KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Clinical Biochemistry

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Clinical Biochemistry
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Clinical Biochemistry

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Sr. No. .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

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CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY

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Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60

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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :

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Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question a
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Instructions for Candidates :

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1. Write your Entrance Booklet and
fill up the necessary in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.

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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the

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6. Do not darken more than one circle ofaoptions for any question. A question with more than one darkened
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.

response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question

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be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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1. The SF4 molecule has which type of geometry ? 7.
Which one of the following fatty acids is synthesized
(A) Tetrahedral by the cells in the body from Linoleic acid ?
(B) Bent (A) Linolenic acid
(B) Lysgeric acid
(C) See Saw
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) T-Shaped
(D) None of the above
2. The Bond Order of N2 is 8. Which amino acid is the precursor of Creatinine, heme,
(A) 2 bile acids in the body ?
(B) 1 (A) Tryptophan
(C) 3 (B) Glycine
(C) Cysteine
(D) 2.5
(D) Alanine
3. What is the pH of a 1.0×10-8M Solution of HCL?
9. Which of the following enzyme classes catalyses the
(A) 5.98 linking of two compounds?
(B) 6.98 (A) Transferases
(C) 6.40 (B) Hydrolases
(D) 5.50 (C) Ligases
4. For a spontaneous change, total entropy is (D) Lyases
10. Which of the following has no effect on simple enzyme
(A) Negative
activity?
(B) Positive
(A) Substrate concentration
(C) Zero (B) pH
(D) Either positive or negative (C) Temperature
5. Which among the following is an example of transport (D) Presence of Co-enzymes
Protein? 11. Which of the following statements is true for
(A) Myosin enzymatically catalysed reaction?
(A) Additional substrate molecules are energized to
(B) Hemoglobin
overcome the activation energy of the reaction
(C) Collagen (B) The activation energy of the reaction is lowered
(D) None of these so that a larger proportion of the substrate
6. Which among the following shows inversion of qualifies to overcome it
configuration when subjected to hydrolysis? (C) The activation energy of the reaction is
increased, thus decreasing the likelihood that any
(A) Glucose substrate molecules will overcome it
(B) Galactose (D) The activation energy of the reaction is lowered
(C) Sucrose so that fewer substrate molecules can
(D) Maltose overcome it

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12. Non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme catalysed 17. Which ribosome is present in the Prokaryotic cell?
reaction (A) 80S
(A) Decreases Vmax (B) 70S
(C) 50S and 40S
(B) Binds to Michaelis complex (ES)
(D) 60S and 30S
(C) Both (A) and (B)

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18. Peroxisome has a prominent role in the metabolism

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(D) Can actually increase reaction velocity in rare
of

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13. Von Geirke’s diseasemoccurs s
(A) Citric acid cycle

which enzyme ?as
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(C) Glyoxylate pathway
(A) Glucose (D) Glycolysis
(B) Phosphofructokinase 19. Mitochondrial DNA is different from nuclear DNA
(C) Phosphorylase because of
(A) Being linear
(D) Phosphoglucomutase
(B) Having A=T and C-G
14. Transamination of aspartate forms

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(C) Lacking histone bodies

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20.. In cell membrane, carbohydrates in glycoproteins or
(A) Pyruvate
(D)
(B) Oxaloacetate
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e glycolipids are oriented:
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(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Alanine a (A) Towards outside

15. Which organ of the body is mainly affected in (B) Towards inside

Phenylketonuria? (C) Towards outside and inside
(D) Randomly distributed
(A) Liver
21. What is the basis for the difference in how the leading
(B) Kidney
and lagging strands of DNA molecules are

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(C) Brain synthesized?

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(D) Heart (A) The origins of replication occur only at the

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a 5’ end.
(B) Helicases and

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(C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only
(C) 6100 KJ to the 3’ end of a growing strand.
(D) 5500 KJ (D) DNA ligase works only in the 3’ S 5’ direction.

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22. E. coli cells grown on 15 N medium are transferred to 26. Which of the following statements is not true?
14
N medium and allowed to grow for two more
(A) Archaea and bacteria have different membrane
generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA
extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density lipids.
distribution of DNA would you expect in this (B) Both archaea and bacteria generally lack
experiment? membrane enclosed organelles.
(A) one high-density and one low-density band
(C) The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
(B) one intermediate-density band
(D) Only bacteria have histones associated with
(C) one high-density and one intermediate-density
band DNA.

(D) one low-density and one intermediate-density 27. Biologists suspect that endosymbiosis gave rise to
band mitochondria before plastids partly because
23. The functioning of enhancers is an example of (A) The products of photosynthesis could not be
(A) transcriptional control of gene expression. metabolized without mitochondrial enzymes.
(B) a post-transcriptional mechanism to regulate
(B) All eukaryotes have mitochondria (or their
mRNA.
remnants), whereas many eukaryotes do not
(C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors.
have plastids.
(D) post-translational control that activates certain
proteins. (C) Mitochondrial DNA is less similar to prokaryotic
24. In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until DNA than is plastid DNA.
(A) the two DNA strands have completely (D) Without mitochondrial CO2 production,
separated and exposed the promoter. photosynthesis could not occur.
(B) several transcription factors have bound to the
28. Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation
promoter.
among prokaryotic cells?
(C) the 5_ caps are removed from the mRNA.
(D) the DNA introns are removed from the (A) Binary fission
template. (B) Endospore formation
25. Photoautotrophs use (C) Endotoxin release
(A) light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon
(D) Biofilms
source.
(B) light as an energy source and methane as a 29. Fowl cholera in chickens is caused by
carbon source. (A) Bacillus anthrax
(C) N2 as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon (B) Clostridium tetani
source.
(C) E-coli
(D) CO2 as both an energy source and a carbon
source. (D) Pasteurella multocida

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30. The most important attractant released by the invading 35. Segregation occurs when the homologous
bacteria and not produced by mammalian cells is chromosomes separate during

(A) Interleukin-8 (A) Meiotic prophase-I
(B) Meiotic metaphase-I
(B) Formylated methionine
(C) Meiotic anaphase-I
(C) C5a

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(D) Meiotic telophase-I

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(D) All of the above

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36. Which statement is not true for crossing over ?

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(A) It increases variability by forming new gene

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more flexibility at the hinge region of an antibody is

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combinations
(B) It involves non-sister chromatids ofahomologous
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(A) Glycine
(B) Tyrosine chromosomes
(C) Tryptophan (C) It reduces variability by forming new gene
combinations
(D) Proline
(D) It leads to separation of linked genes
32. The proteins that participate in formation of alternative
37. Which of the following gene is not essential for creating
pathway of complementary system are
golden rice ?

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(A) C1, C4, C2, C3
(A) Phytoene synthase

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(B) C2, C5, C7, C3
(C) C3, factor B, factor D, Properdin
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(D) None of the above
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(D) Phytoene desaturase
33. Independent assortment occurs when homologous 38. The non-autonomous controlling element reported in
chromosomes are maize by Barbara Mc Clintock was
(A) Uniformly segregated into different gametes (A) Ac element
(B) Randomly segregated into different gametes (B) Ds element

(C) Uniformly segregated into same gametes (C) L1 element

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(D) All of the above

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(D) Randomly segregated into same gametes

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39. Which of the following Vir genes form a transfer

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34. Which one is not an example of Mendelian trait/

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apparatus for T-DNA export from bacteria into the

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disorder in humans?

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plant cell ?

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(A) Phenylketonuria
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(A) Vir B complex and Vir D4
(B) Thalassemia (B) Vir G and Vir A
(C) Cystic fibrosis (C) Vir D4 and Vir D2
(D) Turner’s syndrome (D) Vir C1 and Vir A

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40. RNase H 46. Blood is
(A) Cleaves and digests RNA (A) Ectodermal in origin
(B) Cleaves and digests the RNA-DNA (B) Mesodermal in origin
heteroduplex (C) Endodermal in origin
(C) Cleaves single stranded DNA and RNA (D) None of the above
(D) Removes nucleotides from 5 end of DNA and 47. Pernicious anaemia develops because of
RNA (A) Folic acid deficiency
41. Caraway method is used for the estimation of (B) Iron deficiency
(A) Blood Urea (C) Inability to absorb vitamin B12
(B) Serum Creatinine (D) All of the above
(C) Serum Urea 48. Which of the following are features of chronic
inflammation ?
(D) Serum Uric acid
1. Occurs for few months to several years
42. Deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphate
2. Instant response
dehydrogenase results in
3. Involves mast cells, macrophages and other
(A) Thalasemia granulocytes
(B) Sickle cell anemia 4. Release of chemical compounds like histamine,
(C) Hemolytic anemia prostaglandins, leukotrienes
(D) Megaloblastic anemia 5. Involves cytokines and antibodies
43. The over production of Bilirubin beyond the ability of 6. T and B cells are involved
liver to conjugate is known as (A) 1, 3, 6
(A) Hepatic Jaundice (B) 2, 3, 4, 6
(B) Post Hepatic Jaundice (C) 1, 3, 4, 5
(C) Hemolytic Jaundice (D) 1, 5, 6
(D) All of the above 49. Which of the following respiratory systems does not
have a close relationship with a blood supply?
44. Bence Jonas protein are found in 40% cases of
(A) The tracheal system of an insect
(A) Arthritis
(B) The lungs of a vertebrate
(B) Gout
(C) The gills of a fish
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) The skin of an earthworm
(D) Injury 50. Growth factors are local regulators that
45. Which of the following compounds are produced by (A) Are produced by the anterior pituitary.
Normal endothelium that inhibits platelet aggregation ?
(B) Bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate
(A) Prostacyclin and nitric-oxide growth and development of target cells.
(B) Collagen and thromboxane (C) Are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and
(C) Thromboxane and ADP cartilage growth.
(D) Platelet phospholipid (D) Are found on the surface of cancer cells and
stimulate abnormal cell division.

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51. Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in 56. In centrifugation, angular velocity(w) is calculated by
common the equation
(A) Their requirement for travel through the 2
(rev.min–1 )2 r
bloodstream. 3600 × 981
(B) The building blocks from which they are rev.min–1
synthesized. 60
(C) Their solubility in cell membranes.
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(D) The location of their receptors. 60 × 981

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52. The trachea and oesophagus

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connected to the 3600

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(A) Large intestine. of the plant
(B) Pharynx. hormone
(C) Stomach. (A) Cytokinin
(D) Rectum. (B) Jasmonic acid
53. To facilitate chromatographic separation, the (C) Strigolactones
composition of mobile phase may be gradually (D) Ethylene option
changed with respect to

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58. The prosthetic group/groups present in subunits of

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(A) pH
enzyme nitrate reductase

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(B) Salt concentration

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(C) Polarity

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(D) All of the above
(C) FAD, heme, pterin
54. In absorption chromatography, adsorption equilibrium
is between (D) cyt-b557, NAD, FAD
(A) Stationary solid ion exchanger and mobile liquid 59. High carbon dioxide compensation point is found in
electrolyte phase (A) C4 plants
(B) Stationary liquid phase and a mobile liquid or (B) C3 plants
gas phase (C) CAM plants

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(C) Stationary solid phase and a mobile liquid phase (D) None of the above

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(D) Stationary immobilized ligand and a mobile liquid

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60. Which one of the following plant hormones use two

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component histidine kinase receptor system for signal

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55. A 7.5% polyacrylamide gel is used to separate proteins

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transduction ?

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ranging between

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(A) Auxin
(A) 60-20kd
(B) 30-120kd (B) Cytokinin
(C) 15-45kd (C) Gibberellin
(D) 12-30kd (D) Abscisic acid

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ROUGH WORK

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