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ODISHA
CPET
QUESTION PAPER
2022
DOWNLOAD PDF
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COMMON P.G. ENTRANCE TEST–2022 (CPET-2022)
Subject Code : 53 Test Booklet No.:
Entrance Subject : Linguistics Hall Ticket No.:
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Full Marks : 70
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Please do not open this Question Booklet until asked to do so.
2. Check the completeness of the Question Booklet immediately after opening.
3. Enter your Hall Ticket No. on the Test Booklet in the box provided alongside. Do not write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
up Test Booklet Serial No. & OMR Answer Sheet Serial No. in the Attendance Sheet carefully.
5. Each question has four answer options marked (A), (B), (C) & (D).
6. Answers are to be marked on the Answer Sheet, which is provided separately.
7. Choose the most appropriate answer option and darken the oval completely, corresponding to
(A), (B), (C) or (D) against the relevant question number.
8. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the oval for answering.
9. Please do not darken more than one oval against any question, as scanner will read such markings
as wrong answer.
10. Each question carries equal marks. There will be no negative marking for wrong answer.
11. Electronic items such as calculator, mobile, etc., are not permitted inside the
examination hall.
12. Don’t leave the examination hall until the test is over and permitted by the invigilator.
13. The candidate is required to handover the original OMR sheet to the invigilator and
take the question booklet along with the candidate’s copy of OMR sheet after completion
of the test.
14. Sheet for rough work is appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
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1. The notion of competence was developed by
(B) Dell Hymes
(C) Ferdinand de Saussure
(D) Noam Chomsky
2. Speech act theory was originally proposed by
(A) Chomsky
(B) Frege
(C) Austin
(D) Searle
3. In a contact situation, a creole is
(A) A language descended from Pidgin
(B) A language created by people with no language in common
(C) A language unique to an individual
(D) A link language
4. Words that sound alike but different meaning are
(A) Homophones
(B) Homographs
(C) Homonyms
(D) None of the above
5. Idiolect refers to the linguistic system of a/an
(A) Community
(B) Society
(C) Caste
(D) Individual
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6. A compound which consists of a head is called?
(A) Exocentric Compound
(B) Endocentric Compound
(C) Copulative Compound
(D) None of the above
7. Which of the following are minimal pairs?
(A) /p/ and /b/
(B) /m/ and /n/
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
8. Places of articulation refers
(A) The place or point at which active articulator comes in contact with or obstructs
with passive articulator
(B) The closure or narrowing involved in the production of a sound
(C) Characterization of speech sounds
(D) All of the above
9. A diphthong consists of
(A) Two vowels
(B) Two consonants
(C) A vowel and a consonant
(D) A vowel changing in quality
10. The maxims of conversation were introduced by
(A) Labov
(B) H.P. Grice
(C) Breal
(D) Roger Bell
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11. Theta theory assigns
(A) Subject
(B) Thematic roles
(C) Case
(D) Gender
12. The Odia script is a__________script.
(A) Brahmi
(B) Devanagari
(C) Gupta
(D) Kharosthi
13. Verbal behaviour was written by B.F. Skinner in
(A) 1977
(B) 1947
(C) 1957
(D) 1967
14. All vowel phonemes in Odia occur in ___________position(s).
(A) Initial, Medial, Final
(B) Only Medial
15. Displacement is related to
(A) Regularity of sound change
(B) Structuralism
(C) Universal Grammar
(D) Design features of language
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16. The building blocks of grammar are called
(A) Statistical Universals
(B) Formal Universals
(C) Substantive Universals
(D) Implicational Universals
17. A sound that begins as a stop and releases as a fricative is
(A) Liquids
(B) Nasals
(C) Glides
(D) Affricates
18. The IPA symbol of [t] is
(A) Voiceless velar nasal
(B) Voiced velar stop
(C) Voiceless velar plosive
(D) Voiceless alveolar stop
19. Identify the odd item from the following
(A) Imperative
(B) Interrogative
(D) Exclamatory
20. Identify the odd one from the following
(A) Presupposition
(B) Constituent
(C) Implicature
(D) Entailment
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21. How many segmental and suprasegmental phonemes are present in Odia?
(A) 37 segmental and 1 suprasegmental
(B) 36 segmental and 2 suprasegmental
(C) Only 37 segmental
(D) None of the above
22. A pidgin is a variety of a
(A) Language
(B) Dialect
(C) Community
(D) Family
23. Which language belongs to the Eastern sub-group of Indo-Aryan language family?
(A) Konkani
(B) Odia
(C) Marwari
(D) Avadhi
24. Which language was declared the 6th classical language in 2014?
(A) Kannada
(B) Malayalam
(C) Odia
(D) Tamil
25. An empty morph has
(A) Meaning but no form
(B) No form, no meaning
(C) Form and meaning
(D) Form but no meaning
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26. Which of the following is a tonal language?
(A) Santhali
(B) Bodo
(C) Hindi
(D) Nihali
27. The blade of the tongue is also called
(A) Apex
(B) Dorsum
(C) Centre
(D) Lamina
28. Formant is associated with
(A) Articulatory phonetics
(B) Morphology
(C) Acoustic phonetics
(D) Phonology
29. _________ uses contradictory words in conjunction.
(A) Alliteration
(B) Oxymoron
(C) Enthymeme
(D) Onomatopoeia
30. Langue and Parole is associated with
(A) Edward Sapir
(B) F. de Saussure
(C) Dell Hymes
(D) N. Chomsky
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31. Brunch is an example of
(A) Blend
(B) Abbreviation
(C) Back formation
(D) Clipping
32. The word order found in Indo-Aryan and Dravidian languages is
(A) SVO
(B) SOV
(C) OVS
(D) OSV
33. Critical Period Hypothesis was proposed by
(A) Stephen Krashen
(B) C.F. Hockett
(C) Noam Chomsky
(D) E.H. Lenneberg
34. How many morphemes does the sentence: The boy eats banana chips contain?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
35. In the sentence: All men are born equal, the words all and equal respectively are:
(C) an adjective and an adverb
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36. ‘Part-whole’ relationship is labelled as:
(A) Homonymy
(B) Hyponymy
(C) Antonymy
(D) Synonymy
37. “We shape our buildings, and afterward our buildings shape us” is an example of
(A) Hyperbole
(B) Litotes
(C) Simile
(D) Chiasmus
38. ‘I wondered lonely as a cloud’ makes an assertion that
(A) The poet travelled with the cloud
(B) The poet moved aimlessly with the cloud
(C) Both the poet and the cloud were lonely
(D) The poet moved as aimlessly as the cloud
39. Which of the following is not a head in the X-bar theory?
(A) Noun
(B) Adjunct
(C) Preposition/Postposition
(D) INFL
40. The sounds [p] and [b] are not similar in their:
(A) Manner of articulation
(B) Voicing
(C) Air stream mechanism
(D) Place of articulation
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41. ‘Your story isn’t bad’ is an example of
(A) Periphrasis
(B) Double Negative
(C) Litotes
(D) Tautology
42. Sound Pattern of English is by
(A) Trudgill
(B) Chomsky
(C) Labov
(D) Chomsky and Halle
43. Neutralization refers to:
(A) The loss of distinctions between phonemes in a particular environment
(B) The process in which a sound becomes non-distinctive
(D) The merger of two sounds into one
44. Logographic system of writing represents
(A) Sounds
(B) Words
(C) Syllables
(D) Ideas
(A) Yes/No question
(B) Wh-question
(C) Tag question
(D) Tag imperative
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46. Sora language of Odisha belongs to
(A) Indo-Ayan
(B) Munda/Austro-Asiatic
(C) Tibeto-Burman
(D) Dravidian
47. Knowledge of the language of a native speaker is
(A) LAD
(B) Performance
(C) Competence
(D) Both (A) and (B)
48. The number of syllables in the word ‘hospitality’ is
(A) Five
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Two
49. In English, [p] and [ph] are in
(A) Complementary distribution
(B) Contrast
(C) Defective distribution
(D) Free variation
50. Stanza consisting of eight iambic pentameters and an alexandrine is called
(A) Rhyme royal
(B) Run-on-lines
(C) Blank Verse
(D) Spenserian Stanza
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51. 1995 model of Chomsky is called
(A) Minimalist programme
(B) Standard theory
(C) Phrase structure grammar
(D) Theta theory
(A) Edward Sapir
(B) D. Bolinger
(C) Willliam Labov
(D) Ronald Wardhaugh
53. Autism is a
(A) Speech disorder
(B) Language disorder
(C) Spectrum disorder
(D) Learning disorder
54. Odia follows_________writing system.
(A) Logosyllabary
(B) Abjad
(C) Syllabary
(D) Abugida
55. Dyslexia refers to
(A) Problems to understand music
(C) Telegraphic speech
(D) Problems in naming
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56. Portmanteau morph contains
(A) Three morphemes
(B) Two morphemes
(C) One morpheme
(D) Empty morph
57. The forms talk, talked, talking are
(A) three words as well as three lexemes
(B) three words but one lexeme
(C) three words but two lexemes
(D) three lexemes but one word
58. The symbol [N] in the IPA chart stands for
(A) Voiced bilabial nasal
(B) De-voiced velar nasal
(C) Voiced uvular nasal
(D) None of these
(A) Hyponymy
(B) Antonymy
(C) Synonymy
(D) Homonymy
60. Kui belongs to _____ language family.
(A) Indo- Aryan
(B) Dravidian
(C) Tibeto-Burman
(D) Austro-Asiatic
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61. Interference in L2 learning is due to
(A) Social pressure
(B) Knowledge of L1
(C) Poor knowledge of L2
(D) Poor learning skills
62. Stuttering_______.
(A) is always a genetic disorder
(B) is an acquired disorder
(C) is neither a genetic nor an acquired disorder
(D) none of the above
63. Form of speech used by mothers in talking to babies
(A) Baby Talk
(B) Motherese
(C) Caretaker Speech
(D) Caregiver Speech
64. The forms www, URL, http and SCSI are examples of
(A) Acronyms
(B) Word blends
(C) Abbreviations
(D) Clippings
(B) Derivation
(C) Extraposition
(D) Assimilation
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66. The type of discourse analysis that focuses on the structural relationship between
utterances and conversation is known as
(A) Ethnolinguistic vitality
(B) Sociolinguistic Methodology
(C) Ethnomethodology
(D) Verbal Behaviour
67. Inter Language Hypothesis was given by
(A) Robert Lado
(B) Noam Chomsky
(C) Larry Selinker
(D) Stephen Krashen
68. The basic frequency at which sound vibrates in known as
(A) Resonance
(B) Amplitude
(C) Fundamental Frequency
(D) Frequency
69. The Freest form of translation used mainly for plays and poetry
(A) Faithful translation
(B) Semantic translation
(C) Adaptation
(D) Free translation
70. Language loss in ageing is _______.
(A) Dementia
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Parkinson
****
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ROUGH WORK
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