PUMDET 2023 Question Paper Geography

Subject : GEOGRAPHY

(Booklet Number)

Duration : 90 Minutes No. of Questions : 50 Full Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each. Only one option is
correct. Correct answer will carry full marks 2. In case of incorrect answer or any
combination of more than one answer, ½ mark will be deducted.
2. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C or D.
3. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by complete filling up of the
respective bubbles.
4. Mark the answers only in the space provided. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR.
5. Write question booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations of
the OMR Sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination centre and put your signature (as
is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR Sheet.
7. The OMR Sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for question booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/signature of the candidate, name of the examination centre. The OMR Sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, docu-
pen, log table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices
etc. inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the question booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given in
the question booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________
(as in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________

Geography 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Geography 2 

1. Tetrahedral theory explains :
(A) Distribution of continents and oceans
(B) Shape, size and orientation of continents and oceans
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

2. Continental drift is the result of :
(A) Gravitational differential force and buoyancy
(B) Tidal force of the Sun and the Moon
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

3. The Milankovitch cycle is related to :
(A) The shape of the Earth’s orbit, known as eccentricity.
(B) The angle the Earth’s axis is tilted with respect to the Earth’s orbital plane, known
as obliquity.
(C) The direction the Earth’s axis of rotation is pointed, known as precession.
(D) All of the above

4. Viviparous characteristics of vegetation are found in :
(A) Halophyte (B) Mesophyte
(C) Mangrove (D) Xerophyte

5. The main cause of rising sea level is :
(A) The added water from melting of ice sheets and glaciers.
(B) Thermal expansion of sea water
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Geography 3 

6. True dip of a bedding plane is
(A) Always higher than apparent dip
(B) Sometimes lower, but often higher than apparent dip
(C) May be higher or equal to apparent dip
(D) Always equal to apparent dip

7. Which of the following is an antecedent river ?
(A) Sutlej (B) Indus
(C) Brahmaputra (D) All of the above

8. The course of Narmada and Tapi are nearly straight and parallel because
(A) the rivers are west flowing.
(B) the rivers are rain fed.
(C) the rivers flow through two parallel normal faults.
(D) the rivers are guided by two mountains.

9. GTS benchmarks are maintained by
(A) NRSA (B) ISRO
(C) DRDO (D) Survey of India

10. The terms blurriness and sharpness of a digital image are associated with :
(A) Spatial resolution (B) Radiometric resolution
(C) Temporal resolution (D) Spectral resolution

11. National Population Policy (NPP) – 2000 of India contains :
(A) Antinatal components (B) Pronatal components
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Geography 4 

12. Which of the following cartographic techniques is suitable to show distribution of rural
and urban population ?
(A) Dots and spheres map (B) Choropleth map
(C) Chorochromatic map (D) Choroschematic map

13. DVC is an example of :
(A) Functional region (B) Natural region
(C) Economic region (D) Planning region

14. Which of the following is not the name of a Mahajanapada ?
(A) Kosala (B) Anga
(C) Magadh (D) Banga

15. The total number of goals to be achieved by 2030 under Sustainable Development Goals
(SDG) is :
(A) 15 (B) 17
(C) 22 (D) 27

16. In spite of having great potential of hydropower, India has not been able to harness it
extensively because :
(A) High initial cost
(B) Fragile environment in the hydropower rich regions
(C) Distance of places of large scale demand
(D) All of the above

17. Rainfall activities experienced in the North-western plain region of India during the
winter season is associated with :
(A) Tropical cyclones (B) Cloud bursts
(C) Mid-latitude cyclones (D) Western disturbances

Geography 5 

18. The name ‘Dooars’ is derived from a root that means :
(A) Door to enter Nepal from the East
(B) Door to enter Assam from the West
(C) Door to enter Bhutan from the South
(D) Door to enter Bangladesh from the North

19. “Antipode” is a journal which can be related to :
(A) Radical Geography (B) Welfare Geography
(C) Feminist Geography (D) Humanistic Geography

20. Who was the propounder of the idea “all geography should be taught historically, and all
history should be taught geographically” ?
(A) Herodotus (B) Alexander Von Humboldt
(C) Eratosthenes (D) Thales

21. Which one is more appropriate for depicting consistency of rainfall ?
(A) Mean (B) Standard Deviation
(C) Range (D) Co-efficient of Variation

22. Christaller’s K-7 Principle is related to :
(A) Marketing Principle (B) Administrative Principle
(C) Transportation Principle (D) Migration

23. Easier and cheaper way to distinguish Hematite and Magnetite ores can be done by
observing their :
(A) Microscopic examination (B) Acid reaction
(C) Hardness (D) Streak colour

Geography 6 

24. Two statements are given as Assertion and Reason. Find the right combination.
Assertion (A) : Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
Reason (R) : Land can be used for various purposes.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

25. Arrange the correct sequences :
Column I Column II
(a) Social Geography 1. Rural planning
(b) Political Geography 2. Marketing Geography
(c) Economic Geography 3. Military Geography
(d) Settlement Geography 4. Gender Geography
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 1 4

26. Oldham-Gutenberg Discontinuity is the transitional zone between :
(A) Lower Mantle and Outer Core (B) Crust and Upper Mantle
(C) Outer Core and Inner Core (D) Sial and Sima

27. Which is the correct order of ocean sizes in decreasing order ?
(A) Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Arctic Ocean
(B) Arctic Ocean, Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Atlantic Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Arctic Ocean
(D) Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Arctic Ocean, Pacific Ocean

Geography 7 

28. Amount of vertical and lateral displacement on a fault is respectively referred to as :
(A) Heave and Throw (B) Tear and Heave
(C) Throw and Heave (D) Heave and Tear

29. Which one of the following is not an approach in human geography ?
(A) Areal differentiation (B) Spatial organization
(C) Quantitative revolution (D) Exploratory description

30. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity have been determined for utilization are
known as :
(A) Potential resources (B) Developed resources
(C) Stock (D) Reserves

31. The extinction of species is a :
(A) Fast continuous process
(B) Slow continuous process
(C) Irregular process
(D) Slow continuous process with intervals

32. Z - Score is a :
(A) Standard Score (B) Proxy Score
(C) Dummy Score (D) Non-parametric Score

33. Siltstone belongs to :
(A) Rudaceous sediments (B) Arenaceous sediments
(C) Argillaceous sediments (D) Calcareous sediments

34. The most important characteristics of Guyots are :
(A) Of metamorphic origin
(B) Formed by deposition of sedimentary rocks
(C) Always in tilted position
(D) Truncated and have flat tops

Geography 8 

35. Lenticular clouds are formed towards the :
(A) Windward side of the mountain (B) Leeward side of the mountain
(C) Crest of the mountain (D) Base of the mountain

36. Which of these is not a frontier state in the Indo-Nepal border ?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Bihar
(C) Sikkim (D) Himachal Pradesh

37. Which of the following was not included in Census of India enumeration (2011) ?
(A) Demographic characteristics (B) Social-cultural characteristics
(C) Economic characteristics (D) Status of health of the population

38. Which of the following anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3 rd of global
water consumption ?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry (D) Domestic and municipal usage

39. Which one of the following racial groups is identified by external features like wavy hair,
brown to white skin colour and medium to high stature ?
(A) Caucasoid (B) Negroid
(C) Mongoloid (D) Negrito

40. If in a population natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be :
(A) Over population (B) Zero population growth
(C) Increase in population growth (D) Decrease in population growth

41. Besides the other criteria, what is the minimum population size required for classifying a
settlement as “Urban” as per census of India definition ?
(A) 4500 persons (B) 5000 persons
(C) 6000 persons (D) 4000 persons

Geography 9 

42. Which of the following climatic factors divides the wheat and rice growing regions of
India ?
(A) 100 cm isohyet (B) 35 ℃ isotherm
(C) 200 frost free days (D) 150 sunny days

43. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the peninsular India from north to
south is :
(A) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Penner, Cauvery and Vaigai
(B) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery and Vaigai
(C) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Penner and Vaigai
(D) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Penner

44. Who proposed the concept of ‘Neo-determinism’ ?
(A) Griffith Taylor (B) Paul Vidal de La Blache
(C) Ellsworth Huntington (D) Carl Ritter

45. Match the following :
List I (Theory) List II (Proponent)
(a) Migration Theory 1. Edwin Cannan
(b) Optimum Population Theory 2. S. Stouffer
(c) Demographic Transition Theory 3. E. G. Ravenstein
(d) Intervening Opportunities Theory 4. W. Thompson
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2

Geography 10 

46. Which of the following tribes practice Transhumance ?
(A) Pygmies (B) Red Indians
(C) Bakarwals (D) Masai

47. According to the rank-size rule, if the largest city in the Country “X” has 1,00,000
inhabitants, approximately how many people will live in Country X’s 4 th largest city ?
(A) 10,000 (B) 75,000
(C) 25,000 (D) 50,000

48. Who is the father of the White Revolution ?
(A) Norman Borlaug (B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Verghese Kurien (D) Hiralal Chaudhri

49. In the Concentric Zone Theory, the 5 zones from the core to the periphery are :
(i) Commuter’s Zone
(ii) Residential Zone
(iii) Transition Zone
(iv) CBD
(v) Zone of working men’s home
Select the correct answer from the given codes :
Codes :
(A) iv, iii, v, i, ii (B) iv, i, v, ii, iii
(C) iv, iii, v, ii, i (D) iv, ii, iii, v, i

50. The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are major tribes of :
(A) Manipur (B) Meghalaya
(C) Assam (D) Odisha
_______________

Geography 11 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Geography 12 