PU MET 2027 Sample Paper

PU MET Sample Paper 2027
Panjab University Management Entrance Test (MBA Sectoral, UIAMS) · Practice Paper
ADMISSION
1

Questions Marks Time Negative marking
120 MCQs 120 2 hours 1/4 per wrong
answer

Part Section Questions Q. No.
Section I General Knowledge 20 1 to 20

Section II Economics and Business Environment Awareness 20 21 to 40
Section III Data Interpretation, Problem Solving and Numerical Ability 40 41 to 80
Section IV Verbal Ability / Reasoning 20 81 to 100
Section V English Comprehension 20 101 to 120

Instructions
1. There are 120 multiple-choice questions in five sections. Each question has four options (A, B, C, D); choose the
one correct answer.
2. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and 1/4 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. Unattempted questions get
0.
3. Attempt the paper in one sitting of 2 hours, as in the real pen-and-paper OMR test. Calculators are not allowed.
4. The paper is in English only, as in the real PU MET.
5. The answer key and solutions are at the end. Check them only after you finish.

This is an AglaSem practice paper written on the official PU MET pattern (120 MCQs, 2 hours, 1/4 negative marking) and the six
test components listed in the Panjab University prospectus. It is not an official Panjab University paper, and its questions are
original.

Section I

General Knowledge
1. The Reserve Bank of India began operations in the year:
(A) 1947 (B) 1935
(C) 1950 (D) 1949

2. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in:
(A) New York (B) Washington, D.C.
(C) Geneva (D) Vienna

3. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council?
(A) Article 269A (B) Article 280
(C) Article 279A (D) Article 246A

4. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) got statutory powers in:
(A) 2000 (B) 1995
(C) 1988 (D) 1992

5. The Bretton Woods Conference of 1944 led to the creation of:
(A) The WTO and the IMF (B) The UN and UNESCO
(C) The ADB and the World Bank (D) The IMF and the World Bank

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6. India's first satellite, launched in 1975, was named:
(A) Rohini (B) Bhaskara
(C) INSAT-1A (D) Aryabhata

7. Who was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Sir Osborne Smith (B) Sir Benegal Rama Rau
(C) C. D. Deshmukh (D) Sir James Taylor

8. The master plan of Chandigarh was prepared by the architect:
(A) Laurie Baker (B) Charles Correa
(C) Le Corbusier (D) Edwin Lutyens

9. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
(A) Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu

10. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:
(A) 1761 (B) 1764
(C) 1757 (D) 1857

11. Which constitutional body recommends how tax revenues are shared between the Union and the
states?
(A) NITI Aayog (B) Finance Commission
(C) Inter-State Council (D) GST Council

12. The Sensex is the benchmark share index of:
(A) BSE (B) NSE
(C) SEBI (D) MCX

13. Amartya Sen won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in:
(A) 2001 (B) 1998
(C) 2005 (D) 1992

14. The currency of Bangladesh is the:
(A) Taka (B) Kyat
(C) Ngultrum (D) Rupee

15. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) is in:
(A) Beijing (B) Bangkok
(C) Tokyo (D) Manila

16. The 'Make in India' initiative was launched in:
(A) 2014 (B) 2016
(C) 2019 (D) 2012

17. Who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India?
(A) Verghese Kurien (B) Amartya Sen
(C) M. S. Swaminathan (D) C. V. Raman

18. 'Operation Flood', launched in 1970, is associated with:
(A) Fish production (B) Milk production
(C) Oilseed production (D) Flood control

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19. Which gas makes up the largest share of the Earth's atmosphere?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Argon
(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon dioxide

20. The founder of the Tata Group was:
(A) Ratan Tata (B) J. R. D. Tata
(C) Jamsetji Tata (D) Dorabji Tata

Section II

Economics and Business Environment Awareness
21. Opportunity cost is best defined as:
(A) The value of the next best alternative given up
(B) The extra cost of producing one more unit
(C) The price of a good after adding all taxes
(D) The total money spent on producing a good

22. Other things remaining the same, a rise in the price of a good leads to a fall in its quantity demanded.
This is the:
(A) Law of diminishing returns (B) Say's law
(C) Law of supply (D) Law of demand

23. When the price of a good falls by 10%, its quantity demanded rises by 20%. The price elasticity of
demand (in absolute value) is:
(A) 1 (B) 0.5
(C) 2 (D) 20

24. A market with a single seller of a product that has no close substitutes is called:
(A) Oligopoly (B) Monopoly
(C) Monopsony (D) Duopoly

25. Stagflation describes an economy with:
(A) High inflation along with stagnant output
(B) A sudden rise in share prices only
(C) Rapid growth along with falling prices
(D) Falling prices along with rising employment

26. The Phillips curve shows the relationship between:
(A) Inflation and unemployment (B) Tax rate and tax revenue
(C) Interest rate and investment (D) Income and consumption

27. GDP at market prices minus net indirect taxes (indirect taxes minus subsidies) gives:
(A) NNP at market prices (B) GDP at factor cost
(C) GNP at market prices (D) Personal disposable income

28. Fiscal deficit is equal to:
(A) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
(B) Total expenditure minus total receipts other than borrowings
(C) The value of imports minus the value of exports
(D) Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts

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29. Selling a product in a foreign market at a price below its price in the home market is called:
(A) Arbitrage (B) Hedging
(C) Factoring (D) Dumping

30. The rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities is
the:
(A) Reverse repo rate (B) Repo rate
(C) Cash reserve ratio (D) Statutory liquidity ratio

31. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the share of a bank's net demand and time liabilities that it must keep:
(A) As cash in its own branch vaults
(B) As loans to priority sectors
(C) As cash balance with the RBI
(D) In gold and approved securities

32. UNCTAD, set up in 1964, deals mainly with:
(A) International labour standards
(B) Safety of international civil aviation
(C) Trade and development of developing countries
(D) Global health emergencies and vaccines

33. A merger between a firm and its supplier of raw materials is a:
(A) Conglomerate merger (B) Horizontal merger
(C) Reverse merger (D) Vertical merger

34. The PESTLE framework used in environment scanning does NOT include which factor?
(A) Legal (B) Technological
(C) Social (D) Personnel

35. In a SWOT analysis, Opportunities and Threats come from the firm's:
(A) Internal resources (B) Annual accounts
(C) Organisation chart (D) External environment

36. In India, inflation at the level of bulk transactions between producers and traders is measured by the:
(A) Human Development Index (B) Wholesale Price Index
(C) Consumer Price Index (D) Index of Industrial Production

37. A good whose demand falls when consumers' income rises is called:
(A) A luxury good (B) A normal good
(C) An inferior good (D) A complementary good

38. Which of the following is a direct tax?
(A) Goods and Services Tax (B) Customs duty
(C) Income tax (D) Excise duty

39. A tariff is:
(A) A ban on foreign investment
(B) A cash subsidy paid to exporters
(C) A tax on imported goods
(D) A limit on the quantity of imports

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40. Disinvestment by the government means:
(A) Stopping all foreign direct investment
(B) Selling its stake in public sector enterprises
(C) Cutting its spending on public welfare
(D) Raising its stake in private companies

Section III

Data Interpretation, Problem Solving and Numerical Ability

Study the table and answer the next five questions.
Annual sales of five companies (in ₹ crore)
Company 2022 2023 2024
P 240 300 360
Q 180 210 252
R 300 270 330
S 150 180 225
T 210 240 270

41. By what percentage did the sales of company P grow from 2022 to 2024?
(A) 40% (B) 20%
(C) 50% (D) 60%

42. What were the total sales of all five companies in 2023 (₹ crore)?
(A) 1260 (B) 1200
(C) 1140 (D) 1180

43. Which company had the highest percentage growth in sales from 2023 to 2024?
(A) Q (B) P
(C) R (D) S

44. What is the average annual sales of company R over the three years (₹ crore)?
(A) 270 (B) 290
(C) 300 (D) 310

45. The sales of Q in 2024 are what percentage of the sales of P in 2024?
(A) 72% (B) 70%
(C) 75% (D) 65%

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The table shows how a company spent its total expenditure of ₹ 60 lakh in a year. Answer the next
five questions.
Head of expenditure Share of total (%)
Raw material 35
Salaries 25
Advertising 12
Transport 10
Rent 8
Others 10

46. How much did the company spend on salaries?
(A) ₹ 25 lakh (B) ₹ 15 lakh
(C) ₹ 18 lakh (D) ₹ 12 lakh

47. By how much did spending on advertising exceed spending on rent?
(A) ₹ 3.6 lakh (B) ₹ 4 lakh
(C) ₹ 2.4 lakh (D) ₹ 1.2 lakh

48. If the data were drawn as a pie chart, the central angle for raw material would be:
(A) 126° (B) 120°
(C) 135° (D) 105°

49. Next year salaries rise by 20% while every other head stays the same. The new total expenditure will
be:
(A) ₹ 65 lakh (B) ₹ 61.2 lakh
(C) ₹ 72 lakh (D) ₹ 63 lakh

50. The ratio of spending on transport to spending on raw material is:
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 7 : 2
(C) 2 : 7 (D) 2 : 5

51. 15% of 480 + 25% of 360 = ?
(A) 162 (B) 172
(C) 180 (D) 152

52. A shopkeeper marks his goods 25% above cost price and allows a discount of 10%. His profit
percentage is:
(A) 12.5% (B) 13.5%
(C) 15% (D) 10%

53. The compound interest on ₹ 10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually, is:
(A) ₹ 2,200 (B) ₹ 2,000
(C) ₹ 2,010 (D) ₹ 2,100

54. A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is:
(A) 15% (B) 8%
(C) 10% (D) 12.5%

55. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, then A : B : C is:
(A) 8 : 12 : 5 (B) 8 : 12 : 15
(C) 4 : 6 : 15 (D) 2 : 3 : 5

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56. A father is now three times as old as his son. After 12 years he will be twice as old as his son. The son's
present age is:
(A) 15 years (B) 12 years
(C) 10 years (D) 18 years

57. Find the next number: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
(A) 128 (B) 126
(C) 125 (D) 127

58. Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 44 (B) 40
(C) 36 (D) 42

59. The average of five numbers is 24. When one number is removed, the average of the rest is 22. The
number removed is:
(A) 28 (B) 34
(C) 32 (D) 30

60. A can finish a job in 12 days and B in 18 days. Working together, they will finish it in:
(A) 7.5 days (B) 7.2 days
(C) 15 days (D) 6 days

61. Pipe A fills a tank in 6 hours and pipe B empties it in 9 hours. If both are opened together on an empty
tank, it fills in:
(A) 12 hours (B) 15 hours
(C) 3 hours (D) 18 hours

62. A train 240 m long runs at 72 km/h. The time it takes to pass a signal pole is:
(A) 15 seconds (B) 10 seconds
(C) 12 seconds (D) 18 seconds

63. The same train (240 m long, 72 km/h) crosses a platform 160 m long in:
(A) 24 seconds (B) 12 seconds
(C) 20 seconds (D) 16 seconds

64. A boat goes downstream at 15 km/h and upstream at 9 km/h. The speed of the stream is:
(A) 4 km/h (B) 6 km/h
(C) 12 km/h (D) 3 km/h

65. Two fair dice are thrown together. The probability that the sum is 7 is:
(A) 1/12 (B) 7/36
(C) 5/36 (D) 1/6

66. A bag has 5 red and 3 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without replacement. The probability
that both are red is:
(A) 5/14 (B) 3/14
(C) 5/8 (D) 25/64

67. The HCF of 84, 126 and 210 is:
(A) 14 (B) 42
(C) 84 (D) 21

68. The LCM of 12, 15 and 20 is:
(A) 120 (B) 30
(C) 60 (D) 240

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69. The least number which leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 6, 8 and 12 is:
(A) 24 (B) 51
(C) 21 (D) 27

70. The circumference of a circle is 44 cm. Its area is (take π = 22/7):
(A) 132 cm² (B) 616 cm²
(C) 144 cm² (D) 154 cm²

71. The volume of a cube is 343 cm³. Its total surface area is:
(A) 294 cm² (B) 252 cm²
(C) 196 cm² (D) 343 cm²

72. The length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its breadth is decreased by 20%. Its area:
(A) Increases by 4% (B) Decreases by 2%
(C) Does not change (D) Decreases by 4%

73. 60 litres of a mixture has milk and water in the ratio 2 : 1. How much water must be added to make the
ratio 1 : 1?
(A) 15 litres (B) 10 litres
(C) 30 litres (D) 20 litres

74. A invests ₹ 40,000 for 12 months and B invests ₹ 60,000 for 6 months in a business. Out of a profit of ₹
21,000, A's share is:
(A) ₹ 12,000 (B) ₹ 10,500
(C) ₹ 9,000 (D) ₹ 14,000

75. (0.25 × 0.25 − 0.15 × 0.15) ÷ (0.25 − 0.15) = ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.4
(C) 4 (D) 0.04

76. If x + y = 14 and x − y = 4, then xy equals:
(A) 40 (B) 50
(C) 48 (D) 45

77. By selling an article for ₹ 720, a trader loses 10%. To gain 15%, he should sell it for:
(A) ₹ 828 (B) ₹ 920
(C) ₹ 880 (D) ₹ 900

78. The population of a town is 50,000 and grows at 10% per year. After 2 years it will be:
(A) 61,000 (B) 55,000
(C) 60,000 (D) 60,500

79. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their HCF is 4. Their LCM is:
(A) 60 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 120

80. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MANAGE be arranged?
(A) 720 (B) 360
(C) 120 (D) 180

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Section IV

Verbal Ability / Reasoning

81. Find the odd one out: 27, 64, 125, 144, 216
(A) 64 (B) 125
(C) 144 (D) 216

82. Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
(A) School (B) Lesson
(C) Chalk (D) Student

83. If MANAGER is written as NBOBHFS in a code, how is PROFIT written in that code?
(A) QSPFJU (B) QSOGJU
(C) QSPGJU (D) OQNEHS

84. If CAT = 24 (C = 3, A = 1, T = 20), then DOG = ?
(A) 24 (B) 28
(C) 25 (D) 26

85. Ravi walks 6 km north, turns right and walks 8 km. How far is he from his starting point?
(A) 10 km (B) 12 km
(C) 2 km (D) 14 km

86. Meena faces north. She turns 90° clockwise, then 180°, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction does
she face now?
(A) West (B) East
(C) South (D) North

87. Find the next letter: B, E, H, K, ?
(A) O (B) L
(C) M (D) N

88. Find the next term: AZ, BY, CX, ?
(A) CW (B) DW
(C) DV (D) EW

89. Pointing to a man, Riya says, 'He is the son of my father's only brother.' How is the man related to Riya?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle
(C) Cousin (D) Brother

Read the information and answer the next two questions.
Five friends A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. C sits exactly in the middle. A sits to the immediate
left of C. E sits at the right end of the row. D does not sit at either end.

90. Who sits at the left end of the row?
(A) B (B) A
(C) E (D) D

91. Who sits between C and E?
(A) B (B) D
(C) No one (D) A

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92. Statements: All managers are graduates. Some graduates are engineers.
Conclusions: I. Some managers are engineers. II. Some engineers are graduates.
(A) Only conclusion II follows (B) Only conclusion I follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows (D) Both I and II follow

93. Choose the one word for: a person who is new to an activity and has little experience
(A) Veteran (B) Novice
(C) Mentor (D) Connoisseur

94. Choose the one word for: government by the wealthy
(A) Bureaucracy (B) Autocracy
(C) Plutocracy (D) Theocracy

95. Arrange the parts to form a correct sentence:
P: has been Q: The new policy R: by the board S: approved
(A) QPSR (B) PQSR
(C) QSPR (D) RSPQ

96. Fill in the blank: Despite his ______ efforts, he could not finish the project on time.
(A) strenuous (B) lazy
(C) careless (D) idle

97. 3 : 27 :: 5 : ?
(A) 125 (B) 150
(C) 75 (D) 25

98. If 1 January 2027 is a Friday, what day of the week will 1 March 2027 be?
(A) Saturday (B) Monday
(C) Sunday (D) Tuesday

99. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:30?
(A) 90° (B) 105°
(C) 75° (D) 60°

100. In a row of 40 students, Aman is 12th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?
(A) 29th (B) 27th
(C) 30th (D) 28th

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Section V

English Comprehension

Read the passage and answer the next five questions.
Many first-time entrepreneurs believe that a brilliant idea is the most valuable thing a new business can
have. Experienced investors tend to disagree. An idea, they point out, costs nothing to copy; what is hard
to copy is the discipline of turning it into something customers will pay for, month after month. That
discipline begins with listening. The founders who survive are usually those who leave the office early and
often, watch how people actually use their product, and treat every complaint as free advice.
A second habit separates lasting firms from short-lived ones: careful handling of cash. A business can be
growing quickly and still collapse if money from customers arrives later than its bills fall due. For this
reason, seasoned managers watch cash flow more closely than profit, which can look healthy on paper
while the bank balance shrinks.
Finally, successful founders accept that their first plan will almost certainly be wrong in some respect.
Rather than defending it, they test small changes quickly and cheaply, keep what works and drop what
does not. Seen this way, a failed experiment is not a disgrace but a piece of information, bought at a price
the business can afford.

101. According to the passage, what do experienced investors value more than a brilliant idea?
(A) Legal protection so that no rival can copy the idea
(B) Turning it into something customers keep paying for
(C) A large office, a strong brand and a well-known founder
(D) Quick profits within the first year of the business

102. Why, according to the passage, do seasoned managers watch cash flow more closely than profit?
(A) Profit may look healthy even while the bank balance falls
(B) Investors ask only about cash flow and never about profit
(C) Cash flow is much easier to calculate than profit
(D) The law does not require firms to report their profit

103. The word 'seasoned', as used in the passage, means:
(A) flavoured (B) elderly
(C) cautious (D) experienced

104. How does the author view a failed experiment?
(A) As proof that the founder lacks the ability to lead
(B) As a mistake to be avoided at any cost
(C) As useful information, if its cost is affordable
(D) As something to hide from investors

105. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
(A) Why Ideas Matter Most in Business
(B) Habits That Help New Businesses Last
(C) How to Raise Money from Investors
(D) The Hidden Dangers of Rapid Growth

106. Choose the word closest in meaning to CANDID:
(A) Secret (B) Rude
(C) Careful (D) Frank

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107. Choose the word closest in meaning to LUCRATIVE:
(A) Legitimate (B) Profitable
(C) Lavish (D) Risky

108. Choose the word opposite in meaning to SCARCE:
(A) Costly (B) Insufficient
(C) Rare (D) Abundant

109. Choose the word opposite in meaning to PRUDENT:
(A) Economical (B) Reckless
(C) Wise (D) Careful

110. Choose the correct replacement for the part in capitals: IF I WAS the manager, I would change the
policy.
(A) If I will be (B) If I were
(C) If I am (D) If I had been

111. Choose the correct replacement for the part in capitals: He is SENIOR THAN ME by two years.
(A) senior to me (B) senior from me
(C) more senior than me (D) senior than I

112. Choose the correct replacement for the part in capitals: Neither the manager nor his assistants WAS
PRESENT at the meeting.
(A) were present (B) was presents
(C) is present (D) has been present

113. Find the part of the sentence that has an error:
(A) Each of the students / (B) have submitted / (C) the assignment on time.
(A) (A) Each of the students (B) (B) have submitted
(C) (C) the assignment on time (D) No error

114. Find the part of the sentence that has an error:
(A) The informations given by him / (B) were not / (C) found to be correct.
(A) (A) The informations given by him
(B) (B) were not
(C) (C) found to be correct
(D) No error

115. Find the part of the sentence that has an error:
(A) She has been working / (B) in this company / (C) since five years.
(A) (A) She has been working (B) (B) in this company
(C) (C) since five years (D) No error

116. Arrange the sentences in a logical order:
P: Within weeks, its sales had doubled.
Q: A small bakery began selling its bread online.
R: Encouraged, the owner opened a second shop.
S: Customers liked the ease of ordering from home.
(A) QSPR (B) QPSR
(C) SQPR (D) QSRP

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117. Arrange the sentences in a logical order:
P: Next, each department drafts its own budget.
Q: First, managers set clear goals for the year.
R: Finally, actual spending is compared with the budget.
S: The draft budgets are then approved by senior management.
(A) QPSR (B) PQSR
(C) QPRS (D) QSPR

118. Fill in the blank: The company was able to cut costs ______ lowering the quality of its products.
(A) unless (B) despite of
(C) beside (D) without

119. Fill in the blank: The board will meet tomorrow to ______ a decision on the merger.
(A) attain (B) reach
(C) arrive (D) achieve

120. Fill in the blank: He insisted ______ paying the bill himself.
(A) at (B) for
(C) on (D) to

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Answer Key

1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 C
11 B 12 A 13 B 14 A 15 D 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 C
21 A 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 B
31 C 32 C 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 B 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 B
41 C 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 A 49 D 50 C
51 A 52 A 53 D 54 D 55 B 56 B 57 D 58 D 59 C 60 B
61 D 62 C 63 C 64 D 65 D 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 D 70 D
71 A 72 D 73 D 74 A 75 B 76 D 77 B 78 D 79 A 80 B
81 C 82 A 83 C 84 D 85 A 86 C 87 D 88 B 89 C 90 A
91 B 92 A 93 B 94 C 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 B 99 C 100 A
101 B 102 A 103 D 104 C 105 B 106 D 107 B 108 D 109 B 110 B
111 A 112 A 113 B 114 A 115 C 116 A 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 C

Solutions

General Knowledge
1. (B) The RBI was set up on 1 April 1935 under the RBI Act, 1934. It was nationalised in 1949.
2. (C) The WTO, set up on 1 January 1995, has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. (C) Article 279A (added by the 101st Amendment, 2016) creates the GST Council. 246A gives the power to levy
GST, 269A covers IGST and 280 is the Finance Commission.
4. (D) SEBI was set up in 1988 as a non-statutory body and became statutory under the SEBI Act, 1992.
5. (D) The 1944 Bretton Woods Conference set up the International Monetary Fund and the International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development (World Bank).
6. (D) Aryabhata was launched on 19 April 1975 with Soviet help. Bhaskara followed in 1979.
7. (A) Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor (1935-37). C. D. Deshmukh was the first Indian Governor.
8. (C) Le Corbusier led the planning of Chandigarh in the 1950s. Lutyens planned New Delhi.
9. (A) Gujarat has the longest coastline of any Indian state, about 1,600 km.
10. (C) Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah at Plassey in 1757. 1764 was Buxar and 1761 the third battle of Panipat.
11. (B) The Finance Commission under Article 280 recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between
the Union and the states.
12. (A) The S&P BSE Sensex tracks 30 large companies listed on BSE. The Nifty 50 belongs to NSE.
13. (B) Amartya Sen received the economics prize in 1998 for his work on welfare economics.
14. (A) Bangladesh uses the Taka. The Kyat is Myanmar's currency and the Ngultrum is Bhutan's.
15. (D) The ADB, set up in 1966, is headquartered in Manila, Philippines.
16. (A) The Government of India launched Make in India on 25 September 2014 to promote manufacturing.
17. (C) M. S. Swaminathan led the introduction of high-yielding wheat and rice varieties in India in the 1960s. Verghese
Kurien led the White Revolution.
18. (B) Operation Flood, led by the NDDB under Verghese Kurien, made India the largest milk producer (the White
Revolution).
19. (A) Dry air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and nearly 1% argon.
20. (C) Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata founded the group in 1868. J. R. D. Tata and Ratan Tata later led it.

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Economics and Business Environment Awareness
21. (A) Opportunity cost is the value of the best alternative forgone when a choice is made. The last option describes
marginal cost.
22. (D) The law of demand states the inverse relation between price and quantity demanded, ceteris paribus.
23. (C) Elasticity = % change in quantity ÷ % change in price = 20/10 = 2, so demand is elastic.
24. (B) Monopoly means one seller. Monopsony is a single buyer, duopoly two sellers and oligopoly a few sellers.
25. (A) Stagflation is the combination of high inflation, slow growth and high unemployment, as seen in many
economies in the 1970s.
26. (A) The Phillips curve shows a short-run inverse relation between inflation and unemployment. The Laffer curve
links tax rate and tax revenue.
27. (B) GDP at factor cost = GDP at market prices − indirect taxes + subsidies.
28. (B) Fiscal deficit = total expenditure − (revenue receipts + non-debt capital receipts), i.e. the government's total
borrowing need. The second option is revenue deficit and the third is primary deficit.
29. (D) Dumping is exporting at a price lower than the home-market price or cost. Countries may impose anti-dumping
duty against it.
30. (B) Repo rate is the RBI's lending rate to banks under repurchase agreements. Under reverse repo the RBI borrows
from banks.
31. (C) CRR must be kept as cash with the RBI. Holding liquid assets such as gold and government securities is the
SLR.
32. (C) The UN Conference on Trade and Development (Geneva) works on trade, investment and development issues.
WHO, ILO and ICAO handle the other areas.
33. (D) A vertical merger joins firms at different stages of the same supply chain. A horizontal merger joins competitors
at the same stage.
34. (D) PESTLE stands for Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal and Environmental factors. Personnel is an
internal factor.
35. (D) Strengths and weaknesses are internal; opportunities and threats arise in the external environment.
36. (B) The WPI tracks prices at the wholesale level. The CPI tracks retail prices paid by consumers and the IIP
measures industrial output.
37. (C) For an inferior good, income elasticity of demand is negative, so demand falls as income rises.
38. (C) A direct tax is paid by the person on whom it is levied, such as income tax. GST, customs and excise are
indirect taxes.
39. (C) A tariff (customs duty) is a tax on imports. A limit on quantity is a quota.
40. (B) Disinvestment is the sale of part or all of the government's equity in public sector undertakings.

Data Interpretation, Problem Solving and Numerical Ability
41. (C) (360 − 240)/240 × 100 = 120/240 × 100 = 50%.
42. (B) 300 + 210 + 270 + 180 + 240 = 1200.
43. (D) Growth: P 60/300 = 20%, Q 42/210 = 20%, R 60/270 ≈ 22.2%, S 45/180 = 25%, T 30/240 = 12.5%. S is
highest.
44. (C) (300 + 270 + 330)/3 = 900/3 = 300.
45. (B) 252/360 × 100 = 70%.
46. (B) 25% of ₹ 60 lakh = ₹ 15 lakh.
47. (C) (12% − 8%) of ₹ 60 lakh = 4% of 60 = ₹ 2.4 lakh.
48. (A) 35% of 360° = 0.35 × 360 = 126°.
49. (D) Salaries rise by 20% of 15 = ₹ 3 lakh, so the total becomes 60 + 3 = ₹ 63 lakh.
50. (C) 10 : 35 = 2 : 7.
51. (A) 72 + 90 = 162.

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52. (A) SP = 1.25 × 0.90 = 1.125 of CP, so profit = 12.5%.
53. (D) Amount = 10000 × 1.1² = 12100, so CI = ₹ 2,100.
54. (D) Interest = principal in 8 years, so R = 100/8 = 12.5%.
55. (B) Make B common: A : B = 8 : 12 and B : C = 12 : 15, so A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15.
56. (B) 3x + 12 = 2(x + 12) gives x = 12.
57. (D) Each term = previous × 2 + 1: 63 × 2 + 1 = 127.
58. (D) Differences are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, so 30 + 12 = 42 (terms are n(n + 1)).
59. (C) 5 × 24 − 4 × 22 = 120 − 88 = 32.
60. (B) 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36 per day, so time = 36/5 = 7.2 days.
61. (D) Net rate = 1/6 − 1/9 = 1/18 of the tank per hour, so 18 hours.
62. (C) 72 km/h = 20 m/s, so time = 240/20 = 12 s.
63. (C) Distance = 240 + 160 = 400 m; time = 400/20 = 20 s.
64. (D) Stream speed = (15 − 9)/2 = 3 km/h; the boat's speed in still water is 12 km/h.
65. (D) Favourable pairs: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1) = 6 of 36, so 1/6.
66. (A) ⁵C₂/⁸C₂ = 10/28 = 5/14.
67. (B) 84 = 2²·3·7, 126 = 2·3²·7, 210 = 2·3·5·7; common part = 2·3·7 = 42.
68. (C) 12 = 2²·3, 15 = 3·5, 20 = 2²·5; LCM = 2²·3·5 = 60.
69. (D) LCM(6, 8, 12) = 24, so the number is 24 + 3 = 27.
70. (D) 2πr = 44 gives r = 7 cm; area = 22/7 × 49 = 154 cm².
71. (A) Side = 7 cm, so total surface area = 6 × 49 = 294 cm².
72. (D) 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96, so the area falls by 4%.
73. (D) Milk = 40 L, water = 20 L. Water must equal 40 L, so add 20 L.
74. (A) Ratio = 40000 × 12 : 60000 × 6 = 4 : 3, so A gets 4/7 × 21000 = ₹ 12,000.
75. (B) (a² − b²)/(a − b) = a + b = 0.25 + 0.15 = 0.4.
76. (D) x = 9 and y = 5, so xy = 45.
77. (B) CP = 720/0.9 = 800; SP for 15% gain = 800 × 1.15 = ₹ 920.
78. (D) 50000 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 60,500.
79. (A) The numbers are 12 and 20; LCM = 3 × 5 × 4 = 60.
80. (B) 6 letters with A repeated twice: 6!/2! = 720/2 = 360.

Verbal Ability / Reasoning
81. (C) 27, 64, 125 and 216 are perfect cubes (3³, 4³, 5³, 6³); 144 is a square, not a cube.
82. (A) A doctor works in a hospital; a teacher works in a school.
83. (C) Each letter moves one step forward: P→Q, R→S, O→P, F→G, I→J, T→U.
84. (D) D + O + G = 4 + 15 + 7 = 26.
85. (A) The two legs are at right angles: √(6² + 8²) = √100 = 10 km.
86. (C) North → (90° clockwise) East → (180°) West → (90° anticlockwise) South.
87. (D) Each letter is 3 places after the previous one: K + 3 = N.
88. (B) The first letter moves forward (A, B, C, D) and the second moves backward (Z, Y, X, W).
89. (C) Her father's only brother is her uncle, and the uncle's son is her cousin.
90. (A) Positions 1 to 5 from left: C is 3rd, A is 2nd, E is 5th. D is not at an end, so D is 4th and B is 1st.
91. (B) The order from left is B, A, C, D, E, so D is between C and E.
92. (A) II is the converse of 'some graduates are engineers', so it follows. The engineers among graduates need not
include any manager, so I does not follow.

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93. (B) A novice is a beginner. A veteran is very experienced and a connoisseur is an expert judge of taste.
94. (C) Plutocracy is rule by the rich. Autocracy is rule by one person and theocracy is rule by religious leaders.
95. (A) 'The new policy has been approved by the board' = Q P S R.
96. (A) 'Despite' signals a contrast: great effort, yet failure. Only 'strenuous' (very energetic) fits.
97. (A) 27 = 3³, so the answer is 5³ = 125.
98. (B) 2027 is not a leap year: 31 (January) + 28 (February) = 59 days = 8 weeks + 3 days. Friday + 3 days = Monday.
99. (C) Angle = |30 × 3 − 5.5 × 30| = |90 − 165| = 75°.
100. (A) Position from right = 40 − 12 + 1 = 29.

English Comprehension
101. (B) The passage says an idea is easy to copy, but the discipline of turning it into something customers pay for
month after month is hard to copy.
102. (A) Paragraph 2: a growing firm can still collapse if cash comes in later than bills fall due; profit can look healthy
on paper while the bank balance shrinks.
103. (D) 'Seasoned managers' are managers with long experience.
104. (C) The last line calls a failed experiment 'a piece of information, bought at a price the business can afford'.
105. (B) The passage lists three habits of lasting firms: listening to customers, managing cash and testing changes.
106. (D) Candid means honest and straightforward, i.e. frank.
107. (B) A lucrative business produces a lot of money, i.e. it is profitable.
108. (D) Scarce means in short supply; its opposite is abundant. Rare and insufficient are near-synonyms.
109. (B) Prudent means careful and sensible; its opposite is reckless.
110. (B) An imaginary present condition takes the subjunctive 'were' with 'would + verb' in the main clause.
111. (A) Latin comparatives such as senior, junior, superior and inferior take 'to', not 'than'.
112. (A) With 'neither ... nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'assistants' (plural), so 'were present'.
113. (B) 'Each' takes a singular verb: 'Each of the students has submitted'.
114. (A) 'Information' is uncountable and has no plural: 'The information given by him was not ...'. (B) changes only as
a result.
115. (C) 'Since' is used with a point of time; a period of time takes 'for': 'for five years'.
116. (A) Q introduces the bakery, S gives the reason for success, P the result, and R what followed.
117. (A) The markers First (Q), Next (P), then (S) and Finally (R) give the order.
118. (D) 'Without lowering quality' means quality was kept. 'Despite of' is never correct.
119. (B) The idiom is 'reach a decision' (or 'arrive at a decision'); 'arrive' without 'at' is wrong.
120. (C) The verb 'insist' takes the preposition 'on': insisted on paying.

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