ISC Class 12 Sample Paper 2025 Legal Studies

isc
specimen paper
2025
ISC Study Material

LEGAL STUDIES

Maximum Marks: 70
Time Allotted: Three Hours
Reading Time: Additional Fifteen minutes

Instructions to Candidates
➢ You are allowed an additional 15 minutes for only reading the question
paper.
➢ You must NOT start writing during reading time.
➢ This question paper has 7 printed pages.
➢ There are three sections in the paper: A, B and C. Internal choices have
been provided in two questions in Section B and in one question in
Section C.
➢ Answer all questions.
➢ Section A consists of one question each carrying one mark.
➢ While answering Multiple Choice Questions in Section A, you are
required to write ONLY one option as the correct answer.
➢ Section B consists of eight questions each carrying four marks.
➢ Section C consists of four questions each carrying seven marks.
➢ The intended marks for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Instructions to Supervising Examiner
➢ Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present
in the examination hall.

ISC SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER 2025
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SECTION A - 14 MARKS

Question 1
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental duty as outlined in the Indian [1]
Constitution? (Understanding)
(a) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to
do so
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(c) To provide educational opportunities to a child between the ages of 4 and
14 years by their parents
(d) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the freedom
struggle
(ii) Which of the following statements is true regarding Article 39A of the Indian [1]
Constitution? (Understanding)
(a) It imposes an obligation on the State to ensure that opportunities for
securing justice are restricted to only the privileged sections of society.
(b) It primarily focuses on the promotion of equal justice and free legal
assistance for marginalised and economically weaker sections of society.
(c) It is exclusive to criminal cases and does not apply to civil matters.
(d) It applies only to civil matters and not to criminal cases.
(iii) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the two [1]
statements carefully and select the correct option. (Analysis)
Assertion: A person can be liable for battery even if there was no prior assault.
Reason: Battery can occur without the need for a preceding assault, as long as
there is intentional and harmful or offensive physical contact.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(iv) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the two [1]
statements carefully and select the correct option. (Analysis)
Assertion: Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides for agreements
without consideration.
Reason: An agreement without consideration is always void.

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Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(v) Legal Principle: The legal maxim Injuria sine Damnum means injury without [1]
damages. In order to make someone liable in tort, plaintiff
must prove that he/she has sustained legal injury.
Fact Situation: Mrs. Thompson, a member of the prestigious Blue Ridge Golf
Club, was wrongfully denied access to the club’s facilities by
the management due to a clerical error that showed her as
having unpaid dues. Mrs. Thompson was humiliated by the
club’s staff in front of other members and sought legal
recourse, claiming that her rights as a member had been
violated.
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the legal principle
Injuria sine Damnum as applied to the above fact situation involving Mrs.
Thompson? (Application)
(a) Mrs. Thompson cannot claim any damages because she did not suffer any
physical or financial harm.
(b) Mrs. Thompson cannot claim damages because the management
corrected the clerical error promptly after discovering it.
(c) Mrs. Thompson can claim damages because the clerical error caused her
significant financial loss.
(d) Mrs. Thompson can claim damages for the wrongful denial of her rights,
even though she did not suffer any physical or financial harm.
(vi) Legal Principle: Mens rea refers to the mental state or guilty mind required for [1]
criminal liability.
Fact Situation: After an argument with her neighbour over parking space,
Seema threw a stone at the neighbour’s car with the intention
to harm, thereby damaging the car.
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the legal principle,
Mens rea as applied to the above fact situation involving Seema?
(Application)
(a) Seema cannot be held liable because she did not physically harm anyone.
(b) Seema cannot be held liable because she only caused damage to property,
not to a person.
(c) Seema can be held liable because she threw the stone for amusement.
(d) Seema can be held liable because she intended to cause harm by throwing
the stone.

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(vii) As a method of alternate dispute resolution, ____________ is most suitable for [1]
resolving commercial disputes. (Recall)
(viii) Section 498A of the IPC pertains to __________________. (Recall) [1]
(ix) Mohit and Zoravar conspired to break into a house. They purchased tools [1]
specifically for the burglary but were arrested by the police before they could
break-into the house.
Identify the category of crime committed by Mohit and Zoravar.
(Understanding)
(x) Sneha, a store owner, suspected that a customer stole an expensive item from [1]
her shop. In a fit of anger, she locked the customer in a small room within the
store against his will and demanded a confession from him. After an hour, she
found out that the customer was innocent and had not stolen anything.
Which tort was committed by Sneha? (Understanding)
(xi) What are quasi-judicial bodies? (Recall) [1]
(xii) Mihir buys a car from a private vendor, Kamran, who does not disclose the flaws [1]
in the vehicle. A week later, the car breaks down in the middle of the road and
Mihir discovers several mechanical issues that an ordinarily prudent person
could have identified during the purchase process. Mihir feels deceived and
wants to sue Kamran.
Which legal maxim places the responsibility on the buyer to exercise caution
and due diligence while making a purchase? (Recall)
(xiii) What type of matters are not within the jurisdiction of Lok Adalat? (Recall) [1]
(xiv) A agrees to sell “all the grain in my granary at Rajnagar” to B. Will Section 29 [1]
of the Indian Contract Act apply in the given situation? Why? (Evaluate)

SECTION B - 28 MARKS

Question 2 [4]
(i) In the context of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can a person be said to have
a right to elect. What are the implications of such a right? (Understanding)
OR
(ii) Explain the concept of exchange as defined under the Transfer of Property Act,
1882. How does an exchange differ from a sale under the same Act?
(Understanding)

Question 3
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
Case: Aacharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta versus Commissioner of Police
Kolkata, 1984
Petitioner: Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta

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Respondent: Commissioner of Police, Calcutta
The followers of Ananda Marga made an application to the respondent to allow them
to take out a procession in public streets along with tandava dance. The application
was rejected. Where after the petitioner applied for a writ petition U/A 32 of the
Constitution for a direction to the respondent to allow such procession along with
tandava dance.
The petitioner contended that tandava dance was an essential part of the religious rites
of Ananda Margis which they were entitled to practise in public and in private as
guaranteed by the Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India. The respondents order
breached the provision of the said Article.
(Source: https://www.lawinsider.in)
(i) Which writ would have been used by the petitioner U/A 32 of the Constitution [2]
in the above case? Explain the identified writ. (Understanding)
(ii) What provisions are guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of [2]
India? (Understanding)

Question 4
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
Amar owned a bus. He hired Bimal to drive the bus, and Farhan to be the conductor.
One day, when Bimal had stepped out of the bus to have a cup of coffee, Farhan turned
the steering wheel of the bus around so that it was ready for its next trip. While doing
so, Farhan ran over Deepak’s leg, who was standing near the bus. This resulted in
major injuries to Deepak. Deepak sued Amar for damages.
(i) Explain the legal principle of vicarious liability as it applies to the relationship [2]
between a master and a servant. (Understanding)
(ii) Based on the principle of vicarious liability, can Amar be held liable for the [2]
injuries caused to Deepak by Farhan. Justify your answer. (Evaluate)

Question 5
(i) A departmental store is planning to open a chain store and is seeking a location [1]
for a period of ten years.
Which mode of transfer would be appropriate in this case as per Transfer of
Property Act, 1882? (Understanding)
(ii) In order to seek a loan from ABC Bank to buy a new house, Rohini transferred [1]
interest in the house to ABC Bank. Which transfer method was used by Rohini
and ABC Bank as per Transfer of Property Act, 1882? (Understanding)
(iii) Differentiate between the two methods of transfer referred to in subparts (i) and [2]
(ii). (Understanding)

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Question 6 [4]
(i) Differentiate between Lokpal and Lokayukta. (Understanding)
OR
(ii) All human rights are not fundamental rights. Discuss. (Understanding)

Question 7
Rohan sees Zunaid drop his purse with money in it. Rohan picks up the purse with the
intention of restoring it to Zunaid, but afterwards appropriates it to his own use.
(i) Which crime has been committed by Rohan? Which Section of Indian Penal [1]
Code will be applicable to charge Rohan? (Understanding)
(ii) What is the punishment for this crime? (Understanding) [1]
(iii) Mention any two key elements of this statutory crime. (Understanding) [2]

Question 8 [4]
Evaluate the significance of the MC Mehta case (1986) in shaping the doctrine of
absolute liability in India and its impact on industrial safety standards. (Evaluate)

SECTION C – 28 MARKS

Question 9
Public Protest as a Pillar of Democracy: Exercising the Right to Freedom of Assembly

(Source: (edited) https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-right-to-protest-in-a-
free-society/article30618223.ece)
(i) How does the Right to Freedom of Assembly, as guaranteed under [3]
Article 19(1)(b) of the Constitution of India, contribute to the democratic fabric
of society, particularly in the context of public protests? (Understanding)
(ii) The restrictions imposed by government authorities on public protests and [4]
demonstrations can be justified under the reasonable restrictions clause of
Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India. Discuss. (Understanding)

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Question 10
(i) Discuss the validity of a contract with a minor as per Indian Contract Act, 1872. [3]
(Understanding)
(ii) Compare the Traditional Litigation System and Alternative Dispute Resolution [4]
(ADR) on the basis of flexibility and the time required to resolve disputes?
(Analysis)

Question 11
(i) Differentiate between Criminal Force and Assault by giving any three points. [3]
(Understanding)
(ii) Jeevan was thinking about hurting Manpreet out of anger. He made a plan and [4]
accordingly went to buy a weapon from a store. Jeevan followed Manpreet for
a few days to learn his daily routine and find the best place and time to attack.
One day he attempted an attack, but Manpreet escaped. A few days later,
Jeevan found another opportunity. This time, he successfully attacked
Manpreet, causing serious injury to him.
Based on the above case, identify and explain the stages of crime.
(Understanding)

Question 12 [7]
(i) State the functions of the Central Authority as given in Section 4 of the Legal
Services Authority Act, 1987. (Understanding)
OR

(ii) Explain the concept of voidability of agreements without free consent as
stipulated in Section 19 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 by citing any two
examples. (Understanding)

ISC SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER 2025
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LEGAL STUDIES
ANSWER KEY

SECTION A - 14 MARKS

Question 1
In answering Multiple Choice Questions, candidates have to write either the
correct option number or the explanation against it. Please note that only
ONE correct answer should be written.
(i) (c) To provide educational opportunities to a child between the ages of 4 and 14 [1]
years by their parents
(ii) (b) It primarily focuses on the promotion of equal justice and free legal [1]
assistance for marginalised and economically weaker sections of society.
(iii) (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation [1]
for Assertion.
(iv) (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation [1]
for Assertion.
(v) (d) Mrs. Thompson can claim damages for the wrongful denial of her rights, [1]
even though she did not suffer any physical or financial harm.
(vi) (d) Seema can be held liable because she intended to cause harm by throwing [1]
the stone.
(vii) Arbitration [1]
(viii) cruelty by husband or his relatives [1]
(ix) Inchoate crime [1]
(x) False Imprisonment [1]
(xi) Quasi-judicial bodies are entities which have powers similar to those of a court [1]
of law but operate within a specific administrative or regulatory framework.
They can adjudicate disputes, make decisions on legal matters, and enforce
regulations, but their authority is typically limited to certain areas of expertise.
(xii) Caveat Emptor [1]
(xiii) Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of matters relating to divorce or [1]
matters relating to an offence not compoundable under any law.
(xiv) No, because there is no uncertainty here to make the agreement void. [1]

ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
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SECTION B - 28 MARKS

Question 2 [4]
(i) In the context of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a person is said to have a
right to elect under Section 35 of the Act. This section deals with the doctrine of
election, which arises when a person who is not a party to the transfer given a
benefit under a transaction, but at the same time, an obligation is imposed on
them under the same transaction. The person must choose between (elect)
accepting the benefit and the accompanying obligation or reject both.
The implications of such a right are as follows:
Binding Decision:
If the person elects to accept the benefit:
They must also accept the burden or obligation imposed by the transaction. The
acceptance of the benefit binds them to the entire transaction.
If the person elects to reject the benefit:
They must forgo both the benefit and the obligation. They cannot selectively
accept only the favourable part.
(Candidates have to specify the situation when the person has the right to elect.
Both the implications of this right need to be written briefly.)
OR
(ii) Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, exchange is defined in Section 118 as
a transaction where two parties mutually transfer the ownership of one property
for the ownership of another property.
Exchange and sale differ on the following parameters.
Consideration:
Exchange: The consideration is another property.
Sale: The consideration is money.
Nature of Transaction:
Exchange: Mutual transfer of ownership of properties.
Sale: Transfer of ownership of property for a price.
Objective:
Exchange: Primarily to acquire different property.
Sale: Primarily to acquire monetary compensation.
(Candidates are required to briefly explain the concept. The contrast between
exchange and sale must be done on common parameters.)

Question 3
(i) Writ of Mandamus. [2]
In this case, the petitioner would have requested the Supreme Court to issue a
Writ of Mandamus directing the Commissioner of Police, Kolkata, to allow the
procession along with the tandava dance, as requested by the followers of Ananda
Marga.
(A brief explanation of the writ is required.)

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(ii) Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India guarantee the following: [2]
Article 25: Ensures the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health, and
other fundamental rights.
Article 26: Grants every religious denomination the right to manage its own
affairs in matters of religion, establish and maintain institutions for religious and
charitable purposes, and administer property in accordance with the law.
(Provisions under the two Articles need to be stated in a brief manner.)

Question 4
(i) Vicarious liability is a legal principle whereby a party (typically an employer, [2]
referred to as the "master") is held responsible for the actions or omissions of
another party (typically an employee, referred to as the "servant") when those
actions occur within the scope of employment.
(Candidates have to write a brief explanation of the legal principle.)
(ii) No. Amar cannot be held liable because Farhan had acted outside the course of [2]
his service. His job was that of a conductor, and not of the driver. Additionally,
Amar had not expressly authorised Farhan to drive the bus.
(Candidates have to first specify their stance and then write a valid reason to
support it. A mere mention of the stance in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ will not be considered.)

Question 5
(i) Lease [1]
(ii) Mortgage [1]
(iii) Basis Lease Mortgage [2]
Purpose The aim is to grant the right
The aim is to transfer the
to use and occupy the interest in the property to
property for a specific period
secure a loan till the loan is
of time. repaid.
Parties Involved Lessor (owner) and LesseeMortgagor (borrower) and
(tenant) are involved. Mortgagee (lender) ) are
involved.
Possession Possession is given for a Possession may or may not
limited period. be given but interest in the
property is given.
Mode of Transfer The deed is lease. The deed is sale.
Consideration Periodic rent payments or Regular loan repayments
lumpsum payment by the (principal and interest) by
lessee the mortgagor
(Candidates have to differentiate on a common basis. Any two differences
between the two methods will be accepted.)

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Question 6 [4]
(i) Basis Lokpal Lokayukta
Constitution An anti-corruption An anti-corruption
ombudsman is constituted at ombudsman is constituted at
the central level. the state level.
Purpose It strives to inquire into Its aim is to inquire into
allegations of corruption allegations of corruption
against public officials at the against public officials at the
central level. state level.
Jurisdiction It possesses jurisdiction over It possesses jurisdiction over
all members of Parliament State Government employees
and Central Government in case of corruption.
employees in case of
corruption.
Appointing The members are appointed The members are appointed
Authority by the President of India. by the Governor of the
respective state.
Composition It comprises a chairperson It is a three-member body,
and a maximum of eight including Lokayukta, State
members, of which 50% will Vigilance Commissioner and
be judicial members, 50% a jurist.
shall be from SC/ST/OBCs,
minorities and women.
(Candidates have to differentiate on common parameters. Any four differences
will be accepted.)
OR
(ii) • Human rights encompass universal rights inherent to all individuals,
irrespective of nationality, ethnicity, religion, or gender. They are founded on
principles of dignity, equality, and respect and are enshrined in international
treaties and agreements. Fundamental rights, on the other hand, represent a
subset of human rights that are specifically recognised and protected by a
country's constitution or laws.
• Human rights include a broad range of rights and freedoms, such as civil,
political, economic, social, and cultural rights. These rights are protected by
international laws including treaties. Enforcement mechanisms for human
rights involve international bodies and mechanisms, although they vary in
effectiveness.
• Fundamental rights, by contrast, are legally binding within a country's
jurisdiction. They may overlap with human rights but are specific legal
manifestations within a particular legal framework. Enforcement of
fundamental rights is the responsibility of national courts, government
agencies, and domestic institutions in a country responsible for upholding
constitutional principles and ensuring compliance with legal standards. While
fundamental rights contribute to the realisation of universal human rights
norms, they are subject to interpretation and enforcement at the national level.
• In essence, though fundamental rights represent the legal protection of certain
human rights within a specific legal framework, they are interconnected with
broader human rights principles. The protection of fundamental rights

ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
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contributes to the promotion and protection of human rights globally,
reinforcing the fundamental values of dignity, equality, and respect for all
individuals.
(Candidates are required to discuss the statement given in the question and not
refute it.)

Question 7
(i) Section 403- Dishonest Misappropriation of Property [1]
(ii) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable [1]
property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
(iii) To establish the offence of misappropriation following ingredients have to be [2]
satisfied:
• There must be a movable property belonged to the complainant.
• There should be the presence of dishonest intention to misappropriate or
convert the property to his own use by the defendant.

Question 8 [4]
The MC Mehta case, particularly the Oleum Gas Leak case of 1986, was pivotal in
establishing the doctrine of absolute liability in India. This legal principle mandates that
industries engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities are strictly liable for
any harm resulting from their operations, regardless of fault or negligence. The Supreme
Court of India, in this landmark judgment, emphasized that such industries have an
absolute and non-delegable duty to ensure safety and compensate victims, reflecting a
progressive shift towards environmental protection and public safety.
This judgment also increased awareness and vigilance among regulatory authorities and
the public, prompting enhanced oversight and preventive measures in industrial
operations. Consequently, the case played a critical role in promoting a safer industrial
environment and better protection of public health in India.
(Candidates are required to assess the effectiveness of Absolute Liability in the context
of M.C. Mehta case. They must judge whether this doctrine was effective in the case
or not and discuss its impact.)

SECTION C – 28 MARKS

Question 9
(i) The Right to Freedom of Assembly, enshrined in Article 19(1)(b) of the [3]
Constitution of India, is a fundamental aspect of a democratic society. It allows
citizens to gather peacefully and express their grievances, opinions, and demands
collectively. Public protests can be viewed as an extension of this Right as they
communicate the responses of the people to the decisions and policies of the
government be conveyed to the government and other concerned authorities.
ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
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They act as a bridge between the government and the people thereby, facilitating
public participation in the democratic process.
Public protests, as seen in the image, play a crucial role in the following ways:
• Expressing Dissent: They provide a platform to individuals or groups to
express their discontent with government policies or social issues, thereby
holding the government accountable.
• Fostering Dialogue: They encourage a dialogue between citizens and the
state, leading to potential policy changes and reforms.
• Strengthening Democracy: They reinforce democratic values by ensuring
that the government remains responsive to the needs and concerns of its
citizens.
• Protecting Minority Rights: They allow marginalised groups a means to
voice their concerns and seek redressal, hence promoting social justice and
equality.
Overall, the Right to Freedom of Assembly is vital for maintaining a vibrant and
responsive democracy.
(Candidates are required to analyse the interplay between Right to Freedom of
Assembly and Public Protests in sustaining the democratic structure.)
(ii) The restrictions imposed by government authorities on public protests and [4]
demonstrations can be justified under the reasonable restrictions clause of
Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India. These restrictions aim to maintain
public order, ensure national security, uphold decency and morality, and
serve other legitimate interests outlined in the Constitution. However, such
restrictions must be reasonable, proportionate, and subject to judicial review to
ensure they comply with constitutional principles and protect individual rights.
(Candidates have to refer to only those restrictions which are justified. A brief
explanation of the words highlighted above is required.)

Question 10
(i) A contract with a minor under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is generally voidable [3]
at the option of the minor. This means the minor can choose to affirm or repudiate
the contract upon reaching the age of majority or within a reasonable time
thereafter. However, contracts for necessities or those beneficial to the minor may
be enforceable.
(Candidates have to discuss the validity of the contract on the guidelines given
above.)
(ii) Both Alternative Disagreement Resolution (ADR) and Traditional Litigation [4]
system are two approaches to resolving disputes between parties, one being
informal and another formal. Both the approaches aim to bring justice.

Amount of time
Alternative Disagreement Resolution (ADR) methods such as mediation and
arbitration are generally much faster than Traditional Litigation. They can resolve
disputes in weeks or months, allowing parties to reach a conclusion more quickly.
Litigation is typically slower due to court backlogs, procedural requirements, and
the possibility of appeals. Cases can take several years to be fully resolved.

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Flexibility
ADR offers greater flexibility in scheduling and procedural rules. Parties can often
choose their mediator or arbitrator, set timelines that suit their needs, and
customise the process to fit the specific circumstances of their dispute.
The litigation process is less flexible, bound by strict procedural rules and court
schedules. The formal structure and regulatory requirements of the court system
leave little room for customisation based on the parties' preferences.
(Candidates are required to draw the similarities and dissimilarities on the
premises given in the question.)

Question 11
(i) [3]
Basis Criminal Force Assault
Whoever intentionally uses Whoever makes any gesture, or
force to any person, without any preparation intending or
that person’s consent, in knowing it to be likely that
order to the committing of such gesture or preparation will
any offence, or intending by cause any person present to
the use of such force to apprehend that he who makes
Meaning cause, or knowing it to be that gesture or preparation is
likely that by the use of such about to use criminal force to
force he will cause injury, that person, is said to commit
fear or annoyance to the an assault.
person to whom the force is
used, is said to use criminal
force to that other.
Criminal force involves the
Assault primarily involves the
intention to cause injury,
Intention intention to cause fear or
discomfort, or annoyance.
apprehension.

It involves actual physical It does not involve physical
Physical contact.
contact or application of
Contact
force.
The outcome may not
The force applied results in
physical harm or injury. necessarily involve physical
Outcome harm; it centres on the
apprehension or fear of harm.
The angle of assault is Criminal force is not present in
Presence present in every criminal every assault.
force
(The differences between Criminal Force and Assault must be written on a
common basis.)
(ii) Stage 1. Intention: Jeevan thought of hurting Manpreet and made a plan. [4]
Stage 2. Preparation: Jeevan purchased a weapon and followed Manpreet to learn
his routine.

ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
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Stage 3. Attempt: Jeevan tried to attack Manpreet but Manpreet escaped
unharmed.
Stage 4. Commission of the Crime: Jeevan successfully attacked Manpreet,
causing serious injury.

Question 12 [7]
(i) The Central Authority shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely:
(a) lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under
the provisions of this Act;
(b) frame the most effective and economical schemes for the purpose of making
legal services available under the provisions of this Act;
(c) utilise the funds at its disposal and make appropriate allocations of funds to
the State Authorities and District Authorities;
(d) take necessary steps by way of social justice litigation with regard to
consumer protection, environmental protection or any other matter of special
concern to the weaker sections of the society and for this purpose, give
training to social workers in legal skills;
(e) organise legal aid camps, especially in rural areas, slums or labour colonies
with the dual purpose of educating the weaker sections of the society as to
their rights as well as encouraging the settlement of disputes through Lok
Adalats;
(f) encourage the settlement of disputes by way of negotiations, arbitration and
conciliation;
(g) undertake and promote research in the field of legal services with special
reference to the need for such services among the poor;
(h) to do all things necessary for the purpose of ensuring commitment to the
fundamental duties of citizens under Part IVA of the Constitution;
(i) monitor and evaluate implementation of the legal aid programmes at periodic
intervals and provide for independent evaluation of programmes and
schemes implemented in whole or in part by funds provided under this Act;
(j) provide grants-in-aid for specific schemes to various voluntary social service
institutions and the State and District Authorities, from out of the amounts
placed at its disposal for the implementation of the legal services schemes
under the provisions of this Act;
(k) develop, in consultation with the Bar Council of India, programmes for
clinical legal education and promote guidance and supervise the
establishment and working of legal services clinics in universities, law
colleges and other institutions;
(l) take appropriate measures for spreading legal literacy and legal awareness
amongst the people and, in particular, to educate weaker sections of the
society about the rights, benefits and privileges guaranteed by social welfare
legislations and other enactments as well as administrative programmes and
measures;
(m) make special efforts to enlist the support of voluntary social welfare
institutions working at the grass-root level, particularly among the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, women and rural and urban labour; and
(n) coordinate and monitor the functioning of [State Authorities, District
Authorities, Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, High Court Legal
ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
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Services Committees, Taluk Legal Services Committees and voluntary social
service institutions] and other legal services organisations and give general
directions for the proper implementation of the legal services programmes.
(Candidates have to write any seven functions in complete sentences.)
OR
(ii) When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation,
the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was
so caused.
A party to a contract whose consent was caused by fraud or misrepresentation,
may, if he thinks fit, insist that the contract shall be performed, and that he shall be
put in the position in which he would have been if the representations made had
been true.
Exception: If such consent was caused by misrepresentation or by silence,
fraudulent within the meaning of Section 17, the contract, nevertheless, is not
voidable, if the party whose consent was so caused had the means of discovering
the truth with ordinary diligence.
Explanation: A fraud or misrepresentation which did not cause the consent to a
contract of the party on whom such fraud was practised, or to whom such
misrepresentation was made, does not render a contract voidable.
Examples:
1. A fraudulently informs B that A’s estate is free from incumbrance. B
thereupon buys the estate. The estate is subject to a mortgage. B may either
avoid the contract or may insist on its being carried out and the mortgage debt
redeemed.
2. An insurance agent convinces Sunita to purchase a life insurance policy by
incorrectly stating that it covers certain medical conditions, knowing that it
does not. Sunita's consent was induced by misrepresentation. She can choose
to void the contract and claim back any premiums paid.
(An explanation of the concept of voidability of agreements has to be given with
the help of any two examples.)

ISC SPECIMEN ANSWER KEY 2025
9

CISCE STUDY MATERIAL

ICSE ISC

INFORMATION CLASS STUDY MATERIAL

1 Time Table 9 Specimen Paper
10 Specimen Paper
2 Result
11 Specimen Paper
3 Syllabus 12 Specimen Paper

OTHER RESOURCES
10 Question Paper
Maps of India, Maps of World
Writing Skill Formats 12 Question Paper
Periodic Table
9/10 Lab Manuals
BOOKS 11/12 Lab Manuals
ICSE Class 10 Prescribed Books
ISC Class 12 Prescribed Books
ISC Class 12 Project Work

ENTRANCE EXAMS

JEE Main CLAT CUET UG
JEE Advanced NEET UG Fashion & Design