RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 23 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 23 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 23/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is true about the magnetic field around a current carrying
solenoid?
Ans A. The direction of magnetic field associated with the solenoid can be reversed by reversing the direction of current flowing
through it.
B. The field line pattern of the solenoid resembles the magnetic field line pattern of a straight current carrying wire.

C. The field in the core of the solenoid decreases from one end of the other end.

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D. The field associated with the solenoid can be increased by decreasing the number of turns in the solenoid.

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Q.2
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A car’s odometer shows 3000 km at the beginning of a journey and 3200 km at the end.

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If the journey takes 4 hours, what is the car’s average speed?
Ans A. 75 km/hr
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B. 50 km/hr a
C. 100 km/hr

D. 25 km/hr

Q.3 Which component is used in a circuit to increase resistance and limit current?
Ans A. Battery

B. Lamp
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C. Resistor
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Q.4 How are the metals in the middle of the activity series usually extracted?

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C. By electrolysis

D. By dissolving in water

Q.5 A mass of 3 kg is lifted to a height of 12 m. What is the value of potential energy at the
given height?

(Take g = 10 m/s2)
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Ans A. 360.0 J

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B. 36.0 J

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C. 3.0 J

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D. 4.0 J
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 What is the function of the nuclear membrane in a cell?
Ans A. It regulates the transfer of material between nucleus and cytoplasm.

B. It provides energy for nuclear division during mitosis.

C. It prevents the entry of gases and water molecules into the nucleus.

D. It stores digestive enzymes for chromosomal activities.

Q.7 What is the primary function of lysosomes in a cell?
Ans A. Digestion of foreign materials and worn-out organelles

B. Production of energy in the form of ATP molecules

C. Regulation of water and mineral balance within the cytoplasm

D. Synthesis of proteins and lipids for cell membranes

Q.8 The measurable quantity 'Density' may be represented in the SI unit of:
Ans A. grams per metre

B. kilograms per square metre

C. kilograms per cubic metre

D. kilograms per metre

Q.9 In animals, which of the following hormones are secreted during a scary situation?
Ans A. Growth hormone

B. Thyroxin

C. Adrenaline

D. Insulin

Q.10 Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is INCORRECT?
Ans A. It involves the fusion of male and female gametes.

B. It involves only one parent.

C. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction.

D. It produces offspring that are genetically identical clones of the parent.

Q.11 What is the formula unit mass of sodium chloride (NaCl)?
Ans A. 35.5u

B. 57u

C. 58.5u

D. 23u

Q.12 The cleansing action of soap is due to which of its properties?
Ans A. Being a strong acid

B. Being a strong base

C. High melting point

D. Ability to form micelles

Q.13 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Low pitch means high frequency.

B. Pitch has no relation with frequency.

C. High pitch means low frequency.

D. High pitch means high frequency.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.14 The number of protons in and , respectively, are:
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Ans A. 8 and 6

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B. 6 and 6

C. 6 and 8
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D. 7 and 7

Q.15 Which of the following is NOT explained by the law of gravitation?
Ans A. The electrostatic attraction between two charged bodies

B. Tides in oceans

C. Artificial satellites revolving around the Earth

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D. Falling of raindrops to the Earth

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Q.16
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Vinegar is a 5-8% solution of which of the following?

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Ans
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A. Formic acid in water
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B. Sodium hydroxide in water
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C. Acetic acid in water

D. Calcium carbonate in water

Q.17 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: A neutralisation reaction occurs when an acid reacts with a base.
Statement B: Water and salt are formed during neutralisation.
Ans A. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

B. Both statements A and B are correct.
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C. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

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D. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
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Q.18
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Which of the following correctly distinguishes binary fission from multiple fission in
unicellular organisms?
Ans A. Binary fission occurs only in multicellular organisms, while multiple fission occurs in unicellular ones.

B. Binary fission results in many daughter cells, while multiple fission forms only two.

C. Binary fission requires spores, but multiple fission does not.

D. Binary fission produces two daughter cells, whereas multiple fission produces many daughter cells at once.

Q.19 Parenchyma cells contain large intercellular spaces for:
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Ans A. Protection and transpiration
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B. Gas exchange and storage

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C. Conduction and secretion

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a Q.20 In HIV infection, the 'window period' refers to the phase during which ________.
Ans A. symptoms are severe

B. HIV antibodies are not detectable in tests

C. the patient dies

D. HIV antibodies are detectable in tests

Q.21 Which of the following is a major condition for successful beekeeping?
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Ans A. Presence of pollinating insects

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B. Availability of flowering plants throughout the year

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C. Use of pesticides

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D. Growing wheat and rice
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 49

Q.22 In a Closed System, if 15 gm of substance A reacts with 10 gm of substance B, the total
mass of the products should be
Ans A. 15 gm

B. 10 gm

C. 25 gm

D. 0 gm

Q.23 Which of the following statements about Presbyopia is correct?
Ans A. The near point becomes less than 25 cm.

B. It usually occurs in young children.

C. It occurs due to weakening of ciliary muscles and loss of lens flexibility.

D. It is corrected only by concave lenses.

Q.24 If an object is placed at a distance 'u' from a convex lens, 'u' ________.
Ans A. is taken as negative

B. is taken as positive

C. depends on the type of image

D. is taken as zero

Q.25 Which of the following shows the correct formula for acceleration?
Ans A. acceleration = force × mass

B. acceleration = change in velocity / time taken

C. acceleration = change in velocity × time

D. acceleration = distance / time

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A motorist travels 30 km in 50 minutes. He drives at a speed of x km/hr for the first 12
minutes, then at 2x km/hr for the next 22 minutes and finally at x km/hr for the
remainder of the journey. Determine the value of x.
Ans A. 22

B. 25

C. 30

D. 28

Q.27

Ans A. 354

B. 324

C. 344

D. 374

Q.28 The arithmetic mean of the observations 88, 99, 47, 79, 12, 79, 76, 17 and 61 is:
Ans A. 66

B. 61

C. 52

D. 62

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Q.29
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If cosecθ - cotθ = , and θ lies in the first quadrant, then find the value of 122 cosθ.

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Ans A. 164
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C. 120 ag l
D. 214

Q.30 Simplify: (3x + 2)²
Ans A. 6x² + 12x + 4

B. 9x² + 4x + 4

C. 9x² + 12x + 4
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D. 4x² + 12x + 9
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Q.31
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One pipe can fill a tank in 5 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
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tank in 10 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, then
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how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
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Ans
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A. 11 minutes

B. 5 minutes

C. 6 minutes

D. 10 minutes

Q.32 An agent sells a pressure cooker with a marked price of ₹8,460 at a discount of 20%.
What is the selling price (in ₹) of the pressure cooker?
Ans A. 6,768

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B. 6,767

C. 6,770
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D. 6,766
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Q.33 ag
Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2,000 at 7% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 10 February 2023 to 24 April 2023.
Ans A. 28

B. 27

C. 29

D. 26

In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
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Q.34
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 14°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 2 : 5, then what is the
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difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
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Ans
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D. 16°

Q.35
864
Ans A.

B.

C.

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D.

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Q.36 A teacher is currently four times as old as one of her students. Five years ago, she was
seven times as old as the same student was at that time. What is the teacher’s current
age (in years)?
Ans A. 50

B. 45

C. 40

D. 35

Q.37 Two cylindrical vessels have the same capacity and identical dimensions. If the radius
of the first vessel is increased by 14 cm and the height of the second vessel is
increased by 30 cm, the increase in capacity for both vessels is equal to Q cm3. If the
actual height of each vessel is 24 cm, find the value of Q.
Ans A. 23,250π

B. 23,520π

C. 23,025π

D. 23,502π

Q.38 If 9 : A :: A : 4, then find the positive value of A.
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 7

D. 6

Q.39 A man buys 9 identical articles for a total of ₹16. If he sells each of them for ₹2.4, then
his profit percentage will be ______%.
Ans A. 35

B. 26.92

C. 36

D. 25.92

Q.40 In an election, Candidate A secures 60% of the votes, Candidate B secures 30% of the
votes, and Candidate C secures the remaining 10%. If the total number of votes cast in
the election is 1,20,000, how many more votes did Candidate A receive than Candidate
B?
Ans A. 32,000

B. 28,000

C. 36,000

D. 21,000

Q.41

Ans A. 29050

B. 27090

C. 26850

D. 28620

Q.42 A father is three times as old as his son. After 12 years from now, he will be twice as old
as his son. Find the present ages (in years) of the father and the son, respectively.
Ans A. 36 and 12

B. 35 and 11

C. 37 and 13

D. 38 and 14

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.43 The areas of three adjacent faces of a solid cuboid are 92 cm2, 69 cm2 and 75 cm2.
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What is the volume (in cm3) of the cuboid?
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Ans A. 617
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C. 843

D. 690

Q.44 A woodcutter earns ₹500 per day and spends 30% of his earning daily. What is his daily
saving (in ₹)?4389
Ans A. 355

B. 150

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C. 450

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D. 350

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Q.45
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Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 20%, 4%
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and 14%.
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Ans A. 33.95%

B. 36.60%

C. 33.42%

D. 33.18%

Q.46 For 11 innings, a cricketer has an average of 71 runs. In the 12th inning, he scores 119
runs. His average score increased by _______.
Ans A. 8
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B. 4

C. 5
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D. 13
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Q.47 ag
A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days, while A and C can do the same work in 12
days. If B and C together can complete the work in 48 days, how long will it take for A,
B, and C working together to complete the work (rounded off to two decimal places)?
Ans A. 12.92 days

B. 13.52 days

C. 12.07 days

D. 12.52 days

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Q.48
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How many numbers between 351 and 650 are divisible by 7?
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Ans

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Q.49
If , then find the positive value of x.

Ans A. 4

B. 2.8

C. 6

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D. 3.5

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Q.50 Two engines of trains 75 km apart start towards each other at speeds of 13 km/hr and
17 km/hr, respectively. After how much time will they meet each other? (Assume the
length of engine is negligible.)
Ans A. 146 minutes

B. 143 minutes

C. 150 minutes

D. 155 minutes

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Eight people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. Only one person sits between A and B when counted from the left of A. E sits to
the immediate right of B. Only two people sit between E and F when counted from the
left of E. C sits third to the left of F. D sits to the immediate right of H. Who sits second
to the right of G?
Ans A. H

B. A

C. E

D. F

Q.52 Sharad, Hemant, Anuj, Pradeep, and Vasant are discussing their assignment while
sitting at a circular table facing the centre. Pradeep is sitting to the immediate right of
Anuj and Vasant is sitting to the immediate right of Hemant. Sharad is second to the
right of Anuj and immediately left of Hemant. Which of the following statement is
correct?
Ans A. Vasant is the immediate neighbour of Sharad and Anuj.

B. Pradeep is the immediate neighbour of Hemant and Vasant.

C. Anuj is the immediate neighbour of Hemant and Pradeep.

D. Hemant is the immediate neighbour of Sharad and Vasant.

Q.53 A man goes north for 3 km and reaches point B. Then he turns right, goes 10 km to
reach point C. Next, he takes a right turn, goes 5 km to reach point D. Then he goes
west for 3 km to reach point E. Finally, he turns right and goes 2 km to reach point F. In
which direction is the man now with respect to the starting point?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. Southwest

B. West

C. East

D. Southeast

Q.54 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

BH – FM – JR
JP – NU – RZ
Ans A. HN – LS – PX

B. BF – EI – HL

C. RM – TQ – PR

D. PL – RN – TP

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
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be done from left to right. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

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(Left) 1 7 6 2 9 4 3 8 5 2 6 3 7 8 9 2 5 1 4 7 6 3 2 9 5 4 1 8 (Right)
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(Note: 1 is also a perfect square)
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

D. More than three

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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8 14 26 44 68 ?

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Ans A. 88

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B. 102

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C. 92

D. 98

Q.57 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is E related to P if ‘E % C # Q # L + P’?
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Ans A. Wife’s sister

B. Mother’s mother
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C. Sister’s husband
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D. Wife’s mother
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Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All jams are cobras.
All cobras are mats.

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Conclusions:

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(I): Some mats are cobras.

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(II): All jams are mats.

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Ans
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A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

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g l a B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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a C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘lid ear urn’ is coded as ‘lw cc pg’ and ‘corn urn bird’ is
coded as ‘qf wc cc’. How is ‘urn’ coded in that language?
Ans A. lw

B. qf

C. cc
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D. pg

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Q.60 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

37 B 12 D 824 A 8 C 128 = ?
Ans A. 469

B. 462

C. 499

D. 471

Q.61 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 6 2 1 6 1 1 6 1 3 5 6 1 2 8 6 6 4 9 2 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?6622
Ans A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q.62 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

UM-SK-PR
RJ-PH-MO
Ans A. MF-LD-IJ

B. NF-LD-IJ

C. MF-LE-IJ

D. NF-LD-IK

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 11 15 21 29 39 ?
Ans A. 55

B. 51

C. 56

D. 58

Q.64 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

40 + 5 ÷ 7 − 108 × 9 = ?
Ans A. 13

B. 17

C. 18

D. 19

Q.65 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DEI51 , XYC58 , RSW65 , LMQ72 , ?
Ans A. EGK79

B. FGK79

C. FGL79

D. FOK79

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.66 In a row of 103 students facing north, Z is 15th from the right end. If G is 36th to the left
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of Z, what is G's position from the left end of the line?

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Ans A. 53rd

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C. 54th ag l
D. 55th

Q.67 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

76 A 2 C (30 A 6) B 4 D 39 A 3 C 15 = ?
Ans A. 45

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B. 65

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C. 60

D. 70
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Q.68 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 2 1 3 7 2 6 7 2 9 9 2 2 3 5 7 4 9 3 8 7 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

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D. 1

Q.69
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Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs

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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

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belong to that group?

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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. RW-SO

B. PU-QN

C. NS-OL

D. LQ-MJ

Q.70 Shivank starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
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drives 11 km, turns left and drives 16 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 14 km. He

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takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and

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towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

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(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)

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a B. 2 km to the west

C. 3 km to the west

D. 1 km to the west

Q.71 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the left of E. Only one person sits between A and C. F sits to the immediate left of E. A
sits to the immediate right of D. C sits third to the right of B. Who sits at the extreme left
end of the row?
Ans A. B
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B. E

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C. D

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D. C

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Q.72 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. UV - WA

B. QL – SQ

C. BP – EU

D. MB – OG

Q.73 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 5 7 5 9 8 2 3 4 6 5 8 7 7 1 2 5 5 8 9 8 8 4 5 4 6 4 3 6 7 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. three

B. five

C. four

D. two

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All caves are houses.
All houses are dens.
All dens are mansions.

Conclusions:
(I) All caves are mansions.
(II) Some mansions are houses.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.75 All 58 people are standing in a row facing north. Rizwan is 23rd from the right end, while
Aman is 19th from the left end. How many people are there between Rizwan and Aman?
Ans A. 13

B. 15

C. 14

D. 16

Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
Ans A. 42

B. 36

C. 33

D. 38

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.77 OPNO is related to STRS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, DECD is related to HIGH. To which of the given optuons is JKIJ related,

. following the same logic?
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Ans A. NPLS

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B. NOMN

C. NOLN
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D. NNLN

Q.78 In a certain code language, ‘CORN’ is coded as ‘6479’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘2368’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 6

B. 2
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C. 4
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D. 8

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Q.79
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the

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English alphabetical order?
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TRV RTR PVN NXJ ?
Ans A. KAF

B. KZF

C. LZF

D. LAF

Q.80 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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(9, 13, 26)
(7, 9, 22) ag
Ans A. (11, 17, 30)

B. (10, 25, 38)

C. (8, 11, 26)

D. (12, 19, 6)

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
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Q.81
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In April 2025, the Indian government signed a Headquarters Agreement with which
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intergovernmental wildlife organisation to establish its headquarters in India?

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Ans A. International Tiger Conservation Network

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g l a B. International Big Cat Alliance
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a C. Global Cat Conservation Coalition

D. World Wildlife Fund Asia

Q.82 India launched its National Red List Roadmap at which of the following international
events in 2025?
Ans A. IUCN World Conservation Congress

B. G20 Environment Ministers’ Summit

C. UN Climate Change Conference (COP30)
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D. World Biodiversity Forum

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 49

Q.83 As per the Sustainable Development Goals — National Indicator Framework Progress
Report, 2025, published in June 2025, what was the percentage of the total waste
processed during the year 2024–2025, indicating progress in waste management
efficiency?
Ans A. 75.6%

B. 97.80%

C. 80.7%

D. 90.25%

Q.84 Which football club was awarded the 2025 Laureus World Team of the Year?
Ans A. Manchester City

B. Paris Saint-Germain

C. Real Madrid

D. FC Barcelona

Q.85 By what percentage did the All-India House Price Index increased annually in Q4 FY25,
with Kolkata recording the highest price growth and Kochi witnessing a decline?
Ans A. 6.1%

B. 4.1%

C. 3.1%

D. 5.1%

Q.86 Which of the following organisations or ministries released the report titled ‘India’s
Services Sector: Insights from GVA Trends and State-Level Dynamics’ in October 2025?
Ans A. NITI Aayog

B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Ministry of Finance

Q.87 In February 2025, which athlete broke her own women’s 400 m National Games record,
clocking 51.12 seconds to win gold?
Ans A. Aishwarya Mishra

B. Hima Das

C. Dutee Chand

D. Jyothi Yarraji

Q.88 Which state/Union Territory observed its 25th Foundation Day on 9 November 2025?
Ans A. Chhattisgarh

B. Jharkhand

C. Uttarakhand

D. Ladakh

Q.89 Which public space improvement was recommended in Chennai’s Gender and Policy
Lab manual during May–June 2025?
Ans A. Creation of parks for women exclusively

B. Increased street lighting and safe toilets

C. Deployment of aerial surveillance drones

D. Introduction of women-only bus services

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.90 Who launched the Mukhya Mantrir Jiban Anuprerana Scheme in June 2025?
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Ans A. Assam Governor Lakshman Acharya

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B. Education Minister of Assam

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C. Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma

D. Prime Minister of India

Q.91 Which fungal pathogen has been found to use chromosome alterations to resist
common antifungal drugs like fluconazole and voriconazole?
Ans A. Candida tropicalis

B. Cryptococcus neoformans

C. Aspergillus fumigatus

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D. Candida albicans
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Q.92 .co
The Eravikulam National Park, which emerged as one of the two top-performing
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protected areas in India in the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) conducted
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by the Wildlife Institute of India in June 2025, is home to which of the following
species?
l a
Ans
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A. Indian one-horned Rhinoceros

B. Nilgiri Tahr

C. Lion-tailed Macaque

D. Snow Leopard

Q.93 Who became the record-holder for the most international football wins, with 132, by a
male player in March 2025?

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Ans A. Cristiano Ronaldo

B. Lionel Messi

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C. Sergio Ramos
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D. Robert Lewandowski
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Q.94
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In 2025, the seventh edition of the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) took place. Which
Indian state served as the host for these games?
Ans A. Bihar

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

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Q.95 According to the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and the Ministry of Electronics and
m
Information Technology (MeitY), which of the following city-states signed a

.co m
“Comprehensive Strategic Partnership” with India, including MoUs in semiconductors,

m
digital technology and skills development in September 2024?
s e
s e
Ans A. Thailand
g l a
g l a B. Indonesia a
a C. Singapore

D. Malaysia

Q.96 Which Glaswegian author released Hermit in 2025, dealing with themes of toxic
masculinity and online misogyny?
Ans A. Nell Stevens

B. Chris McQueer

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C. Ocean Vuong

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D. Margaret McDonald

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 49

Q.97 Who among the following was leading the Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) until March 2025, after which key reforms stalled?
Ans A. Subhash Chandra

B. Debasish Panda

C. Rakesh Kumar

D. Sunil Mehta

Q.98 In 2025, which state decided to review the Shakti Bill, which was to protect children and
women from crime?
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Bihar

D. Maharashtra

Q.99 Indian researchers have developed a novel lanthanum-doped silver niobate material to
enhance the performance of which of the following energy storage devices?
Ans A. Fuel cells

B. Lithium-ion batteries

C. Solar panels

D. Supercapacitors

Q.100 In India, which High Court launched a dedicated portal for workplace sexual
harassment complaints in July 2025 to empower women at work?
Ans A. Delhi High Court

B. Karnataka High Court

C. Calcutta High Court

D. Bombay High Court

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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a

Test Date 23/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What are the main products formed when ethanol burns completely in air?
Ans A. Oxygen and methane

B. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

C. Carbon dioxide and water

D. Ethane and water

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Q.2 The sign convention for focal length of a concave lens _________.
Ans A. is positive
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B. is zero
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C. depends on object position
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D. is negative

Q.3 Which of the following is a correct property of solids?
Ans A. Solids have no fixed shape.

B. Solids diffuse easily.

C. Solids are highly compressible.

D. Solids have strong intermolecular forces.
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.co m
Q.4 Which type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones?

m s e
s
Ans
e
A. Joints

g l a
g l a B. Blood
a
a C. Tendon

D. Ligament

Q.5 Which of the following is true for mixtures but NOT for compounds?
Ans A. Components are present in fixed ratio.

B. Components lose their individual properties.

C. New substances are formed.

m
D. Components can be separated by physical methods.
.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.6 Which of the following correctly describes parenchyma, a simple permanent tissue?
Ans A. Parenchyma cells are highly specialised and tightly packed with no space between them.

B. Parenchyma consists of dead, thick-walled cells without intercellular spaces.

C. Parenchyma is made of living, loosely arranged cells with thin walls that store food.

D. Parenchyma is a complex tissue found only in vascular bundles.

Q.7 A person ignores regular vehicle maintenance. Which of the following is most likely to
happen?
Ans A. Poor engine performance

B. Increased fuel efficiency

C. Better tyre grip and less pollution

D. Decreased pollution

Q.8 Which of the following represents a straight chain hydrocarbon?
Ans A. Isobutane

B. Cyclopentane

C. Butane

D. Benzene

Q.9 Which pair of energy forms constitutes the total mechanical energy of an
object?
Ans A. Heat energy and Chemical energy

B. Nuclear energy and Sound energy

C. Potential energy and Kinetic energy

D. Electrical energy and Light energy

Q.10 In a parallel combination of resistors, which of the following quantities remains the
same across all the resistors?
Ans A. The electric current (I)

B. The potential difference (V)

C. The equivalent resistance (Req)

D. The power consumed (P)

Q.11 Four resistors of 5 Ω, 15 Ω, 20 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The equivalent
resistance is ______.
Ans A. 0.5 Ω

B. 3 Ω

C. 20 Ω

D. 80 Ω

Q.12 What is the main function of bile in human digestion?
Ans A. To mix food with saliva for easy swallowing

B. To digest proteins completely in the stomach

C. To make food alkaline and break down large fat globules

D. To convert glucose into glycogen in the liver

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.13 According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion, force is given by the relation F = ma. If a
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body’s velocity changes from u (initial velocity) to v (final velocity) in time t, which of

. the following expressions correctly gives the force acting on the body?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. F=t(v-u)/m

g l
B. F=m(u-v)/t

C. F=mt/(v-u)
a
D. F=m(v-u)/t

Q.14 An ultrasonic wave has a frequency of 33 kHz. What will be the wavelength of this
wave, if its speed is 330 m/s?
Ans A. 0.1 m

B. 0.01 m
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C. 100 m
m
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D. 10 m

e m l as
Q.15
s
What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if both of their masses are
doubled?
l a ag
Ans
ag
A. The force becomes double

B. The force becomes four times greater

C. The force becomes half

D. The force becomes quadruple

Q.16 When an object is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens, the image is formed:
Ans A. At 2F, inverted, and magnified.

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B. At the focus, inverted, and of same size.

C. Between F and O, virtual and erect.

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D. At infinity, real, inverted, and highly enlarged.

las
Q.17
ag
Which method is commonly used for extracting moderately reactive metals such as
iron from their ores?
Ans A. Direct heating of the metallic ore strongly in the presence of air

B. Chemical reduction of the ore using carbon-based reducing agents

C. Dissolving and melting of the ore material in concentrated acids

D. Electrolysis performed on the molten form of metal oxide ores

Q.18 A woman using a copper-T complains of abdominal pain and discomfort. What is the
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likely reason?
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Ans A. Hormonal imbalance due to tablets

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a
B. Blockage in fallopian tube

s e g l
g l a C. Uterine irritation caused by the IUD
a
a D. Infection in the stomach

Q.19 What is the benefit of seed dispersal in plants?
Ans A. It makes more water available to plants.

B. It promotes the availability of mineral nutrients to plants.

C. It enables plants to expand their distribution.

D. It increases competition between plants for sunlight.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 49

Q.20 A passenger in a moving bus falls forward when the bus suddenly stops. This is due to
which of the following?
Ans A. Gravity

B. Inertia of motion of the passenger

C. Force applied by the bus

D. Friction between seat and passenger

Q.21 Which of the following events directly triggers the process of menstruation?
Ans A. Release of sperm into the vagina

B. Fertilisation of the egg

C. Non fertilisation of egg and hormonal changes

D. Maturation of the egg

Q.22 In the reaction between aqueous sodium sulphate and aqueous barium chloride, which
compound forms the white precipitate?
Ans A. Barium sulphate ( )

B. Sodium chloride ( )

C. Barium chloride ( )

D. Sodium sulphate ( )

Q.23 During evaporation, when the average kinetic energy of molecules decreases, what is
the effect on temperature?
Ans A. No effect on temperature.

B. It increases.

C. It decreases.

D. It will remain the same.

Q.24 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Sugarcane juice can be fermented to give alcohol (ethanol).
Statement B: Alcohol is added to petrol because it is a cleaner fuel.
Ans A. Statement A is incorrect, but B is correct.

B. Both statements A and B are correct.

C. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

D. Statement A is correct, but B is incorrect.

Q.25 Which of the following statements is true about movement in the plant 'Touch me not'?
Ans A. Plant movement happens due to growth of new xylem cells.

B. Plant movement takes place because roots absorb minerals.

C. Plant movement occurs because phloem transports food.

D. Plant movement happens due to changes in water content in cells.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Two trains are travelling towards each other on parallel tracks, 9660 kilometres apart.
Train A initially travels at 80 km/hr, and Train B initially travels at 60 km/hr. If Train A's
speed is reduced by 10% and Train B's speed is increased by 10%, what is the ratio of
the time taken for the trains to meet initially to the time taken after their speed
adjustments?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.27 The amount on a sum of ₹8,800 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually, in 2 years will be:

. e m
s
Ans A. ₹10,648
m a
se B. ₹11,225

C. ₹10,012 ag l
D. ₹9,757

Q.28 The arithmetic mean of the observations 94, 59, 46, 34, 15, 55, 89, 98 and 68 is:
Ans A. 63

B. 67

C. 62

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D. 60
m
Q.29
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s e l a
l a ag
Ans A. 38,800

B. 30,808
ag
C. 30,800

D. 38,808

Q.30

Ans
m
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A.

e m
B.

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C. ag
D.

Q.31

Ans A.
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B.
m
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s e m
s e D.

g l a
g l a Q.32 Ajay, Maya and Mohan started a business in partnership investing in the ratio of 11 : 16 a
a : 6, respectively. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of ₹69,300, which is 70% of
their total investment. How much did Maya invest (in ₹)?
Ans A. 48,184

B. 48,000

C. 47,872

D. 47,850

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 49

Q.33 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 9

B. 18

C. 10

D. 19

Q.34
Ans A. 11:8

B. 7:8

C. 7:9

D. 8:9

Q.35 An agent sells a pressure cooker with a marked price of ₹8,460 at a discount of 30%.
What is the selling price (in ₹) of the pressure cooker?
Ans A. 6,166

B. 5,922

C. 6,768

D. 6,367

Q.36 ₹6,129 is divided among P, Q and R in such a way that if ₹71, ₹38 and ₹20 is deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 14:3:8. Find the difference
between the original shares of Q and R.
Ans A. ₹1,182

B. ₹1,100

C. ₹1,050

D. ₹1,150

Q.37

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38 A money box contains only ₹2 coins and ₹5 coins. There are 20 coins in total, and their
combined value is ₹70. How many ₹2 coins are there?
Ans A. 5

B. 15

C. 12

D. 10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.39 A running track consists of two straight parallel segments, each 120 m long, connected
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at both ends by semicircular arcs. The inner perimeter of the track is 504 m. If the track

. has a uniform width of 18 m throughout, find the outer perimeter (in m, rounded off to
e m
m
the nearest tens) of the track.
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Ans A. 610

B. 600

C. 590

D. 620

Q.40 A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article. Which scheme
will be the LEAST beneficial to the customer?
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i. A discount of 48%.
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ii. A discount of 31% followed by a discount of 44%.
iii. Successive discounts of 32% and 21%.
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Ans A. Scheme i
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B. Scheme ii
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C. Scheme iii and Scheme ii

D. Scheme iii

Q.41 In a quadrilateral IJKL, ∠ I = 36° and ∠ J = 44°. The bisectors of ∠ K and ∠ L meet at Z.
What is the measure of ∠ LZK?
Ans A. 54°

B. 55°

m
C. 34°

D. 40°

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la
Q.42 Due to a water crisis, 40% of the initial population left the village and 35% of the
remaining left the town to pursue a job. If presently 2340 people inhabit the village,

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what is the ratio of initial population to present population?
Ans A. 100:49

B. 103:43

C. 100:39

D. 105:40

Q.43 Two trains are running in opposite directions at speeds of 72 km/hr and 108 km/hr,
respectively. The length of the first train is 150 m, and the length of the second train is
200 m. How much time will they take to cross each other?
m
Ans
m
A. 14 seconds
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s e C. 5 seconds
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g l a D. 9 seconds a
a Q.44 The number of prime numbers between 472 and 486 is:
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 49

Q.45 Mohan is twice as old as Suresh. Four years ago, the sum of their ages was 40. What is
the present age of Suresh?
Ans A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 32 years

D. 24 years

Q.46 The monthly incomes of two friends Rupesh and Manjit, are in the ratio 5 : 8,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹84,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Rupesh (in ₹).
Ans A. 1,68,000

B. 1,21,000

C. 1,19,000

D. 1,20,000

Q.47 A can complete a piece of work in 24 days, B in 18 days and C in 36 days. All of them
started working together. After working for 4 days, A left the work. B and C continued,
but B left 3 days before the completion of the work. How long (in days) did the work
last?
Ans A. 14

B. 13

C. 11

D. 12

Q.48
What is the lowest form of the fraction obtained by cancelling the HCF of the

numerator and denominator?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.49 Kiran spends 65% of his income. If he saves ₹42,000, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 27,300

B. 1,19,000

C. 1,20,000

D. 1,21,000

Q.50 A shopkeeper buys a bag for ₹850 and sells it for ₹1,020. Find his profit percentage.
Ans A. 40%

B. 25%

C. 20%

D. 30%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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m
ASE KCO UMY EWI ?
as
se Ans A. OGT

B. OGY ag l
C. OGS

D. OSG

Q.52 Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. L is kept immediately above O. Only M is kept below R. N is kept
immediately above Q. Only two boxes are kept above L. How many boxes are kept
between S and N?

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Ans A. Two

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B. One

C. Four
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D. Three
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Q.53 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

119 110 102 95 ? 84 80
Ans A. 86

B. 90

C. 87

D. 89

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Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

0 5 15 30 ? 75
e m
Ans A. 40
las
B. 55
ag
C. 45

D. 50

Q.55 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 324 526 249 267 185 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
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What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
e m
e
Ans
m A. 12
l as
l as B. 14
ag
ag C. 11

D. 13

Q.56 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

DUAL – ULDA – ADUL
RATE – AERT – TRAE
Ans A. ROAD – ODRA – AROD

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B. VIEW – WVIE – EWIV

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C. RENT – RTEN – ENRT

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D. GROW – ROWG – ORGW

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.57 LMQR is related to VWAB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, IJNO is related to STXY. To which of the given options is HIMN related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. RRVX

B. RTVE

C. RSWX

D. RSVX

Q.58 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

4 ÷ 2 + 15 × 5 − 8 = ? + 5
Ans A. 12

B. 8

C. 18

D. 4

Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some Mercuries are Venuses.
All Venuses are Earths.
No Earth is Mars.

Conclusions:
(I) Some Mercuries are Earths.
(II) No Venus is Mars.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.60 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 3 3 £ * 9 € £ € $ 9 @ 7 4 5 # 9 2 1 £ 7 5 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q.61 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people
sit between D and B. C sits to the immediate left of B. Only one person sits between C
and A. F sits at some place to the left of G but at some place to the right of E. How
many people sit to the right of A?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘trust brings peace’ is coded as ‘tg dx pm’ and ‘find trust
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within’ is coded as ‘pm av wj’. How is ‘trust’ coded in that language?

. e m
s
Ans A. pm
m a
se B. tg

C. av ag l
D. dx

Q.63 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to
the right of A. E sits to the immediate left of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of A. F
sits to the immediate right of C. The position of how many persons will remain
unchanged if all persons are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction
starting from A (including A)?
Ans A. One
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B. Three

C. Two

m .co s em
D. Four
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1, 3, 7, 15, 31, ?
Ans A. 65

B. 58

C. 63

D. 55

Q.65
m
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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Some pens are combs.
All shirts are tails. ag
All combs are shirts.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tails are combs.
(II) Some shirts are pens.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
m
m
D. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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m .co s e m
s e
Q.66 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, M, N and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. B is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between B
g l a
g l a and A. O is kept at one of the positions below B. Only C is kept between A and D. M is
kept at one of the positions above A. a
a How many boxes are kept between N and A?
Ans A. One

B. Four

C. Three

D. Two

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.67 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 2 2 4 3 9 4 3 8 9 5 5 6 5 3 7 5 3 9 6 6 5 3 1 8 1 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

LR21 MS30 NT39 OU48 ?
Ans A. PU58

B. PV57

C. PU57

D. PV58

Q.69 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. TZC

B. OUX

C. EKN

D. FLQ

Q.70 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

GAN : KVR
OQV : SLZ
Ans A. LZA : QVF

B. NEQ : RCU

C. HTV : LQZ

D. WGD : ABH

Q.71 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

59 ÷ 11 + 833 × 7 − 24 = ?
Ans A. 512

B. 547

C. 554

D. 536

Q.72 In a car park, vehicle A is to the west of vehicle B. Vehicle C is to the east of vehicle B.
Vehicle D is to the north of vehicle B. Vehicle E is to the south of vehicle C. Vehicle F is
to the north of vehicle C. What is the position of vehicle E with respect to vehicle A?
Ans A. East

B. South-east

C. South

D. North-east
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. belong to that group?
e m
m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
as
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. FD – MJ
ag
B. OM – VS

C. DB – KH

D. XV – AC

Q.74 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
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adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
em
(5, 3, 16)
e m l as
(7, 2, 15)
l as ag
ag
Ans A. (4, 3, 9)

B. (3,4, 13)

C. (8, 5, 30)

D. (6, 8, 43)

Q.75 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the left of F. Only one person sits between D and E. F sits to the immediate left of D. A
sits to the immediate right of C. B sits third to the right of A. Who sits at the extreme left
end of the line?
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Ans A. C

B. D
e m
C. A
las
D. E
ag
Q.76 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘-’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

3 P 9 R (14 Q 2) P 6 S 80 Q 5 S 4 P 10 = ?
Ans A. 41

B. 52

C. 33
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D. 59

Q.77
m .co
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
s e m
s e be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
g l a
g l a (Left) 4 8 7 6 3 9 3 2 8 2 9 4 5 6 5 4 1 3 5 9 7 9 9 4 2 5 3 6 1 7 2 (Right) a
a How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square and also immediately followed by an even number? (NOTE: 1 is also a
perfect square.)
Ans A. Two

B. More than three

C. One

D. Three

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.78 In a certain code language,
‘A x B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.

How is L related to Q if ‘L + M − N x P ÷ Q’?
Ans A. Daughter's husband

B. Sister's son

C. Brother's son

D. Daughter's son

Q.79 In a certain code language, ‘video oak bell’ is coded as ' of br mw' and ‘hair bell dew’ is
coded as ‘br ui ee’. How is ‘bell’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. of

B. mw

C. ui

D. br

Q.80 Mudit starts from Point Y and drives 92 km towards South. He then takes a left turn,
drives 59 km, turns left and drives 38 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 28 km.
He then turns left, drives 54 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again?

(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 79 km towards east

B. 91 km towards east

C. 87 km towards west

D. 84 km towards west

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships held in Gumi, South Korea, Tejaswin
Shankar made history by becoming the first Indian to win two medals in which specific
athletics event?
Ans A. Heptathlon

B. Triathlon

C. Pentathlon

D. Decathlon

Q.82 In 2025, which organisation reintroduced the SPREE initiative and launched the
Amnesty Scheme – 2025 to expand social security coverage for workers?
Ans A. NITI Aayog

B. Employees Provident Fund Organisation

C. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation

D. Ministry of Labour and Employment

Q.83 According to the Sustainable Development Report, 2025, what is India's rank on the
SDG Index and what is its approximate score?
Ans A. 79th with score ≈72.30

B. 89th with score ≈70.10

C. 99th with score ≈66.95

D. 109th with score ≈62.00

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.84 What new title did the Amendment give to the Waqf Act, 1995?
m
co m
Ans A. Unified Waqf Empowerment Act and management of Waqf properties and boards, 1995

m . s e
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B. United Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995

g l a
a
C. United Waqf Administration Act, 1995

D. Waqf Efficiency and Reform Act, 1995

Q.85 Which former Olympic swimmer was elected as the first female and African President of
the IOC in March 2025?
Ans A. Penny Heyns

B. Inge de Bruijn

C. Cathy Freeman

m
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D. Kirsty Coventry
m
Q.86 .co
In March 2025, the Parliament passed the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill. It amended
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the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and _________.
s l a
Ans
l a
A. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
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ag
B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

C. Companies Act, 2013

D. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

Q.87 At which event was the ENDOVEDA platform for efficient endoscopy reporting unveiled
in July 2025?

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Ans A. India Health Conclave, New Delhi

B. MedTech Expo 2025, Bengaluru

m .co
C. Global Gastro Summit, Hyderabad
s e
D. Endocon 2025, Jaipur
g la
Q.88
a
In 2025, the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS)
by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) were conducted off the
coast of which of the following states of India?
Ans A. Tamil Nadu

B. Gujarat

C. Odisha

D. West Bengal

m
Q.89
m
Which organisation expressed serious concerns about the potential escape of Ebola
.co
.co m
samples in Goma, Democratic Republic of Congo?

m s e
s
Ans
e
A. United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)

g l a
g l a B. International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)
a
a C. World Health Organization (WHO)

D. Doctors Without Borders

Q.90 Which Indian cricketer became only the second wicketkeeper in Test history to score
centuries in both innings during the first Test against England at Headingley in June
2025?
Ans A. Ishan Kishan

B. Rishabh Pant

m .
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C. KL Rahul

e m
D. Wriddhiman Saha

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.91 Which former RBI Governor became PM’s Principal Secretary, signaling strong
economic emphasis in February 2025?
Ans A. Manmohan Singh

B. YV Reddy

C. Urjit Patel

D. Shaktikanta Das

Q.92 In November 2025, the Supreme Court of India held that every arrested individual must
be provided with the written grounds of arrest in which language?
Ans A. A language understood by the arrested person

B. The language of the arresting officer’s choice

C. English only

D. Any official language of the state

Q.93 Who was conferred the Padma Shri in 2025 for revitalising Kani shawl weaving in the
field of Art and Literature?
Ans A. Stephen Knapp

B. Bheru Singh Chouhan

C. Farooq Ahmad Mir

D. Bhimavva Doddabalappa Shillekyathara

Q.94 According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), in October 2025, severe
cyclonic storm "Montha" crossed the Andhra Pradesh coast between which two
locations?
Ans A. Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam

B. Paradip and Digha

C. Visakhapatnam and Gopalpur

D. Chennai and Puducherry

Q.95 Which of the following sectors is given special focus under the Employment Linked
Incentive (ELI) Scheme launched in 2025?
Ans A. Manufacturing

B. Tourism

C. Agriculture

D. Banking

Q.96 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is seeking to collaborate with the
European Space Agency (ESA) on which of the following missions to track and study
the Apophis asteroid, which is slated to make a close encounter with Earth in 2029?
Ans A. Ramses mission

B. Cristono mission

C. Kopunegar mission

D. Zuris mission

Q.97 Where did the RBI relocate its Andhra Pradesh Regional Office in June 2025?
Ans A. Guntur

B. Amaravati

C. Vijayawada

D. Visakhapatnam

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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Q.98 Which of the following teams was the runner-up of the 18th Edition of the Indian
m
co
Premier League in 2025?

. e m
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Ans A. Gujarat Titans

as
se B. Sunrisers Hyderabad

C. Chennai Super Kings ag l
D. Punjab Kings

Q.99 In which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is India on track or
maintaining SDG achievement, as per the Sustainable Development Report 2025?
Ans A. SDG 9

B. SDG 1

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C. SDG 13

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D. SDG 14

em
Q.100
e m
For which novel did David Szalay receive the Booker Prize in 2025?
l as
Ans
l
A. Heart Lamp
as ag
ag
B. The Sea of Trees

C. Flesh

D. Last Empire

"

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a

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m .co s e m
s e g l a
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a

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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Test Date 23/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 The Chipko Andolan refers to which of the following?
Ans A. Use of advanced technologies for reducing environmental pollution

B. Active participation of local communities in protecting forests

C. Government-sponsored environmental protection schemes

D. Government-sponsored water harvest schemes

Q.2 Which of the following breeds of cows is resistant to diseases?
Ans A. Red Sindhi

B. Brown Swiss

C. Aseel

D. Jersey

Q.3 Which of the following conditions is essential for rusting of iron?
Ans A. Only air

B. Only water

C. Both air and water

D. Dry air only

Q.4 Formula unit mass is:
Ans A. the sum of the number of electrons of all atoms in a formula unit of a compound

B. the sum of the atomic number of all atoms in a formula unit of a compound

C. the sum of the number of protons of all atoms in a formula unit of a compound

D. the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit of a compound

Q.5 In which of the following plants, seed is dispersed by the bursting of fruits?
Ans A. Xanthium

B. Urena

C. Castor

D. Sunflower

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.6 In a metallic wire obeying Ohm's Law, if the resistance remains constant, reducing the
m
potential difference across its terminals to one-half of its former value will result in what

. co change in the current flowing through it?

s e m
m Ans A. The current remains constant.
a
se B. The current reduces to one-half of its former value.
ag l
C. The current doubles.

D. The current reduces to one-fourth of its former value.

Q.7 Which statement correctly defines the process of evaporation?
Ans A. It changes solids directly into vapors upon heating strongly

B. It takes place only at the boiling temperature of a liquid

C. It requires the liquid to freeze before changing to the gas form
m
m
D. It changes a liquid to gas from the surface below boiling point
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Q.8
m .co
How is the work done by a force calculated?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. Work = force ÷ displacement

l a
ag
B. Work = force + displacement

C. Work = force × displacement

D. Work = displacement ÷ force

Q.9 Which of the following metals, according to the reactivity series, is the most reactive?
Ans A. Potassium

B. Copper

C. Zinc
m
.co
D. Iron

e m
Q.10
Ans
What determines the sex of a child in humans?
A. Mother’s ovum
las
B. Father’s sperm ag
C. Mitochondrial DNA

D. Number of autosomes

Q.11 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about regeneration?
Ans A. Regeneration involves specialised cells and requires cell division.

B. Fragmentation occurs in simple multicellular organisms like Spirogyra.

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C. In complex animals, regeneration is limited to repair of tissues, not formation of a whole organism.

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D. Dogs can regrow lost body parts and form whole new individuals.

m s e
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Q.12 An object is placed 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Which statement
g l a
g l a Ans
about the image is correct?
a
a
A. Image is real, inverted and smaller than the object.

B. Image is virtual, erect and smaller than the object.

C. Image is real, inverted and larger than the object.

D. Image is virtual, erect and larger than the object.

Q.13 Two objects of mass 100 kg each are separated by a distance of 1 m. What will be the
magnitude of the gravitational force between the two objects? (Take the value of G as
6.67 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2)
Ans A. 6.67 x 107 N
m .
B. 6.67 x 109 N

m .co s e m
C. 6.67 x 10-9 N
s e l a
D. 6.67 x 10-7 N
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.14 The blue colour of the sky appears due to:
Ans A. absorption of blue light by air molecules

B. refraction of light by air molecules

C. scattering of shorter wavelength of sunlight by air molecules

D. reflection of light by air molecules

Q.15 Which of the following is NOT correct?
Ans A. In the electrical circuit, the direction of current is taken from the positive to the negative terminal.

B. A bulb glows only in a closed circuit.

C. In the electrical circuit, if the switch is open, no current flows.

D. In the electrical circuit, the voltmeter is connected in series with the component.

Q.16 Which of the following best describes the function of nervous tissue?
Ans A. It protects internal organs from mechanical injury.

B. It stores energy in the form of fat globules.

C. It provides rigidity and strength to the body framework.

D. It transmits information rapidly from one body part to another.

Q.17 Which of the following is classified as an element?
Ans A. Water

B. Salt

C. Air

D. Copper

Q.18 Who first described the nucleus as a cell organelle in 1831?
Ans A. Rudolf Virchow

B. Robert Hooke

C. Robert Brown

D. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Q.19 Select the option that balances the following reaction.

CaCO₃ + x HCl → y CaCl₂ + CO₂ + z H₂O
Ans A. x=2, y=2, z=1

B. x=1, y=1, z=2

C. x=1, y=1, z=1

D. x=2, y=1, z=1

Q.20 What is the function of plasma in human blood?
Ans A. It transports food, carbon dioxide and waste materials.

B. It carries oxygen from lungs to all parts of the body.

C. It maintains the oxygen-rich blood supply to tissues.

D. It helps in clotting blood during injuries.

Q.21 The sign of acceleration depends on its direction relative to velocity. Which of the
following is correct?
Ans A. Acceleration is positive if it is in the direction of velocity, and negative if it is opposite.

B. Acceleration is always positive, irrespective of direction.

C. Acceleration is positive if it is opposite to the direction of velocity.

D. Acceleration is negative if it is in the direction of velocity.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.22 Which of the following is a physical property of metals?
m
co
Ans A. Form gases at room temperature

. e m
m B. Highly ductile and malleable
as
se C. Poor conductor of heat and brittle
ag l
D. Soft and break with light force

Q.23 Newton's third law of motion deals with the nature of _________.
Ans A. the relationship between mass and acceleration

B. the force of gravity acting on a falling object

C. a single object resisting a change in motion

D. forces always occurring in pairs
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.co
Q.24 The reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride is an example of double
displacement reaction. This is also an example of:
em
Ans
e m
A. displacement reaction
l as
l as
B. combination reaction
ag
ag
C. precipitation reaction

D. decomposition reaction

Q.25 Why are ceilings of concert halls often made curved?
Ans A. To reflect sound uniformly in all directions

B. To absorb sound and reduce loudness

C. To completely stop reverberation

D. To reduce the speed of sound in air
m
m .co
Section : Mathematics
s e
Q.26
g la
In a quadrilateral MNST, ∠ M = 63° and ∠ N = 99°. The bisectors of ∠ S and ∠ T meet at O.

Ans
What is the measure of ∠ TOS?
A. 94°
a
B. 87°

C. 73°

D. 81°

Q.27 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 15 and 10 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
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Ans A. 5

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B. 12

m s e
s e
C. 8

g l a
g l a D. 4
a
a Q.28
.

Ans A. 1

B.

C. 2

D. 0

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.29 An agent sells a pan with a marked price of ₹6,420 at a discount of 30%. What is the
selling price (in ₹) of the pan?
Ans A. 4,935

B. 4,449

C. 4,494

D. 5,136

Q.30 The total cost of 10 mangoes and 13 apples is ₹134 and the cost of 4 apples is ₹13 less
than that of 15 mangoes. Then find the price (in rupees) of a mango and an apple,
respectively.
Ans A. 2, 7

B. 4, 5.60

C. 3, 8

D. 3.50, 5

Q.31 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 120 maximum marks. What
percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off your answer to two decimal places)
Ans A. 62.50%

B. 150.33%

C. 120.73%

D. 66.67%

Q.32 If a solid sphere of radius 14 cm is moulded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius,
then find the surface area of each ball.

Ans A. 600 cm2

B. 598 cm2

C. 650 cm2

D. 616 cm2

Q.33
Given a + b + c = 15 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 83, find ab + bc + ca.
Ans A. 71

B. 25

C. 11

D. 20

Q.34 What is the least number which should be added to 539, so that the number obtained is
exactly divisible by 10, 15 and 3?
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 3

Q.35 The amount on a sum of ₹2,000 at 5% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹2,205

B. ₹2,880

C. ₹2,886

D. ₹3,039

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.36
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Ans A. 4.7

se B. 4.6
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C. 8.2 a
D. 8.8

Q.37 Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 6 and 9, but not divisible by 12?

126, 252, 72, 108
Ans A. 108

B. 72
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C. 252

D. 126

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.38 The prices of articles P, Q and R are ₹280, ₹180 and ₹100, respectively. Subrata buys
l
these articles in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, spending a total of ₹26,780. How many articles of type

Ans
Q did he buy?
A. 40 ag
B. 84

C. 76

D. 52

Q.39 The salaries of X, Y and Z are in the ratio 4:18:21. If the increments of 90%, 90% and 40%
are allowed, respectively, in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their
salaries?
m
Ans A. 35:172:153

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B. 36:172:149
s e
C. 38:171:147
g la
D. 41:173:154
a
Q.40 Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 96 min and 64 min, respectively. There is a
pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened
simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 48 min. How long will the pipe at
the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then
open?
Ans A. 192 min

B. 201 min

m
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C. 175 min
m
.co m
D. 207 min

m s e
s e
Q.41 A person sells an article for ₹3,450 and earns a profit of 15%. Find the cost price of the
g l a
g l a article.
a
a Ans A. ₹2,860

B. ₹2,980

C. ₹2,900

D. ₹3,000

Q.42 Two trains 259 m and 431 m long are running in opposite directions at a speed of 52
km/h and 56 km/h, respectively. They cross each other in:
Ans A. 22 seconds

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B. 23 seconds

C. 34 seconds
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s e l a
a ag
D. 18 seconds

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.43 A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes:
A) Two successive discounts of 39% and 8%
B) Buy 8, get 4 free
C) A single discount of 16%
D) Two successive discounts of 38% and 34%

Which scheme is best for the shopkeeper?
Ans A. B

B. A

C. C

D. D

Q.44 The average of 8 numbers is 121. If the first 7 numbers are 35, 35, 49, 83, 102, 80 and 20,
then the eighth number is:
Ans A. 564

B. 557

C. 566

D. 567

Q.45 The arithmetic mean of the observations 35, 53, 38, 89, 71, 69, 86, 40 and 41 is:
Ans A. 65

B. 66

C. 60

D. 58

Q.46 The price of fuel decreases by 40%, 25% and 45% in three successive months, but
increases by 55% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places)
Ans A. Increases by 67.66%

B. Decreases by 61.64%

C. Decreases by 63.14%

D. Increases by 64.75%

Q.47

Ans A. 90

B. 10

C. 60

D. 30

Q.48 A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠ C = 90°, AB = 36 m, BC = 42 m, CD =
40 m and AD = 36 m. What is the area (in m2, rounded off to 1 decimal place) of the
park?
Ans A. 1458.6

B. 1584.6

C. 1548.6

D. 1485.6

Q.49 In an election between two candidates, one candidate secured 42% of the votes and
was defeated by the other candidate with a margin of 416 votes. If all the votes cast
were valid, what was the total number of votes polled?
Ans A. 2590

B. 2615

C. 2600

D. 2595

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.50 Saloni's age is 7 years more than twice her sister Emma's age. If the sum of their ages
m
is 25 years, how old is Emma?

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Ans A. 8 years
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B. 6 years

C. 7 years
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D. 5 years

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Z ranked 21st from the top and 39th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans A. 57

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B. 56

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C. 60

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D. 59

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l a ag
ag
Q.52 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 6 1 3 4 1 8 9 6 8 8 6 5 7 1 9 6 9 8 1 7 8 3 8 3 3 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

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D. 1

Q.53
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If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
s
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

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Ans
(56 A 7) B 9 D (14 A 7) B 5 C 36 A 4 D 11 = ?
A. 79 ag
B. 42

C. 60

D. 51

Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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Statements:
No Fictions are Nonfictions.
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s e All Nonfictions are Poetries.
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g l a Some Poetries are Dramas.
a
a Conclusions:
(I): Some Fictions are Poetries.
(II): Some Nonfictions are Dramas.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) is true

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

D. Only conclusion (I) is true

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. ZCV

B. CFY

C. LOH

D. VYP

Q.56 Jason went on a business trip in his car. He drove west from his house for a distance of
30 km. He turned right and drove 20 km. Then, he turned left and drove 10 km, took
another left and drove 40 km. He took a last left and drove 40 km before stopping. How
far and in which direction should he drive to reach his house? (All turns are 90-degree
turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 20 km towards the north

B. 10 km towards the south

C. 20 km towards the south

D. 10 km towards the north

Q.57 Six friends, G, H, I, Q, R and S, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the
table. Only two people sit between G and S when counted from the right of G. Only one
person sits between S and I when counted from the right of I. Only three people sit
between G and R. H sits to the immediate left of Q. Who sits third to the left of R?1603
Ans A. Q

B. H

C. I

D. G

Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘live with truth’ is coded as ‘xf je ak’ and ‘truth guides life’ is
coded as ‘ub mr je’. How is ‘truth’ coded in that language?
Ans A. je

B. ak

C. mr

D. ub

Q.59 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 1 3 2 8 2 1 2 4 6 1 3 1 8 8 6 1 1 9 5 8 4 1 8 9 6 9 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 3

B. 6

C. 5

D. 4

Q.60 ABHL is related to FFMP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, URBB is related to ZVGF. To which of the given options is JDQN related,
following the same logic?10119
Ans A. OVBH

B. OHNJ

C. OBHY

D. OHVR

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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s e m
m Ans A. 185
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se B. 183
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C. 181

D. 187

Q.62 Manish starts from Point Y and drives 37 km towards North. He then takes a left turn,
drives 75 km, turns left and drives 69 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 52 km. He
takes a left turn, drives 32 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 25 km towards east
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B. 24 km towards west
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C. 23 km towards east
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D. 21 km towards west

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Q.63
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Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some lamps are bulbs.
No bulb is a torch.
No bulb is a candle.

Conclusions:
(I) No lamp is a torch.
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(II) Some candles are torches.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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B. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.64 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

HQ-JS-MO
FO-HQ-KM
Ans A. CM-FP-IL

B. CM-FO-IL
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C. DM-FO-IK

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D. DM-FO-IL

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ag English alphabetical order?

GKI JNL MQO PTR ?
Ans A. SEW

B. SUW

C. SWU

D. SWE

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.66 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(158, 568, 726)
(123, 402, 525)
Ans A. (180, 203, 383)

B. (142, 265, 409)

C. (172, 263, 436)

D. (170, 382, 554)

Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

115 95 77 61 47 ?
Ans A. 32

B. 31

C. 38

D. 35

Q.68 In a certain code language,
A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D * R ± A ₹ C # O’?
Ans A. Brother

B. Husband

C. Father

D. Son

Q.69 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. SYDG

B. HNRV

C. XDHL

D. UAEI

Q.70 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-’
are interchanged and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

77 ÷ 12 + 252 x 14 - 177 = ?
Ans A. 1023

B. 1097

C. 1083

D. 1055

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.71 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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given series to make it logically complete?

. co RUS 36 PSQ 40 NQO 44 LOM 48 ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. JLO 51

B. JLJ 51 ag l
C. JNJ 52

D. JMK 52

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

123 124 127 132 139 ?1182
Ans A. 148

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B. 147
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C. 145

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D. 151

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Q.73 In a row of 38 students facing north, Z is 12th from the left end. If G is 3rd to the right of
Z, what is G's position from the right end of the line?
Ans A. 22th

B. 25th

C. 24th

D. 27th

Q.74 Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. Only two people sit between A and B when counted from the left of A. G sits to
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the immediate left of A. Only three people sit between E and G when counted from the
left of E. C sits to the immediate right of D. F is not an immediate neighbour of G. Who
sits second to the right of H?
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Ans A. F

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B. C

C. E ag
D. A

Q.75 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second to
the left of C. D is an immediate neighbour of E. F sits to the immediate left of E. F sits
second to the right of A. What is the position of C with respect to E?
Ans A. Immediate right

B. Immediate left
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C. Second to the right

m.co D. Second to the left
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s e g l a
a
Q.76 JFBC is related to GCYZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the

g l same way, WSOP is related to TPLM. To which of the given options is IEAB related,
a
a Ans
following the same logic?
A. FBXY

B. FAWY

C. FBWY

D. FCWF

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.77 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

120 B 15 A 5 D 18 C 22 = ?
Ans A. 366

B. 364

C. 360

D. 362

Q.78 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 3 9 3 2 6 8 3 9 6 2 2 7 7 7 7 3 3 7 3 8 3 5 6 5 9 6 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 3

Q.79 In a certain code language, ‘work fosters growth’ is coded as ‘hw mq pc’ and ‘growth
with effort’ is coded as ‘yv ju mq’. How is ‘growth’ coded in that language?
Ans A. pc

B. mq

C. yv

D. hw

Q.80 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) # € % # 6 & 4 * 9 6 @ 5 % @ # © 8 # % * £ 2 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 5

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Where was the 2025 Senior National Table Tennis Championships held?
Ans A. Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar

B. Thyagaraj Stadium, Delhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Chennai

D. Pandit Dindayal Upadhyay Indoor Stadium, Surat

Q.82 During 2025-26, India's overall goods and services exports are expected to reach
________.
Ans A. $2 trillion

B. $0.5 trillion

C. $1.5 trillion

D. $1 trillion

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.83 In 2025, which of the following Bills was passed by Karnataka to strengthen child
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protection by outlawing not only child marriage but also betrothal of minors?

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Ans A. Prohibition of Child Marriage (Karnataka Amendment) Bill, 2025
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B. Child Rights Enhancement Bill, 2025

C. Karnataka Child Welfare Bill, 2025
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D. Karnataka Minor Marriage Protection Bill, 2025

Q.84 Nag Mk 2 Missile has been developed by which organisation?
Ans A. Centre for Development of Telematics

B. Indian Space Research Organisation

C. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

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D. Defence Research and Development Organisation

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Q.85
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What was the theme of World Tuberculosis Day, 2025, observed in India on 24 March?

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Ans
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A. Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver

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B. End TB Now: Diagnose, Treat, Prevent
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C. Unite to End TB: Fund, Innovate, Act

D. TB Free by 2030: Global Pact

Q.86 In which of the following Indian cities was the India–Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise
‘MITRA SHAKTI-2025’ conducted?
Ans A. Pune (Maharashtra)

B. Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

C. Jaipur (Rajasthan)
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D. Belagavi (Karnataka)

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Q.87
Ans
las
Which theme was celebrated for World Malaria Day on 25 April 2025?
A. Invest in Malaria-Free Future: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite

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B. Malaria Ends with Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite

C. Zero Malaria Starts with Me: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite

D. Time to Beat Malaria: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite

Q.88 Which new legislation replaced outdated regulatory bodies for healthcare professions
(MCI) in India, as reported in June 2025?
Ans A. National Health Commission

B. National Medical Commission
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C. Indian Medical Commission
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m.co D. National Drug Council
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.89 Which of the following DRDO-executed schemes under the ‘Make in India’ initiative
provides grants-in-aid to Indian industries (MSMEs/start-ups) for developing defence a
a Ans
and dual-use technologies?
A. Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS)

B. Aatmanirbhar Defence Innovation & Technology Initiative (ADITI)

C. Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX)

D. Technology Development Fund (TDF)

Q.90 As of 1 March 2025, who became the Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of
India?
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Ans A. Ashwani Bhatia

B. Ananth Narayan G
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s e l a
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C. Tuhin Kanta Pandey

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D. Madhabi Puri Buch
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.91 The FIFA Women’s World Cup 2027 will be held in:
Ans A. Brazil

B. Uruguay

C. Portugal

D. Japan

Q.92 As announced in the April 2025 Monetary Policy Committee meeting, the Reserve Bank
of India aims to keep liquidity surplus close to what percentage of deposits?
Ans A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 1%

D. 0.5%

Q.93 According to the UN Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2025, what is India’s SDG
Index Rank and Score?
Ans A. Rank 100 with score 66.95

B. Rank 109 with score 64.10

C. Rank 95 with score 70.50

D. Rank 99 with score 66.95

Q.94 What is India’s rank in the Global Innovation Index, 2025, published by the World
Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?
Ans A. 44th

B. 49th

C. 30th

D. 38th

Q.95 What is the rank of India in the Global Firepower Index 2025?
Ans A. Fourth

B. Second

C. First

D. Third

Q.96 Which of the following organisations won the Forward Faster Sustainability Award 2025
for Water Resilience?
Ans A. Defence Research and Development Organisation

B. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

C. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation

D. National Thermal Power Corporation

Q.97 Which Ministry of the Government of India carried out the Management Effectiveness
Evaluation (MEE) for 2020-2025?
Ans A. Ministry of Jal Shakti

B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

C. Ministry of Rural Development

D. Ministry of Agriculture

Q.98 Which tennis veteran became the first Asian male with 450 career wins by April 2025?
Ans A. Somdev Devvarman

B. Yuki Bhambri

C. Kei Nishikori

D. Prajnesh Gunneswaran

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.99 Which of the following summits in 2025 will be co-hosted by World Health Organization
m
(WHO) and the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India in New Delhi, aiming to

. co strengthen traditional medicine globally?

s e m
m Ans A. Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine 2025
a
se B. International Summit on Integrative Health 2025
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C. Global Health and Traditional Medicine Summit 2025

D. World Traditional Medicine Congress 2025

Q.100 Which Indian city hosted the first ever three-day Fit India Carnival, a holistic health and
fitness gathering festival, in March 2025?
Ans A. Mumbai

B. Bhopal

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C. Dehradun

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D. New Delhi

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49