Odisha CPET 2022 Question Paper Microbiology

ODISHA
CPET

QUESTION PAPER
2022
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COMMON P.G. ENTRANCE TEST–2022 (CPET-2022)

Subject Code : 33 Test Booklet No.:

Entrance Subject : Microbiology Hall Ticket No.:

TEST BOOKLET

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Full Marks : 70

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Please do not open this Question Booklet until asked to do so.
2. Check the completeness of the Question Booklet immediately after opening.
3. Enter your Hall Ticket No. on the Test Booklet in the box provided alongside. Do not write
anything else on the Test Booklet.

up Test Booklet Serial No. & OMR Answer Sheet Serial No. in the Attendance Sheet carefully.

5. Each question has four answer options marked (A) , (B) , C) & (D).
6. Answers are to be marked on the Answer Sheet, which is provided separately.
7. Choose the most appropriate answer option and darken the oval completely, corresponding to
(A), (B), (C) or (D) against the relevant question number.
8. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the oval for answering.
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as wrong answer.
10. Each question carries equal marks. There will be no negative marking for wrong answer.
11. Electronic items such as calculator, mobile, etc., are not permitted inside the
examination hall.
12. Don’t leave the examination hall until the test is over and permitted by the invigilator.
13. The candidate is required to handover the original OMR sheet to the invigilator and
take the question booklet along with the candidate’s copy of OMR sheet after completion
of the test.
14. Sheet for rough work is appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

W-Microbiology-33 P.T.O.

1. Bacteria that retain the saffranin stain and appear reddish pink colour under
microscope are:

(A) Gram negative

(B) Diplococcus

(C) Gram positive

(D) Spirillum

2. Bacteria devoid of cell are:

(A) E. coli

(B) Mycoplasma

(C) L- form

(D) both (B) and (C)

(A) Monotrichous

(B) Lophotrichous

(C) Peritrichous

(D) Atrichous

4. Which one of the following is absent in Gram negative bacteria?

(A) Peptidoglycan layer

(B) LPS membrane

(C) Cytoplasmic membrane

(D) Teichoic acid

5. In a trisomic individual the number of chromosomes is:

(A) 2n – 1

(B) 2n + 2

(C) 2n + 3

(D) 2n + 1

W-Microbiology-33 2

6. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?

(A) Ethidium bromide

(B) Nitrosogeranidine

(C) Acridine orange

(D) None of above

7. The alkaloid ‘Ergotoxin’ is produced by:

(A) Pseudomonas

(B) Claviceps purpurea

(C) Ashbya gossypi

(D) Clostridium butylicum

8. Mesosomes are infoldings or invaginations of which one of the following:

(A) Plasma membrane

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Peroxisome

9. How many ATP are required for the conversion of one N2 to 2NH4+ during biological

(A) 8 ATP

(B) 10 ATP

(C) 12 ATP

(D) 16 ATP

10. J- chain is found in:

(A) IgM

(B) IgA

(C) IgM and IgA

(D) IgE

W-Microbiology-33 3 P.T.O.

11. A nucleic acid containing 30% A, 10% U, 21% C and 11% G is called:

(A) ds DNA

(B) ssDNA

(C) dsRNA

(D) ssRNA

(A) 5’ capping

(B) 3’ polyadenylation

(C) Splicing

(D) All of the above

13. Which of the following organism is widely used as a biocontrol agent in organic
farming?

(A) Rhizobium tropicii

(B) Trichoderma harzianum

(C) Fusarium oxysporum

(D) Nosto muscorum

14. Inactivation of Retinoblastoma Rb leads to:

(A) Regulated cell cycle progression

(B) Inhibition of cell cycle

(C) Formation of tumors

(D) Both (A) and (C)

15. Embryonic cell cycle lacks which phase of cell cycle:

(A) G1 phase & G2 phase

(B) S phase

(C) M phase

(D) All phases are present

W-Microbiology-33 4

16. During generation of an action potential, resting potential is due to:

(A) Na+/k+ pump

(B) Na+ channel

(C) Cl– channel

(D) K+ channel

17. Transport of glucose across plasma membrane is regulated by:

(A) Lipids

(B) GLUT receptors

(C) Aquaporins

(D) None of the above

18. Secondary water treatment involves-

(B) Removal of chemical remains by precipitation

(D) Removal of microbial pathogens by chlorination or ozonation

19. Which of the following microbes is used for the production of streptomycin is:

(A) Penicillium chrysogenum

(B) Penicillium notatum

(C) Streptomyces sp.

(D) Saccharomyces sp.

20. Which group of the plant pathogens is used as a tool in genetic transformation in
plants:

(A) Phytopthora

(B) Xanthomonas

(C) Agrobacterium

(D) Mycobacterium

W-Microbiology-33 5 P.T.O.

21. Purple and green sulfur bacteria use _______as the electron donor to reduce carbon
dioxide.

(A) S2-

(B) SO42-

(C) H2S

(D) Organic acids

22. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by:

(A) Plasmodium

(B) Paramecium

(C) Yeast

(D) Entamoeba histolytica

23. The size of the virus can be determined by:

(A) Micrography

(B) Ultra-centrifugation at high speed

(D) All of these

24. Nucleic acids are highly charged polymers due to:

(A) There is phosphodiester bond between 5’-hydroxyl of one ribose and 3’– hydroxyl
of next ribose

(B) They have positive and negative ends

(C) Nucleotides are charged structures

(D) Nitrogenous bases are highly ionized compounds

25. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:

(A) Staphyllococcus albus

(B) Staphyllococcus aureus

(C) Streptooccus viridana

(D) None of these
W-Microbiology-33 6

26. Which of the following microorganism produces only L (+) - lactic acid without further
racemization?

(A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides

(B) Lactobacillus delbrueckii

(C) Rhizopus oryzae

(D) Lactobacillus bulgaricus

27. Tetracyclin antibiotic affect :

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) Nucleic acid synthesis

(C) Mode of action not known

(D) All of the above

28. Which of the following is not a vegetable or fruit-based fermented product?

(A) Wine

(B) Sauerkraut

(C) Beer

(D) Vinegar

29. Glucose molecule during the process of glycolysis is broken down into:

(A) Four pyruvic acid

(B) Three pyruvic acid

(C) Two pyruvic acid

(D) One pyruvic acid

30. The carbon dioxide (CO2) is removed in alcoholic fermentation from_______

(A) pyruvic acid

(B) nitric acid

(C) sulphuric acid

(D) hydrochloric acid

W-Microbiology-33 7 P.T.O.

31. Which of the following is considered as a visual marker?

(A) Antibiotic marker

(B) Resistance marker

(C) Selectable marker

(D) Screenable marker

(A) Rice

(B) Cotton

(C) Tobacco

(D) Tomato

33. Which one of the following is used as a green manure?

(A) Sesbania

(B) Rice

(C) Oat

(D) Maize

34. BGA is used as Biofertilizer in ________

35. The symbiotic relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants is called:

(A) lichen

(B) Mycorrhiza

(C) Helotism

(D) mutualism

W-Microbiology-33 8

36. The biosynthesis of complex molecules of microbial protoplasm from ammonium and
nitrate is called as:

(A) Mineralization

(B) Immobilization

(D) All of the above

37. Methanogens belong to ________

(A) Eubacteria

(C) Slime moulds

(D) Archaebacteria

38. Which of the following is not a sulphate reducing bacteria:

(A) Desulfovibrio

(B) Desulfomonas

(C) Desulfatomaculum

(D) Zymomonas

39. In prokaryotes, which subunit of the ribosome has Shine-dalgarno’s sequence?

(A) 50S subunit

(B) 30S subunit

(C) A site of ribosome

(D) P site of ribosome

40. Mutations which cause functional change in the protein is known as:

(A) Nonsense mutation

(B) Missense mutation

(C) Frameshift mutation

(D) All of the above

W-Microbiology-33 9 P.T.O.

41. Which site/region of the DNA molecule is responsible for synthesis of repressor?
(A) Operator
(B) Promoter
(C) Leader sequence
(D) Regulator
42. There are 3 genes A, B and C, if the recombination frequency between AB is 15% and
BC is 17%. Calculate the map distance between AB and BC?
(A) AB- 2.5 cM; BC- 5 cM
(B) AB- 15 cM; BC- 17 cM
(C) Cannot be calculated
(D) AB- 10 cM; BC- 20 cM
43. Genes whose products are constantly needed for cellular activity are called :
(A) Regulator genes
(B) Structural genes
(C) Housekeeping genes
(D) Smart genes
44. Tryptophan operon in E.coli is an example of
(A) inducible operon
(B) positively regulated operon
(C) repressible operon
(D) all of the above
45. An interrupted mating experiment was performed between HfrStrS a+ b+ c- and F- Strr
a- b- c- strains. The genotype of majority of streptomycin resistant (Strr) exconjugant
after 10, 20 and 30 minutes is given below-
10 min a+ b– c–
20 min a+ b– c+
30 min a+ b+ c+
The most probable gene order would be-
(A) abc
(B) cab
(C) bac
(D) a c b
W-Microbiology-33 10

46. The following is the inheritance pattern of a trait under observation-
1. The trait often skips a generation
2. The number of affected males and females is almost equal
3. The trait is often found in pedigrees with consanguineous marriages
The trait is likely to be-
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) autosomal dominant
(C) sex- linked recessive
(D) sex- linked dominant
47. Which one of the following is NOT an Extracellular Matrix (ECM) protein?
(A) Fibronectin
(B) Vibronectin
(C) Laminin
(D) Cyclin
48. The T-wave of ECG indicates-
(A) Atrial depolarization
(B) Ventricular depolarization
(C) Ventricular repolarization
(D) Atrial repolarization

(A) Zygomycetes
(B) Oomycetes
(C) Deuteromycetes
(D) Discomycetes
50. Glucose residues in amylase are linked by:
(A) 1-4
(B) 1-4
(C) 1-6
(D) 1-6

W-Microbiology-33 11 P.T.O.

51. In the lysogenic state of phage:

(A) Both Cl and Cro are on

(B) Both Cl and Cro are off

(C) Cl is on while Cro is off

(D) Cl is off while Cro is on

52. Tuberculosis is a

(A) Water borne disease

(B) Air borne disease

(C) Food borne disease

(D) Arthropod borne disease

53. E.coli produce which type of toxins?

(A) Exotoxins

(B) Endotoxins

(C) Leucocidin

(D) Both (A) and (B)

54. If the Optimum growth temperature is between 30°-40 °C then the organism is?

(A) Mesophiles

(B) Thermophiles

(C) Psychrophiles

(D) None of these

55. Yeast extract is an excellent source of ____________.

(A) A Vitamin

(B) Proteins

(C) B Vitamin

(D) Carbohydrates

W-Microbiology-33 12

56. Causative organism of whooping cough is:

(A) Bordetella pertussis

(B) Bordetella parapertussis

(C) Bordetella bronchi septica

(D) None of these

57. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of:

(A) Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid

(B) Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide

(C) Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate

(D) Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

58. Mycotoxins are produced by_____________.

(A) Bacteria

(B) Fungi

(C) Algae

(D) Protozoans

59. Cerebral malaria is caused by:

(A) Plasmodium vivox

(B) P. ovale

(C) P. falsiparum

(D) P. malaria

(A) Isotonic solution

(B) Hypertonic solution

(C) Hypotonic solution

(D) Normal solution

W-Microbiology-33 13 P.T.O.

61. Electron microscope studies does not help in identifying the section of bacterial Spore:

(A) Core

(B) Spore cortex

(C) Capsule

(D) All of these

62. For sterilization of fermentation equipment the method followed is:

(A) Radiation

(B) Chemicals

(C) Heating

(D) All of these

63. A common laboratory method of cultivating anaerobic micro-organisms is:

(A) Gas pack system

(B) Brewer jar system

(C) Pyrogallic acid over the cotton

(D) None of these

64. On Mac Conkey’s medium E. coli forms:

(A) Colorless colonies

(B) Greenish pigmentation

(C) Pink coloured colonies

(D) Medusa head appearance

65. Which organelles are involved in photorespiration?

(A) Mitochondria-Glyoxysomes-Peroxisomes

(B) Mitochondria-Chlorophyll- Peroxisomes

(C) Mitochondria-Chlorophyll-Glyoxosomes

(D) Mitochondria- Peroxisomes -Lysosomes

W-Microbiology-33 14

66. Human eye cannot resolve any image less than:

(A) 1ì m

(B) 2ì m

(C) 7ì m

(D) 5ì m

(A) Quinine sulphate

(B) Auramine

(C) All of these

(D) None of these

(A) IgG

(B) IgM

(C) IgA

(D) IgD

resembles:

(A) Halophile

(B) Basophile

(C) Barophile

(D) Xerophile

70. Heterolactic acid bacteria produce:

(A) Lactic acid only

(B) Lactic acid + H2O + CO2

(C) Lactic acid + CO2

(D) Lactic acid + alcohol + CO2

*****

W-Microbiology-33 15 P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

W-Microbiology-33 16