TIFR GS 2025 Question Paper Science Education

FOR TIFR GS EXAM PREPARATION

TIFR GS 2025
Question Paper ·
Science
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DETAILS

TIFR GS 2025 Question Paper Science Education

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Entrance Test for Ph.D. Programme in Science Education – 2025

Read the following instructions carefully.
 This paper has two sections, section I is of multiple choice questions; and section II is

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a descriptive one, titled as critical reasoning.

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 There are m
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Section I of the written test carries 100 marks.
a total of 80 questions in section I distributed among different subjects as: se
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1 sto 25: Quantitative reasoning, scientific literacy and technical comprehension.
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o a Q 25 to 40: Social and cognitive sciences and education.
o Q 41 to 80: Ten questions each on biology (41 to 50), chemistry (51 to 60), math-
ematics (61 to 70) and physics (71 to 80).
 All questions are of multiple-choice type with four options, out of which only one op-
tion is correct. Each correct answer earns 2 marks. An unanswered question or a

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wrong answer earns no mark.
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You may answer any 50 questions from section I. In case more than 50 questions
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are attempted, the score obtained will be normalized to that corresponding to 50

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questions, using the following formula.
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 Section II of the written test carries 50 marks. It has 3 questions, Q 81, Q 82, Q 83
o Q 81is of 20 marks,
o Q 82 and Q 83 are 15 marks each.

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s em mission for marking) to access Section II for the first time. However,
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ag switching between sections anytime to edit/update your response.

 While typing in the text boxes, the following function keys CANNOT be used/operated:
Ctrl+C Ctrl+X Ctrl+V [Accidental or otherwise – use of the above keys will lead to eras-
ing of the text matter already typed in that particular text box.] The text is saved automat-
ically and you do not need to do anything.

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Section I:
Multiple Choice Questions

Quantitative Reasoning, Scientific Literacy and Technical Comprehension

Question 1:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: Option C

Question 2:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option D

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Question 3: a

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A) Reena has 9 pens, and Jassi has 15 pens.

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B) Reena has 12 pens, and Jassi has 15 pens.
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C) Reenaghas ag
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D) Reena has 15 pens, and Jassi has 9 pens.

Answer: Option D

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Question 4:

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A) 3

B) 7.5

C) 9
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Question 5:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option A

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Question 6: a

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A) Only I B) Only III C) Only I and II D) Only I and III

Answer: Option D

Question 7:

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A) B)

C) D)

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Answer: Option B
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A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: Option B

Question 9:

A) 60 % B) 40 % C) 15 % D) 10 %

Answer: Option C

Question 10:

A) 23 % B) 28 % C) 58 % D) 77 %

Answer: Option A

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Question 11: a

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A) a B)

C) D)

Answer: Option B
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A) 29 B) 31 C) 37 D) 45

Answer: Option B

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Question 13:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option A

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Question 14: a

A) 5525 B) 5756 C) 5778 D) 6009
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Answer: Option A

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C) D)

Answer: Option C

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Question 16-20:

Read the passage carefully and answer questions based on the passage.
Protecting 30% of land and water for nature by 2030 was one of the key targets settled on by
world leaders in a landmark 2022 agreement to save nature. However, simply designating
more areas as protected ―will not automatically result in better outcomes for biodiversity‖,
researchers warn, in the latest study to challenge the effectiveness of conservation practices.
Nearly a quarter of the world‘s most biodiversity-rich land is within protected areas, but the
quality of these areas is declining faster than it is outside protected areas, according to the
analysis by the Natural History Museum (NHM).
Researchers looked at a Biodiversity Intactness Index, which scores biodiversity health as a
percentage in response to human pressures. The report found the index declined by 1.88
percentage points globally between 2000 and 2020. It then focused on the critical biodiversity
areas that provide 90% of nature‘s contributions to humanity, 22% of which is protected. The
study found that within those critical areas that were not protected, biodiversity had declined
by an average of 1.9 percentage points between 2000 and 2020, and within the areas that were
protected it had declined by 2.1 percentage points.
The authors say there are a few reasons why this might be the case. A lot of protected areas
are not designed to preserve the whole ecosystem, but rather certain species that are of
interest, which means total ―biodiversity intactness‖ is not a priority.
Another reason is that these landscapes could have already been suffering degradation, which
is why they were protected in the first place. Researchers say specific local analysis is key to
working out why each one is failing. The amount of land protected for nature stands at 17.5%
of land and 8.4% of marine areas – an increase of about half a percentage point each since
COP15 in 2022. This will need to increase substantially by 2030 to meet the target. But for
many of those areas, the ―protections in place are not stringent enough‖, said Thomas.
―Countries need to continue their focus on 30x30, that shouldn‘t waver. They just need to
bring more into it, and pay more attention to actually conserving the land which provides
those ecosystem services,‖ he said.
Oil, gas and mining concessions threaten key areas for biodiversity, as well as Indigenous
territories. For example, Conkouati-Douli national park is one of the most biodiverse protected
areas in the Republic of the Congo – yet more than 65% of the park is covered by oil and gas
concessions, according to a new report by Earth Insight.
Recent research from the University of New South Wales in Sydney looked at forested land in
300,000 of the world‘s protected areas and found the policy was almost ―completely
ineffective‖ in many biodiversity-rich countries. Corruption, political instability and a lack of
resources were key reasons why conservation laws were not implemented.
Protected areas are also being threatened by the effects of the climate crisis: wildfires and
droughts do not respect their boundaries. Emma Woods, director of policy at the Natural
History Museum, said: ―We urgently need to move beyond the current approach of simply
designating more protected areas to 30x30. Our analysis reinforces the view that this will not
automatically result in better outcomes for biodiversity and ecosystems.‖

Adapted from an article published in The Guardian: https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2024/oct/24/biodiversity-
declining-even-faster-in-protected-areas-scientists-warn-cop16-30x30-conservation-target

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Question 16 a
The following options contain two main conclusions made by the National History Museum
study. Which two of the conclusions are true?

I) Most of the world‘s most biodiversity rich land is inside protected areas
II) Most of world‘s biodiversity rich land is outside protected areas

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III) The quality of biodiversity inside protected areas is declining faster than outside
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IV) The quality of biodiversity outside protected areas is declining faster than inside

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A) (I) and (IV) are correct B) (II) and (III) are correct

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C) (III)aand (I) are correct D) (IV) and (II) are correct

Answer: Option B

Question 17

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Which among the following reasons does not account for the reported trend in the study by
National History Museum?

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A) The focus of preservation in the protected areas are specific species, often at the
exclusion of other species
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B) Climate change impacts such as prevalence of forest fires and drought

C) Protections in place are not stringent enough

D) The amount of land protected for nature stands at 17.5% of land and 8.4% of marine
areas

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Answer: Option D
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a The authors say that more local analysis is needed to establish the cause
each of the protected areas because (choose two correct options):

I) The decline in biodiversity Health Index (BHI) by a value of 2.1% indicates the overall
decrease for all protected areas

II) It will allow an analysis of what are the specific variables that are leading to declining
BHI at each of the designated areas
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III) They are unsure about the calculated BHI of 2.1% that they are arrived at for which
confirmatory studies are required.

IV) The overall decline in BHI for all areas is 1.88%, for protected areas the decline is 2.1%,
and for unprotected areas 1.9%

A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III) C) (III) and (IV) D) (IV) and (I)

Answer: Option A

Question 19

According to the article, there are several reasons why even the existing biodiversity
protection policies don‘t work. Choose the right set of reasons mentioned in the article:

I) Provision of oil, gas and mining concessions

II) Corruption, political instability, lack of resources

III) Their focus on key species, at the exclusion of others

IV) Of the critical biodiversity areas that provide 90% of nature‘s contributions to
humanity, only 22% are protected

A) (I), (III), and (IV) B) (II), (III) and (IV)

C) (I), (II), and (III) D) (I), (II), and (IV)

Answer: Option C

Question 20

Emma Woods argues that ―We urgently need to move beyond the current approach of
simply designating more protected areas to 30x30‖. Which among the following options,
based on a reading of the article, would be a wrong move in this direction?

A) More local analysis of what has gone wrong in each of the protected areas
B) Proper implementation of existing protection policies
C) Strengthen climate change mitigation efforts
D) Focus on conservation of a few key species in protected areas

Answer: Option D

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Question 21-25: a
Read the passage carefully and answer questions based on the passage.
When it comes to believing "fake news," we are all at a disadvantage. As people we suffer
from many different cognitive biases. The most prominent of these, when it comes to ―fake
news‖ is confirmation bias, defined as "the tendency to process information by looking for, or
interpreting, information that is consistent with one’s existing beliefs". This is an innate bias m
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that often we are unaware of, and even when we are we need to keep reminding ourselves.
When it comes to our interaction with ―fake news‖ we are much more likely to agree with
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information that matches what we want to be true, and are less likely to verify information that
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confirms our beliefs. This is largely how ―fake news‖ spreads as misinformation, we are not
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deliberately trying to share false information with our friends and family, but we may
genuinely believe it is true because we want it to be.
A concept closely tied to that of confirmation bias is the filter bubble. Filter bubbles are
intellectual isolation that can occur when websites make use of algorithms to selectively
assume the information a user would want to see, and then give information to the user
according to this assumption. Websites make these assumptions based on the information
related to the user, such as former click behaviour, browsing history, search history and
location. As we can tell from the definition, we are the creators of our own filter bubbles.
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Varying algorithms from social media sites and search engines keep track of the content we

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choose to interact with and then begin to show us only what the algorithm has determined we

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want to see. When we pair this with our innate confirmation bias, we begin creating a bubble

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of information that only confirms the beliefs we already have. This can aid in the spread of
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―fake news‖ because we are more likely to interact with people who hold similar beliefs as
us, when those people share "fake news" it is likely to appeal to us also and so we take up the
story and share it. Similarly, when we share ―fake news‖ it is likely to appeal to our friends
and they will share it. The real issue is that these algorithms are so common we may not even
notice that information from other viewpoints is missing.
In this context, a recent study explored possibilities to mitigate the confirmation bias that
emerges and strengthens because of social media algorithms. The study concluded that these
issues should be addressed on several levels—individual, societal and technical—to most
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effectively combat the negative consequences of confirmation bias on social media. The most
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and trying to prevent it. This can be encouraged through the societal and technical levels. The

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study also discusses challenges that are encountered on this front, particularly because of the
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ambiguity surrounding the black-boxed algorithms and the efficiency of debiasing strategies.
a Source: Adapted from the website of the Northeastern University Library (2024) and thesis of Nella Tiainen, 2023.

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Question 21

Based on the passage, which of the following may be considered as examples of confirmation
bias?

(I) Seeking objective facts

(II) Interpreting information to support existing belief

(III) Only remembering details that uphold your belief

(IV) Noticing multiple perspectives

A) Statements (I) and (II) B) Statements (II) and (III)
C) Statements (I) and (III) D) Statements (III) and (IV)

Answer: Option B

Question 22

What does the statement "we are the creators of our own filter bubbles" imply about user
agency in the digital landscape?

A) Users have no control over the content they encounter online.
B) Users are entirely dependent on external sources and websites for diverse viewpoints.
C) Users actively contribute to the narrowing of their information exposure through their
choices.
D) Users can eliminate filter bubbles simply by changing biases.

Answer: Option C

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Question 23 a
Which of the following aptly describes the interaction between confirmation bias and filter
bubbles create a feedback loop that aids the spread of news and beliefs?

A) Confirmation bias leads users to engage more with conflicting information, reducing the
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influence of filter bubbles, thereby promoting fake news.

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B) The algorithms employed by platforms deliberately promote a diverse range of viewpoints
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to counteract the effects of confirmation bias, and prevent fake news from spreading.
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C) Filter bubbles bias
and discourages
D) Filter bubbles limit exposure to diverse information, which reinforces confirmation bias
and encourages the sharing of similar beliefs.

Answer: Option D

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Question 24

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Based on the passage, which of these seem

A) The reinforcement of confirmation bias through filter bubbles leads to polarization, where
individuals become entrenched in their views, diminishing the potential for constructive
dialogue.
B) Confirmation bias is mitigated by social media algorithms that intentionally introduce

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C) Filter bubbles primarily affect individuals with low cognitive engagement, while those
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Answer: Option A

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Question 25

Which of these may be considered as problems arising from Black-Box Algorithms?

(I) It can become difficult to design targeted debiasing interventions.
(II)Users are more likely to misunderstand and/or misinterpret the information they are
exposed to due to these algorithms.
(III) It can become a cause for information overload for the user.
(IV) This can inadvertently prioritize certain types of content over others.

A) Statements (I) and (III) B) Statements (II) and (III)
C) Statements (I) and (IV) D) Statements (II), (III), and (IV)

Answer: Option C

Social Sciences, Cognitive Sciences and Education

Question 26:

Some of the important fundamental principles guiding National Educational Policy 2020
(NEP 2020) are:

I. Achieving foundational literacy and numeracy by grade 3

II. Emphasis on conceptual learning over rote learning and exam-centered learning

III. Focus on summative over formative assessment

IV. Clear separation between arts and sciences, and curricular and extracurricular activities

A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III) C) (I) and (IV) D) (I) and (III)

Answer: Option A

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Question 27: a
The following are NOT stipulated by the Right to Education (2009) Act:

I) Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of class XII in a
neighborhood school

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II) Provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class.
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III) Prohibition of screening procedures for admission of students
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IV) Encouraging private tuition (coaching) by teachers

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A) (I) and (II) B) (II) and (III) C) (I) and (IV) D) (II) and (IV)

Answer: Option C

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Question 28:
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What is constructionism?

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A) Constructionism is a theory describing
B) Constructionism is an approach for deigning physical spaces on educational campuses.
C) Constructionism is an approach to learning via building things.
D) Constructionism is a guiding process for memorizing key concepts.

Answer: Option C

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l a The term ‗liberalization in 1991‘ in the Indian context refers to:
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B) Instituting educational reforms that are progressive in nature
C) Implementing equal rights for women and men in the workplace
D) Getting rid of the conservative outlook in all legislation

Answer: Option A

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Question 30:

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between basic

sciences and engineering?
A) Engineering develops after basic sciences.
B) Engineering precedes work in basic sciences.
C) Engineering and basic sciences develop in tandem.
D) All the above scenarios are possible.

Answer: Option D

Question 31:

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the role played by
intuitions and everyday reasoning in scientific knowledge construction?

A) Intuitions and everyday reasoning stifle the construction of scientific knowledge.

B) Intuitions and everyday reasoning act as resources while constructing scientific
knowledge.

C) Intuitions and everyday reasoning distract the construction of scientific knowledge.

D) There are no substantial differences between intuitive knowledge and scientific
knowledge.

Answer: Option B

Question 32:

Which of the following constructs is NOT part of a theory of cognitive development?

A) Equilibration B) Assimilation

C) Nominalization D) Zone of Proximal Development

Answer: Option C

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Question 33: a
The NEP 2020 document recommends 6% of the GDP of India to education. The total spend-
ing on education by the Government of India is what percent of the GDP of India (on average
over the last 5 years) (Pick the nearest choice.)

A) 2% B) 4% C) 8% D) 12%
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Answer: Option B

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Questiong34:
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Of these four statistical measures, which one is/are descriptive statistical measure/s?

I) Standard deviation II) Confidence intervals

III) MANOVA IV) Correlation coefficient

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A) I only B) I and II only
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C) II and III only
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D) IV only

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Answer: Option A

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Question 35:

As a part of implementation of NEP 2020 the Ministry of Education, Government of India
has launched the NIPUN Bharat Mission. The aims of the NIPUN Bharat Mission are

I) ensure that children learn in a joyful manner through play, stories, rhymes, activities, local
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c. oII) development of initiatives to promote undergraduate student networks.sem .co
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IV) improve foundational literacy & numeracy from preschool to grade 3.

The correct choice is ─
A) I only B) II and III only C) I and IV only D) IV only

Answer: Option C or D
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Question 36:

In 2001, the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) programme was introduced by the Government of
India to ensure universal retention and achievement at the elementary stage. It promoted:

A) Formative evaluation B) Summative evaluation

C) Diagnostic evaluation D) Continuous & Comprehensive evaluation

Answer: Option D

Question 37:

Which among the following types of learning could be most difficult to achieve using con-
ventional methods of teaching?

I) Skill acquisition II) Acquisition of facts III) Conceptual change

IV) Memorization of theorems V) Building responsively on students‘ diverse ideas

A) I and II B) II and IV C) III and V D) I and IV

Answer: Option C

Question 38:

Coursera, EdX, MIT OCW, Swayam, Udemy, Udacity are some examples of MOOCs. What
are MOOCs?

A) Massive Online Open Curriculum
B) Mobile Open Online Classroom
C) Massive Open Online Course
D) Modular Open Online Course

Answer: Option C

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Question 39: a
Learning is described as a sociocultural process according to Vygotsky. Which of the follow-
ing condition/s then affect learning?

I) Availability of interaction and language

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II) Penalty and Rewards

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III) Presence of others

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IV) Approval of society
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A) IV B) I and III C) II and IV D) II and III

Answer: Option B

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Question 40 [new question]:

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Three former education schemes of thegGovernment of India ─ Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE) were
subsumed under a new framework to treat school education holistically without segmentation
from pre-nursery to Class 12. The merged scheme is called ─

A) National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE 2023)
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a D) Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat

Answer: Option B

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Biology
Question 41:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option D

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Question 42: a
Earthworms tend to escape when introduced in NaCl solution. In an experimental study, the
time of escape was recorded in NaCl solution and distilled water was used as a control.
Assign the independent variable (IV) and dependent variable (DV) in the experimental
design.

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A) NaCl solution (IV) and Time (DV)
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B) Time (IV) and NaCl s e
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C) Distilledlwater
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D) NaCl solution (IV) and Distilled water (DV)

Answer: Option A

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Question 43:

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Answer: Option A

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Question 44:

The given plot shows points indicating milestone evolutionary events in relation to the
increasing oxygen levels in the atmosphere.

Points M, N, O respectively represent:

A) First flowering plants; invasion of land; first chordates

B) Invasion of land; first aerobic bacteria; first chordates

C) First chordates; invasion of land; first flowering plants

D) Invasion of land; first photosynthetic bacteria; first flowering plants

Answer: Option C

Question 45:

In a cloning experiment, (i) an enucleated egg from a black mouse (ii) was fused with the
nucleus from an agouti mouse and (iii) transplanted into an albino ‗surrogate mother‘. What
would be the expected phenotype/s of the offspring?

A) Albino only

B) Black and agouti mice in equal numbers

C) Black, agouti and albino mice in the ratio 1:2:1

D) Agouti only

Answer: Option D

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Question 46: a
Black body colour in guinea pigs is completely dominant over albino. A cross between two
guinea pigs resulted in 75% of the progeny pups having black body colour while the rest were
albino. The parents most likely are:

A) Homozygous black and albino
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B) Heterozygous black and albino
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C) Homozygous black and heterozygous black

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D) Heterozygous black and heterozygous black

Answer: Option D

Question 47:

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A) Male progeny cannot be a carrier whenathe mother is affected and father unaffected.
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B) Carrier female and affected male produce 50% affected and 50% carrier female progeny.

C) Affected male can pass on the trait to his son even if the mother is normal.

D) Affected female passes the traits to all her sons but not necessarily to all her daughters.

Answer: Option C
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding RNA polymerase during
a transcription?

A) It does not require a primer. B) It requires NTPs.

C) It does not have proof-reading activity. D) It makes an RNA starting with AUG.

Answer: Option D

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Question 49:

A) (I) and (III) B) (II) and (III)

C) (II) and (IV) D) Only (IV)

Answer: Option D

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 41

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Question 50: a

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A) The rate of energy return is highest for the largest sized mussels.

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B) The cost to benefit ratio for the crab is lowest when it consumes small sized mussels since
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the actual consumable food is least.
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C) The energy content of the medium sized mussels is the highest due to which the crabs
prefer them the most.

D) The time taken to find mussels and the ability of the crab to handle the mussels prior to
consumption influences prey selection.

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Answer: Option D
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Chemistry

Question 51:

Given that H₂SO₄ has pKₐ₁ = -3 and pKₐ₂ = 2, which option best describes a 0.1 M H₂SO₄
solution?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: Option D

Question 52:

A) 4, 5 B) 2, 5 C) 4, 3 D) 1, 4

Answer: Option B

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 41

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Question 53: a
The degeneracy of the first excited state of the H and He atoms are respectively (without considering
electron spin):

A) 4 and 1 B) 4 and 4 C) 3 and 1 D) 1 and 1

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Answer: Option A
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Question 54:
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Identify a
the option where all selected molecules possess permanent dipole moments at room
temperature.

A) B)

C) D)

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Answer: Option D
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Question 55:
a

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A) 1, 2, 6 B) 2, 4, 5 C) 4, 2, 6 D) 3, 4, 5
Answer: Option B
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Question 56:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option C

Question 57:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: Option C

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 41

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Question 58: a
Which of these pairs of compounds could be separated on the basis of their solubility in
water?

A) B)
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C)

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Answer: g la C ag
a Option

Question 59:

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a C) D)

Answer: Option B
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Question 60:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option A

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Mathematics a
Question 61:

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A)
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C) D)

Answer: Option B

Question 62:

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A) B)

e m
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las D)
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Answer: Option B

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Question 63:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option C

Question 64:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Answer: Option C

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 41

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Question 65: a

A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
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Answer: Option D

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Question 66:
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A) 16 B) 24 C) 32 D) 40

Answer: Option A

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Question 67:

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A) straight line B) circle C) parabola D) ellipse

Answer: Option D

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Question 68:
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A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option A
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Question 69:

A) B)

C) D)

Answer: Option D

Question 70:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: Option C

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 41

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Physics a

Question 71:

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B)
a
A)

g l
C)
a D)

Answer: Option D

Question 72:
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A) 100% B) 150% a C) 600% D) 900%

Answer: Option A

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Question 73:
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A) No other force B) Centrifugal force only

C) Coriolis force only D) Centrifugal force and Coriolis force

Answer: Option D

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Question 74:

−1
A) 2𝜋 −1 B) 2

−1
C) 4 −1 D) 2

Answer: Option B

Question 75:

A) 13 52 ± 5 B) 13 52 ± 6

C) 13 47 ± 3 D) 13 47 ± 5

Answer: Option C

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Question 76: a

A) Increasing the slit spacing d will result in larger angles for all orders of the spectrum, en-
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hancing the visibility of closely spaced wavelengths, thereby improving wavelength reso-
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lution.

s emslit spacing d will cause the diffraction angles to decrease for a fixed glas
B) Decreasing the

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wavelength, higher orders of the spectrum to be resolved without ovelapping,a
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thus improving wavelength resolution.

C) The wavelength resolution remains constant regardless of changes in slit spacing d; thus,
altering d only affects the intensity of the diffracted light, not the angle or order of the
spectrum.

D) Changing the slit spacing d affects the diffraction angles such that higher orders become
more closely spaced at smaller d, making it difficult to resolve them distinctly without in-

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creasing the distance to the screen.

Answer: Option D
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Question 77:
a

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10 20

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A) B)
a
3 3

C) 15 D) 20

Answer: Option A

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Question 78:

A) A B) B C) C D) D

Answer: Option B

Question 79:

A) B)

C)
D)

Answer: Option C

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 41

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Question 80: a

A) 170 nm B) 310 nm C) 440 nm D) 670 nm

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Answer: Option B
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Section II
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a Critical reasoning

Question 81:
Describe briefly any research topic of your interest in science education, OR mathematics
education, OR technology education. (Provide arguments for why that research is important,

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and outline the possible educational outcomes of the research you have described.) Please

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stick to a word limit of approximately 300 words.

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Question 82:
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a words each) on any ONE of the following three
Write a short essay (approximately 250
themes/issues in science education. Mention your essay serial number (for example, Essay
No. 2) at the start.
1) Skills/competencies/attitudes that can be nurtured by the science and mathematics
curriculum to students who decides to pursue STEM as well as non-STEM careers
2) Integration of computational thinking in science curricula

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3) Teaching about topics at the interface of science, ethics, and politics (for example climate

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change, vaccination, food safety, pollution or any other similar topic)
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s em Write a short essay (approximately 250 words each) on any ONE goflthea following three
g la a (for example, Essay
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themes/issues in science education. Mention your essay serial number
No. 2) at the start.
1) Celebrations, cultural practices & waste management.
2) Relationship between gender and STEM disciplines
3) Engaging students in scientific modelling exercise

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