RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 24 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 24 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 24/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following occurs due to continuous movement of gas particles?
Ans A. Diffusion

B. Melting

C. Evaporation

D. Condensation

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Q.2 Which statement best supports the Law of Constant Proportions?
Ans A. Water from two sources with identical composition

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B. Sand from two places with varying grain size

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C. Mud from two ponds containing different minerals

D. Soil from two areas with mixed organic content

Q.3 Which of the following features are displayed by all cells under a microscope?
Ans A. Only plasma membrane and nucleus

B. Only plasma membrane and cytoplasm

C. Plasma membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm

D. Only nucleus and cytoplasm
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Q.4 We express the concentration of solution in various ways. Which of the following
method is INCORRECT?
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Ans
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D. Volume by volume percentage of a solution

Q.5 Which of the following mirrors is used as a shaving mirror to get a magnified image of
the face?
Ans A. Parabolic mirror

B. Concave mirror

C. Plane mirror
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D. Convex mirror

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Q.6 Which of the following correctly pairs a nerve type with its origin?
Ans A. Spinal nerves – Brain

B. Spinal nerves – Heart

C. Cranial nerves – Brain

D. Cranial nerves – Spinal cord

Q.7 Which of the following best describes a person with hypermetropia?
Ans A. Their vision is equally blurred for both near and distant objects

B. They can see faraway objects clearly but struggle to see things up close

C. They can see nearby objects clearly but distant ones appear blurry

D. They are unable to see anything without glasses

Q.8 Why is it advised to clean your mouth after vomiting?
Ans A. To remove bad odour

B. To neutralise the acid and protect tooth enamel

C. To stop the spread of infection

D. To avoid dehydration

Q.9 Which of the following help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to the growing plants
in the forest?
Ans A. Secondary consumers

B. Tertiary consumers

C. Primary consumers

D. Decomposers

Q.10 During energy transformation, the total energy of a system:
Ans A. remains unchanged

B. always decreases

C. disappears completely

D. always increases

Q.11 Megaphones, loudhailers, and shehnais are designed to:
Ans A. focus sound waves in a particular direction

B. spread sound waves equally in all directions

C. convert sound waves into electrical signals

D. reduce the intensity of sound waves

Q.12 Which statement is INCORRECT regarding mass and weight?
Ans A. Mass is the measure of inertia, weight is the force due to gravity.

B. Mass has SI unit kg, weight has SI unit newton.

C. Mass is scalar, weight is vector.

D. Mass varies from place to place, weight remains constant.

Q.13 In humans, after fertilisation, the embryo is implanted in which part of the body?
Ans A. Fallopian tube

B. Ovary

C. Uterus

D. Stomach

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Q.14 In human females, which of the following structures carries egg from the ovary to the
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womb?

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Ans A. Vaginal tube
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B. Fallopian tube

C. Uterus
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D. Cervix

Q.15 Which of the following quantities is a measure of the inertia of a body?
Ans A. Mass

B. Force

C. Weight

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D. Acceleration

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Q.16
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Which of the following best describes the relation between a cell’s shape and its role?

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A. Cell shape supports its specific function.

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B. Cell shape is random.
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C. All cells have the same function.

D. All cells are round regardless of function.

Q.17 Read the given assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the most appropriate option.

(A): Oral contraceptive pills are a permanent method of contraception.
(R): They change hormone levels and prevent ovulation.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
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C. Both A and R are false

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D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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Q.18
Ans A. Both double and triple bonds ag
Which type of bond is present between carbon atoms in saturated hydrocarbons?

B. Triple bond

C. Double bond

D. Single bond

Q.19 What are the noticeable changes observed when an iron nail is placed in copper
sulphate solution?
Ans
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A. The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution remains blue.

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B. The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
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C. The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution changes to yellow.

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D. The iron nail remains as it is and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.a
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a Q.20
Ans
What is the name of the fluid present inside a plant cell vacuole?
A. Nucleoplasm

B. Cytoplasm

C. Cell sap

D. Protoplasm

Q.21 In a house, electricity is supplied at 220 V. If the maximum power consumption of the
house is 11 kW, what should the rating of the main fuse be?
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Ans A. 20 A

B. 30 A
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C. 100 A

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D. 50 A
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Q.22 Which of the following metals is least reactive?
Ans A. Gold

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Sodium

Q.23 Ethanol reacts with sodium leading to the formation of sodium ethoxide with the
evolution of:
Ans A. nitrogen gas

B. bromine gas

C. hydrogen gas

D. chlorine gas

Q.24 The closeness of magnetic field lines indicates:
Ans A. Strength of magnetic field

B. Position of the poles

C. Direction of magnetic field

D. Length of the magnet

Q.25 According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces:
Ans A. act on the same object at the same time

B. cancel each other out because they are equal

C. act on two different objects at the same time

D. act on the same object at different times

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Raman's income is ₹10,200. He saves 30% of his income. If his income increases by
14% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
Ans A. decrease by ₹1,428

B. increase by ₹1,430

C. increase by ₹1,429

D. decrease by ₹1,427

Q.27 When the price of a book is reduced by 16%, its sale increases by 80%. What is the net
per cent increment in the revenue?6715
Ans A. 49.2%

B. 51.2%

C. 48.8%

D. 50.6%

Q.28 A dealer allowed a 50% discount on an article and still managed a 71% profit. Find the
ratio of the cost price to the listed price.656
Ans A. 50 : 171

B. 53 : 173

C. 47 : 174

D. 49 : 173

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Q.29 If the volume of a cylinder is 1848 cm3, and its height is 12 cm, find the curved surface
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area (in cm2).

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Ans A. 560

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C. 432 ag l
D. 528

Q.30

Ans A.

B.

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C.
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D.

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Q.31 An article was bought for ₹4,000. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was

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sold at a discount of 20% on the marked price. What was the per cent profit on the

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transaction?431
Ans A. 14%

B. 12%

C. 11%

D. 10%

Q.32 In an election between two candidates, 20% of the total votes were declared invalid. The
winning candidate received 40% of the valid votes and secured 1,60,000 more valid
votes than the runner-up, who received 32% of the valid votes. Find the total number of
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valid votes.
Ans A. 25,00,000

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B. 20,00,000

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C. 10,00,000

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Q.33 4 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days while 2 women can do it in 10 days. In
how many days can 5 women and 8 men complete it?3873
Ans A. 6

B. 2

C. 4

D. 7
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Q.34

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In a bag containing red, green and pink tokens, the ratio of red to green tokens was 15 :
19 while the ratio of pink to red tokens was 17 : 2. What was the ratio of green to pink
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s e tokens?5289

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C. 41:260

D. 38:255

Q.35 Simplify the given expression.

12 + {6 × 27 ÷ 3 + 2} – (16 ÷ 8) × 5
Ans A. 57

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B. 58

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C. 56

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D. 55

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Q.36 The average of the first 9 multiples of 3 is:
Ans A. 15

B. 3

C. 9

D. 13.5

Q.37 The present ages of P and Q are in the ratio 9 : 8 and after 2 years from now, they will be
in the ratio 10 : 9. The present age of P is:
Ans A. 18 years

B. 8 years

C. 16 years

D. 9 years

Q.38 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Mohan
borrowed an amount of ₹2,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Mohan after 2 years.
Ans A. 21,800

B. 20,300

C. 22,300

D. 20,800

Q.39 The ratio of the speeds of two trucks is 5 : 4. The time taken by the faster truck to cover
a distance of 200 km is 2 hours less than the other. Find the speed of the slower truck.
Ans A. 26 km/hr

B. 17 km/hr

C. 24 km/hr

D. 20 km/hr

Q.40 Which of the following options is NOT true about triangles?
Ans A. For a given area, the equilateral triangle has the least perimeter.

B. There are right-angled triangles with three consecutive natural numbers as lengths of its sides.

C. An isosceles right-angled triangle with area 50 square units has one side with length 8 units.

D. If the largest side of a triangle is 4 units, then its area is less than 8 square units.

Q.41 The largest four-digit number which, when divided by 14, 9 and 6, leaves remainder 2 in
each case is:
Ans A. 9956

B. 9948

C. 9984

D. 9998

Q.42 In a zoo, there are 32 ducks, 41 sheep, 7 horses and some crows. If the total number of
feet is 211 more than the number of heads, find the number of crows.
Ans A. 30

B. 35

C. 43

D. 21

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Q.43 A trader marked his goods 35% above its cost price. He then gave a discount of 15%.
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Find his profit percentage.

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Ans A. 14.75%
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B. 20%

C. 15.25%
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D. 16.5%

Q.44 The inradius of a triangle is 8 cm and the sum of the lengths of its sides is 60 cm. Find
the area (in cm2) of the triangle.
Ans A. 240

B. 260

C. 280
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D. 480
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Q.45 A jeep travels 80 km at the speed of 40 km/hr and the next 36 km at the speed of 18

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km/hr. What is its average speed (in km/hr)?3317
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Ans A. 23
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B. 35 ag
C. 33

D. 29

Q.46

Ans A. 1

B. 4
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C. 8

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D. 2
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Q.47
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Roshan and Anshu together invested ₹13,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out
of a total profit of ₹9,000, Roshan's share was ₹1,300. What was Roshan's investment?
Ans A. ₹1,765

B. ₹2,295

C. ₹1,950

D. ₹1,565

Q.48 A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How many pages will he type in 80 minutes?

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Ans A. 4

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B. 3

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work in 6 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
Ans A. 13

B. 6

C. 15

D. 12

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Q.50 The average age of 24 students of a class is 46 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 47 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 73

B. 74

C. 70

D. 71

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.)
(Left) 2 6 & 2 9 5 5 € 1 $ 1 6 @ & € # 3 @ £ % 4 9 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Q.52 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

CMN101, KUV82, SCD63, AKL44, ?
Ans A. ISE25

B. IWT25

C. IST25

D. MST25

Q.53 Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three
people sit between B and K. C sits to the immediate left of K. No one sits to the right of
L. Only one person sits between L and K. J sits to the immediate right of D. How many
people sit between I and J?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

Q.54 Sonu starts from point A and drives 61 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 67 km, turns left and drives 67 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 80 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 12 km to the south

B. 10 km to the north

C. 13 km to the south

D. 11 km to the north

Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
GPM ENK CLI AJG ?
Ans A. ZHE

B. CHI

C. YLI

D. YHE

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Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘zebra rain union’ is coded as ‘ds cm oh’ and ‘video union
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oven’ is coded as ‘ng oa cm’. How is ‘union’ coded in that language?

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Ans A. oh
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B. ng

C. cm
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D. ds

Q.57 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some dogs are birds.
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All birds are pets.
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Conclusions:

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(I): Some pets are not dogs. .co s em
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(II): Some dogs are pets.
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A. Only conclusion (I) follows
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B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.58 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.
(Left) * 3 © £ % 2 7 3 © £ & @ & 5 @ 3 3 @ * @ $ 4 (Right)
How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
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Ans A. One

B. Four
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C. Three
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D. Two
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Q.59 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between S and C when counted from the right of S. Only two people
sit between C and U when counted from the left of U. Only three people sit between S
and B when counted from the left of B. R sits to the immediate left of T. Who sits third to
the left of A?
Ans A. B

B. R

C. T
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D. C
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Q.60 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
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a How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

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Q.61 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

BCG−FGK
WXB−ABF
Ans A. FFI−JKO

B. FFI−IJN

C. FGK−IKN

D. FGK−JKO

Q.62 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D ÷ F – G x H + J’?
Ans A. Wife's brother

B. Wife's father

C. Son's wife's father

D. Son's wife's brother

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. LPR

B. QUW

C. DHJ

D. HMN

Q.64 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

18 – 8 ÷ 4 + 64 × 16 = ?
Ans A. 146

B. 144

C. 142

D. 148

Q.65 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. AY-QO

B. QO-GE

C. MK – CA

D. NK – DB

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Q.66 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding

3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and

(46, 23, 32)
(72, 36, 45)6784
Ans A. (194, 97, 105)

B. (98, 49, 58)

C. (156, 78, 88)

D. (162, 81, 92)

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Q.67
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Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
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same order.
Only four boxes are kept between A and E. Only C is kept above A. Only two boxes are
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kept between G and F. B is kept immediately above D. F is not kept immediately above

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B.

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How many boxes are kept below B?
Ans A. 1

B. 2
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C. 3

D. 4

Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
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All diamonds are stones.
No diamond is a necklace.
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Conclusion (I): Some stones are diamonds.
Conclusion (II): No stone is a necklace.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.69 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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100 85 70 55 40 ?
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Ans A. 22

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Q.70 Seven boxes, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only I is kept above L. Only three boxes are kept between I and B. Only K is
kept below C. D is kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between J and
K?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

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D. Four

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Q.71 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

9 B 14 C 196 A 7 D 24 = ?
Ans A. 131

B. 137

C. 142

D. 130

Q.72 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

YAB−XZA
TVW−SUV
Ans A. IJJ−HJK

B. IJJ−GIJ

C. IKL−GJJ

D. IKL−HJK

Q.73 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

116 ÷ 9 + 427 × 7 − 13 = ?
Ans A. 996

B. 985

C. 923

D. 934

Q.74 CFRT is related to GKVY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, SZHN is related to WELS. To which of the given options is EOTC related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. ITXD

B. IXDE

C. ITXH

D. ITBH

Q.75 Five people, A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits at the extreme right
end of the line. D sits to the immediate left of A. B sits between C and E. How many
people sit between A and B?
Ans A. 3

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1011 1010 1020 1019 1029 1028 ?
Ans A. 1040

B. 1034

C. 1036

D. 1038

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.77 In a certain code language, ‘ROME’ is coded as ‘2347’ and ‘BERM’ is coded as ‘7254’.
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What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?

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Ans A. 4
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B. 7

C. 2
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D. 5

Q.78 Bhaskar starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans A. 13 km towards west

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B. 13 km towards south
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C. 17 km towards north

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D. 11 km towards west

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Q.79 Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series so
that it can complete logically?

5, 15, 27, 41, 57, ?
Ans A. 76

B. 75

C. 80

D. 82

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Q.80 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

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(Left) 3 3 3 4 9 8 9 1 2 2 5 5 5 1 3 1 4 4 1 5 8 2 2 6 3 7 6 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an

Ans A. 6
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odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?4389

B. 4

C. 7

D. 5

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81 Which of the following age groups was highlighted at the Summer Book Writing Festival
2025?
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Ans

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a D. School students aged 6 and above

Q.82 Which of the following features is a major design focus for the Zorawar tank?
Ans A. Nuclear warhead capability

B. Submarine detection system

C. Amphibious capability and lightweight design

D. Stealth technology for naval use

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.83 The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2022, seeks to
amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, with respect to its application
to which state?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Telangana

C. Karnataka

D. Odisha

Q.84 In July 2025, which international city was in the spotlight for hosting the 17th BRICS
Summit?
Ans A. Rio de Janeiro

B. Beijing

C. New Delhi

D. Johannesburg

Q.85 What is the theme of the 11th International Day of Yoga 2025?
Ans A. Yoga for One Earth, One Health

B. Do Yoga for Long Life

C. Yoga and Our Health

D. Do Yoga for Good Health

Q.86 In which state was the 'Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan (VKSA)' launched by the Union
Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan, in May 2025?
Ans A. Rajasthan

B. Telangana

C. Odisha

D. Uttar Pradesh

Q.87 As announced in 2025, the headquarters of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) will
be established in:
Ans A. New Zealand

B. Brazil

C. South Africa

D. India

Q.88 What was India’s rank among the most polluted countries in the World Air Quality
Report 2024, released in March 2025?
Ans A. 1st

B. 3rd

C. 7th

D. 5th

Q.89 In June 2025, which of the following states increased the quota for minorities under its
housing schemes from 10% to 15%?
Ans A. Assam

B. Kerala

C. Gujarat

D. Karnataka

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.90 Who among the following Indians set a javelin throw record of 84.39 m at National
m
Games 2025?

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Ans A. Neeraj Chopra
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m a
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B. Annu Rani

C. Shivpal Singh
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D. Sachin Yadav

Q.91 At the 78th World Health Assembly in May 2025, how many countries voted in favour of
the historic WHO Pandemic Agreement?
Ans A. 108 countries

B. 119 countries

C. 124 countries
m
D. 132 countries
m .co
m.co s em
Q.92 The Reserve Bank of India revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines for Small

s e
Finance Banks from FY 2025–26, reducing the PSL target to what percentage of ANBC
l a
l a
(adjusted net bank credit) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures
ag
ag
(CEOBE)?
Ans A. 50%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 30%

Q.93 In March 2025, Operation Brahma was launched by the NDRF to rescue earthquake
victims of which country?
Ans A. Nepal
m
B. Myanmar

m .co
C. Bhutan
s e
D. Sri Lanka
g la
Q.94
a
Dassault Aviation and Reliance Aerostructure Limited (RAL), in June 2025, announced
at Paris Air Show execution of an agreement to manufacture which of the following in
India for the Global Market by 2028?
Ans A. Falcon 2000 LXS Business Executive Jets

B. Falcon 3000 LXS Business Executive Jets

C. Falcon 4000 LXS Business Executive Jets

D. Falcon 1000 LXS Business Executive Jets

m
Q.95
m
Who was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his contributions to Indian hockey?
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Ans

m.co A. Harvinder Singh
s e m
s e B. IM Vijayan
g l a
g l a C. PR Sreejesh
a
a D. Satyapal Singh

Q.96 Who among the following became the youngest Formula 1 driver to win three races in a
row in 2025?
Ans A. Kimi Antonelli

B. Max Verstappen

C. Lando Norris

D. George Russell
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.97 In which city were the 2025 World Aquatics Championships held?
Ans A. United Arab Emirates

B. Singapore

C. Canada

D. Japan

Q.98 Which of the following is a major application of 3D bioprinting demonstrated at MSU
Vadodara in 2025?
Ans A. Regenerative medicine and tissue engineering

B. Satellite communication systems

C. Blockchain-based financial transactions

D. Weather forecasting models

Q.99 In news in 2025, MISHTI scheme for ecological and community sustainability stands for:
Ans A. Mangrove Improvement Scheme for Health and Technology Integration

B. Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes

C. Marine Initiative for Sustainable Habitat and Income

D. Mission for Inland Sustainable Tree Harvesting and Innovation

Q.100 Which of the following countries had awarded Prime Minister Narendra Modi its highest
civilian honour in June 2025?
Ans A. France

B. Greece

C. Italy

D. Cyprus

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 24/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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l a ag
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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which statement correctly distinguishes between plant and animal tissues?
Ans A. Plant tissues have dead supportive cells, while animal tissues are mostly living

B. Both plant and animal tissues have equal growth throughout the body

C. Plant tissues have no supportive structure, while animals lack living tissues

D. Animal tissues are mostly dead, while plant tissues are mostly living

m
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Q.2 What will be the change in kinetic energy of the particles of solid if temperature is
increased?
Ans A. Kinetic energy remains same.
e m
B. Kinetic energy becomes zero.
las
C. Kinetic energy increases.
ag
D. Kinetic energy decreases.

Q.3 When a gun is fired, the bullet moves forward, and the gun recoils backward. This is an
example of __________.
Ans A. Law of Conservation of Energy

B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion

C. Newton’s First Law of Motion
m
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D. Newton’s Third Law of Motion

Q.4
m.co
Which rule is used to find the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor?
s e m
s e
Ans A. Lenz’s law
g l a
g l a B. Fleming’s right-hand rule a
a C. Fleming’s left-hand rule

D. Ohm’s law

Q.5 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of meristematic cells?
Ans A. Dead cells with empty spaces

B. Thin walls with lignin deposits

C. Dense cytoplasm and lack of vacuoles
m .
.co m
D. Thick walls and large vacuoles

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following DOES NOT use the concept of multiple reflection of sound
waves?
Ans A. Vibrating tunning fork

B. Trumpet

C. Megaphones

D. Stethoscope

Q.7 A special tissue through which the foetus receives nutrition is called which of the
following?
Ans A. Cervix

B. Placenta

C. Uterus

D. Fallopian tube

Q.8 In the male reproductive system, where does sperm formation take place?
Ans A. Testes

B. Seminal vesicles

C. Scrotum

D. Vas deferens

Q.9 Which of the following is a typical physical property of a metal?
Ans A. Melleable

B. Brittle

C. Poor conductor of electricity

D. Non-lustrous

Q.10 According to the Law of Constant Proportions, water (H₂O) will always contain
hydrogen and oxygen in the mass ratio of:
Ans A. 1:8

B. 2:1

C. 1:2

D. 8:1

Q.11 In what way do insect pests negatively impact crop yield?
Ans A. By damaging roots, stems, and fruits of plants

B. By enriching the soil with nutrients

C. By supporting flower formation

D. By spreading seeds to new areas

Q.12 A particle moves along a straight line. The particle covers displacement of 40 m in 8
seconds. What is its average velocity?
Ans A. 5 m/s

B. 8 m/s

C. 40 m/s

D. 4 m/s

Q.13 The image formed on the retina of the human eye is __________.
Ans A. virtual and erect

B. virtual and inverted

C. real and erect

D. real and inverted

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 What is the role of a fuse in an electric circuit?
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Ans A. To not break the circuit if the current exceeds a safe level

. e m
m B. To increase the current when needed
as
se C. To break the circuit if the current exceeds a safe level, preventing damage
ag l
D. To cool down the wires during overheating

Q.15 Kamali spends a lot of time studying for examinations, including reading books and
organising thoughts. Why would a scientist argue that this 'hard work' involves very
little 'work' in the scientific sense?
Ans A. Because mental effort does not involve force.

B. Because energy is conserved, so work done must be zero.

C. Because displacement is necessary, and studying involves zero or minimal physical displacement of the body.
m
m
D. Because the activity is considered useful physical labour.
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Q.16
m .co
Why are micro-nutrients important for plants?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. They increase the size of the plant roots.

l a
ag
B. They are only needed for decorative plants.

C. They help in the absorption of sunlight.

D. They support essential functions even in small amounts.

Q.17 Which of the following is a general property of ionic compounds?
Ans A. They are insoluble in water and conduct electricity in solid state

B. They exist as molecules and have weak interatomic forces

C. They are soft and have low melting points
m
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D. They are brittle and conduct electricity in molten or aqueous state

e m
Q.18
Ans
Which of the following is NOT a combination reaction?
A. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
las
B. C + O2 → CO2 ag
C. 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

D. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

Q.19 Which of the following is a chemical change?
Ans A. Cutting of paper

B. Dissolving salt in water

m
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C. Melting of ice

m
.co m
D. Rusting of iron

m s e
s e
Q.20 In which of the following metals will the rate of formation of bubbles be fastest when it
g l a
g l a Ans
reacts with dil. HCl?
a
a
A. Fe

B. Al

C. Zn

D. Mg

Q.21 The gravitational constant (G) was first measured by ________.
Ans A. Newton

B. Cavendish
m .
C. Galileo

m .co s e m
D. Kepler
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.22 What is the term used for the refractive index of a medium when medium 1 is specified
as vacuum or air?
Ans A. Relative refractive index

B. Absolute refractive index

C. Comparative refractive index

D. Optical density

Q.23 A gardener wants to grow stronger plants with better fruit. Which pollination method
should they encourage?
Ans A. Test Pollination

B. Cross-pollination

C. Self-pollination

D. Geitonogamy

Q.24 Which of the following is a correct match of tissue type and its example?
Ans A. Muscular tissue – Neurons

B. Connective tissue – Blood

C. Epithelial tissue – Blood

D. Nervous tissue – Muscles

Q.25 Galvanisation is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them
with a thin layer of:
Ans A. magnesium

B. zinc

C. copper

D. aluminium

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The cost of a washing machine is 26% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 86% and that of the TV decreases by 38%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 8 washing machines and 4 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 38%

B. Increase by 36%

C. Decrease by 29%

D. Decrease by 30%

Q.27 Kanchan spends 60% of her income. If she saves ₹90,000, then her income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 2,24,000

B. 2,25,000

C. 54,000

D. 2,26,000

Q.28 The monthly incomes of two friends Chetan and Vipul are in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively
and each of them saves ₹45,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
2 : 4, then find the monthly income of Chetan (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,26,000

B. 3,15,000

C. 2,24,000

D. 2,25,000

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.29 A car travels 209 km in the first hour and 83 km in the second hour. What is the average
m
speed (in km/hr) of the car for the whole journey?

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Ans A. 146
s e m
m a
se l
B. 142

C. 141
ag
D. 150

Q.30 ₹1,386 is divided among Vinod, Kajal, and Arpit in such a way that if ₹7, ₹41, and ₹12 be
deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 4 : 10 : 12. Find the
actual share of Kajal.
Ans A. ₹460

B. ₹410

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C. ₹551

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D. ₹610

m s e
Q.31
s e l a
l a ag
Ans
11126 ag
A. 70 minutes

B. 72 minutes

C. 86 minutes

D. 80 minutes

Q.32 What is the smallest value of a in the number a3724, so that the number formed is
divisible by 3?
m
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Ans A. 4

B. 3
e m
C. 2
las
D. 1
ag
Q.33

Ans
A.

m
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B.

e m
e m l as
l as C.

ag
ag D.

Q.34 A man buys a car for ₹3,00,000, spends ₹30,000 on modifications and sells it at 5% loss.
What is the selling price?
Ans A. ₹3,11,500

B. ₹3,15,500

C. ₹3,13,500

D. ₹3,17,500
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.35 Poonam, Qasim and Rina invest ₹1,92,000, ₹1,20,000, and ₹88,000, respectively to start
a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹4,93,600, then what is the share of Rina
in the profit?
Ans A. ₹1,08,592

B. ₹1,08,591

C. ₹1,08,595

D. ₹1,08,594

Q.36 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 6 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 24 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

Q.37

Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

D. 2

Q.38 The marked price of a painting was ₹3,800, but the shopkeeper offered a double
discount in a successive manner of 22% and 25%. Ultimately for how much did he sell
the item?
Ans A. ₹2,059

B. ₹2,302

C. ₹2,236

D. ₹2,223

Q.39 A packaging company requires cardboard for two sizes of rectangular boxes. The larger
box measures 30 cm × 25 cm × 10 cm, and the smaller one measures 18 cm × 12 cm ×
10 cm. An additional 6% of the total surface area is needed for overlaps. If cardboard
costs ₹45 per 10,000 cm², calculate the total cost (in ₹, rounded off to the nearest
hundreds) of cardboard needed to produce 400 big boxes and 500 small boxes.
Ans A. 7,400

B. 7,500

C. 7,600

D. 7,200

Q.40 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 28% and its height is
increased by 114%, then what is the percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest
integer) in its volume?
Ans A. 11%

B. 13%

C. 1%

D. 21%

Q.41 Pipe A can fill a tank in 6 minutes, while pipe B can empty the completely filled tank in
12 minutes. Initially, pipe A is opened and after 2 minutes pipe B is also opened. In how
much time (in minutes) will the remaining tank be filled completely?
Ans A. 8

B. 19

C. 9

D. 2
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.42 If the perimeter of a rectangle is 500 cm and its length is 1.5 times its breadth, then find
m
the area of the rectangle (in cm2).

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Ans A. 16,400
s e m
m a
se B. 15,000

C. 12,500 ag l
D. 22,500

Q.43 The value of 3tan2x – 3sec2x + 4 is equal to:
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

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D. 0
m
Q.44
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The mode and median of a data are 27.6 and 28, respectively. What is the mean of the
m s em
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data? (Use empirical formula.)4241

s l a
a ag
Ans A. 31.9
l
B. 28.2

C. 32.7
ag
D. 20.6

Q.45

Ans A. 15.4

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B. 15.3

C. 13.5
e m
D. 14,5
las
Q.46 ag
The amount on a sum of ₹3,600 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹5,217

B. ₹4,356

C. ₹4,389

D. ₹3,863

Q.47 A father is currently four times as old as his son. Eighteen years from now, the father
m
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will be twice as old as his son. What is the father's present age?
m
.co m
Ans A. 36 years

m s e
a
B. 40 years

s e g l
g l a C. 45 years
a
a D. 49 years

Q.48 The mode of the observations 1, 1, 8, 3, 1, 3, 4, 3, 9, 9, 4, 3, 2, 2 and 6 is:4291
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 8

D. 1

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.49 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 24°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 5 : 7, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 8°

B. 13°

C. 16°

D. 12°

Q.50 An article is marked at ₹2,000. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 25% on the article.
What is the selling price of the article after the discount?
Ans A. ₹,1600

B. ₹1,500

C. ₹1,200

D. ₹1,400

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate
left of B. C sits third to the left of B. D is an immediate neighbour of B. F sits to the
immediate right of C. D sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end
of the row?
Ans A. D

B. B

C. F

D. E

Q.52 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 458 569 248 671 349 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit
be exactly divisible by the second digit?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Four

D. Three

Q.53 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

64 + (20 × 4) ÷ 7 – 35 × 5 + 8 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans A. 12

B. 20

C. 44

D. 36

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements: All guns are bullets. All bullets are pistols.
ag l
Conclusion (I): All guns are pistols.
Conclusion (II): Some pistols are bullets.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

m
m .co
Q.55 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only A sits to the

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left of D. Only four people sit between A and B. Only C sits between E and F and E is not
an immediate neighbour of B. How many people sit to the right of F?
em
Ans A. 2
e m l as
B. 4
l as ag
C. 3
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D. 1

Q.56 Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only three boxes are kept below L. Only two boxes are kept between L
and M. Only Q is kept above S. R is kept at some place below O and at some place
above N. Which box is kept at the second position from the bottom?
Ans A. O

m
B. M

C. R

m .co
D. N
s e
Q.57
g la
Refer to the given series and answer the question the follows. (All numbers are single
a
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 8 8 3 6 8 4 8 7 9 9 2 7 7 4 6 7 8 5 8 4 2 9 5 4 8 7 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 5

B. 2

C. 4
m
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D. 3
m
Q.58
m.co
Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (All numbers are single
s e m
s e digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.
g l a
g l a (Left) 8 1 8 4 3 2 9 5 8 7 7 6 5 5 3 6 2 1 5 8 7 6 1 6 1 3 3 (Right) a
a How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 6

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. ZHIM

B. TBDH

C. PXZD

D. SACG

Q.60 In a certain code language,

A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is D related to O if 'D ± R ₹ A # C * O’?
Ans A. Wife

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Daughter

Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. RSW

B. OPU

C. ABG

D. LMR

Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 19 33 48 64 ?
Ans A. 85

B. 81

C. 79

D. 84

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8 ? 14 22 38 70
Ans A. 13

B. 10

C. 11

D. 12

Q.64 Each of the digits in the number 59643127 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and third from the
right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 8

B. 11

C. 13

D. 12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.65 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
the following sets.

. co (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
s e m
m a
se l
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(8, 3, 25)
(5, 4, 21)
Ans A. (4, 6, 23)

B. (3, 7, 25)

C. (7, 3, 22)

D. (6, 4, 17)

m
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Q.66 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

m
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) 6 9 2 7 3 5 7 5 9 4 3 1 6 7 5 5 7 4 8 1 1 8 6 9 1 1 6 (Right)
m s em
s e l a
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How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an

l a
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 8

B. 6
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C. 7

D. 9

Q.67 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

USO 48 NLH 39 GEA 30 ZXT 21 ?
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Ans A. SQM 12

B. SWB 11
e m
C. SRL 12
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D. SPL 11
ag
Q.68 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. D sits third to
the right of F. B sits second to the left of D. E sits second to the right of A. C sits to the
immediate right of E. How many people sit between D and C, when counted from the left
of C?
Ans A. None

B. Four

C. One
m
m
D. Two
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Q.69
m.co
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
s e m
s e given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
g l a
g l a known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements. a
a Statements:
Some Fictions are Nonfictions.
Some Nonfictions are Poetries.
All Poetries are Dramas.

Conclusion (I): Some Nonfictions are Dramas.
Conclusion (II): Some Fictions are Dramas.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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D. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ANP : VRK
QVF : LZA
Ans A. WGD : SLZ

B. CUE : AYC

C. GDV : BHQ

D. NDX : KHU

Q.71 In a certain code language, ‘LEMA’ is coded as ‘4679’ and ‘ACME’ is coded as ‘5946’.
What is the code for ‘C’ in that language?
Ans A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 9

Q.72 In a certain code language, ‘send this reel’ is coded as ‘bh ut df’ and ‘send me money’ is
coded as ‘hj mp bh’. How is ‘send’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. mp

B. df

C. bh

D. ut

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

SWO IME YCU OSK ?
Ans A. EAW

B. EAI

C. EAS

D. EIA

Q.74 A man is standing near a pond and is facing north. First, he turns 90 degrees clockwise,
then 45 degrees anticlockwise. Finally, he turns 135 degrees clockwise. In which
direction is the man facing now?
Ans A. West

B. East

C. North

D. South

Q.75 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

41 51 62 74 87 ?
Ans A. 103

B. 102

C. 101

D. 100

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.76 Fawad starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
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drives 11 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km.

. co He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
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(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A. 1 km to the east ag l
B. 4 km to the east

C. 2 km to the east

D. 3 km to the east

Q.77 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only four boxes are kept between R and B. Only Q is kept above R. Only
two boxes are kept between A and P. D is kept immediately above C. P is not kept
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immediately above D.

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Which box is kept fourth from the top?
Ans A. C

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B. D
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C. A
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D. Q
ag
Q.78 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

ND – RH – VL
LB – PF – TJ
Ans A. HK – LN – FL

B. QG – UK – YO

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C. RM – UT – PR

D. TW – YZ – SY
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Q.79 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

48 × 4 + 7 − 3 ÷ 14 = ?
a
Ans A. 5

B. 8

C. 1

D. 13

Q.80 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
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given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
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HJI−GIH
EGF−DFE
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Ans A. GIH−FHG
g l a
g l a B. GIH−EHF a
a C. GHF−FHG

D. GHF−EGF

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 On 6 November 2025, where was the Indian Navy’s survey ship INS Ikshak
commissioned?
Ans A. Mumbai
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B. Visakhapatnam

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C. Port Blair

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D. Kochi

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.82 In 2025, India celebrated the 10th anniversary of which major urban development
scheme?
Ans A. Prime Minister Awas Yojana

B. Smart City Mission

C. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

D. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

Q.83 What was India’s global rank in the aviation market according to the International
Aviation Data 2024 report released in 2025?
Ans A. 4th

B. 3rd

C. 5th

D. 6th

Q.84 What was the main objective of the Esports Conclave 2025 held in India?
Ans A. To introduce gambling regulations

B. To promote esports as a serious career and sporting option

C. To ban online games

D. To promote board games in schools

Q.85 Who among the following is the head of the 7-member committee set up by the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in February 2025 to
examine and suggest amendments to the Insurance Act, 1938?
Ans A. TS Vijayan

B. Ajay Tyagi

C. Dinesh Khara

D. Swaminathan Janakiraman

Q.86 Lamine Yamal, who won the Breakthrough of the Year award in 2025, plays which sport?
Ans A. Athletics

B. Basketball

C. Gymnastics

D. Football

Q.87 What is India's score in the SDG Index according to the 10th Sustainable Development
Report, 2025?
Ans A. 67

B. 99

C. 100

D. 80

Q.88 In August 2025, who assumed charge as the Director General of the Railway Protection
Force (RPF), becoming the first woman to head the 143-year-old central security force?
Ans A. Rashmi Shukla

B. Nina Singh

C. Archana Ramasundram

D. Sonali Mishra

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.89 What was the unemployment rate among youth aged 15-29 in rural areas in May 2025,
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as per the PLFS?

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Ans A. 15.2%
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B. 10.5%

C. 13.7%
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D. 17.9%

Q.90 As reported on 31 March 2025, which among the following wildlife sanctuaries added 63
new species, as revealed by its faunal survey conducted by the Forest Department?
Ans A. Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary

B. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary

C. Kheoni Wildlife Sanctuary
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D. Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary
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Q.91
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Who took the most wickets (205) in IPL history before IPL 2025?
s em
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ag
Ans A. Arshdeep Singh

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B. Jasprit Bumrah

C. Yuzvendra Chahal

D. Prasidh Krishna

Q.92 In June 2025, which authority made changes for reshaping motor insurance in India?
Ans A. Unique Identification Authority of India

B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

C. Information and Broadcast Unit
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D. Home Ministry

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Q.93
s
During the nationwide “Seva Parv” campaign held from September 17 to October 2,

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2025, which state pledged to plant 15 lakh saplings to promote environmental

Ans
sustainability?
A. Uttar Pradesh ag
B. Assam

C. Gujarat

D. Chhattisgarh

Q.94 Which of the following is the best description of RHUMI-1, which was seen in the news
in August 2024?
Ans A. India’s first Zika virus vaccine
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B. A newly discovered exoplanet
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s e D. India’s first reusable hybrid rocket
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a Q.95 IndiaAI in collaboration with which company conducted the IndiaAI CyberGuard AI
Hackathon in January 2025?
Ans A. Persistent Systems

B. Zensar Technologies

C. I4C

D. Kellton

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Q.96 The National Cooperation Policy, 2025, aims to make cooperatives key drivers for Viksit
Bharat 2047 through _________.
Ans A. Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas

B. Sashakt Bharat, Saksham Nagrik

C. Shakti-se-Shraddha

D. Sahkar-se-Samriddhi

Q.97 In January 2025, which two organisations signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) for effective implementation of requirements of the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act and Rules framed thereunder?
Ans A. State Bank of India (SBI) and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

B. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)

Q.98 The Ministry of Minority Affairs launched the Skilling and Women Entrepreneurship
Development project at the Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) Kottayam in
July 2025 to train minority youth and women in which of the following fields?
Ans A. Internet of Things (IoT) and leadership skills

B. Banking and financial literacy

C. Artificial intelligence and robotics

D. Agriculture and organic farming

Q.99 Who set a new world record in the men’s 100 m freestyle swimming at Olympic Games
Paris, 2024?
Ans A. Kyle Chalmers

B. David Popovici

C. Pan Zhanle

D. Tom Dean

Q.100 Which three economies topped the IMD World Competitiveness Ranking in June 2025?
Ans A. Switzerland, Singapore, Hong Kong

B. Japan, Canada, UK

C. Finland, Denmark, Sweden

D. USA, China, Germany

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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Test Date 24/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 When a raised hammer falls on a nail and drives it into wood, the work done by the
force of the hammer on the nail is positive. In this same scenario, which statement
would describe negative work?
Ans A. The work done by the force of gravity acting on the nail as it moves into the wood.

B. The work done by the force exerted by the nail on the hammer.

C. The work done by the potential energy stored in the hammer.

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D. The work done by the force of gravity acting on the hammer as it falls.

Q.2
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Which device relies on the heating effect of current to protect circuits and appliances

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by intentionally melting to break the circuit when the current exceeds a specified limit?
Ans A. Electric iron coil
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B. Electric bulb filament a
C. Rheostat

D. Electric fuse

Q.3
Ans A.

B.

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C.
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s e g l a
g l a Q.4 Spring balance A is attached at one end to spring balance B, whose other end is fixed to
a rigid support. A force is applied to the free end of spring balance A. Both balances a
a Ans
show the same reading. What does this observation indicate?
A. Both balances exert forces in the same direction.

B. The force exerted by A on B is equal and opposite to the force exerted by B on A.

C. Only spring balance A exerts force on B.

D. The force exerted by A on B is greater than that by B on A.

Q.5 Which of the following statements correctly describes plastids in plant cells?

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Ans A. They are present only in animal cells and absent in plant cells

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B. They are found in prokaryotic cells like bacteria for photosynthesis

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C. They are present in both plant and animal cells in equal amount
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D. They are present only in plant cells and absent in animal cells
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Which combination reaction also demonstrates the neutralisation of atmospheric
pollution components?
Ans A. CaO + CO₂ → CaCO₃

B. CO + O₂ → CO₂

C. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃

D. Fe + S → FeS

Q.7 What is the nature of the distance-time graph for an object in non-uniform motion?
Ans A. A curved line

B. A horizontal line

C. A straight line

D. A vertical line

Q.8 Which of the following happens when the distances between roots and leaves become
large in plants?
Ans A. Diffusion becomes insufficient.

B. Diffusion becomes faster.

C. More chlorophyll is produced.

D. Roots absorb no water.

Q.9 Which of the following statements is correct about gravitational force?
Ans A. It depends on the medium between the objects.

B. It depends on the charge of the objects.

C. It can be both attractive and repulsive.

D. It is always attractive in nature.

Q.10 Alloys, air, lemonade, and soda water are examples of which of the following categories
of solutions?
Ans A. Suspension

B. Colloids

C. Heterogeneous mixture

D. Homogeneous mixture

Q.11 Which of the following rules determines the direction of the magnetic field produced by
a current carrying circular loop?
Ans A. Fleming's Right-Hand rule

B. Left-Hand Thumb rule

C. Right-Hand Thumb rule

D. Fleming's Left-Hand rule

Q.12 After fertilisation, when other parts of the flower fall off, the ovary grows into what
form?
Ans A. Pollen tube

B. Style

C. Fruit

D. Anther

Q.13 What is the relationship between the radius of curvature and the focal length for
spherical mirrors with small apertures?
Ans A. Radius of curvature is equal to twice the focal length

B. Radius of curvature is equal to the focal length

C. Radius of curvature is equal to half the focal length

D. Radius of curvature is equal to thrice the f
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following is a use of washing soda?
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Ans A. Used in treatment of hot water

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m B. Removes the hardness of water
as
se C. Used to kill bacteria in water
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D. Used in cooking

Q.15 Formula unit mass is defined as:
Ans A. the sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit of an ionic compound

B. the atomic mass of the lightest element

C. the mass of one molecule

D. the molecular mass of a compound
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Q.16 Why does the uterine lining become thick and spongy every month?

em
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Ans A. To support egg development

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B. To prevent menstruation

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C. To absorb nutrients

D. To nourish the embryo if fertilisation occurs

Q.17 Which two properties of carbon are mainly responsible for the formation of a large
number of carbon compounds?
Ans A. Tendency to form ionic bonds and lose electrons

B. Metallic character and conductivity

C. High atomic mass and large atomic size

D. Tetravalency and catenation
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Q.18
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Which process must accompany DNA copying to ensure the formation of functional
daughter cells?
s e
Ans A. Creation of additional cellular apparatus
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B. Protein synthesis only a
C. Chromosomal mutation

D. RNA transcription only

Q.19 Which of the following statements best describes the properties of a liquid?
Ans A. No fixed shape, fixed volume

B. Fixed shape, no fixed volume

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C. Fixed shape, fixed volume

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D. No fixed shape, no fixed volume

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Q.20 Which of the following organisms will accumulate maximum concentration of DDT?
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g l a Ans A. Human
a
a B. Goat

C. Grass

D. Spider

Q.21 Which of the following statements about epithelial tissue is correct?
Ans A. Epithelial tissue cells have large intercellular spaces and form a loose sheet.

B. Epithelial tissue does not play any role in material exchange in the body.

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C. Epithelial tissue mainly connects bones and muscles.

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D. Epithelial tissue forms a protective covering and regulates material exchange.

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.22 What is the primary goal of reducing non-biodegradable waste production?
Ans A. To make more space available in landfills

B. To conserve natural resources and minimise pollution

C. To recycle the waste

D. To promote industrial growth

Q.23 A chemical reaction in which two or more substances combine to form a single product
is called:
Ans A. combination reaction

B. displacement reaction

C. double displacement reaction

D. decomposition reaction

Q.24 The combining capacity of an element to each other primarily depends on which of the
following?
Ans A. Number of protons

B. Number of valence electrons

C. Number of energy level

D. Number of neutrons

Q.25 When an object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens, the image formed is:
Ans A. At 2F, real and of same size

B. At the optical centre, virtual and enlarged

C. Between F and 2F, real and inverted

D. At the focus (F), real and highly diminished

Section : Mathematics

Q.26
If a2 − b2 = 21 and a − b = 3, what is a + b?
Ans A. 7

B. 6

C. 8

D. 5

Q.27 Two trains are running on parallel tracks towards each other. Train A is 250 meters long
and is moving at a speed of 90 km/h. Train B is 150 meters long and is moving at a
speed of 60 km/h. How much time (rounded off to the nearest seconds) will it take for
Train A to completely pass Train B?
Ans A. 15 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 12 seconds

D. 20 seconds

Q.28 The sum of two numbers is 50 and their LCM is 429. The two numbers are:2607
Ans A. 11, 39

B. 4, 46

C. 16, 34

D. 9, 41

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.29 A pen is purchased for ₹40 and sold for ₹50. Find the profit percentage.
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Ans A. 25%

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D. 22%

Q.30 The cost price of a whiteboard is ₹2,800. The shopkeeper gave 87% of discount on the
cost price. What is the selling price (in ₹)?
Ans A. 364

B. 316

C. 526

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D. 399

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Q.31

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Ans A. 25

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B. 41

C. 45

D. 31

Q.32 If the fourth proportion to 17, X and 7 is 91, then find the value of X.4887
Ans A. 222

B. 221

C. 218
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D. 219

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Q.33
s
The amount on a sum of ₹7,800 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
la
Ans A. ₹11,730
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B. ₹11,232

C. ₹10,795

D. ₹10,914

Q.34 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 2 and 6 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 4

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B. 2

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C. 3

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D. 6

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a of the top of the building from point A is θ. If tan θ = 4/3, then find the height (in feet) of
the building.
Ans A. 144

B. 135

C. 140

D. 138

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.36 The average age of 30 students of a class is 12 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 13 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 46

B. 44

C. 45

D. 43

Q.37 Three solid metallic cubes of sides 2 cm, 12 cm and 16 cm are melted to form a new
cube. Find the surface area of the cube so formed.
Ans A. 1944 cm2

B. 944 cm2

C. 1644 cm2

D. 1744 cm2

Q.38 A solid metallic cylinder of radius 4 cm and height 6 cm is melted and recast into
smaller solid cylinders of radius 2 cm and height 3 cm. Find the ratio of the total surface
areas of one small cylinder to the original cylinder.
Ans A. 1 : 4

B. 2 : 5

C. 1 : 3

D. 1 : 8

Q.39 A man receives ₹7,700 per month as salary. He saves 25% of his salary every month. His
expenditure per month is:
Ans A. ₹5,856

B. ₹5,832

C. ₹5,761

D. ₹5,775

Q.40 The monthly incomes of two friends Manjit and Keshav are in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively
and each of them saves ₹48,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
1 : 3, then find the monthly income of Manjit (in ₹).
Ans A. 80,000

B. 79,000

C. 1,12,000

D. 81,000

Q.41 The average of the marks of 12 students in a class is 36. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans A. 72

B. 36

C. 24

D. 12

Q.42 In an examination there are 150 questions and 4 marks are given for every correct
answer and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A candidate attempted all 150
questions and scored 250 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly.
Ans A. 50

B. 70

C. 80

D. 60

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.43
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4306
A. 15 ag l
B. 18

C. 12

D. 21

Q.44 A girl goes to school at a speed of 20 km/h. She comes back with a speed of 12 km/h.
Find her average speed for the whole journey.
Ans A. 15 km/h
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B. 14 km/h
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C. 16 km/h
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D. 17 km/h
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Q.45
Ans
ag
The number of prime numbers between 308 and 320 is:
A. 1

B. 6

C. 7

D. 3

Q.46 The sides of a triangle are 90 cm, 11 cm and 97 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with the length of 11 cm?

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Ans A. 97 cm

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B. 105 cm

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C. 72 cm

D. 31 cm
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Q.47 ₹8,413 is divided among S, B, and C in such a way that if ₹32, ₹60, and ₹71 are deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 5:11:14. Find the difference
between the actual shares of B and C.
Ans A. ₹775

B. ₹836

C. ₹925

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D. ₹675

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Q.48 The price of fuel decreases by 30%, 40% and 45% in three successive months, but

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increases by 65% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
s e
s e
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off your
answer to two decimal places.)
g l a
g l a Ans A. Increases by 67.69% a
a B. Decreases by 63.43%

C. Increases by 66.65%

D. Decreases by 61.89%

Q.49 The present ages of Rohit and his father are in the ratio 2 : 5. Four years from now, the
ratio of their ages will become 12 : 27. What was the father's age (in years) five years
ago from now?
Ans A. 45

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B. 48

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C. 50

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D. 52

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Q.50 Dolly goes to a shop to purchase a toy bus priced at ₹5,300. She is offered 4 discount
options by the shopkeeper. Which of the following options should she opt for to gain
maximum advantage of the discount offered?
Ans A. Two successive discounts of 43% and 38%

B. Single discount of 47%

C. Two successive discounts of 21% each

D. Two successive discounts of 7% and 7%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All ships are eggs.
Some eggs are pencils.
All coins are ships.

Conclusions:
(I): Some ships are pencils.
(II): Some eggs are coins.6376
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.52 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some dolphins are whales.
Some whales are sharks.

Conclusions:
(I) Some dolphins are sharks.
(II) No whale is a dolphin.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.53 Refer to the given following number, symbol series and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit
numbers.

(Left) $ # @ * & € # 8 * 9 8 2 $ & $ 6 1 2 1 7 5 @ (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.54 Refer to the following series and answer the question the follows. (All numbers are
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single digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 9 5 2 4 6 5 9 9 5 3 5 5 1 7 6 3 8 5 1 4 4 5 5 9 8 8 9 (Right)
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se How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
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Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 1

D. 3

Q.55 BQVH is related to HLZE in a certain way. In the same way, HSJQ is related to NNNN. To
which of the following is JOWF related, following the same logic?
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Ans A. QKAD
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B. PJAC

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C. QJBD

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D. PKBC
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Q.56 ag
In a certain code language, ‘give me more’ is coded as ‘bt lq nz’ and ‘give more water’ is
coded as ‘hj bt nz’. How is ‘water’ coded in that language?
Ans A. hj

B. bt

C. nz

D. lq

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Q.57 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

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(Left) 658 223 661 257 666 (Right)

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(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.
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What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 14

B. 11

C. 9

D. 12

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Q.58 In a certain code language,
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P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’,
P # Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’,
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e mP & Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’ and

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s
P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.

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How is J related to Z if ‘J # S + R & T % Z’?
A. Father’s mother

B. Father’s father

C. Mother's father

D. Mother's mother

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Q.59 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing the north. A sits third to the
left of E. E sits second to the left of F. D sits to the immediate right of E. B sits to the
immediate left of C.
How many people sit between C and F?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. None

Q.60 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(25, 12, 148)
(32, 11, 172)
Ans A. (19, 35, 214)

B. (40, 13, 210)

C. (24, 14, 154)

D. (38, 15, 212)

Q.61 If ‘A’ stands for ‘×’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

16 B 4 D 8 A 3 C 28 A 2 = ?
Ans A. 40

B. 36

C. 38

D. 35

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. YCD

B. XAC

C. TWY

D. HKM

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

100 70 45 25 10 ?
Ans A. 0

B. −1

C. 1

D. 5

Q.64 Piyush starts from Point A and drives 54 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 56 km, turns right and drives 59 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 61
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 6 km to the west

B. 3 km to the east

C. 7 km to the west

D. 5 km to the east
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

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Q.65 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
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series to make it logically complete?

. co EZC, IDG, MHK, QLO, ?
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se Ans A. UPR

B. UPS ag l
C. UQR

D. UQS

Q.66 Z ranked 12th from the bottom and 56th from the top in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans A. 65

B. 67
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C. 68
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D. 66
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Q.67
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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Ans
11 14 8 17 ? 20
A. 16
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B. 10

C. 5

D. 12

Q.68 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
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belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans A. NR - KO

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B. EI - BF

C. JN - GK ag
D. PT - MR

Q.69 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 6 7 16 ?
Ans A. 21

B. 17
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C. 18

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a
Q.70 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single

g l digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.
a
a (Left) 3 1 2 6 9 8 1 3 4 1 6 9 5 1 1 5 9 9 4 2 7 7 8 3 9 8 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 4
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Q.71 Seven friends D, E, F, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only
two people are seated to the left of E. Only three people are seated between E and W.
Only one person is seated between W and V. U is seated to the immediate left of D. F is
not an immediate neighbor of W. How many people are seated to the right of X?11039
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Q.72 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

GIK−JLN
CEG−FHJ
Ans A. XZB−ACE

B. XYZ−ZBD

C. XYZ−ACE

D. XZB−ZCD

Q.73 Priyanka walks to her uncle’s house. She starts walking from her house towards the
north for 3 m, turns left, and walks for 4 m. She then takes a left turn and walks for 5 m.
Next, she takes a right turn and walks for 1 m. Finally, she takes a right turn and walks
for 2 m to reach her uncle’s house.
How far and in which direction is her house from her uncle’s house?
Ans A. 3 m towards the west

B. 4 m towards the north

C. 7 m towards the east

D. 5 m towards the east

Q.74 Six friends, G, H, I, Q, R and S, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the
table. Only two people sit between Q and I when counted from the left of I. H sits second
to the left of S. R sits to the immediate right of S. R sits to the immediate left of Q. Who
sits third to the right of G?
Ans A. S

B. R

C. Q

D. H

Q.75 Mr. Akte ranked 12th from the bottom and 56th from the top in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 67

B. 68

C. 65

D. 66

Q.76 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KJN 72 RQU 63 YXB 54 FEI 45 ?
Ans A. MUD 35

B. MMO 36

C. MLP 36

D. MKO 35

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.77 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 12 D 10 C 5 B 21 A 3 = ?
s e m
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se Ans A. 36

B. 32 ag l
C. 37

D. 31

Q.78 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

GATE - ETGA - GTAE
PRAY - YAPR - PARY
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Ans A. JOIN - OIJN - OINJ
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B. MODE - EDMO - ODME

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C. USER - REUS - UESR

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D. GUNS - GNUS - SNUG
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Q.79 ag
If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6318547, then what will be the difference between the highest and lowest digits in the
new number thus formed?
Ans A. 5

B. 1

C. 3

D. 6

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Q.80 In a certain code language, ‘LEMA’ is coded as ‘2564’ and ‘HELM’ is coded as ‘3246’.

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What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 4
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B. 3
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C. 2 a
D. 6

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What is the primary focus of Mission Shakti 5.0 launched by Uttar Pradesh Chief
Minister Yogi Adityanath?
Ans A. Economic development

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B. Women's safety, dignity, and self-reliance
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C. Agricultural reforms

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D. Infrastructure development

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g l a Q.82 Which prestigious theatre awards took place on 6 April 2025 at the Royal Albert Hall? a
a Ans A. Laurence Olivier Awards

B. Tony Awards

C. Critics’ Circle Theatre Awards

D. Evening Standard Theatre Awards

Q.83 By how much has the grant for National Championships in high-priority sports been
increased, as per the 2025 announcement?
Ans A. ₹51 lakh
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B. ₹30 lakh

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C. ₹39 lakh
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D. ₹90 lakh
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Q.84 What was the monthly honorarium announced by the Odisha government for Padma
Awardees, starting January 2025?
Ans A. ₹30,000

B. ₹25,000

C. ₹20,000

D. ₹35,000

Q.85 Which city hosted the 38th National Games from 28 January to 14 February 2025?
Ans A. Bengaluru

B. Delhi

C. Dehradun

D. Mumbai

Q.86 Which organisation received the 2025 Laureus Sport for Good Award for using football
to support social change?
Ans A. Kick4Life

B. Street League

C. Right to Play

D. Football for Peace

Q.87 According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change’s official release
dated 1 September 2025 titled “In the last 8 years, Delhi witnesses best AQI figures in
2025 for the January–August period”, what was Delhi’s average AQI during January–
August 2025?
Ans A. 174

B. 194

C. 172

D. 187

Q.88 As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth for 2025-
26 is projected for Q4 at:
Ans A. 6.5%

B. 6.7%

C. 6.8%

D. 6.3%

Q.89 Who became the first Thai male badminton player to be ranked World No. 1 in men’s
singles in May 2025?
Ans A. Kento Momota

B. Kunlavut Vitidsarn

C. Lee Zii Jia

D. Kantaphon Wangcharoen

Q.90 In which year did India present its Third Voluntary National Review (VNR) Report on
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
Ans A. 2025

B. 2023

C. 2024

D. 2022

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.91 In August 2025, the first phase of the Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) project neared
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completion. What is the primary aim of this international biodiversity initiative?

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Ans A. To decode the genetic basis of rare diseases in isolated human populations
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B. To engineer climate-resilient crops using data from ancestral plant genomes

C. To sequence the genomes of all eukaryotic species in Britain and Ireland
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D. To map human migration patterns through ancient DNA found in fossils

Q.92 As notified in June 2025, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD), in collaboration with ICAR’s National Institute for Research on Commercial
Agriculture (NIRCA), partnered to train farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations
(FPOs) in which state on advanced post-harvest technologies for chilli and turmeric?
Ans A. West Bengal

B. Bihar
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C. Haryana
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D. Andhra Pradesh

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a ag
Q.93 In June 2025, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and National Aeronautics and
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Space Administration (NASA) joint venture NISAR is planned to be launched by
_______.
Ans A. PSLV-CA

B. SSLV

C. GSLV-P16

D. GSLV Mk II

Q.94 The Web-Portal for the Prime Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public Administration
2025 was officially launched on 1 October 2025 by which of the following?
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Ans A. Bureau of Police Research and Development

B. Department of Science and Technology
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C. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

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D. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
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Q.95 In March 2025, a rare long‑snouted vine snake was rediscovered in which of the
following national parks?
Ans A. Gir National Park

B. Kanha National Park

C. Dudhwa National Park

D. Bandhavgarh National Park

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Q.96
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Which private-sector facility was commissioned for aerospace titanium production?
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Ans

m.co A. Tata Aircraft Complex
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s e B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

g l a
g l a C. Aerolloy Technologies
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a D. Bharat Electronics Limited

Q.97 Which mobile application was introduced by the National Commission for Women in
May 2025 to enhance women’s digital literacy and safety in advanced digital tools?
Ans A. Kavalan Safety and Support Platform

B. Kaaval Uthavi Emergency Assistance Tool

C. Digital Saathi for Women Empowerment

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D. Yashoda Artificial Intelligence Learning App

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Q.98 According to the World Bank’s Global Economic Prospects (June 2025), global growth
is projected to slow markedly to what percentage in 2025?
Ans A. 2.3%

B. 4.1%

C. 3.5%

D. 0.5%

Q.99 In August 2025, the Department of Posts signed a Memorandum of Understanding with
which association in an effort to broaden access to mutual fund products, leveraging
the trust and reach of post offices across the country?
Ans A. Association of Mutual Funds in India

B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

C. Confederation of Indian Industry

D. All India Association of Mutual Fund Advisors

Q.100 Where was the main Infantry Day wreath laying ceremony held on the occasion of 79th
Valour Day in 2025?
Ans A. India Gate

B. Army Headquarters

C. Red Fort

D. National War Memorial

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48