RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 27 Nov All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 27 Nov

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 27/11/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Work done can only be negative.

B. Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.

C. Work done does not depend on force or displacement.

D. Work done can only be positive.

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Q.2 Through which method of cell division are the diploid chromosomes divided into
haploid gametes?

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Ans A. Mitosis

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B. Binary Fission

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D. Meiosis

Q.3 The power of a lens is defined as:
Ans A. The reciprocal of its focal length in meters

B. The ratio of image distance to object distance

C. The product of its focal length and refractive index
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D. The square of its focal length
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Q.4
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When a thick glass slab is placed over printed matter, the letters appear raised. This is
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a B. Refraction of light

C. Total internal reflection

D. Polarization of light

Q.5 The motion of a satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular path at constant speed is a
classic example of uniform circular motion. What property of this motion prevents its
acceleration from being zero?
Ans A. The total mechanical energy is conserved, necessitating acceleration.

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B. The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.

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C. The object`s mass continually changes due to orbital dynamics.

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D. The speed is too high for the gravitational force to sustain a constant velocity.
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Asthma primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?
Ans A. Diaphragm

B. Bronchi and bronchioles

C. Trachea

D. Alveoli

Q.7 Which of the following describes an example of uniform circular motion?
Ans A. A train moving on its track

B. A car accelerating on its way

C. A ball thrown vertically upwards

D. A fan blade rotating at constant speed

Q.8 During reproduction, why is it important to create DNA copies?
Ans A. For blood circulation

B. For digestion

C. For inheritance of traits

D. For respiration

Q.9 What happens when a naphthalene ball is burnt in a metal plate in open space?
Ans A. It burns with a blue flame.

B. It burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.

C. It burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.

D. It burns with a blue flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.

Q.10 When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by the process
of _________.
Ans A. spore formation

B. pollination

C. fragmentation

D. budding

Q.11 A coil has a resistance of 44 Ω. If it is connected across a 220 V supply, what is the
power consumed by the coil?
Ans A. 5 W

B. 1100 W

C. 110 W

D. 0.2 W

Q.12 Which of the following options best describes the term Culture Fishery?
Ans A. Catching fishes from marine water

B. Capturing fishes from artificial resources

C. Farming of the fishes

D. Capturing fishes from natural resources

Q.13 A body is dropped from a height. If it falls for 3.0 s and g = 10 m/s2, its final velocity (v)
is ______________.
Ans A. 10 m/s

B. 30 m/s

C. 40 m/s

D. 20 m/s

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.14 What happens when a zinc rod is placed in aqueous copper sulphate solution?
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Ans A. The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.

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B. The temperature of the solution falls.

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C. Heat is required to start the reaction.

D. No chemical change observed.

Q.15 The fractional atomic mass of chlorine is due to which of the following?
Ans A. Presence of ions

B. Presence of isotopes

C. Its compound nature

D. Experimental error
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Q.16 The functional group which does NOT contain oxygen hetero atom is:

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Ans A. halo alkane

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B. ketone
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C. carboxylic acid

D. alcohol

Q.17 What is the main role of micelles in the cleansing action of soap?
Ans A. To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes

B. To reduce the hardness of water

C. To produce lather with water

D. To increase the surface tension of water
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Q.18 Which poultry are birds farmed to produce eggs?
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Ans A. Milch

B. Common carp
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C. Layers

D. Broilers

Q.19 Statement 1: The potential difference is measured in volts.
Statement 2: One volt is equal to one newton per coulomb.
Which of the following is true?
Ans A. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

B. Only Statement 2 is correct.
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C. Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

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D. Only Statement 1 is correct.

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l asQ.20 The frequency of a sound wave is 50 Hz. How much time will it take to complete one
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wave?
A. 50 s

B. 0.02 s

C. 0.2 s

D. 5 s

Q.21 Which of the following statements best explains the Law of Constant Proportions?
Ans A. Elements are always found in random ratios in a compound.
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B. Atoms can be divided into smaller particles during a reaction.

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C. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
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D. A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 48

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT used for expressing the concentration of a solution?
Ans A. Volume by Volume percentage of a solution

B. Volume by Mass percentage of a solution

C. Mass by volume percentage of a solution

D. Mass by mass percentage of a solution

Q.23 Which of the following plant tissue performs photosynthesis?
Ans A. Chlorenchyma

B. Sclerenchyma

C. Xylem

D. Phloem

Q.24 Which of the following life processes is important to bring variation in species?
Ans A. Heterotrophic nutrition

B. Transportation

C. Autotrophic nutrition

D. Sexual reproduction

Q.25 Which of the following metals is extracted in the middle of the activity series?
Ans A. Gold

B. Potassium

C. Iron

D. Sodium

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 98 cm, PB = 91 cm and PC = 21 cm,
then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
Ans A. 38

B. 41

C. 46

D. 42

Q.27 The vertices of a convex pentagon (in order) are P(0,0), Q(6,0), R(8,3), S(4,7), T(0,4).
Find the area of the pentagon.
Ans A. 42 sq. units

B. 36 sq. units

C. 39 sq. units

D. 45 sq. units

Q.28 A metal rod is divided into three parts, A, B and C. The lengths of A and B are in the
ratio 9 : 20, and the lengths of C and B are in the ratio 5 : 11. If the difference between
the lengths of A and C is 10 cm, find the total length (in cm) of the metal rod.
Ans A. 4202

B. 4199

C. 4190

D. 4180

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.29 Soniya got married 15 years ago. Her present age is 8/5 times her age at the time of her
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marriage. Her sister was 8 years younger to her at the time of her marriage. Find the

. present age of her sister.
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Ans A. 32 years

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B. 24 years

C. 40 years
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D. 28 years

Q.30 The average age of 26 students of a class is 26 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 27 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 54

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B. 50

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C. 57

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D. 53

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Q.31
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Ans A. 0.35

B. 1

C. 0.25

D. 0

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Q.32 If 20% of a number is added to 90, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same

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number is:

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Ans A. 90

B. 120
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C. 110
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D. 100 a
Q.33 Smriti goes to a shopping mall at a speed of 21 km/hr and returns at a speed of 69
km/hr. Find her average speed (in km/hr) for the entire trip.
Ans A. 40.2

B. 30.3

C. 32.2

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D. 23.4

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Q.34
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An article was bought for ₹8,900. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was
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sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price. What was the profit percentage on the
transaction?
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a B. 34%

C. 35%

D. 33%

Q.35 If p = 6, q = −3, then the value of p3 – 3p2 + 3p + 3q + 3q2 + q3 is:
Ans A. –61

B. 61
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C. 117

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D. –117
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 48

Q.36 Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 3 : 2?
Ans A. 53 : 38

B. 51 : 37

C. 52 : 34

D. 54 : 36

Q.37 The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 52% and that of the TV decreases by 76%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?
Ans A. Decrease by 3%

B. Decrease by 2%

C. Increase by 0.8%

D. Increase by 5%

Q.38

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 542 cm2. Its curved surface
area is two-fifth of its total surface area. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
Ans A. 315.4 cm2

B. 212.5 cm2

C. 513.2 cm2

D. 216.8 cm2

Q.40 Two numbers have an HCF of 18 and an LCM of 1512. If one of the numbers is 126, find
the positive difference between these number.
Ans A. 126

B. 90

C. 216

D. 256

Q.41

Ans A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 35%

D. 20%

Q.42 In statistics out of 100, the marks of 21 students in final exams are as 90, 95, 95, 94, 90,
85, 84, 83, 85, 81, 92, 93, 82, 78, 79, 81, 80, 82, 85, 76, 85, then the mode of data is:
Ans A. 84

B. 83

C. 87

D. 85
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.43 A fruit vendor bought 150 mangoes. He sold them at such a price that the selling price
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of 120 mangoes equals the cost price of 150 mangoes. Find his profit percentage.

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Ans A. 30%
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D. 20%

Q.44 Three pipes, A, B and C, can fill a tank from empty to full in 40 minutes, 20 minutes and
30 minutes, respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B
and C discharge chemical solutions P, Q and R, respectively. What is the proportion of
solution Q in the liquid in the tank after 9 minutes?
Ans
A.
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B.

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C.

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Q.45 Two-fifth of a container is filled with blue liquid, one-third of the remaining container is
filled with black liquid, five-sixth of the still remaining container is filled with yellow
liquid and the remaining 4.2 litres is of white colour. Find the total capacity of the
container.
Ans A. 72 litres

B. 63 litres
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C. 60 litres

D. 78 litres
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Q.46
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A 325 m long train overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/hr (in the same direction)
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in 45 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely cross
another 440 m long train, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of 20 km/hr?
Ans A. 54

B. 40

C. 52

D. 51

Q.47
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Ans A. 234

B. 134

C. 434

D. 334

Q.48 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same
work in 12 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
Ans A. 12

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B. 25

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C. 24

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D. 27

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 48

Q.49 A scheme like ‘Buy 6, Get 4 Free’ on the same kind of articles with the same MRP
attracts a _____ % discount.
Ans A. 67.67

B. 40

C. 41

D. 66.67

Q.50 The amount on a sum of ₹6,800 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years' time, will be:
Ans A. ₹7,996

B. ₹8,641

C. ₹9,393

D. ₹8,993

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is O related to V if ‘O + P # T @ G - V’?
Ans A. Wife's father's mother

B. Wife's mother

C. Wife's father's sister

D. Wife's sister

Q.52 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

84 − 6 ÷ 371 + 648 × 8 = ?
Ans A. 797

B. 794

C. 799

D. 795

Q.53 In a certain code language, ‘OVAL’ is coded as ‘5294’ and ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘8549’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?1632
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 9

D. 4

Q.54 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. All numbers
are single-digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 6 5 8 2 2 1 8 2 9 8 4 7 4 8 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 7 2 6 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect
square and also immediately followed by a perfect square?
(Note: 1 is also a perfect square.)
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
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Ans A. 179

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B. 183

C. 181
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D. 185

Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)

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Ans A. OSN

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B. GKE

C. NRL
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D. LPJ
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Q.57 ag
Alex starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 8 km to the north

B. 7 km to the north

C. 8 km to the south

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D. 7 km to the south

Q.58
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

991 989 985 979 971 ?
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Ans A. 967
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B. 963

C. 961

D. 969

Q.59 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

173 − 3 ÷ 282 + 164 × 4 = ?
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A. 769
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a Q.60 UI 12 is related to YK -2 in a certain way. In the same way, OL 9 is related to SN -5. To
which of the following is PQ 15 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. ST 3

B. TT 3

C. SS 1

D. TS 1

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.61 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers.

(Left) 8 $ 3 Ω 9 % 4 6 7 1 * £ 5 # 2 + @ & (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

Q.62 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

URIC - CRUI - RIUC
KIDS - SIKD - IDKS
Ans A. NAVY - YANV - VANY

B. OPEN - OEPN - NEPO

C. FADE - EAFD - ADFE

D. MALE - AMLE - EALM

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘house sip head’ is coded as ‘bm ma px’ and ‘head wood
robot’ is coded as ‘pz bm ey’. How is ‘head’ coded in the given language?17255
Ans A. ma

B. bm

C. pz

D. px

Q.64 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(14 , 42, 3)
(12, 60, 5)552
Ans A. (15, 45, 4)

B. (11, 55, 6)

C. (13 , 39 , 3)

D. (16, 42, 2)

Q.65 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. None

D. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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RJV QIU PHT OGS ?
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B. NFR ag l
C. PFR

D. PHT

Q.67 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

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Statements:
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Some hats are caps.
No cap is a vest.
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Conclusions:

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(I) Some hats are vests.
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(II) Some caps are hats.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.68 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people
sit to the right of A. Only five people sit to the left of B. F is the immediate neighbour of
G and E. C sits second to the left of E.
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How many people sit to the left of G?

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Ans A. Three

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B. One

C. Four

D. Two
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Q.69 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. UTR

B. IHF
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C. ZZW

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D. NMK

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students are there in his class?
A. 61

B. 64

C. 63

D. 62

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.71 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

15 A 3 B 10 C 8 D 12 = ?
Ans A. 46

B. 47

C. 44

D. 45

Q.72 Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K and L are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people sit to the right of C. Only two people sit between C and B. Only two people sit
between D and K. Only three people sits between C and D. J sits to the immediate right
of I. How many people sit(s) to the right of L?7076
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q.73 Ajay starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, then turns left and drives 7 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 8 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degrees turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km towards north

B. 11 km towards west

C. 25 km towards east

D. 16 km towards east

Q.74 Radhika ranked 21st from the top and 7th from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 19

B. 20

C. 27

D. 28

Q.75 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
HBE22 ICF29 JDG36 KEH43 ?
Ans A. LFI51

B. LFJ50

C. LFI50

D. LFJ51

Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

616 610 612 606 608 ?
Ans A. 602

B. 601

C. 603

D. 604

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.77 O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
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Only two people sit to the left of P. Only three people sit between P and W. Only one

. person sits between W and X. R sits to the immediate left of O. Y is not an immediate
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neighbour of W.
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How many people sit to the right of Q?
Ans A. Three
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B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q.78 RR 4 is related to UQ −14 in a certain way. In the same way, II 8 is related to LH −10. To
which of the given options is MO 12 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. PN −6
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B. HY −5

C. GT −2

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D. NH 9
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Q.79 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some pizzas are cupcakes.
All buns are cupcakes.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pizzas are buns.
(II) All cupcakes are buns.
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Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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C. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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Q.80 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. (All
numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 2 8 2 3 2 7 9 3 5 4 6 8 9 4 4 7 8 7 5 4 3 5 5 6 2 9 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 3
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B. 5
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a Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 On 24 May 2025, the order of which High Court was overturned by the Supreme Court
and ruled that denying maternity leave for a third child violates a woman's
constitutional right, reinforcing her dignity and reproductive freedom?
Ans A. Allahabad High Court

B. Hyderabad High Court

C. Bombay High Court

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D. Madras High Court

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.82 Which of the following new digital facilities was launched in May 2025 by the Union
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment during the ‘Ageing with Dignity’ event?
Ans A. Senior Citizens Welfare Portal

B. Digital Life Certificate Platform

C. Employment Exchange Portal for Senior Citizens

D. One-Stop Senior Citizens Services Portal

Q.83 In 2025, which city in Maharashtra has achieved 100% segregation, collection and
processing of sanitary and biomedical waste, handling an average of 300 to 350 kg of
sanitary waste daily?
Ans A. Nagpur

B. Karad

C. Nasik

D. Pune

Q.84 Who authored the book 'Test Cricket: A History', released in 2025?
Ans A. Tim Wigmore

B. Ramachandra Guha

C. Michael Atherton

D. Gideon Haigh

Q.85 Which chess player, besides Gukesh, received the Arjuna Award in 2025?
Ans A. Harika Dronavalli

B. Vantika Agrawal

C. Koneru Humpy

D. Pentala Harikrishna

Q.86 Which of the following documentaries did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launch to
explain its functions to the public in June 2025?
Ans A. RBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee

B. Financial Literacy A2Z

C. My RBI Story

D. RBI: Money Simplified

Q.87 Which Indian Ministry launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) on 26 May 2025
to provide weather predictions with a 6-km resolution?
Ans A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

C. Ministry of Earth Sciences

D. Ministry of Defence

Q.88 Which startup was selected in April 2025 to build India’s first sovereign Indic LLM under
the IndiaAI Mission?
Ans A. Wadhwani AI

B. People+AI

C. Sarvam AI

D. AI4 Bharat

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.89 As reported in May 2025, the study by Climate Trends, a Delhi-based research
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consultancy, examined NASA satellite data of the Himalayan glaciers from 2000-2023 to

. evaluate the impact of which of the following on Himalayan snow?
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Ans A. Ozone

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B. Sulfate Aerosols

C. Black Carbon
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D. Mineral Dust Particles

Q.90 The National Conference on Good Governance, organised by the Department of
Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) was held in which of the
following places in January 2025?
Ans A. Gandhinagar

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B. Varanasi

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C. Bhopal

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D. Jaipur

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Q.91
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What was the theme of the 78th World Health Assembly, 2025, held in Geneva in May
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Ans
2025?
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A. Health for All: Building Resilient Systems

B. Advancing Equity in Global Health

C. One World for Health

D. Universal Health Coverage: A Global Need

Q.92 As announced by the Government of India, as on 7 July 2025, how many biotech
startups does India have, compared to just 50 a decade ago?
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Ans A. Nearly 9000

B. 8050
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C. Nearly 11,000
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D. 7000
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Q.93 Which of the following awards recognises children’s book writers from 22 languages?
Ans A. Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar

B. Sahitya Ratna

C. Padma Shri

D. Bal Sahitya Puraskar

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Q.94 On 16 May 2025, the Supreme Court invalidated the Indian Government's orders passed
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in which years, allowing ex-post facto environmental clearances?

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Ans

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A. 2009 and 2015

l as
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D. 2006 and 2011

Q.95 Where did the chemical factory blast occur on 30 June 2025?
Ans A. Nizamabad

B. Vijayawada

C. Warangal

D. Sangareddy
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Q.96 Which state became the third Indian state to be recognised as fully functionally literate,
under the ULLAS – New India Literacy Programme, in June 2025?
Ans A. Karnataka

B. Tripura

C. Assam

D. Telangana

Q.97 Which of the following shifted its Andhra Pradesh regional office to Vijayawada,
inaugurating the new premises on 16 June 2025?
Ans A. Bank of Baroda

B. Securities and Exchange Board of India

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Life Insurance Corporation of India

Q.98 India set a new Guinness World Record in 2025 for the largest human formation of
which of the following symbols?
Ans A. Ashoka Chakra

B. Olympic rings

C. Heart shape

D. Peace symbol

Q.99 India won the ICC Women’s U19 T20 World Cup 2025 by defeating which country in the
final?
Ans A. Sri Lanka

B. Australia

C. South Africa

D. England

Q.100 Which sport had the most Arjuna Award recipients in January 2025?
Ans A. Para-Athletics

B. Shooting

C. Hockey

D. Athletics

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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Test Date 27/11/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What is the location of the cell wall in an organism?
Ans A. Just inside the plasma membrane in an animal cell

B. Just inside the plasma membrane in a plant cell

C. Just outside the plasma membrane in a plant cell

D. Just outside the plasma membrane in an animal cell

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Q.2 If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-sectional area is halved, its resistance
will become:
Ans A. Half the original
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B. Four times the original
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C. One-fourth the original
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D. Twice the original

Q.3 వేగంగా కదులుతున బంతిని ప కునేటపు డు కికెట్ ఆటగాడు తన చేతులను
ఎందుకు కిందకి దించుతాడు?
Ans A. బంతి త రణాని పెంచడానికి

B. చేతులపై బలం త లా పభావ సమయాని (టైమ్ ఆఫ్ ఇంపా ) పెంచడానికి

C. బంతిపై పనిచేయు బలాని పెంచడానికి
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D. బంతి దవ వేగం త ంచడానికి
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Q.4
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The increase in which of the following factor(s) will increase the resistance of a
conductor?
g l a
g l a (i) Temperature of the conductor a
a (ii) Length of the conductor
(iii) Area of cross-section of the conductor
Ans A. Both (i) and (ii)

B. Only (iii)

C. Only (i)

D. Both (ii) and (iii)

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.5 are a pair of:
Ans A. isotones

B. isobars

C. isoelectronic

D. isotopes

Q.6 A heavy wooden block is pushed across a rough floor. The applied force is gradually
increased:
At first, the block does not move.
Then, at a certain force, the block just begins to slide.
Finally, when the block is sliding, it moves with constant velocity.

Which of the following correctly describes the force situation in these three stages?
Ans A. Stage 1 – Balanced, Stage 2 – Unbalanced, Stage 3 – Balanced

B. Stage 1 – Unbalanced, Stage 2 – Balanced, Stage 3 – Balanced

C. Stage 1 – Unbalanced, Stage 2 – Unbalanced, Stage 3 – Balanced

D. Stage 1 – Balanced, Stage 2 – Balanced, Stage 3 – Unbalanced

Q.7 Which structure is used by pea plant to climb up other plants?
Ans A. Sucker

B. Shoot

C. Runner

D. Tendrils

Q.8 According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, if a light ray travels from the object to
the lens, the object is always placed such that:
Ans A. The object distance (u) is always positive

B. The object is placed to the left of the lens

C. The object is always placed above the principal axis

D. The light falls on the lens from the right-hand side

Q.9 In the connective tissues of animals, the fat cells are arranged into lobules, which are
separated by partitions of:
Ans A. collagen and elastin fibres

B. yellow fibres and lymph

C. skeletal fibres and tendons

D. reticular fibres and plasma

Q.10 Select the correct feature about sexual reproduction in organisms.
Ans A. It combines the DNA of two parents in the offspring.

B. It passes the DNA of only one parent to the offspring.

C. It produces a large number of offspring.

D. It produces offspring exactly similar to the parent(s).

Q.11 Concentrated sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent because it
removes water from which of the following?
Ans A. Sodium hydroxide

B. Ammonia gas

C. Propane

D. Glucose

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.12 రసాయన శకిని ఉష శకిగా మార డానికి కింది వాటిలో ఏది ఒక ఉతమ ఉదాహరణ?
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Ans A. ఆహారాని వేడి చేసే సోలార్ కుక ర్

m . B. కలపను తగలబెటడం
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se C. ఒక బ ను వెలి ంచే ఒక బా టరీ
g l a
D. వి తుతో నడిచే ఒక మోటారు
a
Q.13 The processes used for removing the gangue from the ore are based on the differences
between which properties of the gangue and the ore?
Ans A. Refrative index

B. Chemical or physical

C. Only physical

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D. Only chemical

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Q.14
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Which of the following correctly matches a measurable property of matter with its SI

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unit?

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Ans A. Pressure – Newton

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B. Volume – Cubic centimetre

C. Density – Kilogram per cubic metre

D. Temperature – Calorie

Q.15 Which of the following methods is part of the fresh initiatives in irrigation to improve
water availability for crops?
Ans A. Drip irrigation and crop rotation

B. Manuring and chemical spraying

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C. Rainwater harvesting and watershed management

D. Sprinkler irrigation and ploughing

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Q.16
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The characteristic feature(s) of carbon, that lead to the formation of its large number of

Ans
organic compounds is:
A. both tetravalency and catenation ag
B. solubility

C. only tetravalency

D. only catenation

Q.17 The splitting of a unicellular organism into two equal daughter cells containing identical
genetic material is termed as which of the following?
Ans A. Binary fission
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B. Conjugation

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C. Spore formation

l as
l as D. Budding

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ag Q.18 An object is dropped from a height of 78.4 m. What is the time taken to reach the
ground? (Use g = 9.8 m/s2)
Ans A. 5 s

B. 6 s

C. 2 s

D. 4 s

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Q.19 A convex lens is also called a converging lens because:

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Ans A. it does not bend light rays at all

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B. it diverges rays of light away from each other

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C. it always forms virtual images

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D. it brings parallel rays to a
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.20 ఈ కింది వాటిలో వాయువుపై పీడనాని పెంచడం వల కలిగే ఫలితం ఏది?
Ans A. వాయువు బా భవనం కావడం

B. కణాంతర అంతరాళం(సే స్) లో తగుదల

C. కణాంతర అంతరాళం(సే స్) లో పెరుగుదల

D. గతి శకిలో పెరుగుదల

Q.21 What is common between the reaction of metal sodium carbonate and sodium
bicarbonate with hydrochloric acid?
Ans A. Hydrogen carbonate is formed

B. Sodium chloride is formed

C. Hydrogen gas is released

D. Carbon monoxide is released

Q.22 Which one of the following correctly represents Mendel's conclusion about inheritance?
Ans A. Each trait is controlled by two factors.

B. Each traits is controlled by one factor.

C. Each trait is controlled by one chromosome.

D. Each trait is controlled by three genes.

Q.23 వేళ తో సహా పీకివేయబడిన ఒక మొక ను ఎండలో వదిలే , కొని గంటల త త,
మొక వాడిపోయి బలహీనంగా కని ంచడానికి ఏది కారణం కావచు ?
Ans A. దారువు దా రా నీటి పసరణ నిరో ంచబడం

B. దారువు దా రా ఆహార బదిలీ నిరో ంచబడడం

C. దారువు దా రా నీటి పసరణ పారం ంచబడడం

D. పోషక కణజాలం దా రా ఆహార బదిలీ పారంభమవడం

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT an application of ultrasound?
Ans A. Detecting cracks in metal blocks

B. Cleaning the objects

C. Medical imaging

D. Regular hearing tests

Q.25 Corrosion of metals is a process in which:
Ans A. metals change their colour permanently

B. metals are converted to their oxide, sulphide or carbonate by reaction with environmental agents

C. metals melt at low temperature

D. metals gain weight due to reaction with acids

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 If tan A = 1, then find the value of sin A + cos A.
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.27 The market value of Amal’s investment rises successively by 5% in 2021, 6% in 2022,
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and 10% in 2023. If the initial value was ₹5,50,000, what will be its value (in ₹) at the end

. co of 2023?

s e m
m Ans A. 6,75,800
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se B. 6,75,365
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C. 6,73,365

D. 6,75,900

Q.28 Simplify the following:

Ans A. 60

B. 56

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C. 58
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D. 54

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Q.29 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same

l a
work in 15 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
Ans A. 20

B. 10
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C. 21

D. 23

Q.30 A మరియు B అనే ండు పైపులు ఒక ంకుని వరుసగా 18 గంటలు మరియు 24
గంటలో నింపగలవు. ండు పైపులనీ ఒకేసారి తెరిచినటయితే, ంకు 16 గంటలలో
పూరిగా నిండేలా ఎంత సమయం త త (గంటలలో) పైపు A ని మూసివేయాలి?

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Ans A. 9

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B. 6

C. 8
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D. 7
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Q.31 The number of prime numbers lying between 374 and 384 is:
Ans A. 1

B. 0

C. 3

D. 2

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Q.32 160 m మరియు 140 m పొడవున ండు రై ఒకే దిశలో వరుసగా 100 km/hr మరియు 130

m
km/hr వేగంతో పయాణి నా యి. వెనుక నుండి వ న వేగవంతమైన రైలు మరొక

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రైలును పూరిగా దాటడానికి పటే సమయం (నిమిషాలలో):

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Ans A. 0.6

s e g l
g l a B. 7.2
a
a C. 3

D. 10.4

Q.33 A brother is 6 years older than his sister. The sum of their present ages is 38 years.
What will be the age (in years) of the sister after 15 years from now?
Ans A. 30

B. 33

C. 31

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D. 32

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Q.34 A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at ₹5,670. Find the cost price if after allowing
a discount of 28% he still gains 26% on the cost price.
Ans A. ₹3,153

B. ₹3,216

C. ₹3,240

D. ₹3,225

Q.35 Amit and Deeksha together invested ₹15,700 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹6,000, Amit's share was ₹2,100. How much was Amit's investment?
Ans A. ₹6,330

B. ₹6,960

C. ₹6,545

D. ₹5,495

Q.36 The cost of fencing a square field at ₹15/m is ₹18,000. Find the cost of fencing the same
field at ₹11 per 100 m.
Ans A. ₹138

B. ₹146

C. ₹142

D. ₹132

Q.37 A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹400, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 160

B. 240

C. 1,040

D. 1,000

Q.38

Ans A. 54836

B. 54436

C. 54536

D. 54636

Q.39 The HCF of two numbers is 23 and their sum is 161. The possible pair(s) of these
numbers is/are:
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

Q.40 ండు టకు ల వేగాల నిష తి 7:4. వేగవంతమైన టకు 196 km దూరం
పయాణించడానికి పటే సమయం మరొక టకు కంటే 7 గంటలు తకు వ అయినచో,
నెమ దిగా వె టకు వేగాని కనుగొనండి.
Ans A. 12 km/hr

B. 4 km/hr

C. 21 km/hr

D. 10 km/hr

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.41 ఒక సమబాహు తిభుజం యొక భుజం ఒక చతుర సం యొక భుజానికి సమానం.
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సమబాహు తిభుజం యొక పరివా సారం(సర మ్-రేడియస్) మరియు చతుర సం

. యొక అంతరవా సారం(ఇన్-రేడియస్) యొక నిష తి ఎంత?
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Ans A.

B.
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C.

D.

Q.42 A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere, both having the same radius of
7 cm. If the volume of the conical part is equal to the volume of the hemispherical part,
what is the total height of the toy?
Ans A. 21 cm

B. 14 cm
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C. 35 cm

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D. 28 cm

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Q.43
l as
వా ంగ్ మెషీన్ ధర టీవీ ధర కంటే 10% తకు వ. వా ంగ్ మెషీన్ ధర 65% పెరిగి, టీవీ
ag
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ధర 34% తగితే, 5 వా ంగ్ మెషీను మరియు 3 టీవీల మొతం (కొనుగోలు) ధరలో మారు
శాతం ఎంత?
Ans A. 19% తగుదల

B. 18% తగుదల

C. 25.4% పెరుగుదల

D. 24% పెరుగుదల

Q.44 If an item marked at ₹3,650 is sold for ₹730, what is the discount percentage?

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Ans A. 80%

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B. 82%

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C. 79%

D. 78%
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Q.45 A shopkeeper sold an article for ₹85.50 at a profit of 12.5%. Had he sold it for ₹81.70,
then what would be his profit or loss percentage?
Ans A. 8.5% loss

B. 7.25% loss

C. 7.5% profit

D. 8.5% profit

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Q.46
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A bag contains 1-rupee and 2-rupee coins. The total number of coins is 10, and their
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total value is ₹16. What is the difference between the numbers of two-rupee coins and

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one-rupee coins?
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Ans A. 4

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g l a B. 3
a
a C. 2

D. 1

Q.47
Ans A. 8

B. 4

C. 5

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D. 3

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Q.48 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 19 February 2024 to 20 April 2024.
Ans A. 38

B. 41

C. 40

D. 39

Q.49 Rajiv and Sachin started a business, investing amounts of ₹160 and ₹1,690,
respectively. If Rajiv's share in the profit earned by them is ₹720, what is the total profit
(in ₹) earned by them together?
Ans A. 8,325

B. 8,395

C. 8,361

D. 8,454

Q.50 The arithmetic mean of the observations 76, 28, 79, 17, 33, 95, 83, 30 and 27 is:
Ans A. 52

B. 61

C. 47

D. 46

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C
sits to the immediate right of R. Only three people sit between C and T when counted
from the left of C. Only three people sit between R and B when counted from the left of
R. S sits to the immediate right of A. How many people sit between R and A when
counted from the right of A?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. One

D. Three

Q.52 Mr. Zzz starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards the East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 14 km, turns right and drives 16 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 16 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 11 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 4 km to the North

B. 2 km to the South

C. 1 km to the West

D. 3 km to the East

Q.53 Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of
the table. I sits fourth to the right of J. Only two people sit between B and C when
counted from the left of B. D sits third to the left of K. L is an immediate neighbour of K
and C. How many people between I and L when counted from the left of L?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
m
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 5 4 2 3 7 8 5 1 6 7 9 4 2 6 7 6 3 9 7 5 4 1 6 9 8 3 4 (Right)
s e m
m a
se How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
ag l
Ans A. More than three

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

Q.55 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
m
.co
ECHO - CHEO - OHCE
URGE - RGUE - EGRU
m
Ans A. PAST - PSAT - TSAP

m .co s em
e
B. NAVY - ANVY - YAVN
s l a
l a
C. WAIT - AIWT - TIAW
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ag
D. JOYS - OYJS - OYSJ

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 8, 18, 32, 50, ?
Ans A. 80

B. 60

C. 75

m
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D. 72

Q.57
e m
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

las
g
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, ?, 21
Ans A. 18
a
B. 20

C. 16

D. 17

Q.58 Each of the digits in the number 13645928 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?

m
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Ans A. Three

m
.co m
B. None

m C. One
s e
s e g l a
g l a D. Two
a
a Q.59 If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

77 - 5 ÷ 49 + 21 x 7 = ?
Ans A. 442

B. 431

C. 435

D. 446

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘buyer queen heart’ is coded as 'os ld xi' and ‘drive heart
aunt’ is coded as ‘kx to os’. How is ‘heart’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. ld

B. kx

C. os

D. xi

Q.61 Dev ranked 10th from the top and 31st from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in the class?
Ans A. 39

B. 41

C. 50

D. 40

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. PU-QN

B. LQ-MJ

C. RW-SP

D. NS-OK

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
26 42 58 74 90 ?
Ans A. 107

B. 106

C. 105

D. 104

Q.64 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers only.

(Left) 5 $ 5 7 $ $ @ & * € 3 # 8 # $ 5 © 7 £ 4 & * (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Zero

Q.65 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.)

(Left) 9 1 6 7 7 2 8 3 4 3 3 2 7 9 9 9 5 4 6 7 3 6 3 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. One

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.66 60 people are standing in a row facing north. Mayank is 13th from the right end while
m
co
Kishan is 18th from the left end. How many people are there between Mayank and

. Kishan?
e m
m as
se l
Ans A. 28

B. 27
ag
C. 29

D. 30

Q.67 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)

m
.co
Ans A. ZWU

m
.co
B. HEC

em
C. DBY
e m l as
D. EBZ
l as ag
Q.68 ag
Kareena starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards the east. She then takes a right
turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 7 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 8
km. She takes a final right turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 15 km towards the north

B. 9 km towards the west

C. 12 km towards the east

D. 15 km towards the south
m
Q.69
m .co
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
s e
JSF 10 LUH 11 NWJ 12 PYL 13 ?
g la
Ans A. RBO 14 a
B. RAN 14

C. QAN 14

D. QBP 14

Q.70 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
m
.co
statement(s).

m
.co m
Statements:

m
All cars are buildings.
s e
s e All buildings are papers.

g l a
g l a Conclusion: a
a (I) Some buildings are cars.
(II) All cars are papers.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.71 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 4 2 7 1 5 8 7 2 6 8 3 6 (Right)

How many such prime numbers are there which are immediately followed by even
numbers?
Ans A. More than three

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All pan are wok. All cauldron are wok.

Conclusions (I): Some pan are cauldron.
Conclusions (II): Some wok are cauldron.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘virus book two’ is coded as ‘zv jo db’ and ‘book wet theme’
is coded as ‘xh im jo’. How is ‘book’ coded in that language?
Ans A. xh

B. jo

C. db

D. zv

Q.74 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E sits third to
the right of G. A sits third to the right of E. D is the immediate neighbour of B and A. C
sits to the immediate right of F.
How many people sit between F and B when counted from the left of B?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. One

Q.75 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
SIF QGD OEB MCZ ?
Ans A. KAX

B. KAY

C. NDY

D. NDA

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

m
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Q.76 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
the following sets.

. co (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
s e m
m a
se l
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
(45, 114, 8)
(24, 108, 20)
Ans A. (32, 114, 18)

B. (17, 36, 2)

C. (8, 37, 7)

D. (16, 49, 7)

m
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Q.77 BFKP is related to XAGK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the

m
same way, LLUV is related to HGQQ. To which of the given options is ZWIG related,

.co m
following the same logic?
Ans A. VBER
m s e
s e l a
a ag
B. VERT
l
ag
C. VREB

D. VBRE

Q.78 If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘-’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will
come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

60 F 12 H 3 E 8 G 2 = ?
Ans A. 71

B. 76

m
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C. 72

D. 75
e m
las
g
Q.79 EQ 9 is related to HL −4 in a certain way. In the same way, MR 13 is related to PM 0. To

Ans A. KP 7
a
which of the following is MU 19 related, following the same logic?

B. RE 2

C. YT 5

D. PP 6

Q.80 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
m
.co
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
m
.co
and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

e m
e mHow is O related to V if ‘O @ P + T # G - V’?

l as
l asAns A. Wife's brother

ag
ag B. Wife's father's brother

C. Wife's father

D. Wife's father's father

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 According to the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre report, between 2015 and
2024, how many internal displacements due to disasters were recorded in India?
Ans A. 10 million
m .
.co m
B. 32.3 million

m s e
C. 25.4 million

s e l a
D. 50 million

g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.82 The 2025 World Kabaddi Cup was won by which of the following countries?
Ans A. Pakistan

B. India

C. Iran

D. South Korea

Q.83 In July 2025, which institution announced India's first AI Plus Campus in Amaravati,
Andhra Pradesh?
Ans A. BITS Pilani

B. IIT Madras

C. NIT Warangal

D. IIIT Hyderabad

Q.84 In May 2025, six African nations signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
the World Health Organization (WHO) to combat Kala Azar. What does Kala Azar refer
to?
Ans A. A bacterial infection spread through contaminated water

B. A genetic disorder affecting red blood cells

C. A type of viral fever transmitted by mosquitoes

D. A parasitic disease caused by sandfly bites

Q.85 On 20 June 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially flagged off India’s first
indigenously manufactured locomotive export to which country?
Ans A. Mongolia

B. Republic of Guinea

C. Republic of China

D. Spain

Q.86 What was the theme of the RBI’s Financial Literacy Week (FLW) 2025?
Ans A. Women and Financial Technology

B. Financial Inclusion: India’s Growth

C. Digital Finance for All

D. Financial Literacy: Women’s Prosperity

Q.87 In which of the following months did the institutes of Department of Science and
Technology (DST) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
join hands to strengthen ground-based Space Situational Awareness?
Ans A. March 2025

B. February 2025

C. May 2025

D. June 2025

Q.88 Who was the first Paralympic gold medalist to receive the Arjuna Award 2025 (Lifetime)?
Ans A. Deepa Malik

B. Murlikant Petkar

C. Varun Bhati

D. Devendra Jhajharia

Q.89 What honour did ISRO chief V. Narayanan receive in Kolkata in 2025?
Ans A. Padma Shri

B. National E-Gov Award

C. Bharat Ratna

D. Rammohan Mission Purashkar
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

m
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Q.90 The indigenous mRNA vaccine technology developed by CSIR-Centre for Cellular and
m
Molecular Biology (CCMB) in 2025 could have a significant impact on:

. co
Ans A. providing faster, more scalable vaccine development process for future outbreaks
s e m
m a
se l
B. improving dengue vector control strategies

C. limiting the spread of chikungunya through antibiotics
ag
D. reducing the number of vector control programmes required

Q.91 In which year was the Manipur Appropriation Bill passed by the Parliament of India?
Ans A. 2024

B. 2025

C. 2022

m
.co
D. 2023

m
Q.92
.co
At the 2025 World Bank Land Conference, which country was honoured as a Country

m
Champion in recognition of its transformative work in rural land governance?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. India

l a
ag
B. Japan

C. China

D. Burma

Q.93 Who became the first Indian woman to win gold in javelin at the Asian Games 2025?
Ans A. Kamalpreet Kaur

B. Seema Antil

C. Annu Rani
m
.co
D. Shalini Sharma

e m
Q.94
s
How many athletes received the Arjuna Award, 2024, during the January 2025
ceremony?
la
Ans A. 28
ag
B. 34

C. 32

D. 40

Q.95 Which group owns and supports Vantara, a unique wildlife conservation, rescue and
rehabilitation initiative in Jamnagar, Gujarat, inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India
in March 2025?
Ans A. Dalmia Group
m
m
B. Tata Group
.co
m.co C. Wadia Group
s e m
s e D. Reliance Group
g l a
g l a a
a Q.96 Among India’s neighbours, which of the following countries have the better ranking
than India in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024, released by Transparency
International in February 2025?
Ans A. China

B. Pakistan

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri Lanka

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.97 In 2025, which company has partnered with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to
restore heritage water bodies?
Ans A. Pepsi

B. Bisleri

C. Nestle

D. Dabur

Q.98 Which of the following countries hosted the first assembly of International Big Cat
Alliance in June 2025?
Ans A. Germany

B. Italy

C. Indonesia

D. India

Q.99 As per the Economic Survey, 2024–25, what is the global movement led by India to
promote sustainable lifestyles called?
Ans A. Go Green

B. LiFE

C. Earth First

D. Swachh Life

Q.100 Which of the following banks of India reported a 33 per cent rise in standalone net profit
at ₹5,004 crore for the fourth quarter (Q4) of the financial year 2024-25 (FY25)?
Ans A. Canara Bank

B. Bank of Baroda

C. Punjab National Bank

D. State bank of India

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 27/11/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 When a gun is fired, the bullet moves forward because:
Ans A. the barrel exerts no force

B. air resistance acts forward

C. the recoil of the gun acts backward as reaction

D. gravity pushes it forward

m
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Q.2 Which of the following observations best supports that liquids have a definite volume
but no fixed shape?
Ans A. Air expands to fill the entire container
e m
las
B. A solid iron block retains its shape in any container

C. A sponge changes its shape when squeezed
ag
D. Water takes the shape of its container but retains its volume

Q.3 Which of the following methods involves coating steel and iron with a layer of zinc to
prevent rusting?
Ans A. Passivation

B. Cathodic protection

C. Electroplating
m
m .co
D. Galvanisation

Q.4
m.co
Which among the following organic compounds is saturated?
s e m
s e
Ans A. 2-Bromopropene
g l a
g l a B. Propene a
a C. Propyne

D. Bromopropane

Q.5 Which of the following has straight-chain hydrocarbons?
Ans A. 3-Methylpentane

B. 2-Methylpropane

C. Butane
m .
.co m
D. Isobutane

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 The relation between electric energy, power and time is:
Ans A. Energy = Time – Power

B. Energy = Power / Time

C. Energy = Power × Time

D. Energy = Power + Time

Q.7 The weight of a body on the moon is less than on Earth because:
Ans A. Gravitational acceleration on the moon is smaller

B. Mass of the body decreases on the moon

C. The moon has no atmosphere

D. Mass of the moon is equal to Earth’s mass

Q.8 When we hit a table lightly, the sound produced is soft because the:
Ans A. frequency of vibration is low

B. amplitude of vibration is small

C. speed of sound decreases

D. wavelength becomes shorter

Q.9 Which of the following statements is true about HIV transmission?
Ans A. HIV can be transmitted through aerosols.

B. HIV can be transmitted through sexual acts.

C. HIV can be transmitted through mosquito bites.

D. HIV can be transmitted through casual contact.

Q.10 Why can tiny molecules like oxygen easily pass through the cell membrane, but not the
big ones like starch or proteins?
Ans A. Small molecules have special energy to push through.

B. The cell membrane is permeable to selective substances.

C. The cell membrane is completely solid.

D. Big molecules have to break down for entry.

Q.11 A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s² for 5 seconds. What is the
final velocity of the car?
Ans A. 20 m/s

B. 5 m/s

C. 10 m/s

D. 15 m/s

Q.12 Generally which of the following trophic levels have the least number of organisms?
Ans A. Secondary consumers

B. Tertiary consumers

C. Primary consumers

D. Producers

Q.13 The distance between the pole and the centre of curvature of a convex mirror is + 40
cm. What will be the distance between the pole and the focus of this mirror?
Ans A. −20 cm

B. −40 cm

C. + 20 cm

D. + 40 cm

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.14 Which of the following human diseases can be transmitted during sexual act?
m
co
Ans A. Protein Energy Malnutrition

. e m
m B. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
as
se C. Diabetes
ag l
D. Cancer

Q.15 Which of the following is a characteristic of gases?
Ans A. No fixed shape and no fixed volume

B. Fixed shape and volume

C. Compressible but not fluid

D. No fixed shape but fixed volume
m
m .co
.co
Q.16 Magnification produced by a lens is related to object distance (u) and image distance (v)
by the formula:
em
Ans A. m = v – u
em l as
B. m = u / v
l as ag
ag
C. m = u + v

D. m = v / u

Q.17 Which of the following has the highest acidity?
Ans A. Vinegar

B. Water

C. Milk

D. Lemon juice
m
Q.18
m .co
A body of mass ‘m’ kg is kept at a height of ‘h’ m from the surface of the Earth. What will
be the potential energy possessed by this body?
s e
Ans A. m2gh
g la
B. hg/m a
C. mh/g

D. mgh

Q.19 How much work (W) is done in moving a charge (Q) of 5 C across two points that have a
potential difference of 15 V?
Ans A. 1/3 J

B. 3 J
m
m
C. 15 J
.co
m.co D. 75 J
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.20 Which of the following cell organelles have enough surface area for ATP-generating
chemical reactions? a
a Ans A. Cell wall

B. Vacuoles

C. Lysosomes

D. Mitochondria

Q.21 Mitochondria are special because they have their own DNA and ribosomes. What can
they do on this basis?

m .
Ans A. Move around the cell on their own

.co
B. Digest materials like lysosomes do

m s e m
e
C. Make food using sunlight like plants do
s l a
l a
D. Make some of their own proteins
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.22 Which of the following plants reproduces asexually by budding along the margins of a
leaf?
Ans A. Mango

B. Hydra

C. Bryophyllum

D. Spirogyra

Q.23 Which of the following will show diffusion fastest?
Ans A. Liquid in gas

B. Solid in liquid

C. Gas in gas

D. Solid in solid

Q.24 How is intercropping beneficial over single crop farming?
Ans A. Utilises nutrients efficiently and prevents spread of diseases

B. Increases irrigation needs

C. Requires less land

D. Reduces labour cost

Q.25 __________ is precipitated, when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
Ans A. Ca(HCO3)2

B. Ca(OH)2

C. CaSO4

D. CaCO3

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Mohan buys a watch for ₹460 and sells it for ₹483. Find his percentage of profit.
Ans A. 5.5%

B. 5%

C. 4%

D. 4.7%

Q.27

Ans A. 0

B. 2x

C. 1

D. x

Q.28 Anmol and Ayushi together invested ₹46,600 in a business. At the end of the year, out of
a total profit of ₹7,500, Anmol's share was ₹2,700. What was Anmol's investment?
Ans A. ₹16,080

B. ₹17,240

C. ₹16,776

D. ₹18,740

Q.29 A purse contains only ₹5 and ₹10 coins. The total number of coins is 118 and their total
value is ₹855. How many coins of ₹5 are there?
Ans A. 53

B. 56

C. 65

D. 55
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.30
m
. co s e m
m Ans A. 3
a
se B. 7
ag l
C. 1

D. 5

Q.31 The average age of 51 students in a class is 24 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 25 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 76

m
B. 75

C. 77
m .co
D. 71

m.co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.32 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 8 and 24 days, respectively. How long (in days)
l
ag
will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 6

B. 18

C. 12

D. 7

Q.33 A train P going at the speed of 84 km/hr completely passes train Q of length 447 m,
going in the same direction on parallel tracks, at 54 km/hr, in 4.5 minutes. How much
time (in seconds) will P take to completely cross train R of length 287 m, going at 87
km/hr in the opposite direction?
m
Ans A. 36

m .co
B. 39
s e
C. 44
g la
D. 34 a
Q.34 The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the
washing machine increases by 80% and that of the TV decreases by 22%, then what is
the percentage change in the total cost of 7 washing machines and 6 TVs?
Ans A. Increase by 20%

B. Increase by 21%

C. Decrease by 15%

m
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D. Decrease by 18%

m
Q.35
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans A. 1 a
a B. 3

C. 0

D. 2

Q.36 What is the average of the first 50 even natural numbers?2979
Ans A. 52

B. 50

m .
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C. 54

e m
D. 51
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.37

Ans A. 160%

B. 165%

C. 150%

D. 300%

Q.38 If the third proportional of 32 and 24 is x, then what is the value of x?
Ans A. 20

B. 17

C. 16

D. 18

Q.39 In a ΔPMN, ∠ P = 76°. The bisectors of the exterior angles at M and N intersect each
other at point O. The degree measure of ∠ MON is:
Ans A. 128°

B. 52°

C. 104°

D. 38°

Q.40 A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹440, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 176

B. 264

C. 1,140

D. 1,100

Q.41 3 men can do a piece of work in 20 days. How many men will do it in 2 days?
Ans A. 30

B. 31

C. 33

D. 32

Q.42 11 men can dig a well 59 feet deep in 19 days. How many men can dig a well 118 feet
deep in 2 days?
Ans A. 209

B. 206

C. 211

D. 208

Q.43 The amount on a sum of ₹6,500 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹9,431

B. ₹10,274

C. ₹9,360

D. ₹8,411

Q.44 The average age of four children I, J, K and L is 9 years and the average age of I, J, L, M
is 12 years. K is 5 years old. The age of M (in years) is:
Ans A. 18

B. 19

C. 17

D. 20
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.45 The ratio of the volume of a sphere to the total surface area of a hemisphere is 28 : 3. If
m
the radii of the sphere and the hemisphere are equal, find the volume of the sphere (in

. co cubic centimetres).

s e m
m a
se Ans A. 38,208 ag l
B. 38,808

C. 38,542

D. 38,460

Q.46 Two trains, measuring 267 metres and 153 metres in length, are moving in the same
direction at speeds of 162 km/hr and 36 km/hr, respectively. How long will it take for the

m
faster train to completely overtake the slower one?

.co
Ans A. 18 seconds
m
B. 12 seconds

m .co s em
C. 17 seconds
s e l a
l a
D. 22 seconds
ag
Q.47 ag
After selling an article at a discount of 29%, the profit percentage obtained is 4%. What
is the mark-up percentage (rounded off to two decimal places)?
Ans A. 48.51%

B. 46.48%

C. 47.05%

D. 45.31%

m
.co
Q.48

e m
Ans
las
A.

ag
B.

C.

D.

Q.49 If an item marked at ₹485 is sold for ₹293, then what is the discount percentage?
m
m .co
(Round off your answer to two decimal places).

.co m
Ans A. 36.76%

m s e
s e
B. 42.85%

g l a
g l a C. 38.99%
a
a D. 39.59%

Q.50 A triangular field has sides measuring 42 cm, 34 cm and 20 cm. What is the length of the
altitude corresponding to the longest side?
Ans A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 16 cm

D. 18 cm
m .
m
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning .co s e m
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.51 SDFH is related to VYIC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, EJRN is related to HEUI. To which of the following options is NUAY related,
following the same logic?9955
Ans A. QWET

B. QPYU

C. QPDT

D. QSER

Q.52 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 7 1 8 4 2 3 9 5 7 6 1 (Right)

How many even numbers are there which are immediately followed by odd numbers?
Ans A. More than three

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

834 840 848 ? 870 8844221
Ans A. 858

B. 854

C. 856

D. 855

Q.54 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 742 912 853 657 154 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers
will remain unchanged?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Q.55 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is O related to V if ‘O + P @ T - G # V’?
Ans A. Mother's sister

B. Mother

C. Sister

D. Mother's mother

Q.56 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.
MIST - TIMS - ISMT
HOPE - EOHP - OPHE
Ans A. WIDE - EIWD - DIWE

B. BUSY - YUBS - USBY

C. NUMB - NMUB - BMUN

D. PUTS - UPTS - SUTP
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of
consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
s e m
m a
se Ans A. PS - LO

B. MP - IL ag l
C. OR - KN

D. IL - EL

Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

m
.co
Statements:
Some paddy are rice.
m
.co m
Some rice are wheat.

m s e
Conclusions:
s e l a
a ag
(I) Some paddy are wheat.
l
ag
(II) All wheat are rice.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.59 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

21 B 16 C 20 D 26 A 2 = ?
m
Ans A. 341

m .co
B. 342
s e
C. 343
g la
D. 340 a
Q.60 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting
to be done from left to right only.
(NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 3 1 3 9 6 3 4 1 1 5 6 9 9 6 8 9 7 5 6 6 2 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square and also immediately followed by an even digit?

m
.co
Ans A. 2

m
.co
B. 1

e m
e m C. 3

l as
l as D. 4
ag
ag Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘nail post fish’ is coded as 'pl mg qn' and ‘fish urn knife’ is
coded as ‘ix pl ko’. How is ‘fish’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. qn

B. ix

C. mg

D. pl

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.62 Raman ranked 31st from the top and 12th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 41

B. 42

C. 40

D. 43

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘ROME’ is coded as ‘1398’ and ‘DEMO’ is coded as ‘4138’.
What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?1745
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 1

D. 8

Q.64 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(3, -2, 11)
(46, 2107, 9)
Ans A. (34, 1135, 21)

B. (25, 607, 17)

C. (38, 1433, 10)

D. (33, 1081, 7)

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

267 237 209 183 159 ?
Ans A. 137

B. 133

C. 128

D. 145

Q.66 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 593 784 358 631 296 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant, if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 13

B. 17

C. 10

D. 14

Q.67 Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only I is kept above C. Only L is kept between C and J. Only K is kept below
D. How many boxes are kept between B and I?7084
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. One

D. Three

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Q.68 Hemant starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn,
m
drives 5 km, turns right and drives 6 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km. He

. co takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
s e m
m a
se l
90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 11 km towards the east
ag
B. 11 km towards the west

C. 7 km towards the north

D. 5 km towards the south

Q.69 Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre
of the table. I sits to the immediate left of D. J is the immediate neighbour of both B and
K. K sits third to the left of D. L is not an immediate neighbour of K. Who sits second to
the right of C?
m
.co
Ans A. I
m
.co m
B. K

m s e
C. J

s e l a
D. D
l a ag
Q.70 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
GMP IOR KQT MSV ?
Ans A. OUX

B. QVX

C. PVX

D. OUY

m
.co
Q.71 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the

m
given series to make it logically complete?
GKN19 HLO26 IMP33 JNQ40 ?
s e
la
Ans A. KOR48

B. KOS47
ag
C. KOS48

D. KOR47

Q.72 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

43 − 17 ÷ 147 + 362 × 2 = ?
Ans A. 697
m
m .co
B. 699

m.co C. 691
s e m
s e D. 695

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.73 A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only two people sit between C and U when counted from the left of U. B sits third to the
left of A. T sits to the immediate right of A.T sits second to the left of C. R is not an
immediate neighbour of B. Who sits third to the right of S?
Ans A. U

B. T

C. A

D. C

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some oranges are peaches.
No peach is a carrot.

Conclusions:
(I) Some oranges are carrots.
(II) All carrots are peaches.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.75 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. C sits third to
the right of D. E sits second to the right of C. F is the immediate neighbour of B and C.
G is not an immediate neighbour of D. How many people sit between A and G when
counted from the left of G?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Q.76 Mukesh starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards the North. He then takes a left
turn, drives 9 km, then turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives
13 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km to the east

B. 4 km to the west

C. 5 km to the west

D. 5 km to the east

Q.77 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. CIE

B. GMJ

C. IOL

D. PVS

Q.78 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

11 B 22 C 288 A 18 D 50 = ?
Ans A. 202

B. 220

C. 208

D. 212

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.79 EFJL is related to HKMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
m
same way, QZVF is related to TEYK. To which of the following options is ZOEU related,

. co following the same logic?10115

s e m
m Ans A. CTHZ
a
se B. CTZS
ag l
C. CGFR

D. CTYU

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2 4 12 24 72 ?3821
Ans A. 144

B. 136
m
C. 92
m .co
D. 124

m .co s em
s e l a
l a
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
ag
Q.81 ag
Indicating a strong push toward sustainable energy development, the installed
renewable energy generating capacity in India increased from 64.04 watts per capita in
2014-15 to what level per capita in 2024-25?
Ans A. 98.63 watts

B. 110.36 watts

C. 156.31 watts

D. 85.21 watts

m
.co
Q.82 Which app was announced in June 2025 to identify sporting talent via videos?

m
Ans A. SAI Connect App

B. Sports Talent Search App
s e
C. TOPS Talent App
g la
D. Khelo India App a
Q.83 In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India introduced relaxed norms for project finance
provisioning bringing significant relief to lenders, with effect from _______.
Ans A. 1 August 2025

B. 1 October 2025

C. 1 November 2025

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D. 1 September 2025

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Q.84

m.co
Which team won the Laureus World Team of the Year in 2025?
s e m
s e
Ans A. Los Angeles Lakers

g l a
g l a B. Spain Olympic Football Team
a
a C. Barcelona

D. Real Madrid

Q.85 Which international day was observed for the first time on 12 April 2025, as declared by
the United Nations?
Ans A. International Day of Clean Energy

B. International Day of Human Space Flight

C. International Day of Plant Health
m .
.co m
D. International Day for Dialogue Between Civilizations

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.86 Which state High Court in January 2025 has mandated that individuals in live-in
relationships must sign a legal contract outlining financial responsibilities and
childcare provisions?
Ans A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

C. Goa

D. Rajasthan

Q.87 The theme of National Nurses Day 2025 was 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses
strengthens economies'. When was this day celebrated in India?
Ans A. 7 June

B. 12 May

C. 6 July

D. 7 August

Q.88 With which of the following institutes did the Data Informatics and Innovation Division
of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), sign a
Memorandum of Understanding under the Data Innovation lab initiative in January
2025?
Ans A. National Institute of Technology Warangal

B. International Institute of Information Technology – Hyderabad(IIIT-Hyderabad)

C. National Institute of Technology Durgapur

D. Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology (IIIT-Delhi)

Q.89 Which rugby league legend became the first player in the sport's 130-year history to
receive a knighthood, awarded by King Charles at Buckingham Palace in 2025?
Ans A. Ellery Hanley

B. Billy Boston

C. Martin Offiah

D. Kevin Sinfield

Q.90 Who received the Padma Shri in 2025 for their work in social service (North East India)?
Ans A. Jumde Yomgam

B. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw

C. Anand Kumar

D. Binalakshmi Nepram

Q.91 The National Florence Nightingale Awards, conferred by the President of India in May
2025, are given to which of the following?
Ans A. Teaching professionals

B. Educational institutions

C. Nursing professionals

D. Doctors

Q.92 The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone for the National Referral Centre for Wildlife
in which city in 2025?
Ans A. Pune

B. Ahmedabad

C. Vadodara

D. Junagadh

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.93 The ‘GenomeIndia’ project that has completed whole genome sequencing (WGS) on a
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database of thousands of individuals in April 2025 was launched in ____.

. co
Ans A. 2019
s e m
m a
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B. 2014

C. 2023
ag
D. 2020

Q.94 Which of the following organisations received the 2025 Zayed Sustainability Prize in the
Health category in January 2025?
Ans A. PATH

B. Doctors Without Borders

C. Periwinkle Technologies
m
D. Last Mile Health
m .co
Q.95
m .co
Which two national parks achieved the highest scores of 92.97% in the Management
s em
s e
Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) 2020–2025 of National Parks and Protected Areas?
l a
Ans
l a
A. Periyar and Sundarbans
ag
ag
B. Gir and Kaziranga

C. Bandipur and Kanha

D. Eravikulam and Dachigam

Q.96 With which country did India secure a $131 million deal in May 2025 to acquire
'HawkEye 360’s cutting-edge surveillance technology to advance its maritime defense
infrastructure?
Ans A. United States of America

m
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B. New Zealand

m
C. South Africa

D. Germany
s e
g la
Q.97
Ans
a
Which Indian bowler took 25 wickets to win IPL 2025 Purple Cap?
A. Jasprit Bumrah

B. Arshdeep Singh

C. Yuzvendra Chahal

D. Prasidh Krishna

Q.98 Which state emerged as India’s first fully literate state, following a major literacy drive
under the ULLAS scheme, in May 2025?
m
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Ans A. Mizoram
m
.co m
B. Kerala

m s e
s e C. Gujarat

g l a
g l a D. Goa
a
a Q.99 According to ICRA, India’s general insurance sector is expected to see a growth of how
much percentage in FY26?
Ans A. 7.7%

B. 5.7%

C. 8.7%

D. 6.7%

m .
m .co s e m
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.100 Which Indian personality headed the expert committee on digital competition law in
2025?
Ans A. Manoj Govil

B. Manoj Joshi

C. Nandan Nilekani

D. Ashwini Vaishnaw

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48