RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 29 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 29 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 29/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements is/are true for a domestic circuit?

(i) All the appliances are connected in parallel.
(ii) The live wire in the domestic circuit has green insulation on it.
(iii) A fuse connected to the circuit allows excessive current to pass through the
appliances.
(iv) The neutral wire in the domestic circuits has black insulation on it.
Ans A. Both (i) and (iv)

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B. Both (ii) and (iv)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

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D. Both (ii) and (iii)

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Q.2
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According to Bohr's model, electromagnetic radiations possess dual character
properties behaving like:
Ans A. sound and waves

B. waves and particles

C. mass and magnetic effect

D. waves and electrons

Q.3 The right-hand thumb rule is used to find which of the following?
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Ans A. Resistance of the wire
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B. Direction of magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor

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s e C. Magnitude of current

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a Q.4 If a cell lacks a functional Golgi complex, it would mainly fail in __________.
Ans A. controlling cell division

B. packaging and secretion

C. formation of ATP

D. protein synthesis only

Q.5 Which description best defines cytoplasm?
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Ans A. Genetic material present in the form of chromatin

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B. Fluid content inside the plasma membrane containing organelles

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C. Rigid layer outside the plasma membrane providing support
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D. Network of tubes involved in protein trans
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Q.6 What are the products formed when metal carbonates react with an acid?
Ans A. Salt, water, carbon dioxide

B. Salt, water, carbon monoxide

C. Water, carbon dioxide

D. Salt, carbon monoxide

Q.7 At which location on the Earth's surface would a standard object experience the
maximum acceleration due to gravity (g)?
Ans A. Tropic of Cancer

B. The Poles

C. Tropic of Capricorn

D. The Equator

Q.8 Which of the following is a characteristic of the onset of puberty in boys?
Ans A. Growth of hairs on head

B. Growth of a moustache

C. Growth of pineal gland

D. Growth of liver

Q.9 Where is a reflex arc formed in the body?
Ans A. Hind brain

B. Muscle

C. Spinal cord

D. Fore brain

Q.10 The stethoscope works on which principle?
Ans A. Dispersion of sound

B. Diffraction of sound

C. Refraction of sound

D. Multiple reflection of sound

Q.11 Stars appear to twinkle in the night sky because ______.
Ans A. Light from stars undergoes atmospheric refraction

B. The distance between stars and Earth keeps varying

C. Stars move rapidly in the sky

D. They change their brightness continuously

Q.12 The unicellular organism amoeba has a __________ shape.
Ans A. sleeper

B. star

C. changing

D. fixed

Q.13 Which of the following is an example of compound?
Ans A. Sugar

B. Iron

C. Hydrogen

D. Mercury

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Q.14 What is the colour of copper oxide when it is added to the dilute sulphuric acid to
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forming a blue-green solution?

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Ans A. Green
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B. Black

C. Grey
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D. White

Q.15 Which of the following statements is true about an unbalanced force acting on an
object?
Ans A. It has no effect on the object’s state of motion.

B. It keeps the object at rest.

C. It brings the object in motion.
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D. It always increases the mass of the object.
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Q.16
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Read the given assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the most appropriate option.
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(A): The onset of puberty in females occurs earlier than in males, but both attain their
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final height by 18–20 years of age.
(R): Although puberty begins later in males, their growth spurt is more rapid than in
females.
Ans A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is false but (R) is true

D. (A) is true but (R) is false

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Q.17 For spherical mirrors of small apertures, the relation between the radius of curvature

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(R) and focal length (f) is:
Ans A. R = f/2

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B. R = f

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C. R = 2f

D. R = 3f ag
Q.18 Which of the following is the characteristic property of a non-metal?
Ans A. Sonorous

B. High melting point

C. Ductility

D. Poor conductor of electricity
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Q.19 What is the mass number of an element defined as?
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A. Number of neutrons

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D. Sum of the number of protons and neutrons

Q.20 Why are climate-resistance hybrid crop varieties important for future farming?
Ans A. Hybrid crops are easier to store

B. Hybrid crops are unaffected by unpredictable weather

C. Hybrid crops reduce the role of farmers

D. Hybrid crops look more attractive

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Q.21 In uniform circular motion, the speed of the body:
Ans A. changes continuously

B. depends on the radius only

C. remains constant

D. becomes zero at every point

Q.22 Select the correct statement for asexual reproduction in plants.
Ans A. It involves formation of gametes.

B. It occurs rapidly during unfavourable conditions.

C. It is found in both lower and higher plants.

D. It involves male and female flowers.

Q.23 Why do we spread cloths while putting them for drying in open sky?

a. Increasing the surface area will increase the rate of evaporation
b. Increase in wind speed will not allow the cloth to fly
c. To remove wrinkles
Ans A. Only a and c

B. a, b and c

C. Only a

D. Only a and b

Q.24 Bleaching powder is prepared by the reaction of:
Ans A. sodium hydroxide with chlorine gas

B. calcium carbonate with chlorine gas

C. calcium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid

D. calcium hydroxide with chlorine gas

Q.25 Which of the following is the correct unit for measuring the work done by a force?
Ans A. Pascal

B. Newton

C. Coulomb

D. Joule

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Preeti, Qadir and Reena invest sum in the ratio 2 : 8 : 13, respectively. If they earned
total profit of ₹87,193 at the end of year, then what is the positive difference between
share of Preeti and Reena?4910
Ans A. ₹41,703

B. ₹41,701

C. ₹41,702

D. ₹41,704

Q.27 The mode of the observations 21, 32, 34, 34, 34, 20, 32, 24, 34, 34, 20, 25, 29, 26 and 20
is:4287
Ans A. 20

B. 21

C. 32

D. 34

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Q.28 A seasoned marathoner, known for his steady pace, usually runs the first half of a race
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at 8 km/hr and the second half at 6 km/hr. However, due to fatigue and other factors, his

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under these reduced-speed conditions?
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B. 25 hours ag l
C. 17.5 hours

D. 15 hours

Q.29

Ans A. 65%

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B. 100%

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C. 50%

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D. 60%
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Q.30
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The expenditure of Sudha is 150% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
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by 3% and savings increase by 21.5%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 3%

B. 1%

C. 6%

D. 4%

Q.31 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 3 and 3 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
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Ans A. 3

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B. 6
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C. 2
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D. 4
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Q.32 Ravi bought a watch for ₹4,800, spent ₹200 on its repair, and sold it for ₹6,000. What is
his profit percentage?
Ans A. 25%

B. 27%

C. 20%

D. 22%
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Q.33 The amount on a sum of ₹5,000 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years, will be:
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D. ₹7,760

Q.34 The volume of a rectangular block of wood is 10,368 cm3. Its length, breadth and height
are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If its entire surface is polished at ₹2/cm2, then find the total
cost of polishing.
Ans A. ₹6,336

B. ₹7,135

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C. ₹6,436

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D. ₹6,356

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Q.35 Priya buys a mobile phone for her child. The phone is marked at ₹34,400 and is offered
with two successive discounts of 13% and Z%, respectively. After receiving both
discounts, she pays ₹22,446. Find the value of Z.
Ans A. 23

B. 25

C. 24

D. 26

Q.36 ₹8,200 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹19, ₹9 and ₹13 are deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 12:19:10. Find the difference
between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹1,787

B. ₹1,841

C. ₹1,691

D. ₹1,641

Q.37 Two engines of trains 28 km apart start towards each other at speeds of 23 km/hr and 89
km/hr, respectively. After how much time will they meet each other? (Assume the length
of engine is negligible)3620
Ans A. 17 minutes

B. 14 minutes

C. 13 minutes

D. 15 minutes

Q.38 The sum of two numbers is 54 and their LCM is 195. The two numbers are:2609
Ans A. 37, 17

B. 44, 10

C. 32, 22

D. 39, 15

Q.39 In an election with two candidates, Candidate A received 75% of the total valid votes. If
10% of the total 14,000 votes were declared invalid, how many valid votes did Candidate
B receive?
Ans A. 3150

B. 4450

C. 3500

D. 3750

Q.40 A, B and C together can complete a piece of work in 12 days, while A alone can
complete it in 20 days and C alone can complete it in 36 days. In how many days can B
alone complete the work?
Ans A. 60 days

B. 180 days

C. 150 days

D. 120 days

Q.41
Ans A. 115

B. 133

C. 127

D. 121

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Q.42 Three chairs and two tables together cost ₹600, two chairs and one table together cost
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₹350. The cost of four chairs is:

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Ans A. ₹200
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B. ₹400

C. ₹300
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D. ₹100

Q.43 Seven years ago from now, a man was five times as old as his son. Seven years from
now, the father will be three times as old as his son. Find the son's present age.
Ans A. 26 years

B. 38 years

C. 21 years
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D. 31 years

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Q.44
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In a quadrilateral QRST, Q = 74° and ∠ R = 39°. The bisectors of ∠ S and ∠ T meet at E.

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Ans A. 47°
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What is the measure of TES?

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B. 43° ag
C. 56.5°

D. 61.5°

Q.45 For 15 innings, a cricketer has an average of 94 runs. In the 16th inning, he scores 111
runs. His average score increased by _____. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole
number.)980
Ans A. 1

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B. 10

C. 2
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D. 7
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Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

Q.47 Sangeeta observes the top of a chimney at an angle of elevation of 45°. She is standing
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28.7 metres away from the base of the chimney, and her eye level is 1.3 metres above

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the ground. What is the total height (in metres) of the chimney?

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Ans A. 60

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Q.48

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

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Q.49 If the listed price of a bag is 85% more than its cost price and a discount of 49% is
announced on it, then find the loss percentage.
Ans A. 9.31%

B. 9.12%

C. 5.65%

D. 5.42%

Q.50 The number of prime numbers lying between 415 and 428 is:
Ans A. 7

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Seven friends, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
three people sit to the left of M. Only two people sit between M and L. Only three people
sit between S and N. S sits to the immediate left of L. O sits at some place to the left of
R but at some place to the right of Q. How many people sit between Q and R?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Four

D. Two

Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. DYR

B. AWO

C. VQJ

D. UPI

Q.53 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

13 − 54 × 9 ÷ 7 + 32 = ?
Ans A. 24

B. 26

C. 22

D. 23

Q.54 In a row of 50 people facing north, Rahul is 15th from the left end. If Sumit sits 4th to the
right of Rahul, what is Sumit’s position from the right end of the row?
Ans A. 31st

B. 32nd

C. 33rd

D. 30th

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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C. 19

D. 17

Q.56 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

RUS 36 PSQ 40 NQO 44 LOM 48 ?
Ans A. JLO 51

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B. JLJ 51
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C. JMK 52

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D. JNJ 52

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Q.57 If 2 is added to each even digit and 2 is added to each odd digit in the number 6345127,
what will be the sum of the last two and first two digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 28

B. 22

C. 26

D. 24

Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
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All geysers are fans.
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No fan is a refrigerator.

Conclusions: ag
(I): No geyser is a refrigerator.
(II): Some refrigerators are fans.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

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Q.59
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In a certain code language,
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‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

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‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
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s e ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
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How is N related to T if ‘C % T # E + P x N’?
A. Wife’s sister

B. Wife’s mother

C. Daughter’s husband

D. Sister’s husband

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Q.60 Balram starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 12 km, turns left and drives 16 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(All turns are 90 degree turns only unless specified)7010
Ans A. 3 km to the east

B. 4 km to the east

C. 2 km to the east

D. 1 km to the east

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 12 18 23 ? 34
Ans A. 30

B. 28

C. 29

D. 32

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. KI−JH

B. FD−EC

C. WU−VT

D. AY−YZ

Q.63 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A and D are
immediate neighbours of C. E is to the immediate left of D. A and F are not immediate
neighbours. Who sits third to the right of A?
Ans A. E

B. D

C. F

D. B

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

11, 36, 72, 121, 185, ?6344
Ans A. 268

B. 267

C. 265

D. 266

Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘drink fruit juice’ is coded as ‘if tg sd’ and ‘bring some fruit’
is coded as ‘if td za’. How is ‘fruit’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. tg

B. if

C. td

D. za

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Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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se Ans A. DGX

B. XDG ag l
C. XGD

D. DXG

Q.67 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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(13, 2, 9)
(18, 7, 14)
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Ans
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A. (23, 12, 19)
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B. (19, 7, 16)a ag
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C. (21, 9, 20)

D. (27 , 39, 47)

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘book news leaf’ is coded as ‘rk qh aa’ and ‘leaf gum boat’ is
coded as ‘vf rk xl’. How is ‘leaf’ coded in that language?
Ans A. aa

B. vf

C. rk
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D. qh

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Q.69 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate

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left of B. C sits third to the left of B. E is an immediate neighbour of B. F sits to the

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immediate right of C. E sits to the immediate left of A. Who sits at the extreme right end
of the line?
Ans A. B

B. E

C. A

D. F

Q.70 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 8 5 3 6 1 5 4 6 7 4 8 3 9 6 5 2 3 9 1 4 2 (Right)

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e mHow many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a

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perfect square and immediately followed by an odd number?

l a (NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square.)
ag
ag Ans A. Three

B. One

C. More than three

D. Two

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Q.71 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-
digit number only. Counting to be done from left to right,

(Left) 4 7 1 5 9 2 6 3 8 4 7 1 9 5 2 6 8 3 7 9 1 5 2 6 8 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

D. Five

Q.72 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 515 758 761 726 579 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations
to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?2426
Ans A. 9

B. 7

C. 6

D. 13

Q.73 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All markers are pens.
All markers are sketches.
All markers are chalks.

Conclusions:
(I): All pens are chalks.
(II): Some chalks are sketches.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.74 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 7 4 3 6 9 3 6 4 5 7 4 5 2 3 8 4 1 5 2 3 7 1 2 5 7 9 8 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.75 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
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will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 132 A 11 C 5 B 4 D 8 = ?
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se Ans A. 50

B. 24 ag l
C. 40

D. 32

Q.76 In a row of 54 people facing north, Geeta sits 19th from the left end. If only 19 people sit
between Barun and Geeta, then what is Barun’s position from the right end of the line?
Ans A. 16th

B. 17th
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C. 18th
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D. 19th
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Q.77
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LPBF is related to EIUY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
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same way, JNZD is related to CGSW. To which of the given options is OSEI related,
following the same logic?12877
Ans A. HBGF

B. HLXB

C. HLBX

D. HBXL

Q.78 Hanvi starts from Point L and drives 10 km towards the north. She then takes a right
turn, drives 15 km, turns right and drives 17 km. She then takes a right turn and drives
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15 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point L again?

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(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 2 km towards east
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B. 5 km towards south
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C. 5 km towards north

D. 6 km towards south

Q.79 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

DSV : HVX
LYZ : PBB
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Ans A. KSP : OXT

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B. UPG : YRK

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C. VPB : ATE

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g l a D. TED : XHF
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a Q.80 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

RQF : VTD
SLS : WOQ
Ans A. UFY : YIV

B. PLR : TOP

C. RCT : VFQ

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D. OCN : SEL

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81 Which Indian official chaired the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife
(SC-NBWL) meetings, recommending the revision of blanket 10-km ESZ guidelines in
mid-2025?
Ans A. Minister of Finance

B. Chief Justice of India

C. Minister of Environment

D. Minister of Agriculture

Q.82 Which Indian economist was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025?
Ans A. Jagdish Bhagwati

B. Jean Drèze

C. Bibek Debroy

D. Arvind Subramanian

Q.83 What maximum sustained wind speed range was forecast for Cyclone Montha before
landfall in October 2025?
Ans A. 60-70 km/h

B. 120-130 km/h

C. 140-150 km/h

D. 90-100 km/h

Q.84 On 8–9 November 2025, the Ministry of Home Affairs and the National Judicial Academy
hosted a national conference in Bhopal focusing on which area?
Ans A. Environmental Laws

B. Cybersecurity Regulations

C. New Criminal Laws

D. Labour Codes

Q.85 As reported in May 2025, which of the following banks of India provided in-principle
approval to PayPal and Worldline to operate as cross-border payment aggregators in
India?
Ans A. Indian Bank

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. State Bank of India

D. Bandhan Bank

Q.86 Researchers from which institutions discovered a new prion called SNG2 in January
2025?
Ans A. Delhi University and Council of Scientific & Industrial Research - Delhi

B. Amity University - Mohali and Institute of Microbial Technology - Chandigarh

C. IIT - Delhi and AIIMS - Delhi

D. IISc - Bengaluru and NIPER - Mohali

Q.87 In August 2025, which test marked the successful end-to-end demonstration of the
parachute-based deceleration system for the Gaganyaan crew module by ISRO?
Ans A. Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-01)

B. Crew Escape System Test (CES-01)

C. Crew Module Landing Test (CMLT-03)

D. Pad Abort Test (PAT-02)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.88 Which athlete set a pole vault world record with a clearance of 6.28 m in Wanda
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Diamond League meeting in Stockholm (June 2025)?

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Ans A. Armand Duplantis
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B. Sam Kendricks

C. Thiago Braz
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D. Renaud Lavillenie

Q.89 At the 2025 Janusz Kusociński Memorial held in Poland, what rank did Neeraj Chopra
achieve?
Ans A. First place

B. Second place

C. Third place
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D. Fourth place
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Q.90
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Which SAI venue in Chennai was scheduled to host the Athletics selection trials on 1
s em
February 2025?
s e l a
Ans
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A. Anna University
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B. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium

C. SDAT Nehru Park

D. Velachery Grounds

Q.91 Where is the Nomadic Elephant 2025 exercise held?
Ans A. Kathmandu

B. Thimphu

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C. New Delhi

D. Ulaanbaatar

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Q.92
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What proportion of women’s participation in police recruitment has been mandated

launched in September 2025?
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under the Uttar Pradesh government’s women empowerment policy, Mission Shakti 5.0,

Ans A. 25%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

Q.93 Who was appointed as the youngest US Ryder Cup captain since 1963?
Ans A. Dustin Johnson
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B. Phil Mickelson
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m.co C. Keegan Bradley
s e m
s e D. Tiger Woods
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a Q.94
Ans
What was the theme for World Environment Day (5 June 2025)?
A. Save the Oceans

B. Beat Plastic Pollution

C. End Deforestation

D. Clean Air Now

Q.95 Published in May 2025, Pavan K Varma’s Echoes of Eternity explores themes from
which of the following?
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Ans A. Indian thought from Rigveda onward

B. Indian economy
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C. Fictional mythology

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D. Political satire
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.96 When did the Reserve Bank of India make its first repo rate cut since May 2020?
Ans A. December 2024

B. February 2025

C. June 2025

D. April 2025

Q.97 According to the Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework
Progress Report, 2025, released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation, what was the forest cover in India as a percentage of its total
geographical area in 2023?
Ans A. 22.74%

B. 21.76%

C. 19.79%

D. 23.56%

Q.98 In the November 2025 bye-elections, which of the following political parties won the
bye-election from Nagrota (Jammu & Kashmir)?
Ans A. Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)

B. People's Democratic Party (PDP)

C. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

D. Indian National Congress (INC)

Q.99 Who became the fastest cricketer to reach 13,000 test runs as of June 2025?
Ans A. Virat Kohli

B. Rohit Sharma

C. Joe Root

D. Jacques Kallis

Q.100 Which body emphasised safety audits for women in public spaces during a symposium
in June 2025?
Ans A. National Commission for Women

B. Supreme Court of India

C. Ministry of Home Affairs

D. National Human Rights Commission

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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Test Date 29/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following represents non-uniform linear velocity?
Ans A. A body moving in a straight line at fixed speed

B. A car moving at constant speed

C. A train starting from rest

D. A ball rolling at uniform rate

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Q.2 Which of the following is a key feature of offsprings produced through vegetative
propagation?

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Ans
s
A. They are genetically identical to the parent plant.

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B. They are genetically diverse from the parent plant.

C. They always grow slower than seed-grown plants.

D. They require fertilisation to develop.

Q.3 What is the IUPAC rule for writing element symbols?
Ans A. Two lowercase letters always used (in case of two letters)

B. First letter uppercase, second lowercase (in case of two letters)

C. Symbols written in numeric codes
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D. Both letters always in uppercase form (in case of two letters)
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Q.4
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Which of the following statements best describes autotrophic nutrition?
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Ans A. It depends entirely on consuming other living organisms for food.
g l a
g l a B. It requires digestion of complex substances outside the body. a
a C. It involves direct absorption of organic compounds from other organisms.

D. It involves making food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight.

Q.5 Which is the main transport system in animals?
Ans A. Nervous system

B. Muscular system

C. Circulatory system
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D. Respiratory system

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following correctly matches a floral part with its primary biological
function in reproduction?
Ans A. Stamens – production of pollen grains

B. Pistil – attraction of pollinators

C. Petals – production of female gametes

D. Sepals – development of ovules

Q.7 When is the work done by a force considered negative?
Ans A. When there is no displacement

B. When the force acts in the same direction as displacement

C. When the force is zero

D. When the force acts opposite to the direction of displacement

Q.8 A science teacher asks students to measure the current through a bulb using an
ammeter. What precaution must the students follow?
Ans A. Connect the ammeter without a battery

B. Connect the ammeter with reversed polarity

C. Connect the ammeter in series with correct polarity

D. Connect the ammeter in parallel with the bulb

Q.9 For a given wave, if the speed becomes three times and the wavelength becomes three
times, the frequency ______.
Ans A. becomes nine times

B. becomes three times

C. becomes one-third

D. remains the same

Q.10 When applying the sign conventions for spherical lenses to measure object and image
distances, where are all measurements taken from?
Ans A. The optical centre of the lens

B. The centre of curvature

C. The principal focus

D. The pole of the lens

Q.11 When is a neutral salt formed?
Ans A. When weak acid reacts with strong base

B. When acid reacts with metal

C. When strong acid reacts with weak base

D. When strong acid reacts with strong base

Q.12 A small amount of copper oxide taken in a beaker and dilute hydrochloric acid is added
to it slowly while stirring, results in:
Ans A. formation of reddish-brown colour solution of copper sulphate

B. formation of bluish-green colour solution of copper chloride

C. formation of reddish-brown colour solution of copper chloride

D. formation of reddish-brown colour solution of cupric chloride

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.13 Which of the following methods will NOT help in the management of garbage and other
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wastes produced by humans?

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s
Ans A. Landfilling plastics in soil
m a
se B. Following 3R’s (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle)

C. Treating wastes before release ag l
D. Vermicomposting

Q.14 Which of the following statements is true?
Ans A. On increasing the number of turns per unit length in a solenoid, the strength of the magnetic field in the solenoid increases.

B. On increasing the resistance of the wire, the strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid increases.

C. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are circular.

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D. The magnetic field inside a solenoid carrying current does not depend on the strength of the current.
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Q.15 .co
If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed
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will be:
s e l a
Ans
l a
A. between focus and pole, virtual and erect
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B. at infinity, virtual and magnified

C. at the focus, real and diminished

D. at the centre of curvature itself, real and of the same size

Q.16 Which of the following statements are correct for benzene?

a. It is a six-membered cyclic carbon compound.
b. It has three single and three double bonds.
c. The molecular formula is C6H14.
m
Ans A. Only a and c

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B. a, b and c
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C. Only a and b
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D. Only b and c
a
Q.17 Which method is used to purify metals like Zinc and Copper?
Ans A. Smelting

B. Alloying

C. Roasting

D. Electrolytic refining

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Q.18
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Momentum (p) is a vector quantity. That means, momentum has both __________.
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Ans

m .co A. speed and time
s e m
s e B. mass and velocity

g l a
g l a C. magnitude and direction
a
a D. force and acceleration

Q.19 What does the Law of Conservation of Mass state?
Ans A. Energy can be converted into mass

B. Mass remains unchanged in reactions

C. Mass of reactants is always lost

D. Mass of products is always greater

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.20 Which of the following statements is correct about the definition of complex permanent
tissues?
Ans A. Complex permanent tissues are made up of similar type of cells.

B. Complex permanent tissues are made of simple permanent tissues.

C. Complex permanent tissues are made up of different types of cells performing different tasks.

D. Complex permanent tissues are made up of different types of cells performing similar tasks.

Q.21 In India, cows are classified under which scientific species name?
Ans A. Bos bubalis

B. Bos taurus

C. Bubalus bubalis

D. Bos indicus

Q.22 Which of these processes begins after pollen lands on the stigma of a flower?
Ans A. It develops into a seed directly.

B. The leaves begin photosynthesis immediately.

C. The petals open wider.

D. A pollen tube grows through the style to reach the ovary.

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT an application of Archimedes’ Principle?
Ans A. Measuring electrical resistance of a wire

B. Calculating buoyant force on a body in fluid

C. Submarine floating and diving

D. Determining the density of an irregular solid

Q.24 Which of the following is a pure substance consisting of only one type of atom?
Ans A. Sodium

B. Milk

C. Water

D. Air

Q.25 Which of the following species is reduced in the given reaction?

Ans A. H2O

B. Cu

C. H2

D. O

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The volume (in m3) of a cube with edges of 31 m is:
Ans A. 29791

B. 29898

C. 29595

D. 29959

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.27 If A6B59 is exactly divisible by 9, then find the least possible value of (A2+2B).
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Ans A. 14

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B. 21

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C. 13

D. 19
a
Q.28 The monthly incomes of two friends Chetan and Vipul, are in the ratio 5 : 9,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹51,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Chetan(in ₹).
Ans A. 86,000

B. 85,000

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C. 84,000

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D. 1,19,000

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Q.29
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The ratio of the ages of a wife and husband is 6 : 7 at present. If the sum of their ages
l as
as
after 20 years from now is 92, then find their present ages (in years), respectively.
l ag
ag
Ans A. 24, 28

B. 42, 49

C. 30, 42

D. 18, 21

Q.30 Two trains, Train A and Train B, are traveling towards each other on parallel tracks.
Train A is 150 meters long and moves at a speed of 72 km/h. Train B is 100 meters long
and moves at a speed of 54 km/h. How much time (rounded off to two decimal places)
will it take for Train A to completely pass Train B?
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Ans A. 6.14 seconds

B. 10.14 seconds
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C. 7.14 seconds
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D. 9.14 seconds
ag
Q.31 The price of fuel decreases by 15%, 30% and 60% in three successive months, but
increases by 60% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
Ans A. Decreases by 67.07%

B. Increases by 66.82%

C. Increases by 58.55%

D. Decreases by 61.92%
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Q.32

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In a quadrilateral EFGH, ∠ E = 52° and ∠ F = 37°. The bisectors of ∠ G and ∠ H meet at X.
What is the measure of ∠ HXG?
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a
Ans A. 37°

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B. 48.5°

C. 44.5°

D. 49°

Q.33 The ratio of three numbers is 12:14:4. If 25% of the first number is 18, then what would
30% of the difference between the third and second numbers be?
Ans A. 16

B. 19

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C. 17

D. 18
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.34 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 15 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 40 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 12

B. 7

C. 6

D. 13

Q.35 The amount on a sum of ₹5,200 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹7,105

B. ₹7,472

C. ₹7,488

D. ₹6,916

Q.36 The sum of two numbers is 74 and their difference is 12. Find the product of the two
numbers.
Ans A. 1433

B. 1233

C. 1333

D. 1533

Q.37 Simplify: 86 − (− 16) × (− 8 − 20 − 18) ÷ [1 × {10 + (− 2) × (− 3)}]
Ans A. 42

B. 40

C. 46

D. 31

Q.38 A shopkeeper sells 10 identical watches for ₹10,500, which is the cost price of 8
watches. Find his loss percentage.
Ans A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 40%

Q.39 The cost price of a dress is ₹1,600. The shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% on selling it.
If he offers a discount of 25% at the time of sale, find the marked price (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,380

B. 2,050

C. 2,560

D. 1,920

Q.40 A metallic sphere of unknown radius is melted and recast into
64 smaller spherical balls. During the recasting process, 20%
of the total metal is lost as waste. If the total volume of the 64
smaller spheres after the loss is 10,752 cm³, determine the
radius (rounded off to the nearest integer) of the original
sphere. (Use π = 3.14)
Ans A. 16 cm

B. 17 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 14 cm
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.41
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Ans A.

B.
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C.

D.

Q.42 What is the mode of the following data?

53, 53, 40, 49, 50, 48, 53, 50, 41, 40, 53, 45, 40, 47, 43, 52, 51, 42, 51, 53
Ans A. 53

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B. 40

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C. 49

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a
D. 50

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Q.43 The mean and the mode of a set of data are 20 and 88.7, respectively. Find the median
of the data, using the empirical formula.
Ans A. 42.5

B. 43.1

C. 42.9

D. 44.5

Q.44 An agent sells a turbo cooker with a marked price of ₹6,370 at a discount of 50%. What
is the selling price (in ₹) of the turbo cooker?
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Ans A. 2,548

B. 3,158
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C. 3,185
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D. 2,549
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Q.45
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

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Q.46 Two pipes, F and M, can fill a cistern in 25 minutes and 30 minutes, respectively. If both
m
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pipes are opened together, after how many minutes should pipe F be closed so that the
cistern is completely filled in 15 minutes?
e m
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Ans m A. 12.5 min
l as
l as B. 10 min
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ag C. 12 min

D. 15 min

Q.47 Sunita, Javed, and Rani invest ₹13,90,000, ₹4,70,000, and ₹15,40,000, respectively, to
start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹4,50,500, then what is the share
of Rani in the profit?
Ans A. ₹2,04,048

B. ₹2,04,052

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C. ₹2,04,053

D. ₹2,04,050
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Q.48 The distance between points A and B is 663 km. Amit travels from A to B at 131 km/hr
and returns at 24 km/hr. Calculate his average speed for the entire journey (rounded off
to two decimal places).
Ans A. 39.54 km/hr

B. 43.79 km/hr

C. 46.18 km/hr

D. 40.57 km/hr

Q.49

Ans A. 43.33%

B. 48.33%

C. 66.67%

D. 33.33%

Q.50 A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground which is 29.6 m
away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to
be 45°. Find the height of the tower.
Ans A. 27.6 m

B. 23.6 m

C. 29.6 m

D. 25.6 m

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 8 9 2 6 3 9 2 7 5 5 6 9 2 9 6 8 9 1 2 9 1 6 7 9 1 8 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GL - EJ

B. OT - MS

C. IN - GL

D. MR - KP

Q.53 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

UIR : WDP
FRO : HMM
Ans A. GHJ : ICG

B. KIT : MCR

C. LJQ : NEN

D. CPP : EKN

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
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the same order. D is kept immediately above Q. R is kept immediately above C. Only P

. is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept above D. R is not kept at third position from
e m
m
the bottom.
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How many boxes are kept between B and P?
Ans A. Three
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B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Q.55 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
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adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(12, 15, 720)
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(14, 11, 616)
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Ans A. (16, 11, 704)

B. (13, 10, 510)

C. (18, 9, 548)

D. (12, 9, 434)

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2 1 1 1.5 ? 7.5
Ans A. 4
m
B. 2

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C. 2.5
s e
D. 3
g la
Q.57
a
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

58 ÷ 11 + 624 × 13 − 471 = ?
Ans A. 1061

B. 1011

C. 1022

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D. 1032

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Q.58

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Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits at the extreme
right end of the row. D sits to the immediate left of A. Only B sits between C and E. How
s e m
s e many people sit between A and B?
g l a
g l a Ans A. 0
a
a B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans A. HLNR

m s e
B. INOS

s e l a
C. SWYC

g l a ag

D. VZBF
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All viruses are fungi.
Some viruses are bacteria.

Conclusions:
(I) Some fungi are bacteria.
(II) No fungi is a virus.
Ans A. Both follow

B. Neither follows

C. Only II follows

D. Only I follows

Q.61 A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C
sits fourth to the right of X. Only two people sit between Y and W when counted from
the left of Y. D sits third to the left of B. A is an immediate neighbour of B and W. How
many people between C and A when counted from the left of A?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q.62 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is Q related to N if ‘N % E – C % R # Q’?
Ans A. Husband’s father

B. Son’s wife

C. Father’s brother

D. Son’s daughter

Q.63 Rihan starts from Point A and drives 24 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 50 km, turns right and drives 51 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 63 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 27 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 11 km to the South

B. 17 km to the north

C. 15 km to the north

D. 13 km to the South

Q.64 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 1 5 1 9 8 6 6 9 9 4 1 6 7 8 3 7 2 1 3 5 3 5 1 6 2 8 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.65 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 715, 906, 570, 853, 418 (Right)

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m a
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(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right. ag
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 6

B. 7

C. 13

D. 8

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Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
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REN VBR ZYV DVZ ?
e m l as
Ans A. GSC
l as ag
B. IRC
ag
C. GTE

D. HSD

Q.67 Town I is to the north of Town F. Town H is to the east of Town I. Town J is to the east of
Town H. Town G is to the north of Town J. What is the position of Town F with respect
to Town G?
Ans A. East

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B. Southwest

C. Northeast
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D. North
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Q.68 ag
In a certain code language, ‘ELMS’ is coded as ‘4892’ and ‘ALES’ is coded as
‘7428’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 4

B. 8

C. 7

D. 2

Q.69 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
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single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) 9 5 4 3 9 4 2 5 8 8 2 1 9 7 1 7 4 9 8 8 8 3 2 1 5 2 8 (Right)
s e m
s e How many such even numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is
g l a
g l a immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even
number?6624 a
a Ans A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 5

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

DBC−YWX
KIJ−FDE
Ans A. ROO−LJK

B. ROO−MKL

C. RPQ−MKL

D. RPQ−LKK

Q.71 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

45 − 54 × 6 + 12 ÷ 1 = ?
Ans A. 42

B. 46

C. 44

D. 40

Q.72 Seven friends D, E, F, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only
three people are seated to the left of D. Only E is seated to the right of W. Only three
people are seated between W and X. V is seated at some place to the left of U but at
some place to the right of F. How many people are seated between F and U?11035
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

45 ? 57 63 69 75
Ans A. 51

B. 47

C. 53

D. 62

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at
variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All pans are cups.
All cups are bottles.
Some cups are mugs.

Conclusions:
(I): Some bottles are mugs.
(II): Some pans are mugs.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.75 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
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question mark (?) in the following equation?

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18 + 4 − 6 ÷ 46 × 2 = ?
as
se Ans A. 21

B. 14 ag l
C. 11

D. 17

Q.76 Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only two boxes are kept below W. Only two boxes are kept between W
and U. Only one box is kept between U and E. X is kept immediately above V. F is kept
at some place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and X?

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Ans A. Three

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B. Four

C. One
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D. Two
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Q.77 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

120 135 155 180 210 ?
Ans A. 240

B. 230

C. 245

D. 233

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Q.78 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

e m
XBF 84 IMQ 92 TXB 100 EIM 108 ?

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Ans A. PTX 116

B. PUW 116 ag
C. PSW 115

D. PRU 115

Q.79 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

DL – IQ – NV
FN – KS – PX
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Ans
m
A. RM – QT – PR
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m .co B. PL – RN – TP
s e m
s e C. UW – YZ – SU
g l a
g l a D. BJ – GO – LT a
a Q.80 In a certain code language, ‘POKE’ is coded as ‘8469’ and ‘KIND’ is coded as ‘2387’.
What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 8

B. 2

C. 6

D. 4

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Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.81 Which government body introduced the FASTag annual pass?
Ans A. National Highways Authority of India

B. Indian Roadways Development Council

C. Ministry of Rural Infrastructure and Bridges

D. Directorate of National Toll and Transit

Q.82 In 2025, who broke the women's mile world record with a time of 4:06.42 at Nike’s
Breaking event in Paris?
Ans A. Laura Muir

B. Sifan Hassan

C. Genzebe Dibaba

D. Faith Kipyegon

Q.83 In which event did Suruchi Singh win a gold medal at the ISSF World Cup, 2025, in
Munich?
Ans A. Women’s 50m rifle

B. Women’s 10m air pistol

C. Women’s 25m pistol

D. Women’s trap shooting

Q.84 Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath launched which book on public etiquette in May 2025?
Ans A. Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan

B. The Divine Kumbh

C. Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar

D. Rajal Neeti: Time Management

Q.85 Which of the following initiatives was launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs in
2025 to improve the implementation of tribal welfare schemes?
Ans A. Tribal Pragati Mission

B. Adi Karmyogi

C. Janjatiya Jyoti Abhiyan

D. Van Dhan 2.0

Q.86 In September 2025, Justice Shree Chandrashekhar took oath as the Chief Justice of
which High Court, following his appointment by the Government of India?
Ans A. Bombay High Court

B. Calcutta High Court

C. Rajasthan High Court

D. Delhi High Court

Q.87 At the 23rd National Para Athletics Championships 2025 in Chennai's Nehru Stadium,
which state claimed the top position in the combined men's and women's team
standings?
Ans A. Tamil Nadu

B. Haryana

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.88 In August 2025, which of the following African countries was officially declared free of
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sleeping sickness by the World Health Organization (WHO)?

. e m
s
Ans A. Uganda
m a
se B. Kenya

C. Ghana ag l
D. Nigeria

Q.89 In June 2025, a London-bound Air India aircraft crashed shortly after taking off from
which airport?
Ans A. Delhi Airport

B. Ahmedabad Airport

C. Chennai Airport
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D. Kolkata Airport

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Q.90
e m
What was the theme of the 28th National Conference on e-Governance scheduled for 22
l as
as
and 23 September 2025 in Visakhapatnam?
l ag
ag
Ans A. Digital India: Inclusive Growth

B. AI in Governance: Future Pathways

C. Viksit Bharat: Civil Service and Digital Transformation

D. e-Governance for Sustainable Development

Q.91 What is the name of the new regulatory body formed by the Reserve Bank of India in
May 2025 to supervise India’s payment systems?
Ans A. Payments Regulatory Board

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B. Unified Financial Authority

C. Payments Governance Authority
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D. National Payments Council
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Q.92 ag
What is the purpose of introducing Sugar Boards in CBSE schools, as reported in May
2025?
Ans A. To educate about sugar risks

B. To teach hygiene practices

C. To encourage sports activities

D. To promote physical education

Q.93 In October 2025, the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA) published
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the PM2.5 air quality assessment of Indian cities. What does PM2.5 refer to?
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Ans A. Sulphur dioxide emissions released from industrial units

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B. Ground-level ozone produced during photochemical reactions

g l a
g l a C. Carbon monoxide generated from incomplete combustion
a
a D. Fine particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or smaller

Q.94 In June 2025, Rajkishore Parhi was chosen for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar for poetry
collection, ‘Kete Phula Phutichhi', in which language?
Ans A. Bhojpuri

B. Tamil

C. Telegu

D. Odia
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.95 The Indian Armed Forces contingent participating in the multilateral joint military
exercise ZAPAD 2025 is being led by which regiment of the Indian Army?
Ans A. Gorkha Regiment

B. Sikh Regiment

C. Rajput Regiment

D. Kumaon Regiment

Q.96 In July 2025, which of the following firms entered into a binding agreement to form a
50:50 domestic reinsurance joint venture to serve the insurance market in India?
Ans A. Allianz with Jio Financial Services

B. Swiss Re with Axis Bank

C. Lloyd’s with PayU

D. Munich Re with Paytm

Q.97 Recently, who has taken over as president of industry body ASSOCHAM for 2024-25?
Ans A. Suresh Nayar

B. Pankaj Nayar

C. Akhilesh Nayar

D. Sanjay Nayar

Q.98 Which landmark treaty, aimed at protecting the high seas, achieved its final ratification
push during the UN Ocean Conference in June 2025?
Ans A. Convention on Wetlands (Ramsar Convention)

B. Paris Agreement on climate change

C. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

D. Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement

Q.99 Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary reopened for the 2025–26 tourist season in which Indian
state?
Ans A. Assam

B. West Bengal

C. Meghalaya

D. Odisha

Q.100 What rank did Neeraj Chopra achieve during the Doha Diamond League competition of
2025?
Ans A. Second

B. First

C. Third

D. Fourth

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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Test Date 29/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 How can you identify a concave and a convex mirror based on the direction of their
reflecting surfaces?
Ans A. A concave mirror has its reflecting surface curved inward; a convex mirror has its reflecting surface curved outward.

B. A concave mirror and a convex mirror both reflect inward.

C. A concave mirror reflects light outward, while a convex mirror reflects it inward.

D. Both concave and convex mirrors have the same reflecting surface direction.
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Which of the following is abiotic factor responsible for storage losses in agricultural
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produce?
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Ans A. Insects

B. Moisture
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C. Fungi

D. Rodents

Q.3 Why are grains first dried in sunlight and then in shade before storage?
Ans A. To reduce the colour of grains

B. To reduce moisture content and prevent spoilage

C. To save time
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D. To make them soft

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Q.4 mAn object is placed at 35.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 25.0 cm. At
l as
l as what distance from the mirror an image is formed?
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ag Ans A. 10 cm

B. 8.75 cm

C. - 87.5 cm

D. - 8.75 cm

Q.5 Conventionally, what is the assigned direction of electric current in an electric circuit,
given the flow of electrons?
Ans A. Same as the movement of molecules

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B. Opposite to the flow of electrons

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C. Opposite to the flow of positive charges

l as
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D. Same as the movement of atoms
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor:
Ans A. forms concentric circles around the conductor

B. points along the conductor

C. points radially outward

D. is zero

Q.7 Which of the following correctly represents the strength of attraction between particles
in the three states of matter?
Ans A. Gas > Liquid > Solid

B. Gas < Liquid < Solid

C. Solid > Gas > Liquid

D. Solid < Liquid < Gas

Q.8 What name is given to the flat, stacked sacs that make up the Golgi apparatus?
Ans A. Cristae

B. Thylakoids

C. Cisternae

D. Vesicles

Q.9 If the frequency of a vibrating object is 50 Hz, what is its time period?
Ans A. 5 s

B. 2 s

C. 0.02 s

D. 0.2 s

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT applicable to the Law of Constant Proportion?
Ans A. Ionic Compounds

B. Elements

C. Compounds

D. Mixtures

Q.11 Ethanoic acid reacts with alcohols to form what compound?
Ans A. Ketone

B. Esters

C. Alcohols

D. Aldehyde

Q.12 Which structural feature contributes to the high reactivity of unsaturated organic
compounds?
Ans A. Incomplete formation of the carbon atom backbone structure

B. Presence of halogen atoms attached to the carbon framework

C. Existence of double or triple bonds between carbon atoms

D. Total absence of hydrogen atoms within the compound molecule

Q.13 For uniformly accelerated motion, which of the following is true about the velocity–time
graph?
Ans A. The graph is always curved because velocity changes irregularly.

B. The graph is a straight line because velocity changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time.

C. The graph can have any shape depending on the motion.

D. The graph is horizontal because velocity remains constant.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.14 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.
m
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Statement B: Farmers use pH values to decide the type of fertiliser to add.

se Ans A. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
g l a
B. Both statements A and B are incorrect. a
C. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

D. Both statements A and B are correct.

Q.15 Even though ovulation occurs regularly in a female, the uterus lining is shed during
menstruation each month. What does this suggest about fertilisation?
Ans A. The uterus is rejecting the embryo

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B. Fertilisation is occurring each time

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C. Fertilisation is not occurring

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D. The ovary is not releasing eggs

l as
Q.16
l as
Where does the heat energy go when the solid melts but its temperature remains the
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same?
Ans A. It is used to overcome the forces of attraction between the particles.

B. It is used to overcome the forces of repulsion between the particles.

C. It is lost to the surroundings while overcoming the forces of repulsion.

D. It is lost to the surroundings while overcoming the forces of attraction.

Q.17 A stone falls freely and covers a distance (s) 20 m in time (t) 2.0 s. What is the value of
acceleration due to gravity (g)?

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Ans A. 20.0 m/s2

B. 8.0 m/s2
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C. 12.0 m/s2
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D. 10.0 m/s2
ag
Q.18 Isotopes of an element have the same number of __________.
Ans A. Neutrons

B. Protons

C. Nucleus

D. Electrons

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Q.19 Why do passengers in a moving car tend to jerk forward when the brakes are suddenly
m
applied?
Ans

m .co A. Because the brakes push the passengers forward
s e m
s e B. Because of the inertia of motion that keeps the body moving forward
g l a
g l a C. Due to the force applied by the engine a
a D. Because of the friction between the seat and the body

Q.20 In human females, if the egg is not fertilised, the monthly shedding of the uterine lining
is called which of the following?
Ans A. Menstruation

B. Maturation

C. Fertilisation

D. Maintenance
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.21 Life on earth depends on ______ molecules as the main source of energy for all
organisms.
Ans A. oxygen-based

B. protein-based

C. carbon-based

D. nitrogen-based

Q.22 Why are vesicles important in the functioning of the Golgi apparatus?
Ans A. They generate energy needed for packaging in Golgi apparatus

B. They digest waste materials

C. They help in forming the nucleus

D. They carry materials to and from the Golgi apparatus

Q.23 Which of the following is produced when a carbon compound undergoes complete
combustion?
Ans A. Carbon monoxide and water

B. Carbon and oxygen

C. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen

D. Carbon dioxide and water

Q.24 A block of mass 1 kg is dropped from the top of a building of height 20 m. What will be
the velocity with which the block hits the ground?
(Take the value of g = 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 20 m/s

B. 40 m/s

C. √20 m/s

D. √40 m/s

Q.25 What happens in the female body if the egg is NOT fertilised?
Ans A. The uterine lining breaks down and is expelled as blood and mucous.

B. The egg remains in the uterus and turns into an embryo.

C. The ovary stops releasing eggs permanently.

D. The thick uterine lining is retained permanently.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A water tank can be filled in 13 minutes using 46 identical pipes. How long (in minutes)
will it take to fill the same tank if only 27 such pipes are used? (Round off the answer to
two decimal places.)
Ans A. 13.33

B. 20.82

C. 22.15

D. 15.63

Q.27 The average age of 23 students of a class is 41 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 42 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 64

B. 66

C. 62

D. 65

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.28 Radha has ₹10 and ₹5 coins. She has a total of 15 coins worth ₹85. How many coins of
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₹5 does she have?

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Ans A. 8
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se B. 13

C. 7 ag l
D. 5

Q.29 A camp has provisions for 20 pupils for 13 days. In how many days will the same
provisions be used up, if the strength of the camp is increased to 65 pupils?
Ans A. 5

B. 3

C. 4
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D. 7

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Q.30
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A shopkeeper declares the following three schemes of discounts. Which scheme is the
l as
l as
most beneficial to a customer?
A. Buy 42 items and get 47 of the same items
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B. Two successive discounts of 16% and 36%
C. Two successive equal discounts of 46%322
Ans A. Only A

B. C and B both

C. Only C

D. Only B

Q.31 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 6 and 2 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
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Ans A. 6

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B. 4
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C. 3
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D. 2 a
Q.32 A cylindrical pillar has a diameter of 10 cm and a height of 35 cm. The curved surface is
to be painted at a cost of ₹12/cm2. If a 10% discount is offered on the total painting

cost, how much will be paid? (Use π = )

Ans A. ₹11,550

B. ₹11,660
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C. ₹11,880

m .co D. ₹11,770
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g l a Q.33 For 5 innings, a cricketer has an average of 80 runs. In the 6th inning, he scores 194
runs. His average score increased by _______. a
a Ans A. 21

B. 26

C. 29

D. 19

Q.34 A train travels at 84.6 km/hr. How many metres will it travel in 20 minutes?
Ans A. 28,200

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B. 26,200

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C. 26,400

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D. 24,600

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.35 The amount on a sum of ₹7,300 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹8,251

B. ₹8,833

C. ₹9,391

D. ₹8,444

Q.36

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.37

11130
Ans A. 93 minutes

B. 91 minutes

C. 90 minutes

D. 85 minutes

Q.38 In an election, the winner gets 80% of the total valid votes. If 18% are invalid votes out
of 2,00,000 votes, then the votes polled in favour of the winner are:6491
Ans A. 1,21,300

B. 1,13,200

C. 1,31,200

D. 1,32,100

Q.39 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 18°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 2 : 7, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 20°

B. 16°

C. 17°

D. 13°

Q.40 If the fourth proportional to 8, X and 15 is 135, then find the value of X.4888
Ans A. 71

B. 73

C. 74

D. 72

Q.41 The length of a rectangular field is (2x + y2) m and breadth is (2x − y2) m. Find the area
of the rectangular field when x = 2 and y = 1.
Ans A. 26 m2

B. 29 m2

C. 15 m2

D. 12 m2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.42 The price of fuel decreases by 10%, 45% and 55% in three successive months, but
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increases by 55% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the

. price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off the
e m
m
answer to two decimal places.)
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se Ans A. Increases by 63.38%

B. Decreases by 64.94% ag l
C. Increases by 70.18%

D. Decreases by 65.47%

Q.43

Ans A. 47.65 m3
m
B. 36.35 m3
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C. 58.21 m3
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D. 28.31 m3
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Q.44
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A shopkeeper buys 20 pens for a total of ₹200. He sells each pen for ₹12. What is his
total profit?
Ans A. ₹20

B. ₹30

C. ₹60

D. ₹40

Q.45 Reena is 5 years older than Meena. Eight years ago from now, Reena's age was twice
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the age of Meena. Find the present age of Reena.
Ans A. 18 years

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B. 21 years

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C. 26 years

D. 32 years ag
Q.46 In triangle XYZ, sides XY = 12 cm, YZ = 15 cm and angle ∠ Y = 120°. What is the length of
side XZ?
Ans A.

B.

C.
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m
D.
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Q.47 Raj’s monthly income is ₹50,000. He spends 40% of his income on household expenses
and saves the remaining amount. If his income increases by 10%, and his expenditure
g l a
g l a on household expenses remains the same percentage of his income, calculate the
a
a Ans
amount (in ₹) he saves after the increment.6425
A. 33,000

B. 31,500

C. 31,000

D. 33,500

Q.48 A dealer allowed a 23% discount on an article and was still able to manage a 44% profit.
Find the ratio of the cost price to the listed price.

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Ans A. 76 : 146

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B. 74 : 149
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C. 77 : 144
l as ag

D. 78 : 151
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.49 A total profit of ₹13,800 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C such that A : B = 20 : 2
and B : C = 1 : 4. The share (in ₹) of B in the profit is:
Ans A. 820

B. 1,070

C. 870

D. 920

Q.50 Find the HCF of the numbers 4220, 5440 and 6880.
Ans A. 60

B. 40

C. 20

D. 80

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

AQE3, DOH6, GMK9, ?
Ans A. KLN12

B. JKM10

C. KLM10

D. JKN12

Q.52 In a row of 50 people facing north, Amit sits 17th from the left end. If only 18 people sit
to the right of Vilas, then how many people sit between Amit and Vilas?
Ans A. 12

B. 16

C. 14

D. 15

Q.53 In a row of all 95 students facing the north, Mr. Hepa is 9th from the right end. If Mr.
Annu is 13th to the left of Mr. Hepa, what is Mr. Annu's position from the left end of the
row?
Ans A. 76th

B. 75th

C. 73rd

D. 74th

Q.54 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

NF-KC-HJ
LD-IA-FH
Ans A. SL-QI-NO

B. TL-QI-NO

C. TL-QI-NP

D. SL-RI-NO

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.55 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
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place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. e m
m
16 × 4 + 3 − 4 ÷ 8 = ?
as
se Ans A. 13

B. 4 ag l
C. 0

D. 8

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

102 80 58 36 14 ?
Ans A. −8
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B. −6

C. −4

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D. 0
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ag
Q.57 EIJI is related to JNON in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PTUT is related to UYZY. To which of the given options is IMNM related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. NRRR

B. NSRY

C. NQRR

D. NRSR

Q.58
m
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

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are single-digit numbers only).

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(Left) 4 6 5 6 3 2 8 3 3 5 2 8 5 2 4 8 1 4 1 3 5 5 9 9 3 9 6 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right), each of which is immediately

Ans ag
preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Q.59 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

m
.co
(Left) 4 3 3 5 3 9 5 4 4 3 8 7 9 8 8 1 1 3 2 5 9 1 8 7 1 5 6 (Right)
m
m .co
How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?6700
s e m
s e
Ans
g l a
a
A. 4

g l B. 5 a
a C. 2

D. 3

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All mangoes are artists.
All kiwis are mangoes.

Conclusions:
(I): All kiwis are artists
(II): Some artists are kiwis
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1101 1104 1108 1113 1119 ?
Ans A. 1124

B. 1126

C. 1123

D. 1125

Q.62 In a certain code language, DTWG is coded as 42 and RAYI is coded as 43. What is the
code for OZES in that language?
Ans A. 28

B. 37

C. 31

D. 35

Q.63 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits third to
the right of C. A sits second to the left of C. E sits second to the right of F. B sits to the
immediate right of E. How many people sit between A and F when counted from the left
of A?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. None

D. One

Q.64 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 © % © 7 # 5 % 5 4 2 # © 5 6 2 © $ € 1 € 8 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. 8

B. 3

C. 9

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

m
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Q.65 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
m
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63157842, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus

. formed?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 2

g l
B. 3

C. 1
a
D. 4

Q.66 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
A sits second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between A
and B. C sits second to the right of B. Only three people sit between C and D. F sits
second to the left of D. E sits at one of the positions to the right of G.
How many people sit between A and G?

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Ans A. One

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B. Two

C. Three
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s e l a
a ag
D. None
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Q.67 ag
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

COP20 , WIJ27 , QCD34 , KWX41 , ?
Ans A. EQR48

B. EOR48

C. EQP48

D. ELR48
m
Q.68 In a certain code language,
m .co
A x B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
s e
A ÷ B means ‘A is the son of B’ and
g la
a
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is K related to Q if ‘K x M − N + P ÷ Q’?
Ans A. Daughter's son

B. Wife's father

C. Wife's brother

D. Mother's father

Q.69 Prayansh starts from point A and drives 34 km towards the north. He then takes a left
m
.co
turn, drives 41 km, turns left and drives 56 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 63
m
.co
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 22 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?
e m
e m (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)

l as
l asAns A. 23 km to the west
ag
ag B. 20 km to the east

C. 21 km to the east

D. 22 km to the west

Q.70 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
4593867, which of the following digits will be second from the left in the new number
thus formed?
Ans A. 5

B. 3
m .
C. 8

m .co s e m
D. 9
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.71 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(17, 25, 59)
(5, 13, 35)3161
Ans A. (9, 17, 25)

B. (11, 19, 48)

C. (13, 21, 51)

D. (15, 7, 23)

Q.72 In a certain code language, ‘HAVE’ is coded as ‘4579’ and ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘2438’.
What is the code for ‘V’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 8

B. 2

C. 4

D. 7

Q.73 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 4 4 9 8 8 6 8 4 2 1 1 8 5 9 8 5 7 1 8 6 2 7 2 9 2 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All helmets are mats.
All helmets are bottles.

Conclusions:
(I): Some mats are bottles.
(II): All bottles are helmets.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.75 Eight people (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W) are sitting around a circular table, facing
towards the centre.
There are exactly three people sitting between U and V. P is an immediate neighbour of
both T and Q. Q sits to the immediate right of U. W is an immediate neighbour of both R
and S. R sits second to the right of T.
How many people sit between W and Q, when counted from the right of W?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

m
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Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 28 39 52 67 84 ?

s e m
m a
se
Ans A. 105

g l
B. 103

C. 104
a
D. 102

Q.77 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)

m
.co
Ans A. BG – EL

m
.co m
B. KF – MK

C. OP – QU
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. SZ – UE
l
Q.78 ag
LHIG is related to DZAY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, XTUS is related to PLMK. To which of the following is NJKI related, following
the same logic?
Ans A. FCBK

B. FBBA

C. FBCA

D. FABA

m
.co
Q.79 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
e m
position in the letter-cluster.)
las
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans A. CF-JE
ag
B. AD-HB

C. GJ-NI

D. EH-LG

Q.80 Sachin ran 15 metres east from the starting point A. He then took a left turn and ran 25
metres, after which he took a right turn and ran another 5 metres. He took one last right
turn and ran 25 metres until he reached point B. How far and in which direction should
he run in order to reach point A? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
m
Ans
mA. 20 metres towards the west
.co
m .co B. 25 metres towards the east
s e m
s e C. 22 metres towards the west
g l a
g l a D. 20 metres towards the east a
a
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which international agency raised concerns leading to amendments in India’s anti-
doping law in July 2025?
Ans A. International Olympic Committee (IOC)

B. World Health Organization (WHO)

C. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
m .
.co m
D. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.82 With which of the following government bodies, did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
collaborate in June 2025 to curb spam loan and credit‑card calls?
Ans A. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)

B. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)

C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

D. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

Q.83 Who was named Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability at the 2025 Laureus
Awards?
Ans A. Sophie Pascoe

B. Ellie Simmonds

C. Liu Yaxin

D. Jiang Yuyan

Q.84 In which of the following states was the Skill Development Centre inaugurated under
the ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram’ scheme in July 2025?
Ans A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Punjab

D. Kerala

Q.85 Which two companies signed a Joint Venture Cooperation Agreement (JVCA) for the
production of HAMMER smart precision guided Air-to-Ground weapons in India in
November 2025?
Ans A. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) & Thales Group

B. Larsen & Toubro (L&T) & Raytheon Technologies Corporation

C. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) & Lockheed Martin Corporation

D. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) & Safran Electronics and Defence (SED)

Q.86 South Africa ended a 27-year wait for a major cricket title by winning which
tournament?
Ans A. ICC T20 World Cup

B. ICC Cricket World Cup

C. World Test Championship

D. Champions Trophy

Q.87 The annual elephant rejuvenation camp held in September 2025 was conducted in
which of the following tiger reserves of Madhya Pradesh?
Ans A. Sanjay Tiger Reserve

B. Kanha Tiger Reserve

C. Satpura Tiger Reserve

D. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve

Q.88 Which of the following measures did the Delhi government and IIT Kanpur attempt in
October 2025 to clear smog that eventually proved unsuccessful due to low
atmospheric moisture?
Ans A. Cloud-seeding to induce artificial rain

B. Deploying large-scale air purifiers in all public parks

C. Imposing a city-wide vehicle ban

D. Restricting industrial operations for one week

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

m
.co
Q.89 In January 2025, Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma inaugurated the 6th Meghalaya
m
co
Games at which venue in Jowai?

. e m
m
Ans A. Shillong Sports Complex

as
se B. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium

C. Tura Indoor Stadium ag l
D. Wahiajer Multi Sports Complex Stadium

Q.90 Which city hosted the Kho Kho World Cup from 13 to 19 January 2025?
Ans A. Chennai

B. New Delhi

C. Mumbai
m
.co
D. Kolkata
m
Q.91
m .co
According to the IMF World Economic Outlook, 2025, which of the following countries
s em
e
is projected to have the highest GDP growth among major economies?
s l a
Ans A. Japan
l a ag
ag
B. The United States of America

C. India

D. China

Q.92 Who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Delhi following the 2025 elections?
Ans A. Atishi Marlena

B. Rekha Gupta

m
.co
C. Manish Sisodia

D. Arvind Kejriwal

e m
Q.93
las
Dr. C Anandharamakrishnan received the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024 in the Vigyan

Ans ag
Shri category for his contribution to the field of ______.
A. Atomic Energy

B. Medicine

C. Agricultural Science

D. Biological Science

Q.94 In March 2025, the government of which of the following states announced to bring
5,000 hectares under afforestation during the year 2025-2026?

m
.co
Ans A. Kerala

m
.co m
B. Himachal Pradesh

m s e
a
C. Odisha

s e g l
g l a D. West Bengal
a
a Q.95 Which new private reinsurer entered the Indian market in March 2025?
Ans A. General Re

B. ABC Reinsurance

C. Valueattics Reinsurance

D. Falcon Re

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.96 Which veteran actor and dancer, noted for her appearances in films like ‘Navrang’ and
‘Pinjra’, passed away in October 2025?
Ans A. Sulakshana Pandit

B. Jyoti Chandekar

C. Sandhya Shantaram

D. Madhumati

Q.97 ‘Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan’ offering RSS insights, was authored by which
politician published in May 2025?
Ans A. Nitin Gadkari

B. Yogi Adityanath

C. Amit Shah

D. Shashi Tharoor

Q.98 Which of the following commands participated in the successful combat launch of the
BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile by the Indian Army in December 2025 from a test
range in the Bay of Bengal?
Ans A. Western Command

B. Northern Command

C. Eastern Command

D. Southern Command

Q.99 In November 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched India’s
inaugural analog space mission at __________ with an aim to simulate interplanetary
habitat conditions and helping scientists explore the feasibility of establishing a
sustainable base station beyond Earth.
Ans A. Chandipur

B. Tawang

C. Pokhran

D. Leh

Q.100 The International Monetary Fund (IMF) sanctioned $2.3bn fund to which of the following
countries in May 2025?
Ans A. Syria

B. Sri Lanka

C. Ukraine

D. Pakistan

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48