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FOR PUMDET PREPARATION
PUMDET 2023 Question
Paper Health Sciences
EXAM YEAR TYPE
PUMDET 2023 Question Paper
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Subject : HEALTH SCIENCES
(Booklet Number)
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Duration : 90 Minutes om . co
. c No. of Questions : 50 Full Marks : 100
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s INSTRUCTIONS
g
la are of objective type having four answer options for each. Only one optionais
1. All g questions
a Correct answer will carry full marks 2. In case of incorrect answer or any
correct.
combination of more than one answer, ½ mark will be deducted.
2. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C or D.
3. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by complete filling up of the
respective bubbles.
4. Mark the answers only in the space provided. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR.
5.
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Write question booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations of
o
the OMR Sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
. c
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e in the OMR Sheet.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the
is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriatesboxes
examination centre and put your signature (as
a
7. The OMR Sheet is liable to becomel invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
g number or if there is any discrepancy in the
a
bubbles for question booklet number/roll
name/signature of the candidate, name of the examination centre. The OMR Sheet may also
become invalid due to folding
SPACE orFOR
putting stray marks
ROUGH WORK on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, docu-
pen, log table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices
etc. inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
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m 9. Rough work must be done on the question booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given in
c. o10. Hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination
the question booklet for rough work.
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em 11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination
Hall.
s g l ais over.
la a
ag Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________
(as in Admit Card)
Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________
Health Sciences
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Health Sciences 2
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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
1. The mammalian counterpart of the avian bursa of Fabricius is the
(A) Spleen
(B) Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT)
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(C) Bone marrow
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(D) Thymus
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2. a g
Conduction
(A) S.A. node (B) A.V. node
(C) Bundle of His (D) Right ventricle
3. In logistic equation when the rate of change in population number (dN/dt) will be
maximum ?
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(A) When N = K c. (B)o When N = 0
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(C) When N > K
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4. Which of the following cells belong to myeloid progenitor ?
(A) Natural killer cells (B) B cells
(C) Mast cells (D) T cells
5. m
Which type of selection is observed in industrial melanism exhibited by Biston betularia ?
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c. o (A) Stabilising (B) Disruptive (C) Directional se(D)m. Artificial
s em g l a
g la 6. In the classic experiment on the formation of amino acids, Ureya & Miller passed an electric
a discharge in a mixture of
(A) Steam, CH4, H2 and NH3 (B) CH4, CO2, O2 and H2
(C) NH3, O2, H2 and CH4 (D) CH4, H2, N2 and Steam
Health Sciences 3
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7. Potency of medication is evaluated by
(A) ED50 (B) TD50 (C) LD50 (D) CD50
8. Which of the following plasma membrane receptors activate signalling pathways usually
by forming dimers resulting in protein phosphorylation upon ligand – binding ?
(A) Steroid hormone receptor (B) Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
(C) G-Protein coupled receptors (D) Ligand gated ion channels
9. The type of bonds present in a protein having quaternary structure are
(A) Different from those found in its tertiary structure
(B) Principally covalent in nature
(C) Same as those found in its tertiary structure
(D) Principally linked by C-N bonds
10. The highest volume of air which can be moved in and out of the respiratory system is the
(A) Tidal volume (B) Vital capacity
(C) Ventilatory volume (D) Pulmonary capacity
11. Which of the following chemicals is produced by kidney ?
(A) Angiotensinogen (B) Bicarbonate ions
(C) Sodium ions (D) Vitamin C
12. Commensalism is an interaction between two species in which
(A) Both are harmed.
(B) Both are benefitted.
(C) One is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed.
(D) One is benefitted and the other is harmed.
Health Sciences 4
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13. Electron flow through the Fe-S clusters present across the mitochondrial electron transport
chain complexes according to
(A) Increasing redox potential (B) Decreasing redox potential
(C) ATP hydrolysis (D) Proton motive force
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14. Which of the followingm is not a typical characteristic of an ‘r’ – selected species ? . c
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(A) Large size
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(B) Manyas small offspring
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(C)a A large allocation of resources to reproduction
(D) Early reproductive maturity
15. Surface marker present in cytotoxic T cells
(A) CD4 (B) CD8 (C) CD11 (D) CD45
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16. Hormone that can replace vernalization _________.
c. (C)o Auxin
(A) Cytokinins (B) m
Gibberellins
e (D) Ethylene
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ag(1 to 4) and Column – B lists a germ cell layer against
17. Column – A lists 4 organs/systems
each organ/system. Below the table there are 4 options (A, B, C and D), each with 4
different combinations of organ/system vs. germ layer. Find the correct option that lists all
correct combinations :
Column - A Column – B
1. Muscles and bones a. Ectoderm
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2. Lungs b. Mesoderm
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Connective tissues c. Endoderm
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las
las 1 2 3 4
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(B) a b c b
(C) b c d a
(D) b c a b
Health Sciences 5
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18. In eukaryotes, the different rRNA genes are transcribed by
(A) RNA Polymerase I (B) RNA Polymerase II
(C) RNA Polymerase III (D) RNA Polymerase I and III
19. Which set of the following codons do not code for any amino acid ?
(A) UAA, UUA, UGG (B) UAA, UGA, UAG
(C) UUA, UGU, UAG (D) UGG, UGA, UAU
20. Deamination of Adenine produces
(A) Hypoxanthine (B) Xanthine (C) Uracil (D) Pseudouracil
21. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Z-DNA is left handed whereas A – and B-DNA are right handed.
(B) There are 12 base pairs per turn in Z-DNA.
(C) Rotation per base pair in Z-DNA is +36°.
(D) The helical diameter of A-DNA is 23 Å.
22. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting ________.
(A) Aminoacyl transferase (B) Peptidyl transferase
(C) Initiation factor I (D) Elongation factor
23. Shine Dalgarno sequence is located six to ten bases upstream of the initiation codon of
mRNA. It consists of
(A) Purine – rich nucleotide sequence
(B) Pyrimidine – rich nucleotide sequence
(C) Cytosine – containing nucleotide sequence
(D) Thymine – rich nucleotide sequence
Health Sciences 6
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24. In mammals, which of the following cleavage patterns is operative in the process of
blastocyst formation ?
(A) Radial (B) Spiral
(C) Bilateral (D) Rotational
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25.
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Which of the following is the key hormone involved in milk production ?
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(A) Prolactin (B) Estrogen
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(C)a Oxytocin (D) Progesterone
26. The method in which the cells are freeze dehydrated is called
(A) Pasteurization (B) Dessication
(C) Disinfection (D) Lyophilization
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27. Beta lactams inhibit bacterial
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(A) Cell wall synthesis
ag (B) Protein synthesis
(C) DNA replication (D) Cell division
28. In an experiment, the expected double cross over frequency was calculated as 0.022 but in
reality, it was observed to be only 0.012 recombination frequency. What is the
phenomenon resulting in this ?
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m (A) Interference
c. o (C) Penitence
(B) Coincidence
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a 29. For the tree and grassland ecosystem, pyramid of biomass is
(A) Upright (B) Inverted
(C) Spindle shaped (D) Urn shaped
Health Sciences 7
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30. Choose the wrong one from the following :
(A) Nearly twenty types of amino acids participate in protein synthesis.
(B) Sixty four codons out of sixty four, code only for amino acids.
(C) Codon usage bias varies from species to species in terms of functional implications
for the control of translation.
(D) Genetic code is non-overlapping.
31. Which of the following is an example of RNA editing ?
(A) Removal of introns from an RNA transcript.
(B) Degradation of an RNA molecule by nuclease.
(C) Alteration of nucleotide sequence of an RNA molecule.
(D) Capping of 5′ end of an RNA transcript.
32. Ethyl Methane Sulphonate (EMS) is
(A) A deaminating agent (B) An alkylating agent
(C) An intercalating agent (D) A base analogue
33. Rho protein in transcription termination acts as
(A) A helicase that actively breaks base pairs between the template and transcript.
(B) A DNA binding protein that blocks the movement of RNA polymerase down the
template.
(C) A subunit of RNA polymerase that binds to RNA hairpins and stalls transcription.
(D) A nuclease that degrades 3ʹ ends of the RNA transcript.
34. The co-repressor in the trp operon is
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Glucose (D) Galactose
Health Sciences 8
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35. Which of the following are methods for termination of transcription in prokaryotes ?
I. Release – factor binding
II. Rho – mediated termination
III. Hairpin loop formation
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(A) III only
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(B) I only (C) II and III (D) I, II and III . co
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36. During cells division at what stage of meiotic prophase – I the crossing over takes place ?gl
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(A)agLeptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene
37. The allosteric activator of Pyruvate Carboxylase is
(A) cAMP (B) Acetyl CoA
(C) ATP (D) Tetrahydrofolate
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. in the maturation of spermatozoa ?
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38. Which part of male reproductive system is involved
e (B) Epididymis
(A) Vas deferens
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(C) Seminiferous tubule a g (D) Rete testis
39. Progeny of a variegated four o’clock plants depends on :
(A) Type of branch from which flowers are chosen for.
(B) Type of branch from which pollen was obtained.
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(C) More or scanty watering.
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c. o (D) Level of fertilisers in soil. s e m
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g la 40. Which of the following genotypes and phenotypes in a man amay be the correct result of
a aneuploidy in sex chromosomes ?
(A) 22 pairs +Y (B) 22 pairs +XY
(C) 22 pairs +XXY (D) 22 pairs +XXXY
Health Sciences 9
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CHEMISTRY
41. What is the maximum number of atoms of phenylacetylene that can lie on a line ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 14
42. The Fischer projection formula for (R)-alanine is
CO2H
H2N H
H2N H
(A) (B)
H3C CO2H H3C
CO2H H
H CO2H
H NH2
(C) (D) H H
H3C H2N
43. Which one of the following is not a carbon-carbon bond forming reaction ?
(A) Cannizzaro reaction (B) Aldol reaction
(C) Friedel-Crafts reaction (D) Diels-Alder reaction
44. The number of covalent bonds of an unsaturated alcohol will remain same by carrying out
(A) addition reaction (B) elimination reaction
(C) oxidation (D) substitution reaction
45. Aniline C6H5NH2 is a weak organic base in aqueous solution. A solvent in which aniline
would become a strong base is
(A) benzene (B) liquid NH3 (C) ethanol (D) acetic acid
46. If a nuclide in Group IA of the periodic table undergoes radioactive decay by emitting
positron, what is the valence expected for the resulting element ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
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47. The shape of PCl5 and IF5 are respectively
(A) both are trigonal bipyramidal.
(B) both are square pyramidal.
(C) trigonal bipyramidal and square pyramidal.
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(D) square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal. . co
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48. Numberaofsprotons contained in 224 mL deuterium gas (assuming ideal behaviour) ataNTP
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(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 12.046 × 1023
(C) 16.023 × 1021 (D) 12.046 × 1021
49. The first ionisation potential of Li, Be and C are 5.4, 9.3 and 11.3 eV. What do you predict
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c. (B)o 8.3 eV
for the ionisation potential of B ?
(A) 10.6 eV
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(C) 4.5 eV l as (D) 12.5 eV
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50. The following equilibrium can exist only under very special conditions.
C(s, diamond) C(s, graphite)
[Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 g/cm 3 respectively]
Predict the effect upon the following reaction equilibrium of (i) increased pressure,
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c. o (A) (i) favours forward reaction (ii) favours backward reaction. sem .co
s em (B) (i) favours backward reaction (ii) favours backward reaction. g l a
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ag (C) (i) favours backward reaction (ii) favours forward reaction.
(D) (i) favours forward reaction (ii) favours forward reaction.
_____________
Health Sciences 11
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Health Sciences 12
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