Mizoram Board Class 12 Question Paper 2025 Science All Subjects

Total number of printed pages – 8 HSS/001

2025
ENGLISH
(CORE)
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) The paper is divided into three sections: A,B & C. All the sections are compulsory.
(ii) Separate instructions are given with each section and question wherever necessary. Read
these instructions very carefully and follow them.
(iii) Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
(iv) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
SECTION – A : Reading (16 marks)
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
All of Earth's oceans share one thing in common : plastic pollution. Discarded plastic
bags, cups and bottles make their way into the sea. Today, it seems that no part of the ocean is
safe from plastic trash. In recent years, oceanographers have searched in vain for a pristine
marine environment. They have found plastic wherever they have looked. " It is a common
global problem, we cannot point to a single habitat or location with no plastic."
Plastic harms wildlife and introduces dangerous chemicals into marine ecosystems -
communities of organisms interacting with their surroundings. Once plastic enters the
environment, it lasts for a long time. Scientists are working to prevent plastic pollution from
entering the sea.
When people litter, or when trash is not properly disposed of, things like plastic bags,
bottles, straws, foam beverage cups get carried to the sea by winds and waterways. About 80
percent of ocean plastic originates on land. The rest comes from marine industries such as
shipping and fishing.
In 2015, engineer Jenna Jambeck at the University of Georgia and other researchers
calculated that at least 8 million tons of plastic trash is swept into the ocean from coasts
every year. That's the equivalent of a full garbage truck of plastic being dumped into the sea
every minute. If current trends in plastic production and disposal continue, that figure will

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double by 2025. A report published by the World Economic Forum last year predicts that by
2050, ocean plastic will outweigh all the fish in the sea.
In today's world, plastic is everywhere. It's found in shoes, clothing, household items,
electronics and more. There are different types of plastics, but one thing they all have in
common is that they are made of polymers - large molecules made up of repeating units.
Their chemical structure gives them a lot of advantages : they’re cheap, easy to manufacture,
lightweight, water resistant, durable and can be moulded into nearly any shape.
Unfortunately, some of the properties that make plastics great for consumer goods
also make them a problematic pollutant. Plastic's durability comes in part from the fact that
unlike paper or wood, it doesn't biodegrade, or breakdown naturally. Instead it just fragments
or breaks into tiny pieces over time. These tiny pieces, known as microplastics, can potentially
stick around for hundreds or perhaps even thousands of years.
Another problem with plastics is the other chemicals they contain, like dyes and flame
retardants. When plastic is not disposed of properly, these additives end up in the environment.
Plastic also tends to absorb harmful chemicals from its surroundings. "It is like a sponge for
persistent organic pollutants,. These longlasting, toxic substances include pesticides and
industrial chemicals. If plastic absorbs the chemicals, and marine organisms eat the plastic,
they may be exposed to higher concentrations of these contaminants.
One of the biggest impacts of plastic pollution is its effect on sea life. Seals, sea turtles
and even whales can become entangled in plastic netting. They can starve to death if the
plastic restricts their ability to move or eat. Additionally the plastic can cut into the animal
skin, causing wounds that develop severe infections.
Sea turtles eat plastic bags and soda-can rings, which resemble jellyfish - their favourite
food. Seabirds eat bottle caps or chunks of foam cups. Plastic pieces may make an animal
feel full, so it doesn't eat enough real food to get the nutrients it needs. Plastic can also block
an animal’s digestive system, making it unable to eat.
Plastic and its associated pollutants can even make it into our own food supply. Scientists
recently examined fish and shell-fish bought at markets in California and Indonesia. They
found plastic in the guts of more than a quarter of samples purchased at both locations. In
organisms that people eat in whole, such as sardines and oysters, the plastic is actually getting
transferred to us. In larger fish, chemicals from plastics may seep into their muscles and
other tissues that people consume.
1.1. What is the biggest impact of plastic pollution on sea life ? 2

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1.2. Select the appropriate answer from the given options : 5×1=5
(a) Plastic is actually getting transferred to us from –
(i) organisms that we eat in whole.
(ii) eating samples examined by scientists.
(iii) consumption of sardines and oysters.
(iv) consumption of fish bought from the market.
(b) The largest percentage of ocean plastic originates –
(i) from marine industries.
(ii) from industrial waste.
(iii) on land.
(iv) Both (i) and (ii).
(c) Sea turtles eat plastic bags and soda can rings because –
(i) they are the most nutritious food for them
(ii) plastic is their favourite food
(iii) they resemble sea-birds
(iv) they resemble jellyfish
(d) A property of plastic that make them great for consumers but also make
them a problematic pollutant is its –
(i) biodegradability
(ii) durability
(iii) water resistance
(iv) easy manufacturing
(e) One thing that different plastics have in common is –
(i) they are all made of polymers
(ii) they are large molecular units
(iii) their chemical structure
(iv) their weight
1.3. Find words in the passage which convey similar meaning : 3×1=3
(a) unspoiled (para 1)
(b) long lasting (para 7)
(c) exude (para 10)

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2. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
Shop till you drop is no longer a problem that only women with money in their purses and
time on their hands suffer from. Excessive and insatiable appetite for goods are causing
problems in all countries which have hitherto promoted consumerism because personal debts
are mounting, creating innumerable difficulties for credit card businesses. Millions are gripped
by an insatiable appetite to spend and visit the frequent sales that keep occurring in New
York, Milan, London or Paris. People can become compulsive buyers of anything from
household gadgets, food, clothes to cars.
Compulsive buying has now been diagnosed as a disease and is the result of the growing
advertising campaigns and competition in which shops and firms undercut each other with
huge price discounts. If shops are closed and it is too late, there is always the possibility of
shopping through the net. The addiction to shopping is spreading all over the world. In UK,
2.5 million people are gripped by the shopping fever.
In America, a shopper's paradise, the number is much more at 15 million. With rising incomes,
millions of Indians could join the league of ‘shopaholics'. It is called 'Oniomania' which is a
compulsive disorder that drives people to buy in a repetitive and uncontrolled manner
regardless of consequences.
Self-help groups are springing up to help compulsive shoppers. Because people affected by
this problem suffer greatly from feelings of isolation, guilt and fear. It can lead to a break
down of relationships under the burden of debt and deceit. Women are more vulnerable than
men to this addiction because they tend to believe that to be valued by society they have to
look good. They are more insecure about their image and while they are shopping, they get a
boost to their self-image from the attention they get from shop assistants. They come back
feeling beautiful and successful. Men too are now joining the ranks of keen shoppers.
The results can be devastating and debts are huge.Compulsive shoppers keep borrowing on
their credit cards. Psychologists are now saying that people have to face compulsive shopping
as a disorder. It is like the eating disorder or work or exercise addiction. Most people with
eating disorders also have shopping/spending problems. To break the habit, various tips are
now being offered and one of the tips is not to look at glossy magazines. Most of these
magazines work on people’s aspirations and make the readers discontented with their lifestyle
and prompt them to buy more. Other tips include taking regular stock of one’s clothes and
accessories and piling them up in heaps to convince oneself that one doesn’t need more.
Another way to discourage shoppers is to make credit less easily available. Advertising that
encourages consumers to borrow and buy instantly are also encouraging shopaholics. Easy
credit to the young is one way of encouraging them to shop without guilt and thus more
careful screening of potential card holders is necessary to ward off future bad debts. But,
unfortunately, these deterrents may not work because like the children of alcoholics and

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drug addicts turn to these substances, children of shoppers also indulge in compulsive
shopping.
(a) On the basis of your reading of the passage, make notes on it using recognisable
abbreviations wherever necessary. Supply a suitable title. 3
(b) Write a summary of the above passage in about 80 words. 3

SECTION – B : Writing ( 24 marks)
3. Your parents Mr. and Mrs. Sangvela are going to celebrate the Golden Jubilee of their
marriage on 22nd April, 2025 at 2 p.m. Write a formal invitation to be sent out for this
occasion. Give all necessary details. 4
4. You are Sanga, Sports Secretary of TZ Higher Secondary School, Aizawl. You want to select
the school football team for the Inter School Football Competition. Write a notice in
about 50 words inviting students who are interested in participating in the selection trial
for the said competition. Include details such as date, time and venue. 4
5. (a) You are Lalthlamuani, a student of Class-XII, a resident of H/No 20, Mission Veng,
Aizawl. You are interested in pursuing a course in Journalism. Write a letter to the
Administrative Officer of Indian Institute of Journalism, Delhi in response to their
advertisement in a national daily, seeking information about suitable courses, eligibility,
fee structure and placement opportunities. 10
OR
(b) Games and Sports are not given so much importance as is given to academics. As a
result of this our achievements at the national level are not very spectacular. Write a
letter to the editor of a daily newspaper on the importance of games and sports and on
the need to create awareness about it. You are Liansanga/Liansangi, C-57, Zarkawt, Aizawl.
10
6. (a) Keeping in view the frequent occurrence of earthquakes, floods and torrential rains in
different parts of the country, your school arranged a talk on disaster management. The
speaker explained the precautionary measures to be taken by the public and the
government in case of emergency. As a student reporter Thanmawii/Thanmawia , prepare
a report on the talk in about 120 words to be published in your local newspaper. 6
OR
(b) Due to globalisation of the food industry and fast food culture, traditional healthy diets
are increasingly being replaced by unhealthy junk food containing artificial
additives and preservative chemicals. Write an article in about 120 words on the need
for inculcating healthy dietary habits. 6

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SECTION – C: Literature (40 marks)
7. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow : 2×1=2 .
I. The hurt to the scenery wouldn’t be my complaint
So much as the trusting sorrow of what is unsaid :
Here far from the city we make our roadside stand
And ask for some city money to feel in hand
To try if it will not make our being expand,
And give us the life of the moving-pictures’ promise
That the party in power is said to be keeping from us.
(a) The people who are running the roadside stand ask for city-money so –
(i) that they may see things differently
(ii) that they can stay warm
(iii) that they may not see clumsy paint
(iv) that they may also prosper
(b) The party in power has not fulfilled –
(i) the promises made to the drivers
(ii) the promises made to them
(iii) the promises made to greedy good-doers
(iv) the promises made to city people.
OR
II. .....and felt that 2×1=2
old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was, see you soon,
Amma,
all I did was smile and smile and
smile......
(a) How did the poet hide her pain ?
(i) By giving an elongated smile.
(ii) By covering her face.
(iii) By looking away from her mother.
(iv) By talking to her constantly.

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(b) Why has the poet’s pain of losing her mother been described as ‘familiar’ ?
(i) There had been occasions in her life when she had to leave her mother.
(ii) As a child she often fell down and felt the pain.
(iii) It was not a new feeling as she had experienced it even from her childhood.
(iv) None of the above.
8. Answer the following questions in about 30 words : 3×2=6
(a) How, in your opinion, might a huge silence interrupt the sadness of men ?
(b) In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, what are the things that cause suffering and pain ?
(c) What is suggested by the image, ‘massive weight of uncle’s wedding band’ ?
9. Answer the following questions in about 30 words : 4×2=8
(a) Why did Gandhi agree to a settlement of 25 % refund to the farmers ?
(b) “On the way down I planned,” remarked Douglas. What plan had he devised to save
himself from drowning in the swimming pool ?
(c) Why is Raj Kumar Shukla described as being ‘resolute’ ?
(d) Do you find society calloused to the plight of Saheb and Mukesh ? What do you suggest
for the upliftment of children like them ?
10. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 2×1=2
(a) What ideas do you form of Umberto’s personality after his interview with Mukand ?
(i) A very rigid person
(ii) A boastful and arrogant person
(iii) An illusionary visioner
(iv) An academic with philosophical and ethical interest
(b) Where do we find an example of national integration in ‘Poets and Pancakes’ ?
(i) Make up department of Gemini studios
(ii) Rehearsal room
(iii) Office of Gemini studio
(iv) None of these
11. Answer any one of the following questions in about 100-120 words each :
(a) The author has used a touch of gentle humour in Poets and Pancakes to point out
human foibles. Pick out instances of this and justify how they serve in making the
piece interesting. 6
OR

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(b) Sophie was an incurable day-dreamer and escapist having no relation to the realities of
life. She suffers because she dreams. What are her dreams and what effects do they
have upon her ? 3+3=6
12. Answer the following questions in about 30 words : 3×2=6
(a) What unusual things did Charley find among his oldest first-day covers ?
(b) How is the present day Antarctica different from Gondwana ?
(c) How will the Maharaja prepare himself for the hundredth tiger which was supposed
to decide his fate ?
13. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 4×1=4
(a) “We have to submit because they are strong.” These words were said by –
(i) Judewin (ii) Zitkala-Sa
(iii) Bama (iv) Sophie
(b) The clerk refused to accept Charley’s money at the third level because –
(i) the notes were big (ii) the notes were torn
(iii) the notes were wet (iv) it was a currency of modern times
(c) The Maharaja of Pratibandapuram was anxious to kill the hundredth tiger –
(i) to prove his power
(ii) to prove his hunting skill
(iii) to ensure his safety and prove the astrologer’s prediction wrong
(iv) to ensure the safety of his son
(d) Man has created a ruckus on the earth –
(i) by travelling (ii) by visiting the iceland
(iii) by encroaching the earth (iv) by breaking the ice
14. Answer any one of the following questions in about 100-120 words :
(a) What was the scene that first amused Bama but then filled her with anger and revolt ? 6
OR
(b) How would you explain the reluctance of the soldier to leave the shelter of the doctor’s
home even when he knew he couldn’t stay there without risk to the doctor and himself ?
6

____________

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Total number of printed pages – 3 HSS/003

2025
MIZO
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

Hriat turte:
(i) Zawhna zawng zawng hi chhan ngei ngei tur a ni.
(ii) Zawhna tin mark put z^t chu a z^wnah tarlan zel a ni.
(iii) Chh^n dawnin zawhna nambar ziah zel tur a ni.

|HEN KHATNA : HLA
1. A k^r awlte hi dah khat rawh : 3×1=3
(a) Zorama l>ng chi tin hnam tin, _______ hraichawi kan ni.
(b) Thlafam _______ tluang lam zawhin.
(c) _______ an ngîr dai ph<ll>ng an mawi.
2. Hausiampain ‘L>n lai di z<n ka ngai vawng vawng’ a tih chhan kha han sawi teh. 2
3. ‘Kan dam chhung ni’ tih hla phuahtu P.S. Chawngthu hian mihring nun hi eng nen nge a
tehkhin ? 2
4. ‘Enchim loh chawi lai’ tih hla phuahtu Ralngama’n a fa a sun avanga a tawrh natzia kha a hla
thu behchhanin han ziak teh. 8
|HEN HNIHNA : THU
5. A dik ber thlang chhuak rawh : 3×1=3
(a) British in Mizoram an awp \an kum chu _______ . (1880/ 1890/ 1870)
(b) _______ hi mihringte mamawh ril ber leh tih theih sang ber a ni. (ngaihdamna/
inngaihtlawmna/ lungawina)
(c) Pathian awm ring lo pawl chuan _______ ringawt hi an ngaihsan ber a ni. (tuar/ nuam/
chhel)

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6. C.H. Thangkhuma’n mi fing leh mi ^ a tihte kha tute nge ? 1+1=2
7. R.L. Thanmawia’n Mizote rilru put hmang eng angin nge a sawi ? 2
8. C. =huamluaia’n thil tham ral thei chiah eng nge tham ral nasa pawl nia a sawi kha sawi la,
hman lai hun leh tun lai hun a thlir dan leh khaikhin dan kha fiah takin han sawi teh. 1+7=8
|HEN THUMNA : LEMCHAN
9. A dik ber thlang chhuak rawh : 3×1=3
(a) Pipu chena nu leh pate inchhuanna kumkhua chu _______ a ni. (fanu sial man neih/ fapa
ramvachal neih/ fanu silai man neih)
(b) Chawnghrima’n Lalhniangi te pemna tur khua a sawi hmawrhmuh chu _______ a ni.
(Sialsuk/ Neihbawi/ Hmuifang)
(c) Tlangval tan nula tumah biak thiang lo awm hek lo tih sawitu chu _______ a ni. (Kanglova/
Thangzawra/ Chawnghrima)
10. Thangzawra’n hmeichhe rinawmna kha engtiangin nge a sawi ? 2
11. Lalhniangi pain an pem chhan a chhuanlam kha eng nge ni ? 2
12. ‘Mikhual a kang e’ tih awmzia kha fiah takin han sawi teh. 4
|HEN LINA : THAWNTHU
13. A dik ber thlang chhuak rawh : 3×1=3
(a) Damate zin bo hlana ram puma harsatna lo thleng chu _____ a ni. (=hingtam \am/
Mautam \am/ Hripui leng)
(b) Mizorama District Council member tur an thlan hmasak ber kum chu _____ a ni.
(1942/ 1962/ 1952)
(c) Z^ngkhua lo bungbu thliai tawhin a entir chu _____. (khua a var dawn/ khua a thim
dawn/ zan a rei tawh)
14. Buanga’n Lusei ram lo ralmuan chhan ber nia a ngaih kha eng nge ni ? 2
15. Dama’n an zin chhung zawnga a rilru tinuam lotu nia Chawngi hnena a sawi kha eng nge ni ? 2
16. Zoram khawvar lo thleng tur chungchanga Dama thuchah hnuhnung kha han sawi teh. 4
|HEN NGANA : GRAMMAR & COMPOSITION
17. A hnuaia rinte hi eng adverb nge an nih ? 2×1=2
(a) In chhuat chu a va fai hen hun ve
(b) Lali thlip thlep hi chu aw!

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18. A hnuaia thute hi \awng upain engtin nge an sawi ? 2×1=2
(a) Thil dila dil tam luat avanga hmu leh lo vek.
(b) Kal kual, a sawt lo zawnga kal kual.
19. A hnuaia \awng upate hi hrilh fiah la, a tichiang turin thu phuah rawh : 2×2=4
(a) Z< chhe rui ang
(b) Mawngvawm b^ ang
20. Lalsangzuala, Dawrpui Veng, Aizawl i ni a. Mi sualin i dawr an rawk chungchangah Aizawl
Police Station-a thehluh turin First Information Report (FIR) han ziak teh. 4
21. A hnuaia thupui i duh zawk hmangin Essay, thumal 250 aia tlem loin han ziak teh. 8
(a) Thawh chhuah mila nun
(b) Nunna hi a hlu
|HEN RUKNA : RAPID READER
22. (a) Chawngmawii’n Hrangchhuana lu, a nu leh pate hnen a panpui dan kimchang takin han
ziak teh. 8
OR
(b) Siaia te khan Hrangchhuana kha man hlauh se engtia tih nge an tum sawi la, Siaia ten
Hrangchhuana an man dan kha sawi bawk rawh. 2+6=8

_________

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Total number of printed pages – 4 HSS/010

2025
NEPALI
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 Hours

General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
(iii) Write your answers neatly and legibly.
(iv) While attempting a question, write the question number as given in the question paper.

10

1.

1
1
P.T.O.

HSS/010
1
1
1
1
2
2
25

2.
5
1

20 2025
1
2
3

5
6
10 2025

3. 250-300 8

4. 1+1=2

HSS/010 2 Contd.

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5. 1+1=2

6.
1+1=2

7. 1+1=2

8. 1+1=2

9. 1+1=2
________
________
________
45

10. 4×1=4

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11. 2
12. 2
13. 2
14. 5

15. 6×1=6

16.
3
17. 2
18. 2
19. 2
20.
4
21. 4
22. 7

––––––––
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Total number of printed pages – 6 HSS/002

2025

HINDI
Full Marks – 80

Time – 3 Hours

Figures in the margin indicate marks.
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
(iii) Write your answers neatly and legibly.
(iv) While attempting a question, write the question number as given in the question paper.

1.

P.T.O.

HSS/002
1
1
1
1
2
2.

1
1
1
2
2

3. 8

HSS/002 2 Contd.

HSS/002
4. 4
5. 4
6. 6

7.

1
1
1
1
2

HSS/002 3 P.T.O.

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1
1
1
1
2
8.

1
1
1
2

1
1
1
2

HSS/002 4 Contd.

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9. 2+2=4

10.

1
1
2

1
1
2
11. 4×4=16

HSS/002 5 P.T.O.

HSS/002

12. 2+2=4

13. 6

6

––––––––

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Total number of printed pages – 6 HSS/021
2025
PHYSICS
(Theory)
Full Marks – 70
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
(iii) Use log table, if necessary.
(iv) Use of calculator is not allowed.
1. How does the resistance of a conductor vary as a function of temperature ? 1

(a) remain same (b) decrease

(c) increase (d) first increase then decrease

2. The specific resistance of a conductor increases with – 1

(a) decrease in length (b) increase in temperature

(c) increase in cross sectional area (d) decrease in cross sectional area

3. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 200 W bulb and a 100 W bulb
designed to operate on the same voltage, then – 1

(a) R1 = 2R2 (b) R2 = 2R1 (c) R2 = 4R1 (d) R1= 4R2

4. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction

B , the force on it is non zero. This implies that – 1

(a) angle between them is either zero or 180

(b) angle between them is necessarily 90

(c) angle between them can have any value other than 90

(d) angle between them can have any value other than zero and 180

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HSS/021
5. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of – 1

(a) charge (b) momentum (c) energy (d) mass

6. When LCR series circuit is at resonance then the phase angle ( ) between current and voltage
is – 1

(a)
2
(b)  (c) 2 (d) 0

7. In electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f is independent of – 1
(a) change of flux (b) time
(c) number of turns of the coil (d) resistance of the coil
8. The frequency of  -rays, x-rays and ultra-violet rays are a, b and c respectively. Then – 1
(a) a<b<c (b) a>b>c (c) a=b=c (d) a>c>b

13.6
9. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal quantum number ‘n’ is given by E = eV . The
n2
energy of a photon ejected, when the electron jumps from n =3 state to n=2 state of hydrogen
atom is approximately – 1
(a) 1.5 eV (b) 0.85 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 1.9 eV
10. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum, does the Lyman series of hydrogen atom lie ?1
(a) infrared (b) visible (c) ultraviolet (d) X ray
11. If red light and violet rays are of focal lengths fr and fv, then which one of the following is true ?
1
(a) r  v (b) r  v (c) r  v (d) r  v
12. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination
is – 1
f1 f2
(a) ( f1  f 2 ) / 2 (b) ( f1  f 2 ) / f 1 f 2 (c) f2 (d) f1

13. How is interference pattern in double slit experiment affected, if a source of blue light is
used in place of yellow light producing the same intensity ? 1
(a) The fringe width will decrease (b) The fringe width will increase
(c) The fringe width will become brighter (d) The fringe width will become fainter

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14. In a p-type semiconductor the majority carrier of current are – 1
(a) electron (b) holes (c) proton (d) neutron
15. The electric potential at 0.1 m from a point charge is 15 V. What is the magnitude of the
charge ? 2
16. What is the amount of work done in moving a point charge Q around a circular arc of radius
r at the centre of which, another point charge q is located ? 2
17. Name the characteristics of electromagnetic waves that (i) increase (ii) remains constant
in the electromagnetic spectrum as one moves from radiowave region towards ultraviolet
region. 2
18. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width obtained is 3 mm in air. If the apparatus is
immersed in water (   4 3 ) . What will be the new fringe width ? 2
19. An electron and proton are moving with the same speed. Deduce which will have more
wavelength ? 2
20. An X-ray tube produce a continuous spectrum of radiation with its short wavelength end at
0.66 A . What is the maximum energy of a photon in eV ? 2
21. Differentiate between isotopes and isobars with suitable examples. 2
22. (a) What is meant by internal resistance of a cell ? The potential difference across the
terminals of a battery is 8.5 V, when a current of 3A flows through it from its negative
terminal to the positive terminal. When a current of 2A flows through it in opposite
direction, the terminal potential difference is 11 V. Find the internal resistance of the
battery and its emf. 1+3=4
OR
(b) Explain the term drift velocity of electrons. Hence obtain the expression for the current
through the conductor in terms of drift velocity. 1+3=4
23. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 10  produced full scale deflection when a current
of 25 mA passes through it. Describe showing full calculations, how will you convert the
galvanometer into –
(a) a voltmeter reading upto 120 V and
(b) an ammeter reading upto 20 A 2+2=4

HSS/021 3 P.T.O.

HSS/021
24. (a) Give the relation for force between two parallel wires carrying current in the same
direction and hence define one ampere from it. State the nature of this force by giving
the reason for it. 1+1+2=4

OR

(b) Using Biot-Savart’s law, derive the expression for the magnetic field at the centre of a
circular coil carrying current. What is the direction of it ? 3+1=4

25. What is total internal reflection ? What are the necessary conditions for it ? Obtain a
relation between critical angle and refraction index of the medium. 1+1+2=4

26. (a) Draw the graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with mass number.
Write three main inferences drawn from the graph. 1+3=4

OR

(b) Giving the radii of two nuclei of mass numbers A1 and A2 as R1 and R2 respectively.
What will be the ratio of the radii ? If the radius of 13Al27 nucleus is found to be 3.6
fermi. Find the radius of 29Cu64 . 2+2=4

27. What is the barrier voltage for a germanium and a silicon diode ? With the help of a circuit
diagram, explain the use of p-n junction diode as full wave rectifier, giving its input and
output waveforms. 1+3=4

28. (a) Define electric potential. Obtain an expression for the electric potential at a point at a
distance r from an isolated positive charge. What is the S.I unit of it and hence
define one volt ? 1+4+1=6

OR

(b) Define electric field intensity. Derive an expression for electric field at a point on the
equitorial line of an electric dipole. What is the direction of the electric field ? 1+4+1=6

29. (a) Define root mean square value of an a.c. Derive the relation between virtual value or
r.m.s value of an a.c and peak value of a.c. The electric mains in a house are marked as
220 V, 50 Hz.Write down the equation for the instantaneous voltage. 1+4+1=6

OR
HSS/021 4 Contd.

HSS/021
(b) Explain with the help of a suitable diagram the principle, construction and working of
a transformer. Why is the transmission of a.c done at high voltage ? 6

30. With the help of a ray diagram, show how a compound microscope forms a magnified image
of a tiny object, at least distance of distinct vision. Hence, derive an expression for the
magnification produced by it and define its magnifying power. 5+1=6

____________

HSS/021 5 P.T.O.

HSS/021
Physical constants :

1
4 0 = 9 × 109 Nm2C–2

ε0 = 8.854 × 10–12 C2 N–1m–2
c = 3 × 108 ms–1
e = 1.6 × 10–19C
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg
h = 6.6 × 10–34Js
G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
g = 9.8 ms–2

1A
O
= 10–10m
1 amu = 931 MeV
–7 –1
0 = 4 × 10 TA m

HSS/021 6

Total number of printed pages – 5 HSS/022

2025
CHEMISTRY
(Theory)
Full Marks – 70
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
(iii) Use log tables if necessary.
(iv) Use of calculator is not allowed.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 14×1=14
(a) The IUPAC name of CH2OH is –
|
CHOH
|
CH2OH
(i) Propane-1,3-diol (ii) Propane-1,2-diol
(iii) Propane-1,2,3-triol (iv) Glycerol
(b) The half life of a first order reaction is 69.3 s. Its rate constant is –
(i) 10–2 s–1 (ii) 10–4 s–1 (iii) 10 s–1 (iv) 102 s–1
(c) The co-ordination compound [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr (NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are
examples of –
(i) Ionisation Isomerism (ii) Linkage Isomerism
(iii) Coordination Isomerism (iv) Geometrical Isomerism
(d) For solutes which do not undergo any association or dissociation in solution, the Van’t
Hoff factor (i) will be –
(i) less than 1 (ii) more than 1
(iii) equal to 1 (iv) zero

P.T.O.

HSS/022
(e) The carbon atom attached to halogen in haloalkane is –
(i) sp2 hybridised (ii) sp3 hybridised
(iii) sp hybridised (iv) None of these
(f) Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction –
(i) C6H5Cl (ii) CH2 =CHCl
(iii) ClCH2CH=CH2 (iv) CH3–CH=CHCl

(g) Iodoform test is not given by –
(i) Pentan-2-one (ii) Pentan-3-one
(iii) Ethanol (iv) Ethanal
(h) Which of the following will have the highest conductivity at 298 K ?
(i) 0.01 M HCl solution (ii) 0.1 M HCl solution
(iii) 0.01 M CH3COOH solution (iv) 0.1 M CH3COOH solution
(i) Which of the following is least basic ?
(i) (CH3)2 NH (ii) NH3 (iii) C6H5 NH2 (iv) (CH3)3 N
(j) The IUPAC name of the compound
O
||
CH3  CH=CH  C  CH2  COOH is –
(i) 2-oxo-hex-1-enoic acid (ii) 3-oxo-hex-2-enoic acid
(iii) 1-formyl-hex-4-en-3-one (iv) 3-oxo-hex-4-enoic acid
(k) Aromatic primary amines and aliphatic primary amines can be distinguished by –
(i) Hinsberg’s test (ii) Tollen’s test
(iii) Azo dye test (iv) Litmus test
(l) During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with Conc. H2SO4 , the initial step
is –
(i) Protonation of alcohol (ii) Formation of carbocation
(iii) Elimination of water (iv) Formation of an ester

HSS/022 2 Contd.

HSS/022
(m) Which element does not show variable oxidation state ?
(i) Vanadium (ii) Iron (iii) Mercury (iv) Scandium
(n) Nucleic acids are polymers of –
(i) Nucleotides (ii) Saccharic acid
(iii) Ascorbic acid (iv) Adipic acid
2. Explain the phenomenon of weakness and discomfort in breathing at high altitudes with the
help of Henry’s law. 2
3. Is it possible to measure the voltage of an isolated half reaction ? Give reasons. 2
4. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution for NaI, CH3COONa and (CH3COO)2Mg
are 126.9, 91.0 and 187.8 Scm2mol–1 respectively at 25°C. What is the molar conductivity
of MgI2 at infinite dilution ? 2
5. Which of the two Fe2+ or Fe3+ has larger magnetic moment and why ? 2
6. Write a short note on Mendius reaction and give one example. 2
7. Write the reaction mechanism when propan-1-ol is treated with Conc.H2SO4 at 443K. 2
8. Identify A and B in the following reaction : 2

Conc.HNO Fe,HCl
  SO
Conc.H
3 A   B
reduction
2 4

9. Consider the reaction 2A + B 
 Product

When concentration of B alone was doubled, half-life time does not change. When
concentration of A alone was doubled, the rate increases by two times. What is the order of
reaction and unit of rate constant, k ? 2
10. To a 0.02 mole of [Co (NH3)5 Br] Cl2 solution, excess Ag NO3 solution was added. Calculate
the number of moles of AgCl precipitated. 2
11. Write short note on Williamson’s synthesis and give one example. 2
12. Why are vinyl halides less reactive than alkyl halides ? 2

HSS/022 3 P.T.O.

HSS/022
13. Out of SN1 and SN2, which reaction occurs with : 2
(a) inversion of configuration
(b) racemization
14. Why are ketones less reactive than aldehydes towards nucleophilic reactions ? 2
15. ClCH2COOH is a stronger acid than CH3COOH. Explain. 2
16. Differentiate between enzymes and co-enzymes. 2
17. An organic compound X has molecular formula C5H10O. It does not reduce Fehling’s solution
but it gives positive Iodoform test. What are the possible structures of X ? 2
18. (a) A solution containing 10.2g of glycerine per litre is found to be isotonic with 2% solution
of glucose. Calculate the molar mass of glycerine. (Molar mass of glucose =180g mol–1)
4
OR
(b) A solution of sucrose (Molar mass = 342 g mol–1) is prepared by dissolving 70g of it
per litre of solution. What is the osmotic pressure at 27°C ? (R=0.082 L bar K–1 mol–1)
4
19. (a) A first order decomposition reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition.
Calculate its t½ value. 4
OR
(b) The rate constant of a first order reaction becomes 5 times when the temperature is
raised from 77° C to 127° C. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction. (R=8.314
JK–1 mol–1) 4
20. (a) Write Nernst equation and calculate emf of the cell at 298 K.
Mg(s) / Mg2+(0.001M)|| Cu2+(0.0001M)/Cu(s)
Given E° Mg2+/Mg =  2.37V ; E° Cu2+/Cu = + 0.34 V 4
OR
(b) What is the value of Ecell at equilibrium ? Calculate the equilibrium constant for the
following cell reaction.
4Br  + O2 + 4H+ 
 2Br2 + 2H2O
Given that E°Cell = 0.16 V. 1+3=4

HSS/022 4 Contd.

HSS/022
21. Give the IUPAC name of [Fe(CN)6] . Using valence bond theory, predict the type of
4–

hybridisation, geometry and magnetic behaviour of [Fe (H2O)6]3+ ion. 1+3=4

22. What are carbohydrates ? Write three important functions of carbohydrates. 1+3=4

23. When a chromite ore (A) is fused with Na2CO3 in presence of air, a yellow solution of
compound (B) is obtained which on treatment with H2SO4 give compound (C). When compound
(C) is treated with KCl, orange crystals of compound (D) crystallizes out. Identify the
compounds A to D and also write the reaction. 4

________

HSS/022 5

Total number of printed pages – 6 HSS/020
2025
MATHEMATICS
Full Marks – 80
Time – 3 hours
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
(iii) Use of calculator is not permitted; however, you may ask for logarithmic tables if required.
(iv) Please write down the serial number of the questions before attempting it.

1. Choose the correct answer from the following : 16×1=16
(a) Let R be the relation in the set {1, 2, 3, 4} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (1, 1),
(4, 4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2) } . Then the relation R is –
(i) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(ii) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
(iii) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
(iv) an equivalence relation
(b) Let f : R  R be defined as f ( x )  3 x, then f is –
(i) one-one onto (ii) many-one onto
(iii) one-one but not onto (iv) neither one-one nor onto
(c) If A is symmetric matrix, then BIAB is –
(i) symmetric (ii) skew-symmetric
(iii) identity matrix (iv) zero-matrix

2 x 0  –1
 1 0
(d) If A=  x x and A = 1 2 , then x equals –
  

1
(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) (iv) 2
2

P.T.O.

HSS/020


 x cos x dx equals –
3 3
(e)



(i) 0 (ii)  (iii) (iv) 2
4

(f) At x = 2, f(x) = [x] is –

(i) continuous but not differentiable

(ii) differentiable but not continuous

(iii) continuous as well as differentiable

(iv) neither continuous nor differentiable
(g) The function f (x) = sin x is increasing in –

   3     
(i)  ,  (ii)  ,  (iii)  0,  (iv)  , 
2   2   2 2

2
log x
(h) dx equals –

2 log x +1 x(log 2+1)
(i) C (ii) C
log x  1 (log 2  1)

2log x 2log x
(iii) C (iv) C
log 2 2
 
(i) If a is a non-zero vector of magnitude ‘a’ and  is a non-zero scalar, then  a is a unit
vector if –

1
(i)  =1 (ii)  = 1 (iii) a  |  | (iv) a  |  |

 
(j) If | a  b |  | a  b | , then –
     
(i) | a | | b | (ii) a b (iii) a  b  0 (iv) a  b

HSS/020 2 Contd.

HSS/020

(k) The fixed point which the line 3x  1  6 y  2  1  z passes through is –
 1 1   1 1 
(i)  , ,1 (ii)  , ,1
 3 3  3 3 

1 1   1 1 
(iii)  , ,1 (iv)  , ,1
3 3   3 3 

x  2 y  3 z 1
(l) The straight line   is –
3 1 0

(i) parallel to the x-axis (ii) parallel to the y-axis

(iii) parallel to the z- axis (iv) perpendicular to the z-axis

(m) If P (A) =
1
2
 
, P (B) = 0, then P A B is –

1
(i) 0 (ii) (iii) 1 (iv) not defined
2

(n) An urn contains 8 white and 4 red balls. Two balls are drawn from the urn one after the
other without replacement. Then the probability that both drawn balls are white is –

2 9
(i) (ii)
3 16

14 23
(iii) (iv)
33 36

5 1  1
(o) If A and B are two events such that P(A  B)= , P(A  B)= and P( B)  , then the events
6 3 2
A and B are –

(i) independent (ii) dependent

(iii) mutually exclusive (iv) None of these

HSS/020 3 P.T.O.

HSS/020
1 1 1
(p) A problem is given to three students whose chances of solving it are , and
4 5 6
respectively. Then, the probability that the problem is solved is –

1 1 1 3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
120 4 2 4

2. Let f : {1, 3, 4}  {1, 2, 5} and g: {1, 2, 5}  {1,3} be defined as f = {(1, 2), (3, 5), (4, 1)} and
g={(1, 3), (2, 3), (5, 1)}. Find (i) g o f (ii) f o g. 2

dy
If y  e , find
x
3. . 2
dx

4. Find the intervals on which the function f ( x)  x3  2x2 1 is increasing. 2

   
5. Find the unit vector perpendicular to both a and b when a  4iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ and b  iˆ  4 ˆj  kˆ.
2

x
6. Show that the function f : R  {x  R : 1  x  1} defined by f ( x)  , x  R is onto
1 | x |
function. 4

2 1 2   x 
  
7. Find the value of x, if  x 4 1 1 0 2   4   0 . 4
0 2  4  1 

8. Solve the following system of equations using matrix method : 4

x  y  z  1;
3x  y  2z  3;
x  y  z  1.

log x
9. (a) Evaluate :  (1  log x)2 dx . 4

OR
HSS/020 4 Contd.

HSS/020
tan  1 x
(b) Evaluate :  (1  x)2 dx 4

dy
10. Solve :  y cot x  2x  x2 cot x . 4
dx
  
11. If a , b and c are three mutually perpendicular vectors of the same magnitude. Prove that
     
(a  b  c ) is equally inclined to the vectors a , b and c . Also, find this angle. 4

12. (a) Find the length and the equations of the line of shortest distance between the lines
x 1 y 1 z 1 x3 y 5 z 7
  and  
7 6 1 1 2 1 . 4

OR

(b) Find the equations of the perpendicular from the point (3,  1, 11) to the line
x y  2 z 3
  . Also find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular and the
2 3 2
length of the perpendicular. 4

13. (a) A man is known to speak the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports that it is
a six. Find the probability that it is actually a six. 4

OR

(b) Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled pack of
52 cards. Find the mean of the number of kings. 4

a  1
 t + 
 1 t dy
14. If a  o, x   t   and y  a   , find . 6
 t dx

x2 y 2
15. (a) Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse   1. 6
a 2 b2

OR
(b) Find the area bounded by the curve y = cos x, the x-axis and the ordinates x = 0 and
x  2 . 6
HSS/020 5 P.T.O.

HSS/020
16. (a) Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface and given volume has an
altitude equal to 2 times the radius of the base. 6

OR

(b) Find the largest possible area of a right-angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 5 cm. 6

17. Maximize and minimize z  7 x  3 y subject to the constraints –
x  2 y  100, 2 x  y  120, x  y  70, x  0, y  0 . 6

___________

HSS/020 6

Total number of printed pages – 6 HSS/023

2025
BIOLOGY
(Theory)
Full Marks – 70
Time – 3 Hours
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.
(iii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
SECTION – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options : 14×1=14
(a) Which of the following statements is incorrect for polyembryony ?
(i) Presence of more than one egg cell in the embryosac and all egg cells get
fertilised.
(ii) A number of embryos develop from different parts of an ovule.
(iii) A number of embryos develop from the tissue of nucellus.
(iv) Presence of more than one ovule in the embryo.
(b) Which of the following are the correct grouping ?
A. Sperm – seminiferous tubules
B. Testosterone – Leydig cells
C. Semen – corpus luteum
D. Testes – scrotum
(i) A, B, C (ii) A, B, D
(iii) A, C, D (iv) B, C, D
(c) There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer
as per the code given below :
Assertion (A) : From one diploid primary spermatocyte, four haploid
sperms are formed
Reason (R) : A primary spermatocyte is large and diploid, it contains
46(2n) chromosomes

P.T.O.

HSS/023
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and ‘Reason’ is the corrrect explanation of (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but‘Reason’ is not the correct explanation of (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) MTP is legal but not recommended. Refer to the following conditions.
A. MTPs are always surgical.
B. MTPs are generally advised during the 1st trimester.
C. MTPs are normally used as contraceptive method.
D. MTPs require the assistance of a qualified medical personnel.
Choose the correct option :
(i) A and B (ii) B and D
(iii) A and C (iv) B and C
(e) What will be the amount of Cytosine in a DNA, if the total amount of Thiamine and
Adenine in the DNA is 55 % ?
(i) 27.5 %. (ii) 22.5 %.
(iii) 45 %. (iv) 55 %.
(f) Haemophilia is a disease that usually appears in male but rarely in female. However,
female can become haemophilic if –
(i) Mother is haemophillic and father is normal
(ii) Mother is a carrier and father is normal
(iii) Mother is normal and father is haemophillic
(iv) Mother is a carrier and father is haemophillic
(g) Trichophyton, a fungus causes which of the following diseases –
(i) Ringworm (ii) Cholera
(iii) Mumps (iv) Psoriasis
(h) Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(i) Butyric acid – rincidity of butter
(ii) Lipases – fat digesting enzyme
(iii) Cyclosporin A – immunosupressive agent
(iv) Streptokinase – blood cholesterol lowering agent

HSS/023 2 Contd.

HSS/023
(i) A family residing in a rural area needs a clean and cheap fuel that produces very few
pollutants. Which microbes will you suggest for this family ?
(i) Aerobic bacteria called Methanobacterium
(ii) Anaerobic bacteria called Methanobacterium
(iii) Aerobic bacteria called Mycobacterium
(iv) Anaerobic bacteria called Mycobacterium
(j) A cytokine barrier, which is an innate immunity, depends on the production of certain
substance by an infected cells that protects other cells from further infection. Identify
this substance –
(i) Histamine (ii) Serotonin
(iii) Interferon (iv) Phagocyte
(k) Which one of the following is not required for rDNA technology ?
(i) DNA polymerase (ii) DNA ligase
(iii) Restriction endonuclease (iv) Reverse transcriptase
(l) Insulin is a hormone produced by  cell of pancreas. It controls the blood sugar level
in the blood by –
(i) Converting glycogen into glucose
(ii) Converting glucose into glycogen
(iii) Converting glucose into galactose
(iv) Excretion of sugar by kidneys
(m) Transgenic animals carry a gene/genes from another species in their genome. One can
identify such animals by observing –
(i) foreign RNA in all its cells
(ii) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(iii) foreign DNA in all its cells
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(n) A boy is born with a hereditary disease, what corrective method will you suggest ?
(i) Gene cloning (ii) Nuclear transfer
(iii) Organism cloning (iv) Gene therapy

HSS/023 3 P.T.O.

HSS/023
SECTION – B
2. Individuals affected by STDs like AIDS face discrimination in the society since sexually
transmitted diseases have social stigma attached to it. As a result of this, they face a lot of
health issues. Mention any four health issues/complications faced by them. ½×4=2
3. (a) According to scientists, the great diversity that exists today is a result of 3500 million
years of evolution. But according to Hardy-Weinberg’s principle, evolution will not
occur if certain conditions are met. Elucidate any two conditions that will not permit
evolution. 2
OR
(b) A 9 years old boy Ruatpuia was kidnapped from his backyard. His parents reported
him missing and an investigation was launched. After the investigation, police found
saliva on a discarded water bottle near the crime scene. ½+1½=2
(i) What technique will the police use to identify the kidnappers ?
(ii) Explain the basic principle of this technique.
4. Predict the possible blood group of the offspring when father is heterozygous A and mother
have blood group O. 2
5. (a) Explain how Rhizobium acts as a biofertilizer. 2
OR
(b) What are antibiotics ? Write the name of two commonly used antibiotics obtained from
bacteria. 2
6. Write any two differences between B cells and T cells. 2
7. How can Bt cotton help the farmers ? ½×4=2
8. Argue for or against the statement and give at least two points to support your answer –
“Gene cloning violates the right and dignity of a species and should be banned completely”.
2
9. What is 10 % law ? Why are trophic levels limited to 4–5 at the maximum ? 1+1=2
10. (a) After the process of decomposition of detritus, it undergoes two very important
processes. Elucidate these processes. 1+1=2

OR
(b) Oceans occupy 70 % of the surface of our planet but their NPP is far less than
land ecosystem. What could be the reasons for low productivity of oceans ? Give two
reasons. 2

HSS/023 4 Contd.

HSS/023
11. Write two differences between National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries. 2

SECTION – C
12. Explain the development of placenta and write how it regulates the exchange of substances
between maternal and foetal blood. 1+3=4
13. Mongolism is an autosomal disorder in which the affected individuals have similar
facial features. Explain the primary cause of this disorder. Write any four visible
symptoms of this disease. 2+2=4
14. Explain Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection. 4
15. (a) A 15 years old girl named Ruati experiences severe allergic reactions to crabs.
How would you explain the immunological mechanisms involved in Ruati’s allergic
response to crabs. Support your answer with a suitable diagram. 2½+1½ = 4

OR
(b) Describe the treatment of sewage by aerobic microbes. 4
16.

(A) Denaturation

(B) X

(C) Extension

From the above diagram –
(a) Identify X and Y ½+½=1
(b) Name the microbe from which a heat stable (thermostable) enzyme is isolated. 1
(c) What is the role of Y ? 1
(d) What will happen to this biological process if X did not take place ? 1

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HSS/023
17. Mizoram is blessed with rich biodiversity as it is a part of Indo-Myanmar biodiversity hotspot.
Mention two important features that make our state qualified to be considered as a
megadiversity zone. Do you think there is an urgent need to conserve our biodversity ? If yes,
validate your reasons. 1+3=4
SECTION – D
18. Describe the development of a mature embryosac from a functional megaspore with a suitable
diagram. 4+2=6
19. (a) How are introns removed in eukaryotic gene ? Describe the structure of an eukaryotic
gene with diagrams. 6
OR
(b) A single strand of RNA is formed from a single DNA strand. What is this process called ?
Explain the sequence of events during this process with suitable diagrams. Also give
reasons why both the strand of DNA are not copied during this process. 6

_________________

HSS/023 6

Total number of printed pages – 6 HSS/016
2025
COMPUTER SCIENCE
(Theory)
Full Marks – 70
Time : 3 hours
General instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Please write down the question number before attempting it.
(iii) Figures in the margin indicate marks.
(iv) Programming Language : Python.
1. Choose the correct answer : 7×1=7
(a) Which of the following is NOT a valid constraint for creating table using the CREATE
TABLE command ?
(i) Distinct (ii) Primary key
(iii) Unique (iv) Foreign key
(b) The data type of the line returned by the function readlines ( ) is –
(i) strings (ii) lists
(iii) tuples (iv) dictionary
(c) Which of the following function call will cause Error while invoking the function given
below ?
def test (a, b, c, d) :
(i) test (1, 2, 3, 4) (ii) test (a = 1, 2, 3, 4)
(iii) test (1, 2, 3, d = 4) (iv) None of these
(d) By default, the ORDER BY lists the results in –
(i) ascending order (ii) descending order
(iii) any order (iv) same order
(e) The keyword used at the beginning of any function block is –
(i) function (ii) func
(iii) define (iv) def

P.T.O.

HSS/016
(f) The data type of L given below is –
L = [1, 23, ‘hello’, 7]
(i) array (ii) tuples (iii) list (iv) dictionary
(g) Which value type does the input () function return ?
(i) Boolean (ii) String (iii) Integer (iv) Float
2. Fill in the blanks : 7×1=7
(a) The key of a dictionary must be of ________ types. (immutable/mutable/list)
(b) Data Structure Queue is also known as________ list. (FILO/FIFO/LIFO)
(c) If a computer connected to a star topology fails, the entire network will ________.
(also fail/work unaffectedly/not be connected to the server)
(d) All aggregate functions except ________ ignores NULL values in their input collection.
(AVG/SUM/COUNT(*))
(e) In a network, a machine is identified by unique address called ________. (IP Address/
NIC Address/Port number)
(f) ________ can be used to have an audio-visual chat with an expert sitting in a far-away
place to solve technical issues. (Email/VoIP/FTP)
(g) The small work table that already exists in database used for making simple calculations
is called ________. (NULL table/Dummy table/Demo table)
3. Answer the following questions : 10×2=20
(a) Evaluate the following expression
6*3 + 4**2//5 – 8
(b) (i) What is the difference between bit rate and baud rate ?
OR
(ii) Who are hackers and crackers ?
(c) What is default constraint ? Give an example.
(d) What are CSV files ? Why are they classified under text files ?
(e) Differentiate between CHAR and VARCHAR data types in MySQL.
(f) Find and write the output of the following Python code :
x = “abcdef”
i = “a”
while i in x :
print (i, end = “ ”)

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HSS/016
(g) Consider a table “Table1”, write SQL command to modify the salary column and
increase it by 500 each for all who get salary less than or equal to 10,000.
(h) Identify the network types from the given characteristics.
(a) (i) It is mostly used in homes
(ii) All computers are connected with each other and there is no particular server.
(b) (i) Covers a range of 10–15 meters
(ii) Used in personal space of a person
(i) Write the output of the following python code.
def update (x = 10) :
x + = 15
print (‘x = ’, x)
x = 20
update ( )
print (‘x = ’, x)
(j) (i) Given a bounded stack of capacity 4 which is initially empty, draw pictures of the
stack after each of the following steps :
(i) Push ‘a’
(ii) Push ‘b’
(iii) Pop
(iv) Push ‘c’
OR
(ii) Given a bounded Queue of capacity 4 which is initially empty, draw pictures of
the queue after each of the following steps :
(i) enqueue ‘a’
(ii) enqueue ‘b’
(iii) dequeue
(iv) enqueue ‘c’
4. Answer the following questions : 9×4=36
(a) Explain any four string built-in functions in Python with one example each.
(b) Describe all the four components of a function in Python.
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HSS/016
(c) (i) Write a program to add more records to a file ‘students.dat’ which is already
created in binary format. The user must be able to enter more records of name,
roll no and marks as long as he/she wants.
OR
(ii) Start with the list [8, 9, 10], perform the following using list functions.
(a) Replace the second entry 9 with 17
(b) Add 4, 5 and 6 to the end of the list.
(c) Remove the first entry from the list.
(d) Sort the entire list.
(e) Double the list items or values.
(f) Insert 25 at index 3.
(g) Reverse all the list items
(h) Write the final content of the list
(d) (i) What is communication channel ? Explain the three types of guided media
for communication.
OR
(ii) Explain the four types of computer Networks such as PAN, LAN, MAN and WAN.
(e) (i) What is the purpose of using MySQL ? Explain the three categories of
commands available in SQL
OR
(ii) Explain any four table constraints that ensure database integrity in MySQL.
(f) Is the loop in the code below infinite ?
Explain to support your answer.
m=3
n=5
while n < 10 :
m=n–1
n = 2*n – m
print (n, m)

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HSS/016
(g) Muani is using a table employees. It has the following columns :
Code, Name, Salary, DeptCode
Write SQL commands to help Muani to get what she wants :
(i) She wants to display maximum salary in department wise.
(ii) She wants to increase salary by 1,000 for all employees getting salary less than
5,000 per month.
(iii) She wants all unique department code.
(iv) She wants to view list of employees in descending order of salary.
(h) A software development company has set up its new centre at New Delhi for its
office and web develoment activities. It has 4 blocks of building named block A, block
B, block C and block D.
The distance between various blocks in meters is given below :

Blo c k A to Blo ck B 60 m
Blo c k B to Blo ck C 40 m
Blo c k C to Blo ck A 30 m
Blo c k D to Blo ck C 50 m

The number of computers in different blocks is given by :

B lo c k A 25
B lo c k B 50
B lo c k C 125
B lo c k D 10

Based on the information provided above, solve the following questions.
(i) Suggest the most suitable place on block to have the server of this company
with a suitable reason.
(ii) Suggest the type of networks to connect all the blocks with a suitable
reason.
(iii) The company is planning to link all the blocks through a secure and high
speed wired medium. Suggest a way to connect all the blocks.

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HSS/016
(iv) Suggest the most suitable wired medium for efficiently connecting each
computer installed in every block out of the following cables.
(i) Coaxial cables
(ii) Ethernet cable
(iii) Single Pair Telephone Cable
(i) Write SQL commands for the following on the basis of a given table.
Table : Teacher

Sl. No. Name Age Department JoiningDate Salary G ender
1 Jugal 34 Computer 10/01/97 12,000 M
2 Sharmila 31 History 24/03/98 20,000 F
3 Sandeep 32 Maths 12/12/96 30,000 M
4 Sangeeta 35 History 01/07/99 40,000 F
5 Rakash 42 Maths 05/09/97 25,000 M
6 Shyam 50 History 27/06/98 30,000 M
7 Shiv Om 44 Computer 25/02/97 21,000 M
8 Shalakha 33 Maths 31/07/97 20,000 F

(i) To show all information about the teachers of History department.
(ii) To list the names of female teachers who are in Maths department.
(iii) To list names of all teachers with their date of joining in ascending
order.
(iv) To show all information about teachers whose salary > 20,000.

__________

HSS/016 6