack of
82. Eyelets refers to sheets in post press operations is named as
a. Small holes made in paper a. Jogger
b. Small metal units used to prevent b. Guillotine bed
tearing of hole in paper c. Trimmer
c. Small metal strips used on the spine of d. Die cutter
the book as a binding
d. Small holes made on the spine
90. In wire stitching, ————— is used to close
the stitch beneath the work.
83. The alternative name for perfect binding is a. Bender
a. Case binding b. Clenchers
b. Loose leaf binding c. Wire straightners
c. Mechanical binding d. Wire insertner
d. Adhesive binding

97 NG 23 (GROUP B)

91. Varnish used for coating of boards used in 98. The sweeteners and ————— are added to
food packaging is food to minimize the spoilage action.
a. Spirit varnish a. Preservative
b. Vineyl lacquer b. Enzymatic
c. Aqua based varnish c. Metabolic
d. UV varnish d. All the above

92. Aluminium collapsible tubes are produced by 99. Which of the following properties of polymer
__________ from a small round blank. is required for achieving good printing
a. Sheet extrusion characteristics?
b. Blown film extrusion a. Stiffness
c. Impact extrusion b. OTR
d. Co-extrution c. WVTR
d. Polarity
93. Vapour phase inhibitor is a kind of coating on
paper to avoid 100. In the following laws which does not obey the
a. Corrosion permeation model?
b. Oxidation a. Henry’s law
c. Leaching b. Fick’s law
d. Migration c. Boyle's law
d. Planck’s law
94. The qualitative tests are conducted to assess
the quality of packaging materials in terms of
101. The reference standard for pre-shipment test
a. Physical properties is carried out by
b. Chemical properties a. ISTA
c. Mechanical properties b. SWMA
d. All of the above c. PFA
d. SICMBA
95. The glass is the percentage of reflectance of
light at a particular angle where the angle of
incident light and the angle of reflected light 102. Which of the following is ASTM standard for
will be the Determination of Leaks in Flexible Packaging
by Bubble Emission?
a. Same
a. D6653
b. Larger
b. D4991
c. Smaller
c. D3078
d. Medium
d. None of the above

96. Thermal shock test is used to determine the
resistance of thermal shock of 103. Which of the following chemicals is used for
a. Glass container fumigation?
b. Plastic container a. Methyl bromide
c. Metal b. Potassium nitrate
d. All of the above c. Ethylene-oxide
d. Ethylene Scavenger
97. Which of the following is used to determine
the leakage of metal container? 104. The sunk cost is also known as
a. Hydraulic pressure a. Prime cost
b. Leak test b. Marginal cost
c. Air pressure test c. Historical cost
d. None of the above d. Retrospective cost

NG 23 (GROUP B) 98

105. The main objective of financial management 111. Machine hour rate =
is a. Total factory overheads – Total
a. Profit and wealth maximization machine hours
b. Sales forecasting b. Total factory overheads / Total machine
c. Financial Audit hours
d. Tax compliance c. Total factory overheads + Total
machine hours
d. Total factory overheads * Total
machine hours
106. Which of the following is the total of all direct
and indirect cost?
a. Overheads 112. Which of the following formula may be used
b. Prime cost to calculate the requirement of adhesive?
c. Work cost a. Adhesive required = (work area × no. of
d. Production cost books)/ coverage power
b. Adhesive required = coverage power /
(work area × no. of books)
107. The formula for calculating the weight of a c. Adhesive required = (work area + no. of
books)/ coverage power
reel of paper is
d. Adhesive required = (work area – no. of
a. WR = (GSM × B × L)/4000 books)/ coverage power
b. WR = (GSM × B × L)/3000
c. WR = (GSM × B × L)/2000
d. WR = (GSM × B × L)/1000 113. Which of the following is used to calculate
present value?
a. PV = FV – 1/(1+r)t
108. The sum of all direct costs such as cost of b. PV = FV + 1/(1+r)t
production and raw materials is called as c. PV = FV × 1/(1+r)t
a. Transportation cost d. PV = FV × 1/(1–r)t
b. Conversion cost
c. Overheads
d. Prime cost 114. (Current Sales Level – Breakeven Point) ÷
Current Sales Level =
a. P/V ratio
b. Sensitivity
109. The cost of operating all the production
c. Breakeven point
facilities of a manufacturing unit is termed as
d. Margin of safety
a. Distribution overhead
b. Factory overhead
c. Office overhead
115. Break–Even Point (Units) is equal to
d. Selling overhead
a. Fixed Costs × (Revenue per Unit –
Variable Cost per Unit)
b. Fixed Costs ÷ (Revenue per Unit –
110. Which of the following formula is used to Variable Cost per Unit)
calculate the overheads?
c. Fixed Costs – (Revenue per Unit –
a. Overheads = IM + IL + IE Variable Cost per Unit)
b. Overheads = IM + IL – IE d. Fixed Costs + (Revenue per Unit –
c. Overheads = (IM + IL) × IE Variable Cost per Unit)
d. Overheads = (IM + IL) / IE
—————————

99 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

23 — PRODUCTION AND INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. A ball and a socket joint form a 61. What is the minimum distance should be
a. sliding pair maintained between two successive welding
spots while welding using resistance spot
b. rolling pair welding process in order to avoid shunting of
c. spherical pair current with the nearby spots and contact
surfaces?
d. turning pair a. 16 times the thickness of parent to be
welded
b. No such minimum distance is required
57. If two gears A and B are meshing with each
c. Equal to the thickness of parent to be
other such that A rotates with 100 rpm. If welded
mA = 2 mm, mB = 4 mm and tA = 50, tb = 30, d. Equal to the diameter of electrode used
then revolution of gear B is
a. 60 rpm 62. Which one of the following is used as the
pattern material in precision investment
b. 84 rpm casting?
c. 100 rpm a. Metal
b. Wax
d. 92 rpm
c. Plastic
d. Wood
58. When the body is subjected to transverse
vibration, the stress induced in a body will be 63. Slugging is the operation of
a. Removal of excess metal from the edge
a. Shear of a strip to make it suitable for
b. Bending stress drawing without wrinkling
b. Cutting of the excess metal at edge
c. Compressive stress
which was required for gripping
d. Both shear and tensile stress purpose during press working
operation
c. Cutting in a single line across a part of
59. Due to slip of belt, velocity ratio of belt drive the metal strip to allow bending or
forming in progressive die operation
a. decreases while the part remains attached to the
b. increases strip
d. Punching in which punch is stopped as
c. may increases or decreases
soon as the metal fracture is completed
d. not affected and metal is not removed but held in
hole

60. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more
64. Which of the following displacement
serious in diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic
performance of a cam-follower mechanism?
a. elastic materials
a. simple harmonic motion
b. ductile materials b. parabolic motion
c. brittle materials c. cycloidal motion
d. Straight line motion
d. Rubber

NG 23 (GROUP B) 100

65. Which of the following is true for centrifugal 71. Increasing Silicon composition in cast iron
force causing unbalance? promotes
a. Direction changes with rotation a. Graphitization
b. Magnitude changes with rotation
b. Carbide formation
c. Direction and magnitude both change
with rotation c. Red shortness
d. Direction and magnitude both remain d. Dezincification
unchanged with rotation

72. Creep rate in ternary stage
66. Which one of the following is the tool life
a. Decreases
criteria that is normally referred?
a. Crater wear b. Constant
b. Nose radius c. Increases
c. Flank wear d. Increase and then decrease
d. Crater wear and nose radius

73. The following structure is obtained by
67. In gears, the angle subtended by circular austempering process of heat treatment
pitch at the centre of pitch circle is known as:
a. Ferrite
a. Rack angle
b. Pitch angle b. Pearlite
c. Addendum angle c. Bainite
d. Helix angle d. Leduburite

68. If a shaper has a stroke length of 240 mm 74. Case hardening is the method for hardening
and number of double strokes per minute is
40 and ratio of return to cutting time is 2 : 3, a. Tungsten carbide
then its cutting speed is b. High carbon steel
a. 15.9 m/min c. Silicon carbine
b. 25.6 m/min
d. Low carbon steel
c. 3.7 m/min
d. 18.4 m/min
75. Martensite formed instantaneously at low
temperature from
69. Which principle does Tomlinson’s surface
meter work on? a. Ferrite
a. Mechanical b. Cementite
b. Electrical c. Austenite
c. Mechanical and Optical
d. Pearlite
d. Carrier modulating principle

76. A device, which holds, locates a workpiece,
70. The way of inspection that is done using
machine vision to check the correct filling of guides and controls one or more cutting tools
containers in a bottling line falls under which is called as
of the following types? a. Jig
a. Assembly verification b. Fixture
b. Presence absence detection
c. Template
c. Dimensional gauging
d. Defect detection d. Lathe

101 NG 23 (GROUP B)

77. What is the drilling time for producing a hole 82. Select CNC programing code for rapid
in an MS sheet of 25 mm thickness using an traverse motion.
HSS drill of 20 mm diameter? The cutting a. G00
speed and feed for drill are 20 m/min and b. G01
0.25mm/rev respectively. Neglect time taken c. G02
for setting up, approaching and travelling of d. M00
tools.
a. 0.314 min 83. In which of the following processes filament
b. 0.236 min is fed into an extrusion head and heated to a
semi-liquid state and deposited in thin layers
c. 0.438 min based on slice data?
d. 0.443 min a. SLS
b. FDM
78. A machine was purchased for Rs.10,00,000. It c. SGC
was assumed that after 15 years its value d. SLA
will reduce to Rs.3,00,000. Machine was
assumed working 10 hrs/ day. 84. A Cartesian robot has ——————
Calculate the depreciation /working hr. movement.
a. Rs.100 a. Two linear one rotational
b. Three rotational
b. Rs.2
c. Two rotational and one linear
c. Rs.19
d. Three linear
d. Rs.51

85. Flexible Manufacturing Systems (FMS)
79. Master schedule is prepared for allows to
a. Single product continuous production a. Only manage the movement of
products, parts or trolley
b. Multi product batch production
b. Only manage the movement of
c. Assembly product continuous materials or workpiece between
production operations
d. Single product batch production c. Completely manufacture a range of
components without significant human
intervention during the processing
80. In which of the following type of die, a
d. Co-ordinate the entire process of
combination of cutting and some other manufacturing and manufactures a
operation can be performed at a single part or a component or a product with a
station? dedicated layout
a. Cutting die
b. Forming die 86. A farm machinery manufacturer has an
c. Compound die output rate of 320 hours per week and has
measured the load on his shop as follows:
d. Combination die
Work in process:
Current requirement – 960 hours
81. Which of the following is a CAD neutral file Long term orders – 320 hours
format? Then what is the manufacture lead time?
a. SLDPRT a. 4 weeks
b. CATPRT b. 6 weeks
c. PRT c. 15 weeks
d. 3 weeks
d. STEP

NG 23 (GROUP B) 102

87. In Materials Requirement Planning, if the 91. Performance efficiency is calculated using the
inventory holding cost is very high and the equation:
setup cost is zero, which one of the following a. E = (C × N) / T × 100
lot sizing approaches should be used? b. E = T/ (C × N) × 100
a. Economic Order Quantity
c. E = T/ (Q × N) × 100
b. Lot-for-Lot
d. E = (Q × N) / T × 100
c. Base Stock Level
d. Fixed Period Quantity, for 2 periods
92. The possibility of concluding that the process
is in – control when it is actually out – of -
88. The demand for a two-wheeler was 900 units control is called as
and 1030 units in April 2015 and May 2015, a. Producer’s risk
respectively. The forecast for the month of
b. Consumer’s risk
April 2015 was 850 units. Considering
c. Type III error
a smoothing constant of 0.6, the forecast for
the month of June 2015 is d. Type IV error
a. 850 units
b. 927 units 93. The process capability ratio Cr is
c. 965 units a. 1 / Cpk
d. 970 units b. 1 / Cpu
c. 1 / Cpl
89. Consider the following Linear Programming d. 1 / Cp
problem (LPP).
Maximise Z = X1 + 2X 2 94. A washing machine reported 6 failures
Subject to: during a period of 1500 hours of operation.
The average repair time per failure is 1 hour.
X1 ≤ 2
The failure rate λ is
X2 ≤ 2 a. 0.00604 per hour
X1 + X 2 ≤ 2 b. 0.00204 per hour
c. 0.00402 per hour
X1 , X 2 ≥ 0 (i.e. +ve decision variables)
d. 0.00804 per hour
What is the optional solution to the above
LPP?
a. 2, 2 95. Which of the following charts are drawn
when sub group consists of n units?
b. 0, 2
a. C chart
c. 2, 0
b. U chart
d. 0, 0
c. R chart
d. np chart
90. Which one of the following is NOT a decision
taken during the aggregate production
planning stage? 96. If the value of the objective function Z can be
a. Scheduling of machines increased or decreased indefinitely, such a
solution is called
b. Amount of labour to be committed
a. Bounded solution
c. Rate at which production should
happen b. Unbounded solution

d. Inventory to be carried forward c. Unique solution
d. Multiple solutions

103 NG 23 (GROUP B)

97. For a minimization problem, the objective 103. Which of the following cannot improve
function coefficient for an artificial variable is productivity?
a. +M a. Decreasing Input and maintaining the
b. –M same output
c. Zero b. Increasing Output and maintaining the
same input
d. –1000
c. Increasing Input and maintaining the
same output
98. A minimization problem can be converted d. Proportionately increasing the output
into a maximization problem by changing the to lesser input
sign of coefficients in the
a. Constraints
104. What does the symbol 'O' imply in work-
b. Objective Functions
study?
c. Both (a) and (b)
a. Operation
d. Only default constraints
b. Inspection
c. Transport
99. If there were n workers & n jobs there would d. Delay/temporary storage
be
a. n! solutions
105. The height of the top of the workbench should
b. (n–1)! solutions be —————— the height of the elbow of the
c. (n!)solutions workmen.
d. n solutions a. At
b. Above
100. ABC classification is based on c. Below
a. Henry Mintzberg’s Principle d. Any of the above
b. Pareto’s Principle
c. Availability of Materials 106. If a particular job fails to meet the due date
d. Simplex principle then such jobs in scheduling terminology is
called
a. Tardy Job
101. Economic order quantity is the quantity of
b. Ready Job
material when the
c. Work Remaining
a. Inventory carrying cost = Inventory
d. Yet to complete the job
ordering cost
b. Order quantity is matching to demand
quantity 107. SPT Rule
c. Order quantity is equal to available a. Minimizes mean flow time
cash b. Maximizes mean flow time
d. Order quantity is economical c. Reduces the tardy jobs
d. Does not affect flow time
102. A queuing system is said to be a ——————
when its operating characteristic is 108. Which of the following method uses the “sum
independent upon time of square” in its process of forecasting
a. pure birth model a. Moving Average Method
b. pure death model b. Weighted Moving Average
c. transient state c. Naïve Approach
d. steady-state d. Regression Method

NG 23 (GROUP B) 104

109. A Continuous production line that has 112. The Aggregate Measure of the goodness of

3 machines with processing times as 30 min, the process performance is known as

10 min, and 15 minutes. The management a. Process Capability Index

decided to add one more machine of the same b. Upper Capability Index

c. Lower Capability Index
capacity to the bottleneck process. What will
d. Capability Ratio
be the production rate (in units/hr) of the

system before and after adding the machine

to the system? 113. The numerical definition of a poor lot,

a. 2,1 associated with a consumer’s risk is known as

a. LQL
b. 2,4
b. AQL
c. 4,2
c. α
d. 2,6
d. β

110. Which of the following is a type of control
114. Which one is the correct sequence for TPM, in
chart for variables ? eliminating the three types of Losses?
a. C chart a. Downtime, quality, and defect

b. P chart b. Downtime, speed, and quality

c. Downtime, speed, and defect
c. X chart
d. Downtime, speed, and quantity
d. U chart

115. Average uptime availability is defined as the
111. When the sample size is one which type of
proportion of time during which the system is
chart do you advocate ? available for use in a specified interval is
a. X-bar chart a. (0,1)

b. R-chart b. (0,T)

c. S chart c. (T,T)

d. (1,T)
d. MA and MR chart

—————————

105 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

24 — SOCIAL SCIENCES

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Economics is the study of 61. Which of the following is the expansion of a
a. Production Technology country's money supply that results from

b. Consumption decision banks being able to lend?

c. How Society decides what, how and for a. Ripple Effect
b. Keynes effect
whom to produce
c. Acceleration Effect
d. The best way to run society d. Multiplier effect

57. Agglomeration economies are found in the 62. Which of the following statements reflects the
true meaning of gross investment?
a. Urban areas
a. Gross investment is the total of net
b. Rural areas investment and depreciation
c. MNC's b. Gross investment is the difference
between the net investment and
d. Foreign Trades depreciation
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
58. Who is the father of classical economics?
a. Adam Smith
63. Which is not an axiom from the following?
b. Henry George a. Externalities have positive effect on the
c. John Stuant Mill economy
b. There is no competition among firms
d. None of the above
c. Self-reinforcing effect causes
inefficiency
d. Production is subject to economies of
59. Which of the following is not a component of scale
the GDP?
a. Consumption Goods
64. When was the Blue Revolution in India
b. Investment spending by firms in launched?
captial goods a. During the 5th Five Year Plan
b. During the 10th Five Year Plan
c. Public sectors own demand for goods.
c. During the 7th Five Year Plan
d. Employment rate d. During the 9th Five Year Plan

60. The Term "Laizzez Fare" relates to 65. What is a continuous urban spread
constituting a town and its adjoining
a. The policy by the Government in a
outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically
particular direction contiguous towns together with or without
b. The policy of leaving things to take outgrowths of such towns?
a. Out Growths
their own course
b. Urban Agglomeration
c. The policy of trading by Business men c. Census Town
d. None of the above d. Statutory Town

NG 23 (GROUP B) 106

66. Which is the most important factor 72. New Agriculture policy was started in the
influencing agglomeration economics? year of
a. Availability of cheap labour a. 2000
b. Availability of better infrastructure b. 2001
c. Physical proximity of other related firm c. 2005
d. Availability of Consumers d. 2010

67. Immigrants affect the economy in 73. Which of the following is the term used to
refer the relationship between human beings
a. Labour Market
and their physical environment?
b. Public Purse
a. Human Physiology
c. Economic Growth
b. Human Ecology
d. All of the above
c. Human Environment
d. None of the above
68. The resident in this area enjoy the urban
services and facilities but usually do not pay
74. The term Sociology was coined by
for them.
a. Spencer
a. Urban Fringe
b. Comte
b. Suburb
c. C.W. Thomson
c. Urban Sprawl
d. Duerkheim
d. None of the above

75. According to ––––––––––, Society is a web of
69. The focus for urban activity and the social relation.
confluence of the city’s transportation a. Cooley
infrastructure is
b. Maclver
a. Component-Based Development
c. Parsons
b. Central Business District d. Leacock
c. Customer Business Development
d. Cash Before Delivery
76. Right to Information Act was enacted in the
year
70. The sources of agglomeration economies a. 2000
include b. 2005
a. Input productivity c. 2002
b. Labor mobility d. 1999
c. Capital intensity
d. Knowledge spillover
77. The Term "Survival of the fittest "was coined
by
71. In Sociology , society refers to a. Herbert Spencer
a. Members of a specific in-group b. Marx
b. Pattern of the norm of interaction c. Darwin

c. Congregation of people d. Censki

d. People with laws and customs

107 NG 23 (GROUP B)

78. The Sociological meaning of social change 83. Select the correct Statements
refers to change in
On the issue of low status of women in
a. Society Family the socialist feminists argue that
gender inequality is
b. Institution
i. ideologically linked to their
c. Association
predominant engagement with
d. Social Relationship
household responsibility

ii. due to their predominant engagement
79. India recognized the population problem and
adopted an official national programme in with unpaid household activities
family planning in iii. due to the low income of household
a. 1950
iv. politically linked to their political
b. 1952
passivity
c. 1955
d. 1975 Select the correct alternative

a. i and ii

80. Which sector of India’s economy contribute b. ii and iii
the most in its GDP? c. ii and iv
a. Agriculture
d. iii and iv
b. Service
c. Industry
d. All of the above contributes equally 84. The average number of live – born children
produced by women of child bearing age in a

81. Which one of the following is not particular society is called
predominantly associated with tribal a. Morbidity Rate
economy in India?
b. Mortality Rate
a. Collection of forest produce and
agricultural wage work c. Fertility Rate
b. Wage work in agriculture and Animal d. Fecundity Rate
husbandry
c. Animal husbandry and collection of
forest produce 85. Which one of the following is not a push
d. Household industry and industry wage factor of rural to urban migration?
work
a. Rural unemployment

b. Increasing practice of dowry in rural
82. Green Revolution is related to
areas
a. Agricultural growth
c. Rural poverty
b. Industrial growth
c. Milk Production d. Decline of cottage and household

d. All of the above industry in rural areas

NG 23 (GROUP B) 108

86. Which of the following social workers work in 91. The rural-urban migration that has led to
urban and rural areas and with international over urbanization in India after 57 years of
and national organization?
its independence is mainly a consequence of
a. Gerontological
a. Push factor due to poverty in rural
b. Correctional

c. School areas

d. Community b. Pull factor due to affluence in urban

areas
87. Factors indicating urbanization are c. Both push and pull factors
a. Migration
d. Push factor due to affluence in urban
b. High Congestion
areas
c. Slum

d. All of the above
92. Which of the following is not a social process?

88. Due to the attraction of new opportunities, a. Accommodation
people migrate to the town and it is known as
b. Acculturation
a. Push factor of migration
c. Annihilation
b. Pull factor of migration

c. Poverty d. Assimilation

d. None of the above

93. Which of the following is not a principle of
89. Which is not the characteristic of urban life ? case work?
a. Loss of humanistic value
a. Specific objectives
b. Impersonal relationship
b. Confidentiality
c. Informal relationship

d. Competition c. Individualization

d. Evaluation

90. Which service provides nutrition for the
children?
94. Bottom-up concept related to
a. ICDS
a. Mega planning
b. ICMR

c. MCH b. Macro planning

d. CGHS c. Meso planning

d. Micro planning

109 NG 23 (GROUP B)

95. Which article of Indian Constitution lays 100. Which article of the Indian Constitution
down the provision of free and compulsory provides maternity leave for women?
education for children? a. Article 40
a. 45
b. Article 41
b. 46
c. Article 42
c. 47
d. Article 44
d. 48

101. The word ‘urban’ is derived from
96. Human life is mostly influenced by
a. Persian
a. Friends
b. Roman
b. Family
c. Greek
c. School
d. Latin
d. Colleagues

102. Which one is the early approach to study
97. Which one of the following is not the function
of a social worker in a juvenile residential Urban Geography?

institution? a. Urban Morphology

a. Administration b. Positivism approach

b. Maintaining case records c. Behavioral approach
c. Court hearing of cases d. Humanistic approach
d. Publishing research papers

103. The census of India defines an urban place
98. Globalization is driven largely by with a minimum population of
a. Liberalization a. 5,000
b. Privatization b. 10,000
c. Human Resource
c. 15,000
d. Modernization
d. 20,000

99. One of the sections of Income Tax Act that
104. What is the big concern for defining urban
gives tax exemption to nonprofit
and rural areas?
organizations on their income is
a. Income
a. 12 A
b. Size of population
b. 17 B
c. Activity
c. 80 G
d. All of the above d. All of the above

NG 23 (GROUP B) 110

105. Developed Countries generate revenue 110. Which of the following refers to number of
people in an urban area per sq km?
mainly from:
a. Citification
a. Agriculture Sector b. Urban population
b. Industrial Sector c. Urban density
d. Urbanism
c. Service Sector

d. None of the above
111. Conurbation means
a. Cluster of cities and town
b. Cities of cities
106. Urbanism is mainly the study of c. Group of slums
a. Process of urban growth d. None of the above

b. Growth of the urban population
112. The year in which Burgress and Park
c. The character of city life
developed their theory of urban ecology?
d. None of the above a. 1925
b. 1935
c. 1915
107. The main reason behind the rapid growth of d. None of the above
slums in India is

a. Economic deprivation 113. Which of the following the term is used to
refer the relationship between human beings
b. Political Instability and their natural, social and built
environment?
c. Rural-urban migration
a. Human physiology
d. None of the above b. Human ecology
c. Human environment
d. None of the above
108. In which Zone slum area is generally located?

a. CBD 114. Which of the following towns is situated on
the bank of Indus river?
b. Commuters’ Zone
a. Ropar
c. Zone in Transition b. Harappa
d. Residential Zone c. Dholvira
d. Mohanjodaro

109. In economic geography Isotims and 115. Two towns located on both sides of a river
Isodapanes are related to : banks is known as ––––––––––
a. Plain Town
a. Transport cost b. Mountain Town
b. Retailing c. Twin Town
d. Lake Town
c. Barter trade

d. None of the above

—————————

111 NG 23 (GROUP B)

PART III

25 — TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

56. Monomer(s) used for manufacturing 61. The influence of benzene ring in a fibre is to
nylon 6 is (are)
a. reduce tensile strength
a. hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
b. hexamethylene diamine and sebasic b. give firmness to the structure
acid c. increase the dye uptake
c. ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
d. increase the elongation
d. Caprolactum

57. Which of the following techniques would 62. In non crystalline region of cellulose, the type
provide an accurate measurement of of bond formed is
crystallinity in a semi-crystalline fibre? a. Vander Waals forces
a. Density measurement
b. Hydrogen bonds
b. Differential Scanning Calorimetry
(DSC) c. Ionic bonds
c. Wide angle X-ray diffraction d. Covalent bonds
d. Infrared spectroscopy

63. The range of spiral angle of S2 layer in cotton
58. The molecular chains of liquid crystalline
polymer is fibre is
a. 20 -23°
a. isotropic in nature b. 27 -33°
b. crystalline in nature
c. 45°
c. anisotropic in nature
d. amorphous in nature d. 60°

59. In melt spinning, the speed of high speed 64. Which one of the following is a uni-cellular
spinning process is
fibre?
a. 600 – 1500 mpm
a. Flax
b. More than 6000 mpm
c. 3000 – 4000 mpm b. Jute
d. 5000 – 6000 mpm c. Raw silk
d. Cotton
60. For a typical polymer fluid, pseudo plastic
means
a. The viscosity decreases with decreasing 65. Which one of the following is chemically
shear rate modified cellulose?
b. The viscosity increases with decreasing
a. Viscose rayon
shear rate
c. The viscosity decreases with increasing b. Cuprammonium rayon
shear rate c. Cellulose acetate
d. The viscosity increases with increasing
d. Casein
shear rate

NG 23 (GROUP B) 112

66. Which one of the following is responsible for 71. If the twist angle is 60 deg, the retraction of
the crimped configuration of wool fibre? the yarn would be
a. medulla
a. 3 /2
b. α and β keratin
b. 1/3
c. macro fibrils
d. scales c. 1/ 3
d. 3
67. Electron microscopy is used to
a. Determine the molecular orientation
b. Determine the crystallinity of fibres
72. Liner density of the input material to the
c. Analyse the surface morphology of carding machine is 360 Ktex and that of the
fibres
output sliver is 4Ktex. The waste extracted in
d. Analyse the lamellar structure card is 5%. What is the draft in the card?
a. 95.5
68. The comber noil index in the comber b. 90.5
determines the distance between
c. 85.5
a. Top comb and combing cylinder
d. 80.5
b. Wire points on the combing cylinder
and bottom nipper plate
c. Nipping point of nipper plates and
detaching roller 73. The noil% removed by the comber running in
d. Detaching roller and combing cylinder backward feed can be increased by
a. Increasing feed amount per nip
movement
69. The overall cleaning efficiency (%) of the blow
room line having 2 machines with individual b. Decreasing feed amount per nip
cleaning efficiency of m1% and m2% is movement
a. [1 − {(1 − (m1 / 100 )) * c. Decreasing detachment distance
(1 − (m 2 / 100 ))}] * 100 d. Lifting the top comb up

b. [(1 − (m1 / 100 )) *
(1 − (m 2 / 100 ))] * 100 74. Undrafting of roving at ring frame drafting is
c. [1 − { (m1 / 100 ) * not due to
(m2 / 100 )}] * 100 a. Improper selection of break draft

d. [(m1 / 100 ) * b. Improper selection of aprons
c. Improper selection of spacer
(m 2 /100 )] * 100 d. Incorrect temperature and RH at ring
frame section
70. The hank of sliver fed to a draw frame is
X Tex. Six slivers are fed and break draft of
Y1 and main zone draft of Y2 are applied. If 75. In the ring frame the spindle speed is
the resultant linear density (Tex) of the feed
18000 rpm. The delivery rate is 20 m/min.
sliver increases by Z% and if the break draft
is maintained same, the main zone draft Ring diameter is 40 mm. Find the traveller
should be –––––––––– to get uniform output speed when the winding is taking place at
sliver in terms of linear density. 22 mm of ring tube.
a. Increased by Z% a. 17710 rpm
b. Decreased by Z% b. 17840 rpm
c. Increased by (X.Z/6).(Y1/Y2) % c. 18160 rpm
d. Decreased by (X.Z/6).(Y1/Y2)% d. 18290 rpm

113 NG 23 (GROUP B)

76. While changing the roving hank from coarser 81. A winding machine makes 8 coils on a
to finer at roving frame package during the double traverse of its
a. Bobbin rail / trough movement (speed) thread guide. Calculate its wind and traverse
has to be increased ratio.
b. Bobbin rail / trough movement (speed) a. 4, 8
has to be decreased b. 8, 4
c. Shifting of belt on the cone drum has to c. 16, 8
be increased d. 8, 16
d. Flyer speed has to be increased

82. In a conventional mechanical yarn clearer ,
77. Select the wrong statement with respect to the yarn thin place is cleared by the action of
the chase length of ring bobbin winding a. Knife
a. It is decided based on the ring diameter b. External scissors
b. It decides the cop content
c. Supervisor
c. It decides the traveller to be used
d. Yarn tensioner
d. It is controlled by builder motion cam
and follower
83. Among the various size ingredients, which of
the following combinations of ingredients is
78. While changing the count of yarn to be considered as a most important one for the
produced at ring frame for the same roving, reduction of loom to yarn and yarn to yarn
which one of the following is not essentially friction.
be changed
a. Adhesive, Lubricant
a. Twist per unit length of yarn
b. Adhesive, Antistatic
b. Break draft
c. Lubricant, Antistatic
c. Traveller number
d. Lubricant, Antifoaming
d. Total draft

84. A 1000 meter warp experiences 2%, ,4% and
79. The winding: binding coils ratio in ring frame
2% elongation during sizing. Calculate the
cop is 2:1. The ratio of the ring rail speed
final length of warp yarn in meter after the
during winding and binding will be
sizing process.
a. 1:2
a. 1003
b. 2:1
b. 1080
c. 1:1
c. 1082
d. 2:2
d. 1100

80. In a drum winding machine, the angle of
85. Which of the following selvedges is mostly
wind becomes ––––––––––, if the package
preferred for shuttle-less narrow width
surface velocity is –––––––––– and the
fabrics?
traverse velocity is ––––––––––
a. Tuck in selvedge
a. Minimum, Minimum, Maximum
b. Minimum, Maximum, Minimum b. Chain stitch selvedge

c. Maximum, Maximum, Minimum c. Half cross leno selvedge

d. Maximum, Minimum, Minimum d. Full cross leno selvedge

NG 23 (GROUP B) 114

86. In a shuttle loom, the increase in the ratio 92. If a nylon fiber is found to have a mean fiber
between crank radius and crank length width of 16 µm, calculate its linear density in
a. Increases the beat-up force terms of denier, given that its density is
b. Increases the shed depth 1.14gcm3
c. Increases the picking force a. 2.06
d. Increases the dwell time b. 1.06
c. 3.06
d. 4.06
87. Three try motion is a device used along with
a. Warp stop mechanism
b. Weft stop mechanism
c. Let off mechanism 93. Calculate the standard regain of a 67/33
d. Take up mechanism Polyester : Cotton blended yarn
a. 3.5%
b. 3.073%
88. A positive dobby shedding mechanism can c. 4.073%
control d. 3.75%
a. 18 harnesses
b. 24 harnesses
c. 30 harnesses
94. A fiber specimen of 200mm extended by 10%
d. 36 harnesses
when loaded with 500CN force. The length
of the specimen after removal of load was
found to be 202 mm. The percentage elastic
89. A warp is entered into a 72s Stockport reed recovery of the specimen is
with two ends per dent. The warp width in
the reed is 44 inch but the fabric width is a. 70
measured in the cloth room is 40 inch. b. 80
Calculate the number of ends per inch in the c. 92
cloth.
d. 20
a. 71
b. 73
c. 75
95. If 840 mature fibers and 160 immature fibers
d. 79
were found in a test specimen, the percent
maturity would be
90. Which of the following is the application of a. 78
Huck-a-back weaves? b. 84
a. Towel c. 72
b. Suiting d. 26
c. Blouse
d. Carpet
96. In visual examination method of yarn
grading, for the yarn number of
91. The term ‘ ––––––––––’ is applied to cloths in
65 to 120 S , the number of wraps per inch
which the stitching ends are interwoven in
plain order with all wadding picks. will be
a. Waved piques a. 20
b. Fast back welt b. 26
c. Crepon Bedford card c. 38
d. Wadded Bedford cord d. 48

115 NG 23 (GROUP B)

97. Calculate the twist angle of a spun cotton 102. A fabric roll of 180 meter long and 48 inches
yarn twisted to give a twist factor of 5
wide contain the following defects 4 defects
a. 29˚ 18'
b. 35˚ 18' up to 3 inch, 2 defects over 3 inch but less

c. 32˚ 18' than 6 inch, 2 defect over 6 inch but less
d. 37˚ 18'
than 9 inch, 2 defect over 9 inch. The defect

points/100 sq.m is given by
98. A 2 meter length of polyester rope weighs
6 grams. Calculate its linear density in terms a. 11.9
of Ktex
b. 10.18
a. 5
b. 4 c. 15.3
c. 3
d. 7
d. 6

99. On Classimat the H1 + I1 faults are 103. Eight thread specimens were tested for single

a. short thick faults thread strength. The values of the strength in
b. long thin faults
grams are given below
c. long thick faults
d. short thin faults 150, 152, 160, 170, 172, 175, 180, 181

Find the median value
100. Bursting strength of a square fabric of the
a. 181
same weight compared to unbalanced fabric
weight produced from the same yarns will b. 152
have
c. 171
a. same strength
b. higher strength d. 161
c. lower strength
d. can be higher or lower

104. The dye insoluble in water is

101. The resistance to fabric creasing can be a. Direct dyes
obtained by
b. Reactive dyes
a. decreasing the elastic modulus
b. increasing the torsional stresses c. Acid dyes
c. both torsion and compression
d. Vat dyes
d. increasing the elastic modulus

NG 23 (GROUP B) 116

105. Acid dyes are 110. P/N based flame retardants are most suitable
a. Anionic for
b. Cationic
a. Cotton
c. Non ionic
b. PAN
d. Metameric
c. PP

d. Nylon
106. In comparision to homo bifunctional reactive
dye , mono functional dyes exhibit better
a. exhaustion
111. Dischargeable reactive dyes are mostly
b. hue a. Dichlorotrazine based
c. chroma b. Anthraquinone based
c. Vinyl sulphone based
d. value d. Acetyl based

107. Methylene blue dye is used to estimate 112. Nersnt Isotherm best explains the dyeing of
a. Polyester with disperse dye
a. Exhaustion
b. Cotton with reactive dye
b. Carboxyl group c. Wool with acid dye
c. Aldehyde group d. Viscose with direct dye

d. Degree of polymerization
113. The fabric made of fibre with highest solar
protection factor is
108. Maximum possible crease recovery angle for a a. Cotton
b. Wool
fabric is
c. Silk
a. 90 d. Polyester
b. 120
c. 180
114. If a white discharge is required on indigoid
d. 360 based ground , the blocking agent should be
a. Cross linking agent
b. Water soluble cross linking agent
c. Water soluble
109. Reduction of Indigo
d. Water insoluble
a. Decreases solubility
b. Increases tinctorial value
115. Diammonium phosphate on heating produces
c. Increases substantivity a. Ammonia and phosphoric acid
d. Converts carbonyl groups to hydroxyl b. Nitrogen, water and phosphoric acid
groups c. Nitrogen, water and Phosphate
d. Ammonia, water and phosphate
—————————

117 NG 23 (GROUP B)

FOR ROUGH WORK

NG 23 (GROUP B) 118

FOR ROUGH WORK

119 NG 23 (GROUP B)

FOR ROUGH WORK

NG 23 (GROUP B) 120

FOR ROUGH WORK

121 NG 23 (GROUP B)