NDA 2027 Sample Paper (Paper 2 - GAT)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

NDA 2027 (Paper 2 - GAT)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

150 600 150 Min +4 / −1.33

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 150 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 4 marks; 1.33 marks (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 150 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

NDA 2027 (Paper 2 - GAT)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 150 Max Marks 600 Time 150 Min Marking +4 / −1.33

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

PART A — ENGLISH

1. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four 2. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
alternative meanings to each. Choose the response ( a), ( an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate expression. option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word
Yellow journalism and ma-rk your response in your Answer Sheet
accordingly. Ravi loves seclusion Therefore, he lives in
(A) Paid storytelling
the mountains,
(B) Government reports published on yellow coloured
papers (A) nature

(C) Writings in newspapers that try to influence people’s (B) scripture

opinion strong language and false information (C) seafaring

(D) Journalism which agree completely with the policies of (D) solitariness
the governments and capitalists

3. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three
underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or
( c). If you find no error, your response should be
indicated as ( d).

(A) Work hard

(B) lest you do not

(C) fail

(D) No error

4. In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First
read the passage and then answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability, Their
chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment,
and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the
general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much
time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is
the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they be
bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they
teach not their own use: but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to
contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and consider.
According to the author, why should one study ?

(A) To gather information about the world

(B) To pass the time in a creative way

(C) For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth

(D) To become only worldly wise

5. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four 6. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
alternative meanings to each. Choose the response ( a), ( an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate expression. option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
To be in seventh heaven and mark your response in your Answer Sheet
accordingly. He wrote an incisive article on corruption in
(A) To fly in the air

(B) To be extremely happy (A) vague

(C) To be completely alone (B) penetrating

(D) To visit a place which is in the list of the seven wonders (C) trenchant

of the world (D) precise

7. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 8. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four words. Select the an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
word/words and mark your response in your Answer and mark your response in your Answer Sheet
Sheet accordingly. He was born on a very auspicious day. accordingly. The politician was a dissident.

(A) propitious (A) agitator

(B) fortunate (B) rebel

(C) ominous (C) common

(D) opportune (D) revolutionary

9. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 10. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four words. Select the an underlined word followed by four words or group of
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
word/words and mark your response in your Answer underlined word/words and mark your response in your
Sheet accordingly. Life is transient in nature. Answer Sheet accordingly. Some people complain when
they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their
(A) brief
thoroughly happy life.
(B) momentary
(A) run into
(C) etemal
(B) run away
(D) short-lived
(C) run down

(D) run with

11. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 12. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by
an underlined word followed by four words or group of four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate
underlined word/words and mark your response in your expression. Bite your tongue
Answer Sheet accordingly. Rakesh delivered a slanderous
(A) To stop yourself from saying something because it would
speech.
be better not to
(A) abusive (B) To bite off your tongue while eating
(B) praiseworthy (C) To feel sorry
(C) moderate (D) To ask someone something that you want
(D) inspiring

13. In this section you have a passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read
the passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the

passage and opinion of the author only. I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no
differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in bullock- carts.
They leamed one another’s languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been
the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath
in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage ? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that
worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow
with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by
nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts
of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we
Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and T and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior
persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions,
and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. An
opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the
opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways. What does the
author mean when he says that “whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes” ?

(A) One need not visit the Ganges to take holy bath

(B) The Ganges has been polluted, so one should bath at home

(C) One should take a holy dip in the Ganges to purify one’s heart

(D) The purity of heart is superior to observance of any ritual

14. In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First
read the passage and then answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability, Their
chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment,
and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the
general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much
time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is
the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they be
bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they
teach not their own use: but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to
contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and consider.
According to the author, one should read to

(A) only argue

(B) only believe

(C) evaluate and understand

(D) preach and believe

15. In this section you have a passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read
the passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only. I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no
differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in bullock- carts.
They leamed one another’s languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been
the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath
in the East and Hardwar in the North as places of pilgrimage ? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that
worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow
with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by
nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts
of India, and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we
Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and T and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior

persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions,
and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. An
opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the
opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways. The paragraph is
written in a

(A) dialogic style

(B) prescriptive style

(C) descriptive style

(D) analytical style

16. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet
against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as ( d).
Most of us who are older competitive runners are not able to race anywhere at the same speed as we do when we
were.

(A) Most of us who are older competitive runners

(B) are not able to race anywhere at the same speed

(C) as we do when we were 30

(D) No error

17. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by 18. Each item in this section has a sentence with three
four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response ( underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c), Read each
a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
expression. Be over the hill underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter i., ( a) or ( b) or (
(A) To be on a mountain top
c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated
(B) To travel in the jungle
as ( d).
(C) To be too old to do things
(A) If Ramesh will be promoted
(D) To do something in the most complete
(B) he will get

(C) a higher salary.

(D) No error.

19. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response in your Answer Sheet
accordingly. His conversations are always absurd.

(A) farcical

(B) foolish

(C) preposterous

(D) rational

20. In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First
read the passage and then answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability, Their
chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment,
and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the
general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much

time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is
the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they be
bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they
teach not their own use: but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to
contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and consider.
Which kind of human beings denounce studies ?

(A) Innocent

(B) Cunning

(C) Stupid

(D) Wise

21. Each of the following sentences in this section has a 22. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by
blank space and four words or group of words given after four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (
the sentence. Select the word or group of words you a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate
consider most appropriate for the blank space and expression. Fair and square
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
(A) in an honest way
A woman got into the car and __________.
(B) ina critical way
(A) drove off
(C) neither very good nor very bad
(B) broke down
(D) in a foolish way
(C) rode in

(D) drove in

23. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 24. Each of the following items in this section consists of
an underlined word followed by four options. Select the a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each
and mark your response in your Answer Sheet sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (
accordingly. Malaria is a widespread disease. d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of
the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
(A) endemic

(B) pervasive (A) S Q P R

(C) conformist (B) P S R Q

(D) rare (C) S Q R P

(D) P Q R S

25. Each of the following items in this section consists of 26. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three
a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and ( underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
d). You are required to re - arrange the jumbled parts of Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or
the sentence and mark your response accordingly. ( c). If you find no error, your response should be
indicated as ( d).
(A) R Q P S

(B) S Q P R (A) Many a man

(C) Q P S R (B) has succumbed

(D) R P S Q (C) to this temptation.

(D) No error

27. Each of the following items in this section consists of 28. Each of the following items in this section consists of
a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each
sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and ( sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (
d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of d). You are required to re - arrange the jumbled parts of
the sentence and mark your response accordingly. the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(A) Q S R P (A) R Q S P

(B) P Q S R (B) S P Q R

(C) S P R Q (C) S P R Q

(D) R P S Q (D) P R S Q

29. Each of the following sentences in this section has a 30. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three
blank space and four words or group of words given after underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each
the sentence. Select the word or group of words you sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
consider most appropriate for the blank space and underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or
The Election Commission on Saturday _____ that the ( c). If you find no error, your response should be
Assembly elections in five States will be held from indicated as ( d). He asked whether either of the brothers
November 12 to December 7. were at home.

(A) pronounced (A) He asked

(B) announced (B) whether either of the brothers

(C) promulgated (C) were at home.

(D) issued (D) No error

31. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by 32. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response ( an underlined word followed by four words. Select the
a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
expression. Turn a blind eye word/words and mark your response in your Answer
Sheet accordingly. The serene beauty of Kashmir had a
(A) Torun away
soothing effect on his mind.
(B) To begin to behave in a more positive
(A) placid
(C) To change a situation
(B) pleasing
(D) To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong
(C) tranquil

(D) turbulent

33. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
error in any underlined part and indicate your response.
If you find no error, your response should be indicated as
( option d).

(A) He had arrived at Cairo

(B) a few months before

(C) protests shook the Arab world.

(D) No error

34. In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First
read the passage and then answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability, Their
chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment,

and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the
general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much
time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is
the humor of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they be
bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they
teach not their own use: but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to
contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and consider.
According to the author, how can the studies be perfected ?

(A) By reflection

(B) By application

(C) By conversation

(D) By experience

35. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 36. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four options. Select the an underlined word followed by four words or group of
option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
and ma-rk your response in your Answer Sheet underlined word/words and mark your response in your
accordingly. He loves doing nasty things. Answer Sheet accordingly. To abolish poverty would be to
destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the
(A) nice
virtues conducive to higher civili-zation
(B) fastidious
(A) detest
(C) foul
(B) eradicate
(D) finicky
(C) nurture

(D) assimilate

37. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 38. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four words. Select the an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word
word/words and mark your response in your Answer and ma-rk your response in your Answer Sheet
Sheet accordingly. He has deeper hostility towards accordingly. His language is political and vitriolic
Mohan.
(A) imaginative
(A) animosity (B) sprightly
(B) belligerence (C) vivacious
(C) malice (D) abusive
(D) friendship

39. Each item in this section has a sentence with three 40. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c), Read each an underlined word followed by four words. Select the
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer word/words and mark your response in your Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter i., ( a) or ( b) or ( Sheet accordingly. He is suffering from a curable disease.
c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated
(A) remediable
as ( d).
(B) treatable
(A) From thirty years
(C) terminal
(B) he devoted himself to public affairs
(D) operable
(C) without taking a holiday.

(D) No error.

41. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three 42. Each of the following sentences in this section has a
underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each blank space and four words or group of words given after
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any the sentence. Select the word or group of words you
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer consider most appropriate for the blank space and
Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
( c). If you find no error, your response should be _______________ forests prevent erosion.
indicated as ( d).
(A) Lean
(A) A time slot of fifteen minutes (B) Dense
(B) are allowed (C) Sparse
(C) to each speaker (D) Tidy
(D) No error

43. Each of the following sentences in this section has a
blank space and four words or group of words given after
the sentence. Select the word or group of words you
consider most appropriate for the blank space and
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Scores of villagers are _________ a sit-in protest against
the construction of a new underpass.

(A) performing

(B) sitting

(C) staging

(D) standing

44. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and Sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: We do not know what to do with our knowledge. S6: In the course of time they may rule great country. P : For
example, we are unable to our dharma to see that the curse of manage our machines. this Government is blotted out.
Q : We already find it difficult to do without machines. R : Machines should be fed properly and waited upon
attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction. S : Science has given us superhuman powers, which
we do not use properly. The proper sequence should be

(A) S P R Q

(B) P S Q R

(C) Q R P S

(D) S R P Q

45. Each item in this section has a sentence with three 46. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c), Read each an underlined word followed by four options. Select the
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer and mark your response in your Answer Sheet
Sheet against the corresponding letter i., ( a) or ( b) or ( accordingly. Friendship is always reciprocal
c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated
(A) mutual
as ( d).
(B) one-sided
(A) Rabindranath Tagore,
(C) shared
(B) a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem,
(D) corresponding
(C) found Shantiniketan,

(D) No error.

47. Each of the following items in this section consists of 48. Each item in: this section has a sentence with three
a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and ( underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer
d). You are required to re - arrange the jumbled parts of Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or
the sentence and mark your response accordingly. ( c). If you find no error, your response should be
indicated as ( d).
(A) R Q S P

(B) Q S R P (A) Turbidity current is a fast-moving current

(C) Q R S P (B) that sweeps down submarine canyons,

(D) P R S Q (C) carrying sand and mud into the deep sea

(D) No error

49.  Each item in this section has a sentence with three 50. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by
underlined parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c), Read each four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate
underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer expression. A jack of all trades
Sheet against the corresponding letter i., ( a) or ( b) or (
(A) someone who has many skills
c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated
(B) a confident and not very serious young man
as ( d).
(C) someone who has hit the jackpot
(A) Opening his letters,
(D) a great businessman
(B) reading them carefully and sending for his clerk,

(C) he dictated answers with them

(D) No error.

PART B — GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

51. Which one of the following energy is stored in the 52. The headquarters of National Research Laboratory
links between the atoms ? for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located at

(A) Nuclear energy (A) New Delhi

(B) Chemical energy (B) Lucknow

(C) Potential energy (C) Kolkata

(D) Thermal energy (D) Bhopal

53. In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph,
accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively
represented by line segments

(A) CD and BC

(B) BC and AB

(C) CD and AB

(D) AB and CD

54. Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts moving with a uniform velocity y and a chemical
reaction starts happening. In this case, which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? [1] Chemical reactions
happening in the system cannot change the velocity v of the center of mass of the object. [2] Chemical reactions
happening in the system cannot change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect to the center of mass of
object. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

55. A fuse wire must be 56. The raw materials used for the manufacture of
Portland cement are
(A) conducting and of low melting point

(B) conducting and of high melting point (A) Lime, silica and sulphur dioxide

(C) insulator and of high melting point (B) Lime, silica and carbon dioxide

(D) insulator and of low melting point (C) Lime, silica and alumina

(D) Lime, silica and boric acid

57. How many Ramsar conservation sites been enlisted
from India so far ?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(C) 42

(D) 62

58. The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is

(A) Gravitational potential energy —> heat energy to air —> Kinetic energy —> heat energy to ground and apple —> sound
energy

(B) Gravitational potential energy —> sound energy —> kinetic energy —> heat energy to air —> heat energy to ground and
apple

(C) Gravitational potential energy —> kinetic energy —> heat energy to air —> heat energy to ground and apple —> sound
energy

(D) Gravitational potential energy —> Kinetic energy —> sound energy —> heat energy to air > heat energy to ground and
apple

59. The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker Air - 60. Which one of the following does not represent the
Conditioned Yatri) Express train runs between salt, Calcium carbonate ?

(A) Delhi and Kalka (A) Lime water

(B) Bengaluru and Coimbatore (B) Limestone

(C) Chennai and Visakhapatnam (C) Chalk

(D) Chennai and Bengaluru (D) Marble

61. Which one of the following ocean currents is a cold 62. “Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found
current ? in

(A) South Atlantic Drift (A) East Asia

(B) Mozambique Current (B) West Coast of Africa

(C) East Australian Current (C) Sahara of Africa

(D) Caribbean Current (D) Mesopotamia

63. IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly 64. Two bodies of mass M each are placed R distance
between Armies of India and apart. In another system, two bodies of mass 2M each are
placed R/2 distance apart. If F be the gravitational force
(A) Malaysia
between the bodies in the first system, then the
(B) Maldives
gravitational force between the bodies in the second
(C) Mauritius system will be
(D) Myanmar
(A) 16F

(B) 1F

(C) 4F

(D) None of the above

65. Article 46 of the Constitution of India refers to the 66. Consider the following statements about a solenoid :
promotion of educational and economic interests of [1] The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends
upon the number of tums per unit length in the solenoid
(A) religious minorities.
[2] The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends
(B) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid [3]
sections.
The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon
(C) displaced persons from large irrigation projects. the diameter of the solenoid Which of the: statements
(D) the economically deprived. given above are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

67. Which of the following is/are environmental effects 68. Lithosphere consists of
of Rotation of the Earth ? [1] Daily or diurnal rhythm in
(A) upper and lower mantle.
day-light and air temperature [2] Flow path of both air
(B) crust and core
and water are turned consistently in a side-ward
direction [3] The movement of the tides Select the (C) crust and uppermost solid mantle.

correct answer using the code given below : (D) mantle and core.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 3 only

69. Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing 70. Which one of the following could be the melting point
river ? of iron ?

(A) Periyar (A) 25°C

(B) Bharatpuzha (B) 37°C

(C) Pamba (C) 500°C

(D) Tamraparni (D) 1500°C

71. “Viticulture” is a common feature of which one of the 72. The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth’s
following Australian cities ? atmosphere drops to 0°C at the

(A) Adelaide (A) upper part of ionosphere.

(B) Darwin (B) upper boundary of the tropopause.

(C) Hobart (C) lower part of mesosphere.

(D) Brisbane (D) upper boundary of stratopause.

73. Which one of the following represents the correct 74. Which one of the following is an example of a clean
order of electron releasing tendency of metals ? fuel ?

(A) Zn > Cu > Ag (A) Coke

(B) Ag > Cu > Zn (B) Propane

(C) Cu > Zn > Ag (C) Petrol

(D) Cu > Ag > Zn (D) Wax

75. Which one of the following substances is not a 76. The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to
mixture ? public light in the year 1800 by the following British
surveyor and engineer :
(A) Tin

(B) Sea water (A) James Prinsep

(C) Soil (B) Colin Mackenzie

(D) Air (C) James Rennell

(D) Charles Metcalfe

77. Which of the following statements about The New 78. A student measures certain lengths using a meter
Model Unions is/are correct ? [1] The New Model Unions scale having least count equal to 1 mm. Which one of the
formed in the 1850s were [2] The New Model Unions following measurements is more precise ?
formed in the 1880s were formed in the 1880s [3] The
(A) 0.50 mm
New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea [4] The
(B) 29.07 cm
New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s Select
the correct answer using the code given below : (C) 0.925 m

(D) 910 mm
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 3 only

79. Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India : Central Samadhi platform
comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine
holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of the nine-square
Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by
pathways made in white composite tiles So that the floor does not get heated. Identify the Samadhi :

(A) Shakti Sthal

(B) Shantivan

(C) Sadaiv Atal

(D) Veer Bhumi

80. Who was the Education Minister in the first Cabinet 81. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct
of independent India ? for the given reaction ? Fe(s) + CuSO (aq) ---> FeSO (aq)
4 4
+ Cu(s)
(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (A) Iron is the reducing agent

(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (B) The solution turns green in colour after the reaction

(D) Acharya Narendra Dev (C) Copper is a more reactive metal than iron

(D) The reaction is an example of a redox reaction

82. Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river 83. Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging
player of the year 2018?
(A) Rihand

(B) Ganga (A) Rishabh Pant

(C) Mahanadi (B) Josh Haziewood

(D) Baitarani (C) Hasan Ali

(D) Mustafizur Rahman

84. Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is 85. Which one of the following is a major plate ?

(A) Nuclear fusion (A) Pacific Plate

(B) Controlled nuclear fusion (B) Cocos Plate

(C) Uncontrolled nuclear fission (C) Arabian Plate

(D) Controlled nuclear fission (D) Philippine Plate

86. The following consist of two statements, Statements I And Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully
and select the correct answer using the code given below : Statement I : The British ruled India through a modern
bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open
competition Statement II : The Indian Civil Service ‘was based on the wholehearted participation of Indians.

(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

(C) Statement II is true but Statement II is false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

87. Which one of the following films was adjudged as the 88. Who among the following was appointed as head of
Best Feature Film in the 66" National Film Awards ? the seven member committee to look into revenue
shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out
(A) Bulbul Can Sing
in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections ?
(B) Hellaro
(A) Himanta Biswa Sharma
(C) Badhaai Ho
(B) Thomas Isaac
(D) Uri
(C) Sushil Modi

(D) Capt Abhimanyu

89. Consider the following statements concerning the 90. Thyroid gland produces a hormone called
American War of Independence : [1] The Americans “Thyroxine” which
raised the slogan, ‘No taxation without representation’.
(A) controls blood glucose levels.
[2] The American merchants resorted to the boycott of
(B) controls ovulation.
the British products. Select the correct answer using the
code given below : (C) controls metabolic rate.

(D) maintains pregnancy.
(A) 1 only

(B) 2only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Radiations coming from the Sun are mostly in the 92. Which one of the following can charge an insulator ?
form of
(A) Current electricity
(A) light only. (B) Static electricity
(B) light and long wavelength infrared. (C) Magnetic field
(C) light and short wavelength infrared. (D) Gravitational field
(D) both short and long wavelength infrared.

93. Which one of the following is an example of Salt 94. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? [1]
Crystal growth ? In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations and
immediately supported the USA in the Cold War [2] In
(A) Chemical weathering
1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to
(B) Physical weathering
denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War
(C) Biological weathering Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(D) Bio-chemical weathering
(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

95. A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight 96. The Munda language group belongs to which family ?
line towards south, immediately turns around and returns
(A) Austric
to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2
(B) Dravidian
hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car
for this round trip (C) Sino-Tibetan

(D) Indo-European
(A) is 0.

(B) is 50 km/hr.

(C) is 25 km/hr

(D) cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration.

97. Which one of the following rivers was earlier known 98. Which one of the following statements regarding
as “Vitasta” ? cathode rays is not correct ?

(A) Tista (A) Cathode ray particles are electrons.

(B) Jhelum (B) Cathode ray particles start from anode and move

(C) Tungabhadra towards cathode.

(D) Bharatpuzha (C) In the absence of electrical and magnetic fields, cathode
rays travel in straight lines.

(D) Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes.

99. Who among the following has explained the 100. Mitochondria are able to produce their own
phenomenon of photo-electric effect ?
(A) Nucleus
(A) Max Planck (B) Proteins
(B) Albert Einstein (C) Chloroplasts
(C) Neils Bohr (D) Digestive enzymes
(D) Emest Rutherford

101. Two substances of densities ρ and ρ are mixed in 102. When a beam of white light passes through a glass
1 2
equal volume and their relative density is 4. When they prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is
are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The
(A) Blue
values of ρ and ρ respectively are
1 2
(B) Red
(A) 6, 2
(C) Green
(B) 3, 5
(D) Violet
(C) 12, 4

(D) 9, 3

103. Light year is a unit of measurement of 104. Which one of the following is an organic acid ?

(A) very large distances (A) Hydrochloric acid

(B) time interval in years (B) Nitric acid

(C) amount of light received on earth in a year (C) Acetic acid

(D) mass of atoms (D) Sulphuric acid

105. ‘Who among the following presented ‘The April 106. Soaps clean surfaces on the principle based on
Theses’ to the Russian people in 1917?
(A) Viscosity
(A) Stalin (B) Floatation
(B) Trotsky (C) Elasticity
(C) Bukharin (D) Surface tension
(D) Lenin

107. The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short 108. A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope
while after it sets. This is because of is known as

(A) total internal reflection (A) U-shaped valley.

(B) atmospheric refraction (B) Blind valley.

(C) apparent shift in the direction of sun (C) Gorge.

(D) dispersion (D) Canyon.

109. A rigid body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a 110. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
stationary balloon kept at a height of 50 m from the
(A) Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma
ground. The speed of the body when it just touches the
and xylem fibres.
ground and the total energy when it is dropped from the
(B) Flexibility in plants is due to sclerenchyma.
balloon are respectively (acceleration due to gravity =
9.8 m/s2) (C) Parenchyma have no intercellular spaces.

(D) Xylem consists of sieve plate, sieve tube and companion
(A) 980 m.s-1 and 980 J
cells.
(B) √980 m.s-1 and √980 J

(C) 980 m.s-1 and √980 J

(D) √980 m.s-1 and 980 J

111. Which one of the following organelles of mammalian 112. The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in
cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes ?
(A) New Delhi
(A) Mitochondria (B) Gandhi Nagar
(B) Ribosomes (C) Prayagraj
(C) Lysosome (D) Varanasi
(D) Nucleus

113. Which one of the following is a Rabi crop in the 114. Along with Pranab Mukherjee, how many more
Northern States of India ? persons were conferred the Bharat Ratna Award in the
year 2019 ?
(A) Rice

(B) Bajra (A) One

(C) Barley (B) Two

(D) Ragi (C) Three

(D) Four

115. Water is heated with a coil of resistance R 116. Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle
connected to domestic supply. The rise of temperature of thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast
water will depend on [1] Supply voltage. [2] Current of which Indian State ?
passing through the coil. [3] Time for which voltage is
(A) Andhra Pradesh
supplied. Select the correct answer from among the
(B) Odisha
following :
(C) Tamil Nadu
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Karnataka
(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

117. Betel leaf of which one of the following States has 118. “Mission Indradhanush” is related to
been accorded a GI tag recently ?
(A) Bullet train project
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Agriculture development
(B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Women empowerment
(C) Kerala (D) Full immunization
(D) Mizoram

119. Consider the following statements related 120. Compared to audible sound waves, ultrasound
Dayanand’s idea of social reform : [1] Dayanand’s reform waves have
envisaged a social order, where different castes
(A) higher speed.
performed functions suitable to their status determined
(B) higher frequency.
by merit. [2] Dayanand’s ‘robust Vedic counterpart’
challenged the masculine West that had enslaved the (C) longer wavelength.

Aryavarta. Which of the statement/s given above is/are (D) both higher speed and frequency.
correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

121. Blood is a type of 122. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing
(A) Epithelial tissue
order ?
(B) Muscular tissue
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal
(C) Nervous tissue
(B) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal
(D) Connective tissue
(C) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

(D) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

123. Which one of the following statements regarding 124. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral
lenses is not correct ? ?

(A) A convex lens produces both real and virtual images. (A) Iron

(B) A concave lens produces both real and virtual images. (B) Mica

(C) A convex lens can produce images equal, greater and (C) Copper
smaller than the size of the object. (D) Bauxite
(D) A concave lens always produces images smaller than
the size of the object.

125. If an object moves at a non-zero constant 126. Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT
acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the possess its own genetic material encoding proteins ?
distance it covers in that time
(A) Ribosome
(A) depends on its initial velocity. (B) Nucleus
(B) is independent of its initial velocity. (C) Mitochondria
(C) increases linearly with time. (D) Chloroplast
(D) depends on its initial displacement.

127. National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in 128. During the Swadeshi movement, a National College
training and capacity building in water resource, is was started in Calcutta under the principalship of
located at
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(A) New Delhi (B) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Kolkata (C) Rajani Kant Sen
(C) Pune (D) Syed Abu Mohammad
(D) Chennai

129. Which one of the following statements about water 130. Which one of the following Union Territories of India
is not true ? is the smallest in terms of geographical area ?

(A) Hydrogen bonds are present in liquid water. (A) Daman and Diu

(B) Water has a high boiling point. (B) Chandigarh

(C) Water has a high heat of fusion. (C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(D) Water is a non-polar molecule. (D) Lakshadweep

131. “The sum of emfs and potential differences around 132. In which of the following phenomena do heat waves
a closed loop equals zero” is a consequence of travel along a straight line with the speed of light ?

(A) Ohm’s law. (A) Thermal conduction

(B) Conservation of charge. (B) Thermal convection

(C) Conservation of momentum. (C) Thermal radiation

(D) Conservation of energy. (D) Both, thermal conduction and radiation

133. Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the 134. SAMARTH is a flagship skill development scheme of
following calcium compounds ? which one of the following Ministries ?

(A) Calcium carbonate (A) Ministry of Textiles

(B) Calcium sulphate (B) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

(C) Calcium hydroxide (C) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(D) Calcium phosphate (D) Ministry of Human Resource Development

135. The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples 136. Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of
of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is
available only to the citizens of India ?
(A) parallel pattern of drainage.

(B) radial pattern of drainage. (A) Article 19

(C) barbed pattern of drainage. (B) Article 20

(D) trellis pattern of drainage. (C) Article 21

(D) Article 22

137. The temperature of a place on one sunny day is 113 138. Which Indian businessman favoured “healthy
in Fahrenheit scale. The Kelvin scale reading of this capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a
temperature will be ‘common object’ ?

(A) 318 K (A) Ghanshyam Das Birla

(B) 45 K (B) Ambalal Sarabhai

(C) 628 K (C) Sir Biren Mookerjee

(D) 335.8 K (D) T.T.K. Krishnamachari

139. India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making 140. The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and
unit is located at Celsius is °F = X+(1.8 x°C) What is factor X?

(A) Jamshedpur (A) 32

(B) Kolkata (B) 22

(C) Hazira (C) 98

(D) Gwalior (D) 42

141. Which one of the following diseases may be caused 142. Which among the following was/were among the
by the deficiency of vitamin C ? factors for England to experience the Industrial
Revolution first ? [1] The scientific inventions had paved
(A) Rickets
the way for Industrial Revolution. [2] It had favourable
(B) Rabies
social and political structures in place. [3] Navigable
(C) Hepatitis rivers had made inland transport easier. [4] It had seen
(D) Scurvy the ascendancy of capitalist practices. Select the correct
answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1,3 and 4 only

(C) 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

143. According to the Képpen climatic classification, the 144. The light energy escaping from the Sun can be
letter code Cfa denotes spread by

(A) Tropical wet climate. (A) a shower of rain drops

(B) Humid subtropical climate. (B) a plane mirror

(C) Tundra climate. (C) a convex lens

(D) Tropical wet and dry climate. (D) a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens

145. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the 146. Which one of the following statements regarding
Constitution of India shall not apply to the administration Electrocardiogram is correct ?
and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
(A) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
in [1] Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha [2] Assam and
electrical activity of cornea
Tripura [3] Meghalaya and Mizoram Select the correct
(B) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity
answer using the code given below :
of kidney
(A) 1 only
(C) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity
(B) 1 and 2 only of brain
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of
(D) 1, 2 and 3 electrical activity of heart

147. Which one of the following organisms has vascular 148. What is the time gap in occurrence of two
tissues ? successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface ?

(A) Cladophora (A) 12 hours

(B) Penicillium (B) 12 hours 26 minutes

(C) Marsilea (C) 24 hours

(D) Anabaena (D) 24 hours 52 minutes

149. Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent 150. Which one of the following statements regarding
rivers. Which one of the following may be the true the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct ?
definition of an antecedent drainage ?
(A) Its members are elected by the elected members of the
(A) Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya Legislative Assembly of a State

(B) Which existed before the Himalayan range came into (B) The election follows the system of proportional
existed representation by means of a single transferable vote

(C) Which followed the dip or rock beds of the Himalaya (C) 1/3rd of its members retire after every two years

(D) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the Himalaya (D) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by
the President

ANSWER KEY

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C)

15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (A)

22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (A)

29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)

36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (B)

43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (C)

50. (A) 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (C)

57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (D)

64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (D) 70. (D)

71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (A) 76. (B) 77. (A)

78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (C) 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (D)

85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (C)

92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (B)

99. (B) 100. (B) 101. (A) 102. (B) 103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (D)

106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (A) 111. (C) 112. (D)

113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (A) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (D) 119. (C)

120. (B) 121. (D) 122. (B) 123. (B) 124. (B) 125. (A) 126. (A)

127. (C) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (D) 131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (D)

134. (A) 135. (A) 136. (A) 137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (C) 140. (A)

141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (B) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (D) 147. (C)

148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (D)