RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 30 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 30 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 30/12/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT true about binary fission?
Ans A. It needs two parents

B. It is fast and efficient

C. It occurs in unicellular organisms

D. It leads to population increase

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Q.2 A man's pitch is _____ than child's pitch.
Ans A. sometimes higher and sometimes lower

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B. higher

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C. lower

D. same ag
Q.3 If magnification is positive, the image formed is:
Ans A. inverted

B. real

C. on the screen

D. virtual and erect
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Q.4 At what minimum distance should an object be held from the eyes for clear and
comfortable viewing?
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Ans
m A. 25 cm
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D. 250 cm

Q.5 A car is moving at a speed of 180 km/h. After the brakes are applied, it comes to a
complete stop in 5 seconds. If the total mass of the car along with its passengers is
4200 kg, what is the force applied by the brakes to stop the car?
Ans A. –15,120 N

B. –42,000 N

C. –50,000 N
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D. –36,000 N
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 On mixing sodium bicarbonate with dil. HCl, sodium chloride is formed and a gas is
evolved. This gas when passed through lime water turns it milky. The evolved gas is:
Ans A. H2

B. CO

C. CO2

D. Cl2

Q.7 When BaCl₂ reacts with Na₂SO₄, the white precipitate is:
Ans A. Barium nitrate which is basic

B. Barium sulphate which is insoluble

C. Sodium chloride which crystallises

D. Sodium carbonate which is insoluble

Q.8 Which part of a neuron carries the nerve impulse away from the cell body?
Ans A. Dendrite

B. Synapse

C. Nucleus

D. Axon

Q.9 Which of the following is the correct unit of resistivity of a material?
Ans A. ohm

B. meter/ohm

C. ohm-meter

D. ohm/meter

Q.10 Which of the following examples represents motion along a straight line?
Ans A. A child running around a park

B. A pendulum swinging

C. A fan blade rotating

D. A train moving on a straight track

Q.11 Growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field is called ______.
Ans A. Inter-cropping

B. Intra-cropping

C. Mixed cropping

D. Mono-cropping

Q.12 Who sacrificed her life along with 363 others in 1731 to protect the Khejri trees in
Rajasthan?
Ans A. Vandana Shiva

B. Amrita Devi Bishnoi

C. Medha Patkar

D. Sunita Narain

Q.13 During the electrolysis of brine, which of the following correctly matches the products
formed at each electrode and in the solution?
Ans A. Anode – NaOH, Cathode – Cl₂, Solution – H₂

B. Anode – Cl₂, Cathode – NaOH, Solution – H₂

C. Anode – H₂, Cathode – Cl₂, Solution – NaOH

D. Anode – Cl₂, Cathode – H₂, Solution – NaOH

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.14 What is the correct sequence of steps followed in extracting metals like zinc from their
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sulphide or carbonate ores?

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Ans A. Roasting or calcination → Reduction to metal → Purification
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B. Electrolysis → Roasting → Purification

C. Direct heating → Purification
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D. Dissolution in acid → Filtration → Heating

Q.15 Which of the following best differentiates a mixture from a compound?
Ans A. Compounds are heterogeneous in nature, while mixtures are always homogeneous.

B. Mixtures can be separated by physical methods, while compounds require chemical methods.

C. Compounds retain the individual properties of their components.

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D. Mixtures always have a fixed boiling point.

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Q.16
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Which law did Mendel derive from his monohybrid cross?

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Ans
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A. Law of Independent Assortment

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B. Law of Evolution
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C. Law of Constant Proportion

D. Law of Segregation

Q.17 Which of the following does NOT occur with an increase in temperature?
Ans A. Increase in particle movement

B. Change in state of matter

C. Decrease in inter-particle space

D. Increase in kinetic energy
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Q.18
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Which of the following is the main function of skeletal muscles in a human body?

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Ans A. Circulation

B. Movement in our body
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C. Excretion

D. Respiration

Q.19 Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the endoplasmic reticulum?
Ans A. The endoplasmic reticulum helps in the transport of materials within the cell, especially between the cytoplasm and the
nucleus.
B. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in the synthesis of lipids (fat molecules).

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C. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) has ribosomes attached to its surface, which help in protein synthesis.

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D. The endoplasmic reticulum stores genetic material in it.

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Q.20 mThe Work-Energy theorem states that the total work done on an object is equal to:
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C. Change in the work and energy of the body

D. Change in the potential energy of the body

Q.21 How are metals like gold and silver, which are low in reactivity, extracted?
Ans A. By reacting with acids

B. By simple heating or chemical methods

C. By displacement reaction
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D. By electrolytic reduction
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Q.22 Applying pressure to a gas causes:
Ans A. Volume to increase

B. Temperature to decrease

C. Particles to come closer

D. Particles to move faster

Q.23 Which phenomenon, successfully explained by the universal law of gravitation, relies
on the combined and differential gravitational attraction exerted by both the moon and
the sun on the earth?
Ans A. The centripetal force keeping the stone in a circular path

B. The motion of planets around the Sun

C. The occurrence of ocean tides

D. The decrease in the value of g from poles to equator

Q.24 Magnetic field is a quantity that has ________________.
Ans A. only direction

B. only magnitude

C. neither magnitude nor direction

D. both magnitude and direction

Q.25 What is the main purpose of creating DNA copies during reproduction?
Ans A. To make organisms immune to diseases

B. To change the structure of cells

C. To produce identical twins

D. To pass genetic information to offspring

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A person is 3 times as old as their sibling. If the sum of their ages is 40 years, then how
old is the person?
Ans A. 10 years

B. 20 years

C. 40 years

D. 30 years

Q.27 One pipe can fill a tank in 7 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 14 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 15

B. 7

C. 8

D. 14

Q.28 If 20% of a number is added to 60, then the result is the same number. 75% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 56.25

B. 86.25

C. 76.25

D. 66.25

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Q.29 If Sonali's salary first decreased by 25% and then increased by 12%, what is the
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percentage effect on her salary?

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Ans A. Increases by 16%
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B. Decreases by 16%

C. Decreases by 12%
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D. Increases by 12%

Q.30

Ans A. 4352

B. 4345

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C. 4324

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D. 4312

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Q.31
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The average age of 32 students of a class is 21 years. If the age of the teacher is also
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included, the average age of the whole group becomes 22 years. The age (in years) of
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the teacher is:
Ans A. 54

B. 52

C. 59

D. 57

Q.32
4773
Ans A. 110
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B. 109
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C. 108
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D. 111
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Q.33
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Two trains are running along parallel tracks towards each other at speeds of 40 km/h
and 60 km/h, respectively. If the length of each train is 125 metres, then how much time
will they take to cross each other?
Ans A. 7 seconds

B. 9 seconds

C. 5 seconds

D. 12 seconds
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Q.34 The marked price of a painting was ₹7,500, but the shopkeeper offered a double
discount in a successive manner of 14% and 28%. Ultimately for how much did he sell
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C. ₹4,644

D. ₹4,490

Q.35 A salesman marks his goods 5% above the cost price and gives a discount of 40% on
them. Find his loss percentage.
Ans A. 37%

B. 35%

C. 36%
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D. 34%
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Q.36 Simplify:

809
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.37 The average of 7 numbers is 25. If each number is decreased by 3, what will the new
average be?
Ans A. 7

B. 19

C. 25

D. 22

Q.38 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 33°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 45°. What
is the measure of ∠ AEB?
Ans A. 89°

B. 102°

C. 93°

D. 95°

Q.39

Ans A. 650

B. 700

C. 500

D. 600

Q.40 The expenditure of Sudha is 150% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 12% and savings increase by 37%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 2%

D. 3%

Q.41 A person buys a machine for ₹20,000, and spends ₹2,000 on its repair and ₹3,000 on
transportation. He sells it for ₹30,000. What is the profit percentage?
Ans A. 20%

B. 35%

C. 30%

D. 25%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.42
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Ans A.
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D.

Q.43 If the radius of a sphere is 35 cm, then its surface area is:
Ans A. 2500 π cm2

B. 2450 π cm2

C. 2400 π cm2

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D. 4900 π cm2
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Q.44 .co
A person walked from his house to the market at the rate of 5 km/hr and walked back to
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his house at the rate of 4 km/hr. The whole journey took 4 hours 30 minutes. Find the
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distance (in km) from his house to the market.

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Ans A. 20

B. 10

C. 15

D. 25

Q.45 A water tank has two inlet pipes (A and B) and one outlet pipe (C). Pipe A can fill the
tank in 4 hours, Pipe B can fill the tank in 6 hours, and Pipe C can empty the tank in 8
hours. If all three pipes are opened for the first 3 hours and then Pipe C is closed, how
much total time is required to fill the tank?

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Ans A. 3 hours 18 minutes

B. 4 hours 18 minutes

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C. 4 hours 15 minutes

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D. 5 hours 15 minutes
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Q.46 The sum of the first 17 prime numbers is:2630
Ans A. 440

B. 441

C. 439

D. 436

Q.47 If a father is 30 years older than his son, and his age is currently five times that of his
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son, how old is the son?
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Ans A. 10 years

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B. 15 years

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Q.48 The market prices of jowar and gram are in the ratio 1 : 3, and a family consumes them
in the ratio 5 : 11 by quantity. Find the ratio of expenditure on jowar to that on gram.
Ans A. 7 : 34

B. 9 : 35

C. 5 : 33

D. 6 : 34

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Q.49 The amount on a sum of ₹6,500 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹8,309

B. ₹7,865

C. ₹7,895

D. ₹8,207

Q.50 Due to an earthquake, a pole broke and its top now touches the ground at a distance of
25 m from the foot of the pole making an angle of 45° with the ground. Find the length of
the pole before the earthquake.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

PLI−MIF
VRO−SOL
Ans A. FBY−BYU

B. FAW−CYV

C. FAW−BXU

D. FBY−CYV

Q.52 All 104 people are standing in a row facing North. Mr. Zzz is 9th from the right end while
Mr. Memi is 34th from the left end. How many people are there between Mr. Zzz and Mr.
Memi?
Ans A. 61

B. 59

C. 60

D. 62

Q.53 Kavya walks 100 metres north, turns right and walks 40 metres. Again, she turns right
and walks 30 metres. She turns right again and walks 40 metres. How far is she from
her original position?
Ans A. 200 metres

B. 10 metres

C. 70 metres

D. 100 metres

Q.54 In a certain code language,

‘A+ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’,
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A x B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is L related to R if ‘L + O # V x E @ R’?
Ans A. Sister's husband

B. Mother's sister's son

C. Sister's son

D. Mother's sister's husband

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.55 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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following series to make it logically complete?

. co XBF 84 IMQ 92 TXB 100 EIM 108 ?
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B. PTX 116 ag l
C. PRU 115

D. PUW 116

Q.56 In a row of 97 students facing north, Z is 61st from the right end. If G is 28th to the left of
Z, what is G's position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 8th

B. 10th
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C. 9th
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D. 7th
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Q.57
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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Ans A. 4
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256, 128, 64, 32, 16, ?

B. 10

C. 8

D. 6

Q.58 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) 6 4 7 8 5 2 9 5 5 2 2 4 9 8 7 2 3 7 9 5 6 (Right)

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How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even

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digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. 3

B. 2
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C. 4

D. 1

Q.59 Six friends, G, H, I, Q, R and S, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the
table. I sits to the immediate right of S. Only three people sit between I and Q when
counted from the left of I. R sits to the immediate right of H. How many people sit
between G and H when counted from the left of H?
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Ans A. One

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B. Four

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C. Three

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a Q.60 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 6 9 4 7 8 9 9 1 6 7 3 6 5 9 7 4 7 1 7 7 8 3 4 6 9 3 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

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C. 0

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D. 2

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Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 12, 28)
(8, 15, 34)3159
Ans A. (19, 12, 28)

B. (21, 14, 32)

C. (7 , 14, 24)

D. (23, 30, 64)

Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘pig peak salad’ is coded as ‘aq ym lq’ and ‘lemon salad
grape’ is coded as ‘wq cv ym’. How is ‘salad’ coded in that language?
Ans A. aq

B. lq

C. ym

D. wq

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘true friends stay’ is coded as ‘eg nu ko’ and ‘stay close
always’ is coded as ‘bs eg xv’. How is ‘stay’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. eg

B. bs

C. ko

D. nu

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 ? 12 36 144 720
Ans A. 12

B. 6

C. 10

D. 8

Q.65 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

73 − 15 ÷ 98 + 506 × 23 = ?
Ans A. 1171

B. 1195

C. 1186

D. 1153

Q.66 If 2 is added to each even digit and 3 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
2436795, what will be the sum of the greatest and smallest digits in the new number
thus formed?
Ans A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.67 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
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are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

. co 43 ÷ 17 + 425 × 5 − 65 = ?
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B. 729 ag l
C. 709

D. 745

Q.68 Ishu starts from Point P and drives 8 km towards the west. Then she takes a right turn,
drives 13 km, she turns right again and drives 15 km. She then takes a right turn and
drives 5 km, turns right again and drives 7 km and stops at Point Q. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point P again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
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Ans A. 4 km towards the north
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B. 3 km towards the east

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C. 5 km towards the north

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D. 8 km towards the south
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Q.69 ag
GIMJ is related to LNRO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, QSWT is related to VXBY. To which of the given options is TVZW related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. YZDB

B. YBDJ

C. YADB

D. YAEB

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Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.

Statements:
Some rails are cars. ag
No car is a bus.

Conclusions:
(I) Some rails are buses.
(II) Some cars are rails.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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Q.71 BFIF is related to IMPM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PTWT is related to WADA. To which of the given options is CGJG related,
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g l a following the same logic?
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a Ans A. JOPT

B. JMPN

C. JNPN

D. JNQN

Q.72 Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing the north.
A sits fourth from the right end of the row. Only one person sits between B and D. D is
not an immediate neighbour of A.

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How many people sit between A and D?

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Ans A. 3

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B. 1

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C. 0

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D. 2
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Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. NO−PQ

B. XY−ZA

C. QR−ST

D. LM−MQ

Q.74 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)8
Ans A. SRM

B. NOJ

C. EFA

D. UVQ

Q.75 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 937, 228, 782, 175, 631 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 15

B. 14

C. 12

D. 10

Q.76 A, B, C, D, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line, facing north.
No one sits to the right of B. Only three people sit between B and N. Only two people sit
between N and C. A sits third to the left of D. O sits to the immediate right of D.
How many people sit between P and C?
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

NFU SJZ XNE CRJ ?
Ans A. GVP

B. HVO

C. IWO

D. GUN

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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. co 3 11 21 29 39 ?

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m Ans A. 47
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se B. 45
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C. 49

D. 51

Q.79 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

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Statements:

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All wheels are cars.
All cars are trucks.
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Conclusions:
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(I) Some trucks are cars.
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(II) All wheels are trucks.
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Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.80 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 567 862 426 326 749 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
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If 2 is added to the second digit of every number, in how many numbers will the second
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digit be exactly divisible by the third digit?
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Ans A. One

B. Three
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C. Two

D. Four

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In November 2025, the standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife approved a
proposal to construct a Pinjoli bridge in which of the following wildlife sanctuaries?
Ans A. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary
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B. Dzukou Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
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a Q.82 In February 2025, the government notified the End‑of‑Life Vehicles (ELV) Rules, effective
April 1. Which of the following statements is true with regards to ELV rules?
Ans A. Producers must meet EPR targets using scrapping facilities.

B. Only imported vehicles are regulated.

C. Public sold salvaged vehicles are exempt.

D. All vehicles must be recycled regardless of age.

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Q.83 In 2025, Saudi Arabia signed a major security agreement with which country to
strengthen military cooperation amid regional tensions?
Ans A. Pakistan

B. Egypt

C. Iran

D. United Arab Emirates

Q.84 Which of the following Amendments came into effect from 1 November 2025, giving
depositors the flexibility to make nominations in banks?
Ans A. Reserve Bank Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025

B. Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2026

C. Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025

D. Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2024

Q.85 How many cities were covered under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) by June
2025 to combat air pollution?
Ans A. 121

B. 111

C. 131

D. 141

Q.86 On 26 August 2025, a deadly landslide near which pilgrimage site in Reasi district,
Jammu & Kashmir, killed dozens and triggered a high-level investigation?
Ans A. Hemkund Sahib

B. Vaishno Devi

C. Amarnath Cave

D. Shankaracharya Temple

Q.87 When was the International Day of Families observed in 2025?
Ans A. June 1

B. May 15

C. April 15

D. July 11

Q.88 Which Swedish athlete won the Laureus Sportsman of the Year 2025 for his world
record-breaking performances in pole vault?
Ans A. Karsten Warholm

B. Jakob Ingebrigtsen

C. Armand Traoré

D. Mondo Duplantis

Q.89 Which day in February 2025 was celebrated as the National Science Day in India?
Ans A. 28 February

B. 20 February

C. 13 February

D. 4 February

Q.90 What was the revised International Poverty Line (IPL) set by the World Bank for India in
June 2025?
Ans A. $2.15/day

B. $2.50/day

C. $3.00/day

D. $3.50/day
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.91 On 28 October 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the Terms of Reference for which
m
commission responsible for recommending salaries and retirement benefits for central

. co government employees?

s e m
m Ans A. 6th Central Pay Commission
a
se B. 5th Central Pay Commission
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C. 7th Central Pay Commission

D. 8th Central Pay Commission

Q.92 Who among the following participated in the Outreach Session of the G7 Summit in
Canada in June 2025?
Ans A. Amit Shah

B. Narendra Modi

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C. Nirmala Sitharaman

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D. Droupadi Murmu

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Q.93
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Which of the following government portal/initiative is specifically aimed at breaking
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language barriers by enabling Indian languages for digital services?
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Ans A. BHASHINI

B. IndiaStack

C. DigiLocker

D. UMANG

Q.94 Accordioning to the Indian Government how many Khelo India State Centres of
Excellence (KISCEs) were notified by the Government of India as of June 2025?
Ans A. 32

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B. 34

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C. 36

D. 30
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Q.95
Ans
Which team won the 2025 UEFA-Champions League?
A. Barcelona
a
B. Inter Milan

C. Paris Saint‑Germain

D. Bayern Munich

Q.96 When was the Regional Climate Centre Network Task Team Meeting held in India?
Ans A. January 2025
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B. April 2025
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g l a
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a Q.97 Which regulatory provisions did the the Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) reference while imposing the fine on Acko General Insurance
for violations related to outsourcing and commissions in May 2025?
Ans A. Section 40(1) of Insurance Act

B. Section 5 of IRDAI Act

C. Section 45 of Banking Act

D. Section 64V of Insurance Act

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Q.98 The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) held its 54th meeting from 7 to 9 April 2025 under
whose Chairmanship?
Ans A. Shri Sanjay Malhotra

B. Shri Saugata Bhattacharya

C. Shri Narendra Modi

D. Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman

Q.99 Who received the Vigyan Shri award in 2024 for his contributions to Agricultural
Science?
Ans A. Dr. Anandharamakrishnan C

B. Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi

C. Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

D. Prof. Jayant Bhalchandra Udgaonkar

Q.100 Which ace footballer and former Indian football team captain was selected for the
Padma Shri honour in 2025?
Ans A. Sunil Chhetri

B. IM Vijayan

C. Subrata Pal

D. Bhaichung Bhutia

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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Test Date 30/12/2025
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a consequence of nutrient deficiency in plants?
Ans A. Affected reproduction

B. Increased resistance to diseases

C. Low yield

D. Poor growth

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Q.2 What occurs when a detached leaf of Bryophyllum comes into contact with moist soil?
Ans A. It shows a loss of chlorophyll.
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B. It absorbs water and grows larger.
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C. It decomposes.
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D. It produces new plantlets from notches on the leaf margin.

Q.3 Which of the following is an element?
Ans A. Air

B. Sodium chloride

C. Oxygen

D. Water
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Q.4 The refractive indices of water, glass and diamond are 1.33, 1.5, and 2.42, respectively.

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Light travels:
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Ans A. at the same speed irrespective of the medium
g l a
g l a B. the fastest in glass medium a
a C. the fastest in diamond medium

D. the fastest in water medium

Q.5 In unicellular organisms, ______ is the method of reproduction.
Ans A. Rejuvenation

B. Regeneration

C. Fragmentation
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D. Fission

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.6 What was Mendel’s contribution to genetics?
Ans A. Laws of Inheritance

B. Inheritance of Acquired Traits

C. Theory of Evolution

D. Discovery of DNA

Q.7 The __________ is a dark, spherical structure in the cell, surrounded by a __________
membrane with pores for material exchange.
Ans A. nucleoid; double

B. vacuole; single

C. nucleus; double

D. nucleoid; single

Q.8 If the slope of a distance-time graph changes continuously, it indicates:
Ans A. uniform speed

B. stationary object

C. non-uniform speed

D. instantaneous rest

Q.9 When an acid reacts with a reactive metal, the products formed are:
Ans A. A metal oxide and nitrogen gas evolve

B. A salt and hydrogen gas are produced

C. An alkali and hydrogen peroxide form

D. A salt and carbon dioxide gas form

Q.10 Which of the following best defines a heterogeneous mixture?
Ans A. A mixture where components are not uniformly distributed and can be easily seen as separate.

B. A compound formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements.

C. A pure substance that cannot be broken down further by chemical means.

D. A mixture where components are uniformly distributed and indistinguishable.

Q.11 A satellite moves in a circular orbit of radius 42,250 km and completes one revolution in
24 hours. If a new satellite orbits at half this radius but maintains the same period, how
does the speed (vnew) compare to the original speed (vorig)?
Ans A. vnew = vorig

B. vnew = 2vorig

C. vnew = 0.5vorig

D. vnew = 4vorig

Q.12 The outermost orbit can hold maximum how many electrons?
Ans A. 8

B. 2

C. 5

D. 16

Q.13 Which of the following correctly describes the graphical representation of Ohm's law?
Ans A. A straight line through the origin

B. A hyperbolic curve

C. A straight line parallel to x-axis

D. An elliptical curve

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.14 Which gas is evolved when a metal reacts with a dilute acid?
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Ans A. Oxygen

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B. Carbon dioxide

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C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

Q.15 Work is said to be positive when _________.
Ans A. no displacement occurs

B. force and displacement are opposite

C. force and displacement are in the same direction

D. force is perpendicular to the displacement
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Q.16 Select the statement regarding cell organelles that is INCORRECT.

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Ans A. They are found in Prokaryotic cells.

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B. They are found in Eukaryotic cells.
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C. They are membrane-bound structures.

D. Each cell organelle performs a special function.

Q.17 During an experiment, a cell is damaged and its lysosomes burst, releasing digestive
enzymes into the cytoplasm. What is most likely to happen next?
Ans A. The mitochondria will produce more energy.

B. The cell will grow in size.

C. The nucleus will divide rapidly.
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D. The cell will destroy itself and die.

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Q.18
s
Which of the following is an example of a vibrating body producing sound?

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Ans A. A stationary fan

B. A moving car a
C. A pendulum swinging silently

D. A ringing tuning fork

Q.19 While cooking, steam escapes from a boiling pot and hits the cook’s hand. Why does
she pull away her hand before feeling the burn?
Ans A. The spinal cord initiated a reflex action.

B. The brain delayed the response.
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C. The heat evaporated quickly.

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D. Her hand muscles detect the steam.

l as
l asQ.20 In a redox displacement reaction, if element X loses electrons and element Y gains
ag
ag Ans
electrons, then:
A. Both are oxidised

B. X is reduced and Y is oxidised

C. Both are reduced

D. X is oxidised and Y is reduced

Q.21 What is the name of the effect seen when light is scattered by tiny particles in a
colloidal solution?

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Ans A. Refraction

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B. Dispersion

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C. Reflection

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D. Tyndall Effect
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Q.22 Which of the following is INCORRECT?
Ans A. Buoyant force = weight of fluid displaced

B. Buoyant force is maximum for fully submerged body.

C. Buoyant force is independent of fluid density.

D. Buoyant force acts upwards.

Q.23 Salt dissolves in water because:
Ans A. It has lower density than water and floats easily

B. It melts at room temperature forming a liquid

C. It evaporates quickly in water during mixing

D. Water has space between particles for ions to enter

Q.24 An electric iron having resistance (R) has a power (P) associated with it when current (I)
flows through it on applying potential difference (V) across its ends. Which of the
following relations is NOT correct?
Ans A. P = VI

B. P = I2R

C. P = V2/R

D. P = V/I

Q.25 Which of the following is an allotrope of carbon with a cage-like structure?
Ans A. Graphite

B. Fullerene

C. Diamond

D. Charcoal

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A. 2x − 5

B. 10x − 5

C. 2x + 5

D. 10x + 5

Q.27 In an election held in a city, the voting percentage was 72%. The winner got 27% of the
polled votes, while the runner-up got 15% of the polled votes. If there were 1,20,000
voters in that city, by how many votes did the winner win the election?
Ans A. 10,458

B. 11,358

C. 10,368

D. 11,458

Q.28 If the price of rice increases by 20% and a person reduces its consumption by 20%, by
what percentage will his total expenditure on rice decrease?
Ans A. 4%

B. 5%

C. 3%

D. 2%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Q.29 Find the smallest number which when increased by 20 is completely divisible by 12, 20,
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15, 18 and 24.

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Ans A. 320
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C. 340 ag l
D. 310

Q.30 Nisha goes to a shop to purchase a toy drum priced at ₹5,000. She is offered 4 discount
options by the shopkeeper. Which of the following options should she opt for to gain
maximum advantage of the discount offered?
Ans A. Two successive discounts of 23% each

B. Two successive discounts of 7% and 45%
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C. Two successive discounts of 10% and 39%
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D. A single discount of 64%

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Q.31
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Two pipes A and B fill a tank in 32 and 36 minutes, respectively and pipe C empties 13

l a
cubic units per minute. All three pipes together can fill the tank in 20 minutes. Find the
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capacity (in cubic units) of the tank.
Ans A. 720

B. 1560

C. 480

D. 1440

Q.32 If the number of sides of a regular polygon is 18, then what is the measure of the
interior angle of the polygon?

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Ans A.

B.
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C.
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D.
ag
Q.33 The capacity of a cylindrical vessel is 25.872 litres. If the height of the cylinder is three
times the radius of its base, then what is the curved surface area of the cylinder?

Ans A. 4122 cm2

B. 3696 cm2

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C. 3945 cm2

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D. 4276 cm2

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Q.34m The average of the first 9 even natural numbers is:
l as
l asAns A. 9
ag
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C. 10

D. 13

Q.35 The average age of 34 students of a class is 29 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 30 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 68

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B. 66

C. 64
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D. 70

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Q.36 The present age of a father is two times the age of his son. Fifteen years ago from now,
the father was three times as old as his son was at that time. Find the present age of
the father.
Ans A. 60 years

B. 30 years

C. 40 years

D. 65 years

Q.37 If the mean proportional of A and 27 is 18, then find the value of A.5768
Ans A. 12

B. 11

C. 10

D. 13

Q.38 P sells an item to R at a profit of 10%, and R sells it to Q at a profit of 5%. What would
have been P's profit percentage if he had sold the item directly to Q at the price R sold
it?
Ans A. 14.5%

B. 15%

C. 15.5%

D. 16%

Q.39 Which of the following pairs of numbers are relatively prime to each other?
Ans A. (52, 105)

B. (68, 85)

C. (102, 153)

D. (65, 91)

Q.40

3030
Ans A. 10,800

B. 10,200

C. 10,100

D. 10,900

Q.41 A person observes an object on the ground from the top of a tower at an angle of
depression 60°. If the distance between the foot of the tower and the object is 10√3 m,
then find the height (in m) of the tower.
Ans A. 15√3

B. 21.5

C. 30

D. 20√3

Q.42 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 8 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 16 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 4

D. 9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.43 A taxi service charges a fixed base fare plus a variable rate per kilometre. For a 10 km
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trip, Raju paid ₹230, and for a 15 km trip, Meena paid ₹330. What is the base fare and

. the per-kilometre charge?
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Ans A. Base fare = ₹60; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹20

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B. Base fare = ₹40; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹18

C. Base fare = ₹30; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹20
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D. Base fare = ₹50; Per-kilometre Charge = ₹18

Q.44 Two trains, A and B, of lengths 457 m and 113 m are running at speeds of 18 m/s and 20
m/s, respectively, towards each other on parallel tracks. In how much time will they
cross each other?
Ans A. 12 seconds

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B. 5 seconds

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C. 23 seconds

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D. 15 seconds

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Q.45
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Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.46 The salaries of X, Y and Z are in the ratio 18:5:10. If the increments of 45%, 86% and

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89% are allowed, respectively, in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their

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salaries?
Ans A. 89:37:64
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B. 90:34:66
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C. 85:38:67
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D. 87:31:63

Q.47 A cyclist rides a 180 km course consisting of three segments. For the first 60 km, the
cyclist rides at a speed of 20 km/hr. For the next 60 km, the cyclist rides at 30 km/hr. For
the final 60 km, the cyclist rides at 60 km/hr. What is the cyclist's average speed for the
entire journey?
Ans A. 29.14 km/hr

B. 26 km/hr
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C. 30 km/hr
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Q.48 If the radius of a sphere is 22 cm, then its surface area is:
g l a
g l a Ans A. 1964 π cm2 a
a B. 1864 π cm2

C. 1936 π cm2

D. 2000 π cm2

Q.49 The amount on a sum of ₹3,500 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹5,040

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B. ₹5,138

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C. ₹6,011

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D. ₹5,564

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Q.50 The marked price of a toy truck is ₹8,730, and its selling price is ₹5,940. Find the
discount percentage. (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 31.96%

B. 31.89%

C. 28.98%

D. 35.12%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Rohit starts from point A and drives 2 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 5 km and then again turns left and drives 2 km. He then takes a final left turn and
drives 3 km and stops at point E. How far and towards which direction should he drive
in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 2 km towards the east

B. 2 km towards the south

C. 4 km towards the west

D. 4 km towards the north

Q.52 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 672 323 561 307 529 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 16

B. 14

C. 18

D. 15

Q.53 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. GKI

B. MQO

C. QUS

D. OSU

Q.54 BRMJ is related to XNIF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TQSN is related to PMOJ. To which of the given options is LDSK related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. GXNF

B. IZPH

C. HZOG

D. KAQI

Q.55 All 81 people are standing in a row facing the north. Mr. Hepa is 11th from the left end,
while Mr. Annu is 16th from the right end. How many people are there between Mr. Hepa
and Mr. Annu?
Ans A. 56

B. 54

C. 58

D. 55
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

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Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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HEM JGO LIQ NKS ?
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B. PMU ag l
C. PMV

D. PNU

Q.57 In a certain code language, ‘bring hot food’ is coded as ‘cf tk rg’ and ‘food is good’ is
coded as ‘ml do cf’. How is ‘food’ coded in that language?
Ans A. cf

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B. ml

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C. do

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D. tk

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Q.58
l as
Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
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below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CZB−EBD
IFH−KHJ
Ans A. DZA−FCE

B. DAC−ECD

C. DAC−FCE

D. DZA−EBD

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Q.59 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
8341756, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
formed?
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Ans A. None
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B. Two
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C. One

D. Three

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1011 1010 1007 1002 995 ?
Ans A. 986

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B. 987

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C. 985

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l as
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ag
ag 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
Ans A. 37

B. 39

C. 41

D. 35

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.62 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 624 859 742 154 348 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second highest number is added to the
third digit of the second lowest number?
Ans A. 8

B. 10

C. 7

D. 9

Q.63 Town K is to the north of Town L. Town M is to the east of Town K. Town N is to the
south of Town M. Town O is to the west of Town N. Town L is to the south-west of Town
O. What is the position of Town K with respect to Town O?
Ans A. North-east

B. North-west

C. South-west

D. South-east

Q.64 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order.
Only three boxes are kept below D. Only two boxes are kept between D and E. Only C is
kept immediately above A. F is kept at some place below B and at some place above G.
How many boxes are kept below G?
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q.65 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing the north. D sits to the
immediate left of F. C sits third to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of C. E sits
second to the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of E.
Who sits at the extreme right end of the row?
Ans A. E

B. F

C. B

D. A

Q.66 In a certain code language, ‘MIST’ is coded as ‘5321’ and ‘KITS’ is coded as ‘5128’. What
is the code for ‘K’ in that language?
Ans A. 8

B. 1

C. 2

D. 5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.67 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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se Statements:
All glasses are tiles. ag l
All glasses are cups.
All cups are mugs.

Conclusions:
(I): All glasses are mugs.
(II): Some cups are tiles.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

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C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

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Q.68 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

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are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) 8 9 4 1 2 3 7 3 1 4 6 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?9907
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

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Q.69 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

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(Left) 284 286 297 213 246 273 (Right)
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(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
a
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 10

B. 13

C. 8

D. 9

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Q.70
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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given series to make it logically complete?

m s e
s e SWE33 , LPX50 , EIQ67 , XBJ84 , ?

g l a
g l a Ans A. QVC101
a
a B. QUC101

C. QUD101

D. OUC101

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Q.71 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 20, 13)
(9, 32, 25)
Ans A. (15, 50, 43)

B. (20, 65, 72)

C. (14, 37, 30)

D. (12, 41, 48)

Q.72 Six people G, H, I, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only two
people are seated to the left of G. Only two people are seated between G and I. Only
one person is seated between I and R. Q is seated to the immediate left of H. How many
people are seated to the right of S?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Q.73 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some elephants are horses.
No horse is a donkey.

Conclusions:
(I) No elephant is a donkey.
(II) No horse is an elephant.
Ans A. Only I follows

B. Neither follows

C. Only II follows

D. Both follow

Q.74 In a certain code language,
‘A ± B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A ₹ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

How is D related to O if ‘D # R * A ± C ₹ O’?
Ans A. Husband

B. Son

C. Brother

D. Father

Q.75 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

WZX−TWU
QTR−NQO
Ans A. YBZ−VYW

B. YBZ−UYV

C. YAX−VYW

D. YAX−UXV

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

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Q.76 Six colleagues — Hussain, Anita, Manshaad, Emily, Sunita, and Shanti — are sitting
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around a circular table facing the centre. Hussain is sitting second to the right of Anita.

. Manshaad is an immediate neighbour of both Emily and Anita. Sunita is sitting second
e m
m
to the left of Manshaad. Who is sitting second to the left of Shanti?
as
se Ans A. Emily

B. Anita ag l
C. Manshaad

D. Sunita

Q.77 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

21 A 3 C 2 B 6 D 14 = ?

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Ans A. 17

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B. 2

C. 11
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. 5
l
Q.78 ag
What should come in place of the question marks (?) in the given series?

489 479 469 ? 449 ? 4291183
Ans A. 449 and 439 respectively

B. 459 and 429 respectively

C. 459 and 439 respectively

D. 469 and 439 respectively

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Q.79 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
e m
position in the letter-cluster.)
las
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans A. IM−LP
ag
B. VZ−YC

C. ZD−BI

D. BF−EI

Q.80 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

189 – 153 × 9 ÷ 3 + 195 = ?
m
Ans
m
A. 40
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m .co B. 46
s e m
s e C. 45
g l a
g l a D. 44 a
a
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which city hosted the first Indian Grand Prix athletics meet in March 2025?
Ans A. Bhubaneswar

B. Chennai

C. Thiruvananthapuram

D. Bengaluru
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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.82 On 26 May 2025, which government agency released a report titled 'Designing a Policy
for Medium Enterprises', offering a comprehensive roadmap for transforming medium
enterprises into future growth engines of India’s economy?
Ans A. State Bank of India

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. Securities and Exchange Board of India

D. NITI Aayog

Q.83 In March 2025, the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 was passed in the Lok
Sabha. This bill seeks to amend which of the following Acts?
Ans A. The Disaster Management Act, 2005

B. The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897

C. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

D. The Environmental Protection Act, 1986

Q.84 Which sport is associated with Rafael Nadal, recipient of the 2025 Sporting Icon Award?
Ans A. Table Tennis

B. Golf

C. Tennis

D. Athletics

Q.85 Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2025?
Ans A. Svetlana Tikhanovskaya

B. Malala Yousafzai

C. Maria Corina Machado

D. Greta Thunberg

Q.86 In 2025, Uttar Pradesh and which other state hosted the Defence Industrial Corridor that
together have attracted investments worth over ₹8,658 crore?
Ans A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Karnataka

Q.87 Who scored centuries in both innings of the 1st Test against England at Headingley in
2025?
Ans A. Rishabh Pant

B. Jasprit Bumrah

C. KL Rahul

D. Virat Kohli

Q.88 Who won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction with the novel 'James', a reimagining of
'Huckleberry Finn' from Jim’s perspective?
Ans A. Percival Everett

B. Charles McQueer

C. Tim Minshall

D. Danny Boy O’Connor

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.89 What was the penalty amount imposed by the Insurance Regulatory and Development
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Authority of India (IRDAI) on Acko General Insurance in May 2025?

. e m
s
Ans A. ₹50 lakh
m a
se B. ₹1 crore

C. ₹25 lakh ag l
D. ₹2 crore

Q.90 In August 2025, DRDO's Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory (DMRL) transferred
the technology for manufacturing high-strength radomes to which of the following
companies?
Ans A. Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL)

B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
m
.co
C. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
m
.co em
D. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)

e m l as
Q.91
s
Rebakanta Mahanta, who was awarded the Padma Shri in January 2025, is renowned

l a
for which art form?
ag
Ans
ag
A. Pottery

B. Bamboo mask-making

C. Madhubani painting

D. Kathakali

Q.92 Which among the following technology-based methods of beneficiary registration
under Poshan 2.0 was announced for implementation from 1st August 2025 during the
Zonal Meeting at Kevadia, Gujarat, organised by the Ministry of Women and Child
m
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Development?
Ans A. Quick Response Code Scanning Process

e m
B. One-Time Password Verification Method

las
C. Facial Recognition System

D. Biometric Authentication System ag
Q.93 The new FASTag Annual plan system is specifically NOT designed for which type of
vehicles?
Ans A. Private cars

B. Vans

C. Commercial trucks

D. Jeeps
m
m .co
Q.94

m .co
Which of the following Ministries conferred the prestigious National Dhanwantari
Ayurveda Awards in 2025 for distinguished practitioners for their exceptional
s e m
s e contributions to the field of traditional Indian medicine?
g l a
g l a Ans A. Ministry of Culture
a
a B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

C. Ministry of Education

D. Ministry of AYUSH

Q.95 Which of the following districts emerged as the best-performing district in the
Northeastern Region according to the 2023–24 SDG Index released by NITI Aayog in
July 2025?
Ans A. West Tripura (Tripura)

m .
.co m
B. Aizawl (Mizoram)

m s e
a
C. Hnahthial (Mizoram)

s e l
a ag
D. East Sikkim (Sikkim)

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.96 The 6th edition of the UMAI National Muaythai Championship was held in June 2025.
What was its host city?
Ans A. Raipur

B. Ranchi

C. Bhopal

D. Rohtak

Q.97 At the Eighth Session of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly held at Bharat
Mandapam in October 2025, which of the following initiatives was launched to address
solar waste and promote circularity in the solar sector?
Ans A. SUNRISE – Solar Upcycling Network for Recycling, Innovation & Stakeholder Engagement

B. JYOTI – Joint Yearly Outlook for Technology and Innovation

C. PRABHA – Programme for Rural and Bharat Household Access to Solar

D. SURYA – Solar Urban Rooftop Yojana for Asia

Q.98 On 1 September 2025, the rupee ___________ to a record low before recovering after
likely RBI intervention.
Ans A. rose to ₹75 per USD

B. stabilised at ₹80 per USD

C. fell to ₹88.33 per USD

D. rose to ₹88 per USD

Q.99 In October 2024, which of the following companies was awarded the contract for
design, manufacturing and commissioning of two high-speed trainsets by Integral
Coach Factory (ICF) to be used in India’s first bullet train between Mumbai and
Ahmedabad?
Ans A. Braithwaite and Co. Limited

B. Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)

C. Modern Coach Factory (MCF) Raebareli

D. Rail Coach Factory (RCF) Kapurthala

Q.100 Where was Asia's longest double-decker flyover inaugurated in October 2024?
Ans A. Bengaluru

B. Hyderabad

C. Chennai

D. Nagpur

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 30/12/2025
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 An object is placed at infinity in front of a concave mirror. Where is the image formed?
Ans A. At the pole (P)

B. At the centre of curvature (C)

C. Behind the mirror

D. At the principal focus (F)

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Q.2 What is the atomic mass of magnesium?
Ans A. 6

e m
B. 1

las
C. 24

D. 14 ag
Q.3 Which method is used to extract metals that are high in the reactivity series?
Ans A. Roasting

B. Electrolytic reduction

C. Calcination

D. Heating with carbon
m
m .co
.co
Q.4 The emergent ray from a rectangular glass slab is:
Ans
e m
s
A. Bent towards the normal

e m l a
l as B. Parallel to the incident ray

ag
ag C. Bent away from the normal

D. Perpendicular to the incident ray

Q.5 If the stamens of a flower are non-functional, which process will NOT be done?
Ans A. Pollen production

B. Ovule development

C. Bud protection

D. Fruit dispersal

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Q.6 Who first observed the densely stained reticular structures near the nucleus, now
known as Golgi bodies?
Ans A. Camillo Golgi

B. Matthias Schleiden

C. Robert Hooke

D. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

Q.7 If an object’s velocity changes uniformly over a period of time, how can the average
velocity during that time be calculated?
Ans A. By adding the initial velocity to twice the final velocity

B. By dividing the final velocity by the initial velocity

C. By subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity

D. By taking the arithmetic mean of the initial and final velocities

Q.8 Which of the following statements is/are true when two different resistors R1 and R2 are
connected in parallel to one another in a circuit?

(i) The potential difference across each of them is same.
(ii) The current through both of them will be the same.
(iii) Their equivalent resistance is equal to R1 + R2.
Ans A. Only (ii)

B. Only (i)

C. Both (ii) and (iii)

D. Both (i) and (iii)

Q.9 Which of the following is the correct reason for constructing the ceilings of large halls
in a curved shape?
Ans A. To allow sound to distribute evenly in the hall

B. To reduce the overall height of the hall

C. To reduce construction cost

D. To provide more storage space above the ceiling

Q.10 Which of the following is a displacement reaction?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.11 Which of the following processes occurs before fertilisation in sexually reproducing
plants?
Ans A. Fruit formation

B. Embryo formation

C. Pollination

D. Seed development

Q.12 How many carbon atoms are present in a benzene ring?
Ans A. 6

B. 4

C. 5

D. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.13 As the chest cavity becomes larger, air is __________ into the lungs and fills the
m
expanded __________.

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Ans A. pulled; alveoli
s e m
m a
se l
B. forced; ribs

C. absorbed; diaphragm
ag
D. pushed; bronchi

Q.14 Growing wheat and mustard simultaneously on the same piece of land is an example of
which of the following?
Ans A. Mixed cropping

B. Monoculture cropping

C. Crop rotation
m
D. Jhum cultivation
m .co
Q.15
m .co
The slope of a distance-time graph represents the:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. speed of the object

l a
ag
B. distance covered

C. force on the object

D. acceleration of the object

Q.16 Select the correct pair of example of 'sublimation'.
Ans A. Dry ice and salt

B. Salt and camphor

C. Camphor and napthalene
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D. Sugar and napthalene

e m
Q.17
s
A 100 W bulb is connected to a 220 V supply. The current through the bulb is
approximately:
la
Ans A. 1.1 A
ag
B. 2.2 A

C. 0.91 A

D. 0.45 A

Q.18 Which process involves the breakdown of uterine walls when the egg is NOT fertilised?
Ans A. Fertilisation

B. Incubation
m
m
C. Menstruation
.co
m.co D. Menopause
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.19
Ans
What are animals used for tilling, irrigation and carting referred to as?
a
a
A. Wild animals

B. Milch animals

C. Carnivorous animals

D. Draught animals

Q.20 Which two forms of energy are collectively known as mechanical energy?
Ans A. Chemical energy and Nuclear energy

B. Electrical energy and Magnetic energy
m .
C. Heat and Light energy

m .co s e m
e
D. Kinetic and Potential energy
s l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.21 Which of the following natural phenomena CANNOT be explained by the Universal Law
of Gravitation?
Ans A. Revolution of the Moon around the Earth

B. Attraction between magnets

C. Falling of an apple from a tree

D. Tides in the ocean

Q.22 Which acid does NOT give hydrogen gas when treated with metal because of its
oxidising nature?
Ans A. Sulphuric acid

B. Acetic acid

C. Hydrochloric acid

D. Nitric acid

Q.23 Match the following body parts with the types of epithelial tissue found in them.
Body parts Epithelial tissue
A. Kidney tubules 1. Stratified squamous epithelial
B. Surface of skin 2. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Lung alveoli 3. Ciliated columnar epithelium
D. Respiratory tract lining 4. Simple squamous epithelium

Ans A. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Q.24
Match the following synthetic indicators and colour changes.

Column A (Indicator) Column B (Colour Change)

A. Red litmus 1. Turns blue in base

B. Blue litmus 2. Turns red in acid

C. Phenolphthalein 3. Colourless in acid, pink in base

D. Methyl orange 4. Red in acid, yellow in base
Ans A. A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

B. A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4

C. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

D. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

Q.25 Which of the following statements about evaporation is true?
Ans A. It requires no heat

B. It occurs throughout the liquid

C. It occurs only at the surface of the liquid

D. It occurs only at boiling point

Section : Mathematics

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.26 The sides of a triangle are 41 cm, 84 cm and 85 cm. What is the length of its altitude
m
corresponding to the side with the length of 84 cm?

. co
Ans A. 20 cm
s e m
m a
se l
B. 40 cm

C. 24 cm
ag
D. 14 cm

Q.27 The Rajdhani Express and Garib Rath Express run in the same direction with speeds of
115 km/hr and 61 km/hr, respectively, and their lengths are the same. What is the length
of the Rajdhani Express if it completely crosses the Garib Rath Express in 116
seconds?
Ans A. 873 m

B. 877 m
m
C. 868 m
m .co
D. 870 m

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.28 The monthly incomes of two friends Mohan and David, are in the ratio 5 : 9, respectively,
l
ag
and each of them saves ₹48,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
2 : 4, find the monthly income of Mohan(in ₹).
Ans A. 2,39,000

B. 2,40,000

C. 2,41,000

D. 3,36,000

Q.29 दादा की आयु अपने पोते की आयु की पाँच गुना है । दस वष बाद, उनकी उ्ा अपने पोते से केवल तीन
गुना होगी। अगर दादा का चचेरा भाई उनसे पाँच वष बड़ा है , तो तीन वष पहले चचेरा भाई िकतने वष का
m
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था?
Ans A. 55 वष

e m
B. 51 वष

las
C. 54 वष

D. 52 वष ag
Q.30 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 25 metres, if he runs at a speed of 3 km/hr?
Ans A. 120

B. 130

C. 110

m
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D. 100

m
Q.31

m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.32 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹16,650. If their prices are in the ratio 3 :
5 : 7, the price of the costliest item (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 9,990

B. 5,550

C. 23,310

D. 7,770

Q.33 The expenditure of Sudha is 100% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 2% and savings increase by 22%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 3%

B. 2%

C. 10%

D. 6%

Q.34 The taxi charges in a city consist of a fixed charge together with the charge for the
distance covered. For a distance of 20 km, the charge paid is ₹200 and for a distance of
25 km, the charge paid is ₹245. How much does a person have to pay for covering a
distance of 1 km?
Ans A. ₹31

B. ₹25

C. ₹27

D. ₹29

Q.35 The amount on a sum of ₹3,200 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹4,648

B. ₹3,872

C. ₹3,871

D. ₹3,189

Q.36 The sum of the first 21 prime numbers is:
Ans A. 709

B. 717

C. 712

D. 710

Q.37 If P : 14 :: 57 : 21, then find the value of P.
Ans A. 36

B. 35

C. 41

D. 38

Q.38 Find the value of (2x+3)2 − (2x−3)2 − 24x
Ans A. 0

B. 2x

C. 4x

D. 1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.39 If 50 litres of a mixture of milk and water contains 12% of water. How much water should
m
be added to make the water 20% in the new mixture?

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Ans A. 3 litres
s e m
m a
se l
B. 2 litres

C. 5 litres
ag
D. 6 litres

Q.40

Ans A.

B.

C.
m
D.
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Q.41
e
₹7,085 is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that if ₹92, ₹9 and ₹48 are deducted

s l a
ag
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 3:15:16. Find the difference

l a
between Y’s and Z’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹104

B. ₹243
ag
C. ₹54

D. ₹254

Q.42 Ajeet got a new table at 20% discount. If Ajeet did not get any discount, Ajeet would
have to pay ₹6,925 extra. So how much did Ajeet pay for the table?
Ans A. ₹27,702

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B. ₹27,701

C. ₹27,700
e m
D. ₹27,698
las
Q.43 ag
A shopkeeper buys a laptop for ₹40,000 and sells it for ₹45,000. What is the percentage
profit made by the shopkeeper?
Ans A. 17.5%

B. 10.5%

C. 13.5%

D. 12.5%

Q.44 If the radius of a sphere is 30 cm, then its surface area is:
m
Ans
m
A. 1800 π cm2
.co
m.co B. 3600 π cm2
s e m
s e C. 900 π cm2
g l a
g l a D. 3612 π cm2
a
a Q.45

Ans
A.

B.

C.

m .
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D.

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.46 A dealer purchased an AC for ₹1,848. After allowing a discount of 58% on its marked
price, he still gains 63%. Find the marked price of the AC.
Ans A. ₹7,172

B. ₹7,216

C. ₹7,066

D. ₹7,219

Q.47

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 What is the least number that should be added to 517 so that the number obtained is
exactly divisible by 15, 25 and 8?
Ans A. 82

B. 86

C. 83

D. 81

Q.49
6782
Ans A. 17

B. 22

C. 7

D. 16

Q.50 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 14 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 28 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 7

B. 14

C. 15

D. 8

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 A, B, C, D, E, and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people
are sitting between A and B when counted from the left of B. C is sitting to the
immediate right of A. D is an immediate neighbour of both E and B. Who are the
immediate neighbours of C?
Ans A. E and L

B. A and E

C. L and A

D. B and L

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘bow elk door’ is coded as ' xz vo ts' and ‘door mug blue’ is
m
coded as ‘zj xz hf’. How is ‘door’ coded in the given language?

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Ans A. xz
s e m
m a
se l
B. vo

C. ts
ag
D. zj

Q.53 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ADG : CFI
FLR : HNT
Ans A. KEQ : MGS

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B. VES : TEY
m
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C. NDR : FTS

m s e
D. MDR : SEI

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.54 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HK – DP

B. QC – NH

C. EW – BB

D. KM – HR

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Q.55 E, F, G, H, P, Q, and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only three

m
people sit between H and R when counted from the right of R. Q sits second to the left

e
of R. G sits fourth to the right of Q. F is an immediate neighbour of Q. P is NOT an
s
la
immediate neighbour of H. Who sits second to the right of P?1919
Ans A. E

B. F ag
C. Q

D. G

Q.56 All 38 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Ayush is 16th from the
right end while Meena is 21st from the left end. How many people stand between Ayush
and Meena?
Ans A. 3
m
m
B. 0
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m.co C. 1
s e m
s e D. 2
g l a
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a Q.57 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate
left of D. C sits third to the left of E. C is an immediate neighbour of D. F sits to the
immediate left of B. How many people sit between E and F?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Two

D. None

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 9 12 17 26 ?
Ans A. 45

B. 43

C. 48

D. 40

Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. QVXB

B. TYBF

C. VACG

D. EJLP

Q.60 Ridam starts from Point A and drives 45 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 48 km, turns right and drives 51 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 63 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 15 km to the South

B. 17 km to the north

C. 16 km to the north

D. 14 km to the South

Q.61 Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence
to make the series logically complete?

101 103 ? 107 109 ?
Ans A. 105 and 113, respectively

B. 105 and 101, respectively

C. 107 and 111, respectively

D. 105 and 111, respectively

Q.62 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

MV-OX-QS
OX-QZ-SU
Ans A. KT-MV-OQ

B. KT-MV-OR

C. LT-MU-OR

D. LT-MV-OR

Q.63 Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

IHD 78 EDZ 87 AZV 96 WVR 105 ?
Ans A. SSM 114

B. SQM 113

C. SBL 113

D. SRN 114

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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statements.
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All golds are hives. ag l
No hive is a cow.

Conclusions:
(I): No gold is a cow.
(II): Some cows are hives.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows
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D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.65
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Umesh starts from Point Y and drives 83 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
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drives 31 km, turns left and drives 45 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 55 km. He
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takes a right turn, drives 38 km. He then turns left, drives 16 km to stop at Point Z. How
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far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach
Point Y again?

(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 41 km towards west

B. 38 km towards east

C. 43 km towards west

D. 40 km towards east

Q.66
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What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’

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are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

88 − 36 × 9 + 4 ÷ 3 = ?
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Ans A. 75
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B. 90
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C. 70

D. 80

Q.67 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
24583671, what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second
from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 10

B. 11
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C. 12

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D. 13

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l asQ.68 In a certain code language, 'TMCB' is coded as '76' and 'GKIR' is coded as '90'. What is
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the code for 'VAPD' in that language?
A. 91

B. 88

C. 80

D. 86

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.69 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(42, 14, 13.8)
(54, 18, 17.8)
Ans A. (213, 71, 69.8)

B. (255, 85, 83.8)

C. (63, 21, 20.8)

D. (126, 42, 40.8)

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

BAN EDQ HGT KJW ?
Ans A. NMJ

B. NZM

C. NMH

D. NMZ

Q.71 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 1 4 3 6 2 7 9 6 5 1 1 7 7 3 2 5 5 3 6 6 5 6 2 1 9 1 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 7

D. 6

Q.72 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 756 325 685 458 359 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 10

B. 12

C. 11

D. 13

Q.73 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 7 5 3 6 1 5 2 7 4 5 8 3 9 6 5 7 3 9 1 4 2 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. More than three

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.74 All 35 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Veer is 14th from the right
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end, while Maya is 20th from the left end. How many people stand between Veer and

. Maya?
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Ans A. 3

B. 1
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C. 2

D. 0

Q.75 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CJT : FLU
EIM : HKN

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Ans A. NPT:QRU

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B. NPR:VCX

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C. BSR:ODU
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D. ZOT:FSA
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Q.76 ag
In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is T related to M if ‘T + O - R x N & M’?
Ans A. Brother's son

B. Mother's brother's son

C. Mother's sister's son
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D. Mother's brother
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s e
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Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pans are cups.
All cups are bottles.
Some cups are mugs.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bottles are mugs.
(II) Some pans are mugs.
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Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

m.co B. Only conclusion (I) follows.
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g l a
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right. Which of the following digits will be third from the left in the new number thus
formed?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.79 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right.

(Left) 6 4 9 2 3 2 7 7 9 8 3 8 7 9 9 9 7 9 5 8 9 9 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. None

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, 13, 21, 30, 40, ?
Ans A. 53

B. 51

C. 54

D. 52

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which of the following initiatives supports athletes’ training for Olympics and
Paralympics as of 2025?
Ans A. Go and Play scheme

B. National Sports Fund

C. Target Olympic Podium Scheme

D. Come and Play Scheme

Q.82 Where and when were the 2025 Juno Awards hosted?
Ans A. Ottawa, March 25

B. Montreal, May 5

C. Toronto, April 15

D. Vancouver, March 30

Q.83 The Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity Target Rules, 2025, targets the specify
values for which of the following compliance years?
Ans A. 2027–28 and 2028–29

B. 2026–27 and 2027–28

C. 2030–31 and 2035–36

D. 2025–26 and 2026–27

Q.84 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Appropriation Bill (No.2), 2025,
been passed in Parliament?
Ans A. Article 119

B. Article 117

C. Article 118

D. Article 114

Q.85 What is the significance of the 'R2 License' granted to Valueattics Reinsurance by the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in March 2025?
Ans A. Approval to commence reinsurance business

B. Preliminary approval to begin banking operations

C. Regulatory clearance to acquire foreign branches

D. License to sell retail insurance policies directly

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.86 Where was the first edition of the ‘Rising North East’ Investors Summit, 2025, held?
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Ans A. New Delhi

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D. Kolkata

Q.87 Which of the following national parks emerged as one of the two top-performing
protected areas in India, earning a Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) score
of 92.97%, in the assessment conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India in June 2025?
Ans A. Nanda Devi National Park

B. Great Himalayan National Park

C. Dachigam National Park
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D. Ranthambore National Park
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Q.88
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Which of the following states launched a flood-hazard zonation atlas as part of new
s em
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disaster tools in mid-June 2025?
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Ans A. Kerala
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B. Karnataka

C. Assam

D. Bihar

Q.89 ‘Agnibaan - SOrTeD’ (Sub-Orbital Technology Demonstrator) was launched on 30 May
2024 from India's first private launch pad called ______, established by Agnikul.
Ans A. Kawach

B. Dhanush
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C. Taramandal

D. Prithvi
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Q.90
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In 2025, which of the following cities hosted the 5th edition of Lok Samvardhan Parv
organised by the Ministry of Minority Affairs? a
Ans A. Kochi, Kerala

B. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

C. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

D. Jaipur, Rajasthan

Q.91 Where was the 2025 AAU Sullivan Award ceremony held?
Ans A. Chicago Athletic Club
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B. Los Angeles Convention Center

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C. New York Athletic Club

l as
l as D. Washington DC
ag
ag Q.92 What was the agriculture growth rate forecast for India in FY 2025 as per the Economic
Survey 2024–25, released in January 2025?
Ans A. 4.5%

B. 5.2%

C. 2.5%

D. 3.8%

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Q.93 What was the estimated loss of revenue to the government of Delhi due to the Liquor
Policy Scam as per CAG report of 2025?
Ans A. ₹20,000 crores

B. ₹5,000 crores

C. ₹10,000 crores

D. ₹2,000 crores

Q.94 Which veteran Indian actor-director, known as 'Bharat Kumar' for his patriotic films,
passed away on 4 April 2025?
Ans A. Dilip Kumar

B. Amitabh Bachchan

C. Rajesh Khanna

D. Manoj Kumar

Q.95 In the Global Innovation Index, 2025, India ranked first among which group of
economies?
Ans A. Upper-middle income economies

B. Lower-middle income economies

C. Least developed economies

D. High-income economies

Q.96 Where was the second phase of the Khelo India Winter Games, 2025, held?
Ans A. Zanskar Valley, Ladakh

B. Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir

C. Leh, Ladakh

D. Auli, Uttarakhand

Q.97 Which Grand Prix was won by Max Verstappen in 2025?
Ans A. Japan

B. Bahrain

C. China

D. Spain

Q.98 The Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) convened a Symposium-cum-Roundtable on
'Bridging Markets, Resolving Disputes via ADR in the India–Singapore Corridor' during
which event?
Ans A. India Legal Week 2025

B. International Arbitration Summit 2025

C. Singapore Convention Week 2025

D. Mediation Week 2025

Q.99 As of May 2025, what is the maximum FDI allowed through the Automatic Route in
India's defense sector for companies seeking new industrial licenses?
Ans A. 51%

B. 100%

C. 49%

D. 74%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.100 Which of the following revolutionary books was authored by Veer Savarkar in 1923,
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whose birth anniversary was commemorated on 28th May 2025?

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Ans A. Hindutva: Who is a Hindu?
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B. My Experiments with Truth

C. The Discovery of India
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D. India Wins Freedom

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49