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RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 02 Feb All Shifts (in English)

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Page 1

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 02 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

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Test Date 02/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 What advantage does asexual reproduction provide in a stable environment?
Ans A. Adaptation to new environment

B. Genetic variation

C. Sexual diversity

D. Rapid and identical reproduction

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Q.2 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the female reproductive
system?

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fallopian tube.
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Statement A: The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a thin oviduct or

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Statement B: The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix.
A. Neither statement A nor B

B. Only statement A

C. Both statement A and B

D. Only statement B

Q.3 Truck and motorbus tyres are designed to be much wider than car tyres, while cutting
tools and nails are designed with sharp, small tips. This contrast in design illustrates
the principle that ___________.
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Ans
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A. larger thrust always results in lower pressure
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m.co B. thrust is directly proportional to the area of contact
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s e C. pressure is inversely proportional to the mass of the object
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g l a D. the same thrust acting on a smaller area exerts a larger pressure
a
a Q.4 Select the correct function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Ans A. Carbohydrate synthesis

B. Lipid synthesis

C. Protein synthesis

D. Nucleic acid synthesis

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Page 3

Q.5 From the given alternatives, select the correct statement related to garbage from a
general household.
Ans A. Safe disposal of garbage is not mandatory.

B. Entire garbage is non-biodegradable.

C. Garbage contains both biodegradable and non-biodegradable components.

D. Entire garbage is biodegradable.

Q.6 Which of the following best illustrates Newton’s Third Law of Motion?
Ans A. A ball falling under gravity.

B. A rocket propelling upward by expelling gases downward.

C. A car accelerating on a road due to engine power.

D. A pendulum oscillating back and forth.

Q.7 What is the transfer of pollen grain from one flower to another flower called?
Ans A. Self pollination

B. Auto pollination

C. Autogamy

D. Cross pollination

Q.8 Sodium hydroxide is prepared by passing electricity through an aqueous solution of
sodium chloride. The process is called:
Ans A. Dow’s

B. Born Haber

C. Chlor-alkali

D. Hall-Héroult

Q.9 The distance between the optical centre of a lens and its principal focus is called
________.
Ans A. magnification

B. focal length

C. radius of curvature

D. aperture

Q.10 Which of the following hydrocarbons are organic compounds with elements
__________?
Ans A. both hydrogen and carbon

B. Carbon

C. Oxygen

D. Hydrogen

Q.11 Estimate the concentration of the solution in terms of mass by mass percentage if 50 g
of common salt is dissolved in 300 g of water.
Ans A. 12%

B. 14.28%

C. 12.22%

D. 14%

Q.12 Which of the following chemical equations is correctly balanced?
Ans A. Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

B. 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

C. 2Fe + 3H₂O → 2Fe₃O₄ + 3H₂

D. 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 2H₂

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.13 Which organism is a key indicator of a healthy aquatic ecosystem?
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Ans A. Lichen

. e m
m B. Fish
as
se C. Cockroach
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D. Earthworm

Q.14 Which of the following correctly describes the direction of the magnetic field outside a
solenoid?
Ans A. South pole to North pole

B. From the ends to the centre

C. North pole to South pole

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D. From the centre to the ends

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Q.15
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Meristematic tissues are found only in a specific region. On the basis of position, which

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is NOT a meristematic tissue type?
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Ans A. Apical

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B. Intercalary

C. Basal

D. Lateral

Q.16 Which of the following statements best explains why all atoms of an element are
represented by the same symbol?
Ans A. Because they have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus

B. Because they have the same number of protons in their nucleus

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C. Because they have identical physical properties

D. Because their mass numbers are always the same

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Q.17
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Which of the following statements is/are NOT true according to the sign convention for
spherical lenses?
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(i) All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the focus of the lens.
(ii) All the distances measured to the right of the origin are taken as positive.
(iii) Distances measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis are taken as
negative.
(iv) The object is always placed to the left of the lens.
Ans A. Both (ii) and (iii)

B. Both (i) and (iv)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

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D. Both (ii) and (iv)
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Q.18
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Can the displacement of an object be greater than the distance travelled?
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Ans A. Only when the object moves in a straight line
g l a
g l a B. Yes, sometimes
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a C. No, displacement can never be greater than distance

D. Yes, always

Q.19 If voltage (V) is constant, the power is directly proportional to which of the following?
Ans A. Resistance

B. Current

C. Energy

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D. Square of Resistance

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Page 5

Q.20 Which of the following displacement reactions are possible?

Ans A. II and IV only

B. I, II, and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, III and IV only

Q.21 Which process is used for the extraction of aluminium from bauxite?
Ans A. Displacement by zinc

B. Roasting followed by reduction

C. Electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide

D. Calcination followed by carbon reduction

Q.22 Which of the following devices work on the principle of multiple reflections of sound
waves?
Ans A. Stethoscope

B. Thermometer

C. Megaphone

D. Microscope

Q.23 The SI unit of Power is watt (W). As per the relation of work-power, one watt is
equivalent to _____________.
Ans A. 1 Newton per meter (1 N/m)

B. 1 Joule-second (1 J.s)

C. A kilowatt-hour (1 kWh)

D. 1 Joule per second (1 J/s)

Q.24 Which of the following is a compound that forms a solution when dissolved in water?
Ans A. Sodium Chloride

B. Sand

C. Oil

D. Iron filings

Q.25 Which of the following processes results in the formation of two identical daughter
cells?
Ans A. Meiosis

B. Mitosis

C. Fertilisation

D. Cytokinesis without karyokinesis

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The number 8,33,525 is NOT divisible by:
Ans A. 35

B. 25

C. 55

D. 15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.27 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 80 maximum marks. What
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percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)

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Ans A. 66.67%
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B. 150.46%

C. 80.33%
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D. 93.75%

Q.28 A dealer allowed a 77% discount on an article and was still able to manage a 49% profit.
Find the ratio of the cost price to the listed price.
Ans A. 20 : 150

B. 26 : 152

C. 23 : 149
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D. 25 : 154
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Q.29
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The price of fuel decreases by 10%, 50% and 10% in three successive months, but
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increases by 45% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
l a
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price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off your
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answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. Increases by 46.86%

B. Decreases by 44.56%

C. Decreases by 41.28%

D. Increases by 42.91%

Q.30

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Ans A. 1
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B. 2
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C. 4
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D. 3 a
Q.31 For 7 innings, a cricketer has an average of 90 runs. In the 8th inning, he scores 176
runs. His average score increased by ______. (Round off your answer to the nearest
whole number.)987
Ans A. 14

B. 11

C. 20
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D. 7
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Q.32
e g l a
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a
a B.

C.

D.

Q.33 What is the simple interest on a sum of ₹5,500, if the rate of interest for the first 4 years
is 6% per annum and for the last 2 years is 5% per annum?
Ans A. ₹1,870

B. ₹1,920

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C. ₹1,660

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D. ₹1,750

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Page 7

Q.34

11133
Ans A. 32 minutes

B. 33 minutes

C. 26 minutes

D. 29 minutes

Q.35 If 20% of a number is added to 66, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 49.5

B. 59.5

C. 79.5

D. 69.5

Q.36 A leaves point X at 9:00 AM and reaches point Y at 1:00 PM. B leaves point Y at 9:00 AM
and reaches point X at 3:00 PM. At what time will they meet?
Ans A. 1:24 PM

B. 12:36 PM

C. 10:24 AM

D. 11:24 AM

Q.37 The ages of Renu and Kashish are in the ratio 9 : 8. After 5 years, the ratio of their ages
will be 10 : 9. Find the difference between their present ages.
Ans A. 5 years

B. 4 years

C. 7 years

D. 6 years

Q.38 What is the volume (in cm3, rounded off to 1 decimal place) of a spherical shell whose
internal and external diameters are 10 cm and 12 cm, respectively?

Ans A. 323.9

B. 401.5

C. 381.3

D. 345.7

Q.39 One pipe can fill a tank in 7 minutes while another pipe can empty
the completely filled tank in 56 minutes. If both the pipes are
opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it
take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 4

D. 9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

Page 8

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Q.40
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. co s e m
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Ans

se
A.

g l a
B. a
C.

D.

Q.41 Which of the following is the correct model for finding the Highest Common Factor
(HCF) of two numbers?

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Ans A. Prime Factorization Model: Find the prime factorization of both numbers, then multiply the common prime factors with the
lowest powers.
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B. Addition Model: Add the two numbers and check the common factors of the sum.

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C. Division Model: Divide both numbers by a common number to find the highest factor.
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D. Subtraction Model: Subtract both the numbers and check the common factor.
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Q.42
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A grocer marked his goods at 50% above their cost price and sold them at a discount of
X%. If he gained 35% profit, then find the value of X.
Ans A. 9

B. 12

C. 10

D. 11

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Q.43 The measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon is:
Ans A. 118°

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B. 108°

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C. 78°

D. 128° ag
Q.44 Two lines are planned such that the equations representing their paths are: (k−4)x + 2y
= 6 and 2x + y = 4. If the lines are to be constructed parallel to each other, what value of
k will ensure that?
Ans A. 10

B. 8

C. 7
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D. 6
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Q.45
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The average age of 24 students of a class is 17 years. If the age of the teacher is also
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s e included, the average age of the whole group becomes 18 years. The age (in years) of

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the teacher is:
A. 45 a
a B. 43

C. 42

D. 44

Q.46 If third proportional of 75 and Z be 12, then what is the value of Z?4959
Ans A. 32

B. 27
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C. 28

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D. 30

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Page 9

Q.47 A vendor buys a washing machine for ₹12,000. He sells it to a retailer at 10% profit, and
the retailer sells it to a customer at 15% loss. What is the final selling price?
Ans A. ₹11,220

B. ₹11,000

C. ₹11,620

D. ₹11,420

Q.48 ₹13,403 is divided among S, B and C in such a way that if ₹40, ₹83 and ₹68 be deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 21:11:4. Find the difference
between the original shares of B and C.
Ans A. ₹2,519

B. ₹2,669

C. ₹2,719

D. ₹2,584

Q.49 Two pipes, P and Q, can fill a cistern in 30 hours and 40 hours, respectively. If pipe P is
opened alone for 15 hours and then closed, after which pipe Q fills the cistern until it is
full, then what percentage of the cistern is filled by pipe P relative to the portion filled by
pipe Q?
Ans A. 150%

B. 50%

C. 120%

D. 100%

Q.50 The perimeter of a square is equal to the one-half of radius of a circle whose area is
39424 cm2. What is the area of the square?

.

Ans A. 204 cm2

B. 169 cm2

C. 196 cm2

D. 135 cm2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. NKP

B. RQP

C. MJO

D. HEJ

Q.52 In a row of 25 people facing north, Sanjay is 7th from the right end. If Anu sits 3rd to the
left of Sanjay, then what is Anu’s position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 17th

B. 16th

C. 18th

D. 15th

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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. co 94 130 179 243 324 ?

s e m
m Ans A. 426
a
se B. 423
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C. 424

D. 425

Q.54 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 593, 784, 358, 631, 296 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

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Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

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What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
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Ans A. 10
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B. 14
l a ag
C. 17 ag
D. 13

Q.55 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

JOIN - OJIN - NOJI
MALE - AMLE - EAML
Ans A. NEAR - NAER - RAEN
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B. USER - SUER - SERU

C. LION - ILON - NILO
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D. PAGE - APGE - EAGP
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Q.56 ag
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

YCG 87 IMQ 95 SWA 103 CGK 111 ?
Ans A. MRT 119

B. MPT 118

C. MRX 118

D. MQU 119
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Q.57 Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
three people sit to the left of T. Only W sits to the right of D. Only three people sit
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e mbetween D and C. B sits at some place to the left of U but at some place to the right of V.

l as
s
How many people sit between V and U?

l a Ans A. Three
ag
ag B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Q.58 Six friends, G, H, I, Q, R and S, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the
table. Q sits third to the left of G. G sits second to the left of R. Only S sits between G
and H. I is not an immediate neighbour of Q. How many people sit between H and I when
counted from the right of H?

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Ans A. One

B. Two

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C. Four
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D. Three
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Q.59 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

DBD−BZB
JHJ−HFH
Ans A. VST−TRT

B. VST−SQS

C. VTV−SRS

D. VTV−TRT

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘AMIE’ is coded as ‘9432’ and ‘SAME’ is coded as ‘4279’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans A. 2

B. 9

C. 4

D. 7

Q.61 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 @ 3 $ 2 ! 1 6 ^ & 9 3 ! @ # 3 $ 5 + ! (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be seventh
from the right?
Ans A. 2

B. 9

C. 3

D. 6

Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘SOUP’ is coded as ‘5179’ and ‘PACE’ is coded as ‘2418’.
What is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 7

B. 9

C. 2

D. 1

Q.63 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is K related to V if ‘K-TxR+Z&V’?
Ans A. Brother's wife's father

B. Brother's wife's brother

C. Husband

D. Son

Q.64 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 6 7 2 3 7 3 8 1 7 2 8 6 3 6 8 9 9 3 9 5 6 1 5 1 7 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.65 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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m a
se Statements:
All jacks are hammers. ag l
All jacks are keys.
All jacks are drillers.

Conclusions:
(I) All hammers are drillers.
(II) Some drillers are keys.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.66
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Each of the digits in the number 56378492 is arranged in descending order from left to
s l a
a ag
right. What will be the product of the digits that are second from the left and second
l
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from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 28

B. 24

C. 21

D. 32

Q.67 DRBH is related to SGQW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, LZJP is related to AOYE. To which of the given options is ESCI related,
following the same logic?
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Ans A. THRE

B. THYU
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C. THRX
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D. THDR
ag
Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some rabbits are fans.
No fan is a car.

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Conclusions:

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(I): Some rabbits are cars.

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(II): Some fans are rabbits.
Ans
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A. Only conclusion (II) follows
s e
s e g l a
a
B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

g l C. Only conclusion (I) follows a
a D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.69 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 8 9 8 1 9 4 4 8 2 8 2 9 6 8 9 9 8 8 9 6 5 5 1 5 3 1 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4
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B. 3
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C. 2
s e l a
D. 5
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Q.70 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(55, 11, 5)
(36, 3, 12)
Ans A. (42, 15, 3)

B. (70, 5, 16)

C. (65, 5, 13)

D. (56, 14, 3)

Q.71 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order.
W is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between W and B. P is
kept at one of the positions below W. Only D is kept between B and S. E is kept at one of
the positions above B.
How many boxes are kept between P and E?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. Five

D. Four

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

71 59 46 32 17 ?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. −1

D. 2

Q.73 In a school complex, Building A is to the south of Building B. Building E is to the east of
Building B. Building D is to the west of Building A. Building C is to the south of Building
E. What is the position of Building C with respect to Building B?
Ans A. South

B. South-east

C. West

D. East

Q.74 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ARB YVZ WZX UDV ?
Ans A. SHT

B. RHS

C. RGT

D. TGU

Q.75 Priya starts from point A and drives 32 km towards the south. She then takes a right
turn, drives 31 km, turns right and drives 43 km. She then takes a right turn and drives
54 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 11 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
Ans A. 22 km to the west

B. 21 km to the west

C. 23 km to the west

D. 24 km to the south
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.76 O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit
m
between W and Y. P sits to the immediate left of Y. No one sits to the right of Q. Only two

. co people sit between Q and P. X sits to the immediate right of O. How many people sit
between R and X?
s e m
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B. Two ag l
C. Three

D. Four

Q.77 If 3 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
5341256, what will be the sum of the digits which are first from the left and second from
the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 8

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B. 14
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C. 16

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D. 10

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Q.78 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, then what
will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

78 P 3 R 15 Q 5 S 126 Q 3 S 117 Q 9 S 125 Q 5 = ?
Ans A. 351

B. 384

C. 332

D. 311

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Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

m
2, 27, 63, 112, 176, ?
Ans A. 257
s e
B. 258
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C. 259 a
D. 256

Q.80 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. AQ - YO
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B. NB - LZ

m.co C. DW - BV
s e m
s e D. EL - CJ

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a Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which of the following parties won 5 seats in the Bihar Assembly elections 2025?
Ans A. Bahujan Samaj Party

B. Hindustani Awam Morcha (Secular)

C. Janata Dal (United)

D. Lok Janshakti Party (Ram Vilas)

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Page 15

Q.82 In which union territory of India was the world’s highest rail arch bridge inaugurated by
the Prime Minister of India in June 2025?
Ans A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. New Delhi

C. Chandigarh

D. Ladakh

Q.83 When did the Government of India reconstitute the Atomic Energy Commission to
include TV Somanathan and Manoj Govil?
Ans A. December 2024

B. January 2025

C. November 2024

D. March 2025

Q.84 What is the name of the new defence facility inaugurated by Rajnath Singh in New Delhi
in November 2025?
Ans A. DPSU Bhawan

B. National Defence Hub

C. India Defence Parisar

D. Defence PSU Nilayam

Q.85 In October 2024, which of the following state governments launched India’s first
integrated state-level Cyber Command and Control Centre to serve as a comprehensive
hub for handling grievances through multiple channels, including a helpline, web portal
and mobile app?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Chhattisgarh

C. Haryana

D. Maharashtra

Q.86 In September 2025, which range of Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve was
announced to open first for the 2025–26 tourist season?
Ans A. Bagori Range

B. Kohora Range

C. Burapahar Range

D. Agaratoli Range

Q.87 Who developed the Adarsh Sports Complex in Jaipur that was inaugurated in April
2025?
Ans A. Jaipur Development Authority (JDA)

B. Jaipur Municipal Corporation - Greater (JMC-G)

C. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

D. Rajasthan Sports Authority

Q.88 In April 2025, which international organisation acknowledged India’s achievement in
lifting 171 million people out of extreme poverty?
Ans A. Asian Development Bank

B. United Nations

C. World Bank

D. International Monetary Fund

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.89 As of 11 June 2025, approximately how much aid did Punjab National Bank (PNB)
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provide under the Rakshak Plus Scheme for martyrs' families?

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Ans A. ₹17 crore
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B. ₹37 crore

C. ₹7 crore
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D. ₹27 crore

Q.90 Before the approval of caste census in 2025, the last major attempt to gather caste-
based data at the national level was made through which exercise?
Ans A. Census of India, 1971

B. National Sample Survey, 2005

C. Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC), 2011
m
D. Economic Census of 2001
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Q.91
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Where was the Senior Asian Wrestling Championship 2025 held?
s em
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Ans A. Uzbekistan

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B. Jordan

C. Qatar

D. Saudi Arabia

Q.92 In January 2025, Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel inaugurated the Khel
Mahakumbh 3.0 in which city?
Ans A. Ahmedabad

B. Rajkot

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C. Vadodara

D. Surat

e m
Q.93
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Which city hosted the prestigious Michelin Guide awards in February 2025?
Ans A. Birmingham, England
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B. Cardiff, Wales

C. Glasgow, Scotland

D. Edinburgh, Scotland

Q.94 Which important day commemorating India’s victory over Pakistan was observed on 26
July 2025?
Ans A. Kargil Vijay Diwas

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B. Republic Day
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C. Independence Day

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D. Border Security Day

g l a
g l a Q.95 What was the central focus of the 7th Future Food Forum 2025 held in Dubai, UAE? a
a Ans A. Advancing food security, trade and innovation

B. Building a circular economy for global manufacturing networks

C. Enhancing tourism-led growth through digital platforms

D. Strengthening financial inclusion and fintech cooperation

Q.96 Who set the record for the highest individual score in the history of the Champions
Trophy innings with 165 runs?
Ans A. Josh Inglis
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B. Alex Carey

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C. Ibrahim Zadran
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D. Ben Duckett
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Page 17

Q.97 Who conferred awards to cities under the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Awards 2025?
Ans A. Finance Minister, GoI

B. President of India

C. Prime Minister of India

D. Environment Minister, GoI

Q.98 Who, as a digital content creator, co-founded Monk Entertainment and was a prominent
figure in 2025?
Ans A. Abhishek Mishra

B. Sanchit Patil

C. Jeet Shah

D. Ranveer Allahbadia

Q.99 As notified in February 2025, which of the following companies introduced India’s first
Air Quality Index-based parametric insurance for construction workers in the Delhi-
National Capital Region?
Ans A. Tata AIG General Insurance

B. Go Digit General Insurance Limited

C. National Insurance Company Limited

D. Star Health and Allied Insurance

Q.100 Which student-led national case competition launched in October 2025 aims to address
malnutrition and promotes SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 3 (Good Health & Well-
being)?
Ans A. Swasth India Mission

B. Yukti – Nutrition Nirmaan

C. Udaan – Education for All

D. Viksit Bharat Challenge

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

Page 18

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a

Test Date 02/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
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Section : General Science

Q.1 How much work is required to move a box through a distance of 3 m in the direction of
a force of 25 N?
Ans A. 0 J

B. 25.0 J

C. 750.0 J

D. 75.0 J
m
Q.2 .co
A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 2 kg. The acceleration produced is:
m
Ans A. 20 m/s²
s e
B. 10 m/s²
g la
C. 2 m/s² a
D. 5 m/s²

Q.3 ఫారుషಘ లా యూనిట్ ష಴దవషಙ రాశి యొకషಏ యూనిట్:
Ans A. kg

B. g

C. u
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D. mole
m
Q.4
m.co
Bleaching powder is chemically formed by:
s e m
s e
Ans A. CaCO₃ reacting with CO₂ gas
g l a
g l a B. CaCl₂ reacting with O₂ gas a
a C. NaOH reacting with HCl acid

D. Ca(OH)₂ reacting with Cl₂ gas

Q.5 The making of new cells in organisms is called ___________.
Ans A. Cell respiration

B. Cell secretion

C. Cell division
m .
D. Cell fusion

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Page 19

Q.6 ష಴కింది వాటిలో, పంట రకాలలో కావాలసిన ల్షణానిషಒ పరిచయం చేయడానికి ఒక పదషಮతి
కానిది ఏది?
Ans A. ఇం జెనిక్ హై డైజేషన్

B. ఇంటర్సె సిఫిక్ హై డైజేషన్

C. ఇంటర్వెరైటల్ హై డైజేషన్

D. ఇంటర్జనరిక్ హై డైజేషన్

Q.7 Which tissue or tissues can help animals respond quickly to changes in their
surroundings?
Ans A. Digestive and excretory systems working together

B. Muscle tissue alone

C. Nerve impulses and muscle tissue working together

D. Bone and cartilage working together

Q.8 What helps flowering plants to grow new plants in the next generation?
Ans A. Growth of petals

B. Formation of stigma

C. Seed formation and germination

D. Formation of roots

Q.9 ష಴కింది వాటిలో, ఆవరణ వషಙ వసషಬలో నిరీ షಣవ అంశం(అబయోటిక్ కాంపొ ంట్) కానిది ఏది?
Ans A. వరపాతం

B. ఉ గత

C. గాలి

D. సూ్ష జీవులు(మై కోబ్ )

Q.10 What is the main function of muscular tissue in the human body?
Ans A. It produces movement by contracting and relaxing.

B. It provides protection and structural support to organs.

C. It transmits impulses between different body organs.

D. It stores energy and maintains body temperature.

Q.11 ఇనుముపై తుపుషಓ ఎపుషಓ డు ఏరషಓ డుతుంది?
Ans A. అది పొడి గాలితో సంపర ంలోకి వచి నపు డు

B. అది నీరు మరియు ఆకి జన్తో సంపర ంలోకి వచి నపు డు

C. అది ఉ నికి మా తమే బహిరతమైనపుడు

D. అది కార న్ డయా డ్ తో చర జరిపినపు డు

Q.12 ఒక సరళ రేఖ ంట ఒక వ షಫ వు యొకషಏ ఏకరీతి చలనం సమయంలో_____.
Ans A. గమనవేగం వేరే రు ్షణాలలో మరియు మారం యొక వేరే రు పాయింట వద వేరే రు విలువలను కలిగి ఉంటుంది.

B. ఏ కాల వ వధిలోనైనా గమనవేగంలో మారు సునా .

C. ఏ కాల వ వధిలోనైనా గమనవేగంలో మారు సునా కాదు.

D. కాలంతో పాటు గమనవేగం నిరంతరం మారుతూ ఉంటుంది.

Q.13 గురుతాషಛ కర షಲణ నియమం దీనిని నిరూపించడంలో సహాయపడింది:
Ans A. భూమి చదునుగా ఉంది.

B. భూమిపై పడే వసువులను మరియు గహాల చలనాని రెండింటినీ ఒకే బలం నియం తిసుంది.

C. సూరు డు భూమి చు తిరుగుతాడు

D. గురుతా కరణ భూమిపై ఉన వసువులపై
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Q.14 How are the magnetic field lines arranged inside a current-carrying solenoid?
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Ans A. Curved and non-uniform

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B. Random

g l a
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C. Parallel and uniformly spaced

D. Radial from the centre

Q.15 ష಴కింది వాటిలో 'ఒక ష಴దావణం యొకషಏ గాఢత'ను ఏది ఎకుషಏ వ ఖచిషಐ తంగా నిరషಛ చి షಫ ంది?
Ans A. దావణికి సంబంధించి కరిగిన పదారం యొక పరిమాణం

B. రంగు మరియు రుచి వంటి ఇం దియ ల్షణాలు

C. గాలిలో విష౏పణ చెందిన వాయు కణాల మొతం సంఖ

D. దవ రాశి మరియు వేగం మధ అనుపాత సంబంధం
m
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Q.16
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Which process is used for heating metal oxides to extract metals like copper and
silver?
m s em
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ag
Ans A. Electrolysis

l a
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B. Smelting

C. Roasting

D. Thermal Decomposition

Q.17 What is rancidity?
Ans A. The process where fats and oils in food are oxidised, leading to changes in smell and taste

B. The process of food decaying due to bacterial growth

m
C. The process of preserving food by adding salt or sugar

D. The process of food becoming stale due to drying

m .co
s e
la
Q.18 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the speed of sound?
(i) Speed of sound increases with the increase in the temperature of the medium.

ag
(ii) Speed of sound in solid state is greater than the speed of sound in gaseous state.
(iii) Speed of sound decreases with the increase in the temperature of the medium.
(iv) Speed of sound is independent of the properties of the medium through which it
travels.
Ans A. Both (i) and (ii)

B. Both (ii) and (iii)

C. Both (i) and (iv)

D. Both (iii) and (iv)

m
m .co
Q.19 If a wire has a resistance R and a current I passes through it, the power dissipated in

.co
the wire is given by:

e m
Ans

e m
A. P=I2/R

l as
l as B. P=I2R
ag
ag C. P=V2R

D. P=V/I

Q.20 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Alcohols react with sodium to evolve hydrogen.
Statement B: No gas is evolved when sodium reacts with ethanol.
Ans A. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

B. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

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C. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

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D. Both statements A and B are correct.

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Page 21

Q.21 ష಴కింది వాటిలో, ముకషಏ లగుట(ష಴ఫాగ్మెంటేషన్) మరియు సిదషಮభీజం( షಓ ర్) రెండూ ఏ
జీవులలో ఏరషಓ డతాయి?
Ans A. పానేరియా

B. అమీబా

C. ఈ

D. శి ం ధాలు

Q.22 ఒక ష಴పతిబింబం (h') యొకషಏ ఎతుషಫ ష಴పధాన అష౿నికి మరియు దాని ష಴కిందకి (-y-అ్షం ంట)
లంబంగా కొలిచినటషಱయితే, సంష಴పదాయం ష಴పకారం దాని విలువకు ఏ సంజ(షಥ సైన్)
కేటాయించబడుతుంది?
Ans A. ధనాత కం

B. ఆవరనం మీద ఆధారపడి ఉంటుంది

C. తటసం

D. ఋణాత కం

Q.23 What type of reproduction is involved when buds from the leaf margins of Bryophyllum
develop into new plants?
Ans A. Sexual reproduction

B. Budding through stem nodes

C. Asexual reproduction by spores

D. Asexual reproduction by vegetative propagation

Q.24 When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) in front of a concave
mirror, what kind of image is formed?
Ans A. Same size, real, and upright

B. Enlarged, virtual, and upright

C. Diminished, real, and inverted

D. Highly enlarged and virtual

Q.25 The reaction of an alcohol with ethanoic acid in the presence of a catalyst forms water
and:
Ans A. A salt

B. A hydrocarbon

C. An aldehyde

D. An ester

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 ₹2,288 is divided among Pankaj, Meera, and Ashok in such a way that if ₹39, ₹47, and
₹40 are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 17:15:14.
Find the actual share of Meera.
Ans A. ₹752

B. ₹805

C. ₹855

D. ₹605

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Q.27 Train A departs from station X at 8:00 AM and travels towards station Y at a speed of 50
m
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km/hr. Train B departs from station Y at 9:00 AM and travels towards station X at a

. speed of 60 km/hr. If the two trains meet at 9:45 AM, find one-fourth of the distance
e m
m
between stations X and Y (in km).
as
se Ans A. 33.125

B. 32.125 ag l
C. 33.175

D. 33.225

Q.28 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 20 min and 35 min, respectively. Both Pipe A
and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned off so
that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 28 min?
Ans A. 5 min
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B. 20 min

C. 4 min
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D. 10 min
s em l a
g la ∠
In a quadrilateral IJKL, I = 35° and ∠ J = 24°. The bisectors of ∠ K and ∠ L meet at Z. ag
a
Q.29
∠
What is the measure of LZK?
Ans A. 27°

B. 34°

C. 29.5°

D. 19.5°

Q.30 The average of the squares of the first 4 natural numbers is:
m
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Ans A. 9.5

B. 7.5
e m
C. 6.5
las
D. 8.5
ag
Q.31 An uncle is currently six times as old as his nephew. In 20 years from now, he will be
only twice as old. Find the nephew's current age.
Ans A. 5 years

B. 30 years

C. 25 years

D. 15 years

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Q.32 The arithmetic mean of the observations 31, 36, 83, 84, 93, 47, 17, 45 and 50 is:

e m
s
Ans A. 54

e m l a
l as B. 48

ag
ag C. 47

D. 61

Q.33 A bookstore sells 2 maths books and 3 science books for ₹1,980. It also sells 3
mathsbooks and 2 science books for ₹1,920. What is the total cost of one maths book
and one science book?
Ans A. ₹760

B. ₹780

C. ₹820
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D. ₹800

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Page 23

Q.34 Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive
discounts of 20%, 5% and 21% (rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans A. 60.04%

B. 62.04%

C. 58.66%

D. 63.04%

Q.35 What is the least number that should be added to 443 so that the number obtained is
exactly divisible by 12, 5 and 6?
Ans A. 33

B. 37

C. 40

D. 41

Q.36 The expenditure of Sudha is 100% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 4% and savings increase by 26%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 9%

B. 8%

C. 5%

D. 6%

Q.37 A shopkeeper bought 20 kg of rice at ₹50 per kg and sold it at ₹45 per kg. What is his
loss percentage?
Ans A. 10%

B. 12%

C. 11%

D. 13%

Q.38

Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

Q.39

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.40 An agent sells a pan with a marked price of ₹6,420 at a discount of 20%. What is the
selling price (in ₹) of the pan?
Ans A. 5,137

B. 5,138

C. 5,135

D. 5,136

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Page 24

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Q.41 If 63 : A :: A : 175, then find the positive value of A.
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Ans A. 105

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B. 104

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C. 103

D. 108

Q.42

Ans A. 7

B. 5

C. 8

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D. 6

m
Q.43

m .co s em
s e l a
Ans A. 30300
l a ag
B. 32310
ag
C. 32490

D. 28850

Q.44

Ans A. 17

B. 16

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C. 19

D. 9
e m
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Q.45
g
The amount on a sum of ₹2,600 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
a
Ans A. ₹3,928

B. ₹3,146

C. ₹3,269

D. ₹3,356

Q.46 Water flows through a horizontal cylindrical pipe of internal radius 3.5 cm at 2 m per
second. If the pipe is always half full, then what is the volume of water (in litres)
m
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discharged in 5 minutes?

m
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s e g l a
g l a Ans A. 1045 a
a B. 1155

C. 1455

D. 1275

Q.47 One pipe can fill a tank in 4 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 8 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, then
how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?

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Ans A. 4 minutes

B. 8 minutes

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C. 9 minutes
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D. 5 minutes
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Page 25

Q.48

Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 0.5

D. 1.5

Q.49 The number 77,792 is divisible by:
Ans A. 15

B. 12

C. 14

D. 13

Q.50

Ans A. 2504.6

B. 3013.2

C. 1506.6

D. 1807.2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

10 ÷ 2 + 21 × 7 − 8 = ? + 5
Ans A. 28

B. 25

C. 30

D. 22

Q.52 Meghnath starts from point M and drives 8 km towards North. He then takes a left turn,
drives 3 km, turns right, and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 3 km.
Finally, he takes a right turn, drives 1 km, and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point M again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.) 297
Ans A. 8 km towards East

B. 12 km towards South

C. 5 km towards East

D. 3 km towards North

Q.53 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DEA 48 CDZ 55 BCY 62 ABX 69 ?
Ans A. ZZV 75

B. ZBV 76

C. ZIS 75

D. ZAW 76

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

Page 26

m
.co
Q.54 In a certain code language,
m
. co A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’,

s e m
m
A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’,

se
A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
g l a
How is D related to O if 'D * R # A ± C ₹ O’?
a
Ans A. Mother

B. Mother's sister

C. Sister

D. Wife's sister

Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
m .co
.co
129 143 154 168 179 ?

em
s
Ans A. 189

e m l a
B. 191

l as ag
ag
C. 193

D. 195

Q.56 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 826, 117, 681, 964, 529 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

m
.co
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 5
e m
B. 11
las
C. 7
ag
D. 13

Q.57 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All models are actors.
m
.co
Some actors are directors.

m
All directors are producers.

m .co
Conclusion I: Some actors are producers.
s e m
s e Conclusion II: All models are directors.
g l a
g l a Ans A. Only Conclusion I follows.
a
a B. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

C. Only Conclusion II follows.

D. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Page 27

Q.58 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only.

(Left) R B M Y A C T F K W N J Z Q L X O P E D H V (Right)

How many letters are immediately followed by vowels in the series?5693
Ans A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

Q.59 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

ODH, QFJ, SHL, UJN, ?
Ans A. WMQ

B. WLQ

C. WLP

D. WMP

Q.60 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only 2 people sit to the left of B. Only 3 people sit between C and F, neither of whom
sits at the extreme ends. D sits immediately to the right of E. A sits immediately to the
left of C.
How many people sit to the right of C?
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 2

D. 4

Q.61 In a row of 51 people facing the north, Mahesh sits 18th from the right end. If Valli sits
22nd from the left end of the line, then how many people sit between Mahesh and Valli?
Ans A. 12

B. 11

C. 14

D. 13

Q.62 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(9, 25, 17)
(13, 33, 25)
Ans A. (11, 29, 38)

B. (14, 35, 27)

C. (15, 37, 45)

D. (8, 9, 1)

Q.63 DWXK is related to LEFS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, JCDQ is related to RKLY. To which of the given options is HABO related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. PIJW

B. PDER

C. PIOL

D. PJWE
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

Page 28

m
.co
Q.64 Seven people, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only four
m
co
people sit to the left of J. Only three people sit between J and E. K sits second to the

. left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of G and J. Who sits second to the left of J?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. F

g l
B. K

C. G
a
D. I

Q.65 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

MKO−KIM
RPT−PNR

m
.co
Ans A. FCF−CAE

m
.co m
B. FCF−DBF

C. FDH−CBE
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. FDH−DBF
l
Q.66 ag
Mayank starts from Point A and drives 47 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 48 km, turns right and drives 51 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
56 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 6 km to the east

B. 7 km to the west

C. 8 km to the east

m
.co
D. 5 km to the east

Q.67
e m
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

that group?
las
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

ag
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. EAB

B. JFG

C. XTV

D. PLM

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘lets move on’ is coded as ‘rk ts jn’ and ‘move on the’ is
m
.co
coded as ‘pl jn ts’. How is ‘lets’ coded in that language?
m
.co m
Ans A. rk

m s e
s e
B. jn

g l a
g l a C. pl
a
a D. ts

Q.69 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

42 B 3 D 70 A 2 C 9 B 4 D (36 A 6) B 3 = ?
Ans A. 109

B. 123

m .
C. 97

D. 81

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Page 29

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 2 10 ? 101 226
Ans A. 37

B. 40

C. 30

D. 19

Q.71 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. (All numbers
are single-digit numbers only).
(Left) 3 % & @ 1 7 $ 5 @ 2 & 6 % Ω 4 @ 9 * £ 5 (Right)
If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be fifth from
the right?
Ans A. 7

B. 5

C. 2

D. 6

Q.72 7483516 అనే సంఖషಙ లోని ష಴పతి అంకెను ఎడమ నుండి కుడికి ఆరోహణ ష಴కమంలో
అమరిషಐ న తరాషಛ త, అసలు సంఖషಙ లోని అంకెలతో పోలి షಫ ఎనిషಒ అంకెల సాషಬనం(లు)
మారకుండా అలాగే ఉంటుంది/ఉంటాయి?
Ans A. మూడు

B. రెండు

C. ఏదీ లేదు

D. ఒకటి

Q.73 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:
All hotels are restaurants.
All restaurants are cafes.
Some restaurants are bars.

Conclusions:
(I): Some cafes are bars.
(II): Some hotels are bars.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.74 Arvind ranked 15th from the top and 10th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 23

B. 25

C. 24

D. 26

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

Page 30

m
.co
Q.75 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
co
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT

. belong to that group?
e m
m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
as
se l
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. BYW
ag
B. WTR

C. TRO

D. SPN

Q.76 DINS is related to GLQV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, HMRW is related to KPUZ. To which of the given options is BGLQ related,
following the same logic?

m
.co
Ans A. CHKP

m
.co m
B. DHOS

C. CIOS
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. EJOT
l
Q.77 ag
What should come in place of ? in the given series?
84 85 87 91 99 ?6043
Ans A. 115

B. 117

C. 114

D. 116

Q.78
m
Eight friends, Aman, Babu, Chotu, Deepu, Ehsan, Farookh, Guna, and Hari, are sitting

.co
around a circular table facing the centre. Deepu is second to the left of Farookh. Deepu
is third to the right of Hari. Aman is second to the right of Farookh. Chotu is second to

e m
the right of Babu. Farookh is third to the right of Babu. Guna is not an immediate
s
neighbour of Farookh. Who is second to the right of Aman?

la
Ans A. Guna

B. Chotu ag
C. Deepu

D. Ehsan

Q.79 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 496 357 256 547 413 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.)

m
.co
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to
m
.co
the third digit of the lowest number?

e m
Ans

e m
A. 13

l as
l as B. 14

ag
ag C. 12

D. 15

Q.80 In a certain code language, OGAR is coded as 123 and ZAPQ is coded as 180. What is
the code for WVDL in that language?
Ans A. 180

B. 172

C. 183

m .
.co
D. 177

e m
e m l as
l as
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Page 31

Q.81 ఈ ష಴కింది వాటిలోషಱని ఏ సంసషಬ జనవరి 2025లో జాతీయ అతషಙ వసర నిరాషಮరణల జాబితా
(నేషనల్ ఎ షಝ నిషಲయల్ డయాగాషಒ సిక్ షದ షಝ లి )షದ (NEDL) ముసాయిదా యొకషಏ రెండవ
ఎడిషన్ను విడుదల చేసింది?
Ans A. ఇండియన్ కౌని ల్ ఆఫ్ మెడికల్ రీసెర్

B. కౌని ల్ ఆఫ్ ంటిఫిక్ & ఇండ సియల్ రీసెర్

C. డిపారె ంట్ ఆఫ్ బయోటెకా లజీ

D. పిని పల్ ంటిఫిక్ అడై జర్ యొక కారా లయం

Q.82 ష಴పపంచ షಙ ంకు జూన్ 2025 నివేదిక ష಴పకారం 2022-23లో భారతదేశ తీష಴వ పేదరిక
రేటు(ఎక్షಝ ష಴టీమ్ పావరీ షದ రేట్) ఎంత?
Ans A. 2.3%

B. 7.3%

C. 10.5%

D. 5.3%

Q.83 The Indian contingent participating in the Joint Military Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2025 is
mainly represented by which regiment of the Indian Army?
Ans A. Kumaon Regiment

B. Sikh Regiment

C. Rajput Regiment

D. Gorkha Regiment

Q.84 Who among the following received the prestigious 2024 Vigyan Ratna award?
Ans A. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

B. Gagandeep Kang

C. Chandrima Shaha

D. Satyajit Rath

Q.85 Which among the following countries was visited by the Prime Minister of India in June
2025?
Ans A. Croatia

B. Bangladesh

C. Brazil

D. New Zealand

Q.86 ష಴కింది వాటిలో, 2025-26 కేంష಴ద బ షಣ ట్లో ష಴పకటించినటుషಱగా, 2030 నాటికి ₹10 ల్షల కోటషಱను
సమీకరించడం ల్షషಙ ంగా పెటుషದకునషಒ కారషಙ ష಴కమం ఏది?
Ans A. పోసల్ లైఫ్ ఇ రెన్ (PLI) పథకం

B. జాతీయ మానిటైజేషన్ పైప్లైన్

C. సెకండ్ అసెట్ మానిటైజేషన్ పాన్

D. స చ భారత్

Q.87 కేంష಴ద పరాషಙ వరణ, అటవీ మరియు వాతావరణ మారుషಓ ల మంష಴తితషಛ శాఖ 2020-2025
సంవతషಝ రానికి నిరషಛ ంచిన జాతీయ ఉదాషಙ నవనాలు (NP) మరియు రషಀత ష಴పాంతాలలో
(PA) అనుసరించే సమర షಬవంతమైన నిరషಛ హణ పదషಮతుల సరేషಛ లో, 74.24% షಏ రుతో ఏ
రాషವషంషದ రెండవ సాషಬనానిషಒ దకిషಏ ంచుకుంది?
Ans A. పంజాబ్

B. హిమాచల్ పదేశ్

C. గుజరాత్

D. కరాటక

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

Page 32

m
.co
Q.88 As per the Union Budget 2025–26, a Makhana board will be established for boosting
m
co
production and marketing of Makhana in which of the following states?

. e m
s
Ans A. Assam
m a
se B. Uttarakhand

C. Jharkhand ag l
D. Bihar

Q.89 Who wrote the book 'The Chola Tigers: Avengers of Somnath'?
Ans A. Manorama Mishra

B. Arundhati Roy

C. Natwar Singh

m
.co
D. Amish Tripathi
m
Q.90 .co
నవంబర్ 2025లో జరిగిన ఏ ష಴పధాన జాతీయ కారషಙ ష಴కమంలో ష಴పభుతషಛ ం పటషದణ భారతదేశం
m s em
e
అంతటా పేరుకుపోయిన వషಙ రాషಬల పారిశుధాషಙ నిషಒ వేగవంతం చెయషಙ డానికి డంప్సైట్
s l a
a ag
రెమెడియేషన్ యాకిషಝ లరేటర్ ష಴పోష಴గామ్ (DRAP)ను ఆవిషషಏ రించింది?
l
ag
Ans A. ఇండియా శానిటేషన్ కానే వ్ 2025

B. స చ త ప డా 2025

C. నేషనల్ అర న్ కానే వ్ 2025

D. నేషనల్ ఎని రాన్మెంట్ సమి ట్ 2025

Q.91 డి ంబర్ 2025లో, ఈ ష಴కింది ఆష಴ కన్ దేశాలలో ఏది, ఆష಴ కా ఖండంలో ర షಙ తన
మొదటి నౌకాదళ సాషಬవరానిషಒ సాషಬపించడానికి అనుమతించే ఒపషಓ ందానిషಒ ఆమోదించింది?

m
Ans A. అ రియా

B. దష౿ణా ఫికా

m .co
C. ఇథియోపియా
s e
D. సూడాన్
g la
Q.92
a
మే 2025లో, ఏ భారతీయ నగరం 3,000 చదరపు మీటర షಱ కంటే ఎకుషಏ వ ఉనషಒ భవనాలకి
యాంటీ- షಘ గ్ గన్లను తపషಓ నిసరి చేసింది?
Ans A. ంబై

B. కోల్కతా

C. ఢి

D. చెనై

m
Q.93
m
కేంష಴ద బ షಣ ట్ కేటాయింపులో ₹3,794 కోటషಱ రూపాయలను ఏ మంష಴తితషಛ శాఖ అందుకుంది?
.co
Ans

m .co A. విదా మం తిత శాఖ
s e m
s e B. పరా టక మం తిత శాఖ
g l a
g l a C. యువజన వ వహారాలు మరియు డల మం తిత శాఖ a
a D. ఆరోగ మం తిత శాఖ

Q.94 ఆరి షಬక వృదిషಮని పరాషಙ వరణ పరిర్షణతో సమతులషಙ ం చేయడానికి, ఉతరా
షಫ ఖండ్ ష಴పభుతషಛ ం
అకోషದబర్ 2025లో ఈ ష಴కింది వాటిలోషಱ దేనిని ష಴పారం ంచింది?
Ans A. నైన్- పాయింట్ పాలసీ

B. ఫైవ్-పాయింట్ పాలసీ

C. సెవన్-పాయింట్ పాలసీ

m .
.co m
D. ఎయిట్-పాయింట్ పాలసీ

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Page 33

Q.95 Which female footballer received the 'International Player of the Year' at the Women’s
Football Awards, 2025?
Ans A. Alexia Putellas

B. Vivianne Miedema

C. Ada Hegerberg

D. Sam Kerr

Q.96 2025 IPL లో నాలుగు IPL జటషಱపై 1000 పరుగులు సా ంచిన తొలి భారతీయుడు ఎవరు?
Ans A. శిఖర్ ధావన్

B. సురేష్ రైనా

C. విరాట్ కోహి

D. రోహిత్ శర

Q.97 IMF జనవరి ష಴పపంచ ఆరి షಬక దృకషಓ థ నివేదిక (వరల్షನ ఎకనామిక్ అవుట్ లుక్ అప్ డేట్)లో
పే షಏ నషಒ ష಴పకారం, 2025 సంవతషಝ రానికి అంచనా వేయబడిన GDP వృదిషಮ రేటు ఎంత?
Ans A. 2.8%

B. 4.2%

C. 3.7%

D. 3.3%

Q.98 జూన్ 2025లో లార్ షನషಝ లో జరిగిన ICC వరల్షನ టె షದ ంపియన్షిప్ (WTC) ఫైనల్లో
షದ యాను 5 వికెటషಱ తేడాతో ఓడించి తమ తొలి WTC టైటిల్ను ఎవరు
ఆషವ లి
గెలుచుకునాషಒ రు?
Ans A. భారతదేశం

B. ఇంగాండ్

C. దష౿ణా ఫికా

D. జి ండ్

Q.99 How many total medals did India win at the 2025 Asian Youth Games held in Manama,
Bahrain?
Ans A. 42

B. 36

C. 48

D. 54

Q.100 ఉతర షಫ ష಴పదేశ్ ష಴పభుతషಛ ం మే 2025లో ష಴పకటించిన మెరుగుపరచబడషನ SHe-Box పోర షದల్ పని
ష಴పదేశాలలో ఏ లింగానికి మదషಭతు ఇ షಫ ంది?
Ans A. LGBTQ+

B. మహిళలు

C. న్ జెండర్ వ లు

D. పురుషులు

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

Page 34

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 02/02/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Plastids have their own __________ and __________, similar to mitochondria.
Ans A. nucleus; chromosomes

B. DNA; ribosomes

C. vesicles; proteins

D. enzymes; vacuoles

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Q.2 An object has a mass of 11 kg and is placed at a height above the ground. If its potential
energy is 440 J and g = 10 m/s2, what is the height?
Ans A. 8 m
e m
B. 48,400 m
las
C. 2 m ag
D. 4 m

Q.3 Which of the following combination reactions is an example of exothermic reaction?
Ans A.

B.

C.
m
m .co
m.co D.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.4 What happens to the sound when the source vibrates faster?
a
a Ans A. The sound stops producing compressions and rarefactions.

B. The frequency and pitch become lower.

C. The frequency and pitch become higher.

D. The pitch stays the same, but frequency decreases.

Q.5 The amount of solute dissolved in a particular solvent is defined in terms of:
Ans A. concentration

m .
B. surface tension

C. fluidity

m .co s e m
D. viscosity
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Page 35

Q.6 Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in having which of the following?
Ans A. A true nucleus

B. Ribosomes

C. Membrane-bound organelles

D. No membrane-bound nucleus

Q.7 Which of the following statements suits best for the role of chemical methods of birth
control in family planning?
Ans A. They prevent sperm from entering the uterus by thickening the vaginal wall.

B. They alter the hormone levels to inhibit ovulation and uterus preparation.

C. They increase estrogen levels to promote ovulation and make fertilisation less likely.

D. They mechanically block the fallopian tubes and suppress menstruation entirely.

Q.8 A convex mirror always forms an image that is ________.
Ans A. real, inverted, and smaller than the object

B. real, erect, and same size as the object

C. virtual, erect, and larger than the object

D. virtual, erect, and diminished

Q.9 The absolute refractive index of a material is 4/3. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108
m/s, then what will be the speed of light in this medium?
Ans A. 3 x 108 m/s

B. 4 x 108 m/s

C. 2.25 x 108 m/s

D. 1.33 x 108 m/s

Q.10 Water harvesting is important because it:
Ans A. Purifies the water bodies

B. Decreases the water supply to downstream areas

C. Recharges groundwater

D. Reduces the mineral density in water bodies

Q.11 At what pH does tooth decay begin to occur in the human mouth?
Ans A. Exactly 6.5

B. Above 8

C. Below 5.5

D. Between 7 and 8

Q.12 According to Ohm’s law, the potential difference across a conductor is:
Ans A. directly proportional to the current

B. inversely proportional to the current

C. equal to the resistance

D. independent of the current

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic compounds?
Ans A. They generally have high melting and boiling points.

B. They can conduct electricity in an aqueous/molten state.

C. They are soluble in solvents such as kerosene and petrol.

D. They are generally solid at room temperature.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

Page 36

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Q.14 When CO2 reacts with calcium hydroxide, it gives calcium carbonate and water. Which
m
co
property of CO2 is seen in this reaction?

. e m
s
Ans A. Basic property
m a
se B. Acidic property

C. Neutral property ag l
D. Oxidising property

Q.15 Which of the following situations clearly illustrates Newton’s third law, where action and
reaction forces act on two different objects and are equal and opposite?
Ans A. A stone resting on the ground.

B. A sailor pushes the boat backward while jumping forward, and the boat pushes him forward.

C. A book kept on a table remains at rest.
m
m
D. A car accelerating due to engine power.
.co
m .co s em
Q.16
e
What is the correct formula for calculating pressure, where thrust is the force applied

s l a
ag
and area is the surface it acts on?

l a
ag
Ans A. Pressure = Area ÷ Thrust

B. Pressure = Thrust ÷ Area

C. Pressure = Thrust + Area

D. Pressure = Thrust × Area

Q.17 Which enzyme present in saliva helps break down starch?
Ans A. Lipase

B. Pepsin

m
.co
C. Trypsin

D. Amylase
e m
Q.18
las
Which reaction best supports the Law of Conservation of Mass?
Ans A. Heating iron in open air
ag
B. Evaporation of alcohol in open air

C. Burning of paper in open air

D. Mixing of vinegar and baking soda in a sealed container

Q.19 Why does a galvanised iron article remain protected from rusting even if the zinc
coating is scratched?
Ans A. Zinc is more reactive than iron and undergoes preferential oxidation, protecting the iron.
m
.co
B. Scratches allow oil to seep in and prevent rusting.
m
m.co C. Iron forms a thin layer of rust that prevents further corrosion.

s e m
s e D. Zinc reacts with iron to form a protective layer of iron oxide.

g l a
g l a Q.20 Which of the following properties of 'suspension' is INCORRECT? a
a Ans A. Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture.

B. Particles of suspension are visible to the naked eye.

C. Particles of suspension do not scatter a beam of light.

D. Particles of suspension can be separated from the mixtures by the process of filtration.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Page 37

Q.21 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation helps grow plants that do not produce seeds.
Reason (R): It uses flowers to grow new plants.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true

B. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

C. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

D. A is true, but R is false

Q.22 Food web consists of different types of _________.
Ans A. trophic levels

B. food chains

C. ecosystems

D. foods

Q.23 A particle accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s2. Its velocity changes from 5 m/s to 15 m/s.
How long does this take?
Ans A. 7s

B. 2 s

C. 5 s

D. 10 s

Q.24 The resistance of a wire is 1 Ω. If it is cut into two equal parts, the resistance of each
part will be:
Ans A. 1 Ω

B. 0.5 Ω

C. 4 Ω

D. 2 Ω

Q.25 Which of the following is a result of the genetic variation introduced by sexual
reproduction?
Ans A. Production of genetically identical offspring

B. Formation of identical twins

C. Decreased chances of survival

D. Evolution

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The mode of the observations 22, 21, 22, 20, 33, 34, 22, 29, 29, 31, 23, 23, 28, 32, 22, 26
and 27 is:
Ans A. 33

B. 20

C. 21

D. 22

Q.27 A computer printed 1,76,400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for 6
hours during the day, how many lines did it print per minute?
Ans A. 450

B. 490

C. 420

D. 460

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

Page 38

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Q.28 In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 66°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 35°. What
m
is the measure of ∠ AEB?

. co
Ans A. 65°
s e m
m a
se B. 59°

C. 47° ag l
D. 66°

Q.29 The difference between the present ages of two sisters is 3 years. After 2 years, the
elder sister will be twice as old as the younger sister was 2 years ago. Find the sum of
their ages after 8 years from now.
Ans A. 33 years

B. 39 years

m
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C. 31 years

m
.co m
D. 37 years

m s e
Q.30
s e
The ratio of three numbers is 12 : 21 : 5. If 50 percent of the first number is 78, then what
l a
l a
would be 50 percent of the absolute difference of third and second number? 5000
ag
ag
Ans A. 105

B. 103

C. 102

D. 104

Q.31

Ans
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A.

e m
B.

las
C.
ag
D.

Q.32 Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. If the length of each
train is 444 m and they cross each other in 37 seconds, then what is the speed of each
train?
Ans A. 9 m/s

m
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B. 8 m/s

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C. 10 m/s

m D. 12 m/s
s e
s e g l a
g l a Q.33 What is the LCM of 13, 65, and 91?
a
a Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.34 X, Y and Z together can complete a piece of work in 8 days, while X alone can complete
it in 24 days and Y alone can complete it in 36 days. Find in how many days Z alone can
complete the work?

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Ans A. 48 days

e m
B. 12 days

e m l as
C. 18 days

l as ag

D. 28 days
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Page 39

Q.35 The average of first 6 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans A. 6.5

B. 6

C. 5.5

D. 7

Q.36

Ans A. 14

B. 13

C. 10

D. 16

Q.37 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 22 February 2024 to 23 April 2024.16
Ans A. 39

B. 38

C. 41

D. 40

Q.38 In a town with 75,000 voters, 95% cast their votes, all of which were valid. There were
three candidates: A, B, and C. Candidate A received 40% of the valid votes, while
candidate B received 12% fewer votes than A. What percentage of the valid votes did
candidate C receive?
Ans A. 52%

B. 48%

C. 15.2%

D. 24.8%

Q.39

Ans A. 18.67%

B. 16.67%

C. 15.67%

D. 14.67%

Q.40 The volume of a sphere is numerically equal to its surface area. Find its radius (in
units).
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 4

Q.41 If 4 lines of a print, in a column of a book, contain 36 words, how many words will a
column of 50 lines contain?
Ans A. 454

B. 446

C. 450

D. 460

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Page 40

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Q.42 If P : 17 :: 42 : 6, then find the value of P. 4875
m
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Ans A. 116

. e m
m B. 119
as
se C. 122
ag l
D. 118

Q.43 A dealer marks his goods at 25% above the cost price and allows a discount of 28% on
the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
Ans A. 8% loss

B. 10% loss

C. 11% loss

m
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D. 7% gain

m
Q.44
.co
A vertical stick 15 m long casts a shadow 5 m long on the ground. At the same time, a

m
tower casts a shadow of 46.5 m long on the ground. The height of the tower is:
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans A. 137.5 m

l a
ag
B. 141.5 m

C. 139.5 m

D. 135.5 m

Q.45 Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive
discounts of 11%, 18% and 20% (rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans A. 58.88%

B. 62.14%

m
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C. 61.4%

D. 58.38%

e m
Q.46
las
During the festive season, one large laddoo having radius 32 cm is made as prashad.

ag
After pooja, it is decided to make small laddoos from one large laddoo so as to
distribute to the devotees. How many laddoos of radius 2 cm can be made?
Ans A. 4132

B. 4096

C. 3896

D. 3964

Q.47
The value of the expression is _____.
m
Ans
m
A. 10
.co
m.co B. 100
s e m
s e C. 0.1
g l a
g l a D. 1 a
a Q.48 A person saves 10% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹360, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 400

B. 440

C. 324

D. 36

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Page 41

Q.49 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 9 and 18 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 12

B. 8

C. 5

D. 4

Q.50 Rahul covers a distance of 225 km in 15 hours. How many hours will he take to cover
40% less distance if he drives 20% faster than his original speed?3164
Ans A. 8

B. 7

C. 7.5

D. 8.5

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Kartik starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 5 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 7 km to the south

B. 7 km to the north

C. 6 km to the south

D. 6 km to the north

Q.52 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 8 @ 3 € 8 & 6 * 6 © 6 $ £ & 5 7 $ $ # 8 $ (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 8

B. 5

C. 7

D. 6

Q.53 Seven friends, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one
sits to the right of S. S sits immediately to the right of Q. Only three people sit between
S and N. R sits third to the left of M. O sits to the immediate right of M. How many
people sit between L and Q?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. Zero

Q.54 Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 2 1 5 7 9 8 5 3 6 2 1 5 7 3 7 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 5 2 4 1 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans A. More than three

B. Two

C. Three

D. One
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Q.55 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. D sits third to
m
the right of C. A sits second to the left of C. E sits second to the right of F. B sits to the

. co immediate right of E. How many people sit between A and F, when counted from the left
of A?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. None

B. One ag l
C. Four

D. Two

Q.56 In a certain code language,
P + Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’,
P # Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
P & Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’ and
P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
m
m
How is F related to E if ‘F # N + O & V % E’?
.co
Ans A. Father's brother

m.co s em
B. Sister's son
s e l a
l a
C. Father's sister
ag
ag
D. Sister's husband

Q.57 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question. (Counting to be done from
left to right only.)

(Left) D M X A G N R L W O T P Y E F Q K Z J V U H (Right)

How many such consonants are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
Ans A. Three
m
.co
B. More than three

C. One
e m
D. Two
las
Q.58 ag
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 14, 25)
(4, 13, 24)
Ans A. (8, 17, 6)

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B. (6, 15, 26)
m
.co m
C. (9, 18, 23)

m s e
s e
D. (10, 31, 42)

g l a
g l a Q.59 JTUB is related to HRSZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the a
a same way, MXNP is related to KVLN. To which of the given options is LRYH related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. IOVE

B. JPWF

C. JPXF

D. KQXG

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Page 43

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 8 ? 18 26 361107
Ans A. 11

B. 12

C. 14

D. 13

Q.61 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: Some Hydrogens are Oxygens. All Oxygens are Nitrogens. All Nitrogens
are Carbons.
Conclusion I: All Oxygens are Carbons.
Conclusion II: Some Nitrogens are Hydrogens.
Ans A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

C. Only Conclusion II follows

D. Both Conclusions I and II follow

Q.62 YEVA is related to JPGL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, QWNS is related to BHYD. To which of the given options is XDUZ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. IOFK

B. FIKO

C. IOFJ

D. FOKI

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. YBG

B. JMQ

C. CFK

D. ILQ

Q.64 In a certain code language, ‘go there now’ is coded as ‘lb gt de’ and ‘go to school’ is
coded as ‘kj ft de’. How is ‘go’ coded in the given language?

(All codes are two-letter codes)
Ans A. lf

B. kj

C. gt

D. de

Q.65 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 654 842 684 714 385 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, then the position of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three
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Q.66 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
m
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co (84 A 12) B 5 C 13 B 2 D 11 B 5 C 28 = ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. 49

B. 27 ag l
C. 34

D. 54

Q.67 In a certain code language, ‘AUTO’ is coded as ‘2683’ and ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘8136’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in that language?
Ans A. 3

B. 8
m
C. 6
m .co
D. 1

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.68 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
l
ag
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

12 C 52 A 13 B 7 D 31 = ?
Ans A. 7

B. 5

C. 8

D. 9

Q.69 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
.co
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

m
PSQ−MPN
GJH−DGE
s e
la
Ans A. TVS−PSQ

B. TVS−QTR
ag
C. TWU−PTQ

D. TWU−QTR

Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

CYB 48 DZC 53 EAD 58 FBE 63 ?
Ans A. GCF 68
m
m .co
B. GDE 68

m.co C. GHJ 67
s e m
s e D. GBE 67

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.71 All 46 people are standing in a row facing north. Z is 12th from the right end while G is
9th from the left end. How many people are there between Z and G?
Ans A. 25

B. 21

C. 24

D. 23

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Page 45

Q.72 Vikas starts from Point Y and drives 81 km towards the south. He then takes a right and
drives 77 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 27 km. He takes a right turn, drives
35 km. He then turns right, drives 39 km, turns left and drives 42 km to stop at Point Z.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 94 km towards the south

B. 97 km towards the south

C. 89 km towards the north

D. 93 km towards the north

Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. MK−GE

B. GE−ZA

C. CA−WU

D. SQ−MK

Q.74 Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north. Only two
people are sitting between A and D. B is sitting at the third position from the extreme
left of the row. B is sitting to the immediate right of A. B is sitting to the immediate left
of E. Exactly how many people are sitting between E and A?
Ans A. One

B. Three

C. None

D. Two

Q.75 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All bags are shoes.
All bags are caps.
All bags are laptops.

Conclusions:
(I): All shoes are laptops.
(II): Some laptops are caps.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.76 All 54 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Akte is 8th from the right end while
Mr. Memi is 21st from the left end. How many people are there between Mr. Akte and Mr.
Memi?
Ans A. 24

B. 23

C. 25

D. 26

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

Page 46

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Q.77 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
m
series to make it logically complete?

. co KDG, MFI, OHK, QJM, ?
s e m
m a
se Ans A. SLP

B. SLO ag l
C. SKO

D. SKP

Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

17, 22, 32, 47, 67, ?
Ans A. 92

m
.co
B. 94
m
.co m
C. 91

m s e
D. 93

s e l a
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Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1 5 11 19 ? 41
Ans A. 28

B. 27

C. 30

D. 29

Q.80 Each of the digits in the number 21786539 is arranged in ascending order from left to
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right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans A. Three
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B. One
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C. Two
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D. None

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Where were the Special Olympics World Winter Games 2025 held?
Ans A. China

B. Iceland

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C. Italy

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D. Canada

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Q.82 Which summit involving regional leaders from East and Southeast Asia was held in
g l a
g l a Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, on 26–27 May 2025?
a
a
Ans A. Indo-Pacific Strategic Forum

B. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation Summit

C. East Asia Summit

D. ASEAN-China Summit

Q.83 On 11 March 2025, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a corpus of how
much for a contingency fund in Manipur during the discussion on the ‘Manipur
Appropriation Bill, 2025’ and ‘The Manipur Appropriation (Vote on Account) Bill, 2025’ in
the Lok Sabha?
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Ans A. ₹400 crore

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B. ₹750 crore

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C. ₹600 crore

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D. ₹500 crore
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Page 47

Q.84 In which track event did Animesh Kujur break his own national record?
Ans A. 200 m

B. 800 m

C. 100 m

D. 400 m

Q.85 In September 2025, which female cheetah was released in Gandhi Sagar Wildlife
Sanctuary to strengthen breeding efforts?
Ans A. Dheera

B. Sasha

C. Namib

D. Aasha

Q.86 Which among the following states was ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s Fiscal Health
Index (FHI) 2025 for the financial year 2022-23?
Ans A. Karnataka

B. Gujarat

C. Odisha

D. Maharashtra

Q.87 What action did the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) take on 22 August
2025 regarding social-media financial schemes?
Ans A. Grant registration to finance influencers

B. Create a retail investor compensation fund

C. Issue advisory against FPI-linked schemes

D. Ban all financial content on social media

Q.88 Which organisation confirmed strong economic growth in India’s industrial and
services sectors in May 2025, despite unemployment challenges?
Ans A. World Bank

B. NITI Aayog

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Ministry of Finance

Q.89 Which of the following villages in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand was devastated
by a flash flood caused by a cloudburst on 5 August 2025?
Ans A. Dharali

B. Pangot

C. Kanatal

D. Bhowali

Q.90 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) flight-tested the
Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) in August 2025. Which of the following
DRDO laboratories developed the high-power laser-based Directed Energy Weapon
(DEW) for the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS)?
Ans A. Research Centre Imarat

B. Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences

C. Defence Research and Development Establishment

D. Defence Research and Development Laboratory

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

Page 48

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Q.91 Which milestone did Tata Lockheed Martin Aerostructures (TLMAL), a joint venture of
m
Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) and Lockheed Martin achieve in India’s defence

. co manufacturing in December 2025?

s e m
m Ans A. Delivery of 100th C-130J tail assembly
a
se B. Delivery of 300th C-130J tail assembly
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C. Delivery of 250th C-130J tail assembly

D. Delivery of 200th C-130J tail assembly

Q.92 What type of weapon is DRDO planning to test under the DURGA-2 project?
Ans A. Laser Weapon

B. Biological Agent

C. Plasma Gun
m
D. Hypersonic Missile
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Q.93
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As of July 2025, how many Indian cricketers have been nominated for a Laureus World
s em
s e
Sports Award, including Rishabh Pant?
l a
Ans A. Two
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B. One
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C. Four

D. Three

Q.94 'Why the Constitution Matters' is a book written by ___________________.
Ans A. Bibek Debroy

B. Arif Khan

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C. Natwar Singh

D. D.Y. Chandrachud

e m
Q.95
las
Where will India’s first electronic waste (e‑waste) eco‑park be established by the Delhi

Ans A. Holambi Kalan ag
government as a model for sustainable urban development?

B. Anand Vihar

C. Dwarka

D. Rohini

Q.96 In June 2025, which of the following organizations published the Global Economic
Prospects (GEP) report, a flagship publication providing analysis of global economic

m
trends, forecasts, and risks?

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Ans A. World Bank Group
m
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s e m
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g l a
g l a D. Asian Development Bank
a
a Q.97 The Fit India Movement's 'Sundays on Cycle' event, aimed at promoting a healthy
lifestyle, was held in February 2025. At which iconic Mumbai landmark did it take place?
Ans A. Marine Drive

B. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus

C. Gateway of India

D. Bandra-Worli Sea Link

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Page 49

Q.98 In October 2025, what was the RBI Monetary Policy Committee' s decision on the policy
repo rate and stance?
Ans A. Held at 5.90% with an 'accommodative' stance

B. Held at 5.50% and maintained a 'neutral' stance

C. Cut to 5.25% and shifted to 'accommodative' stance

D. Hiked to 5.75% and turned 'hawkish' stance

Q.99 What was the theme of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)’s 21st
Formation Day, observed on 26 September 2025?
Ans A. Stopping Impact of Disaster Incidents in the Himalayan Region

B. Volunteerism in Disaster Management

C. Technology for Risk Reduction – For a Safer Nation

D. Empowering Communities for Disaster Risk Reduction Through Awareness

Q.100 According to the World Bank's Poverty and Equity Brief Report 2025, India’s extreme
poverty rate fell from 16.2% (in 2011-12) to what percentage in 2022-23?
Ans A. 1.8%

B. 2.3%

C. 2.8%

D. 3.2%

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48

Document Details

Board / OrgRailway
ExamGroup D
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages49
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026