RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 03 Feb All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 03 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 03/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Why do fodder crops require tall plants with profuse branching?
Ans A. To provide maximum green matter for fodder

B. To improve soil fertility

C. To increase grain yield

D. To reduce harvesting time

m
.co
Q.2 What is the primary characteristic that defines organic compounds?
Ans A. They always contain oxygen atoms.
e m
B. They are formed only by living organisms.
las
ag
C. They primarily consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms, forming covalent bonds.

D. They are compounds that conduct electricity in their molten state.

Q.3 Which of the following reacts with bases to form salt and water?
Ans A. Hydrogen gas

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sodium oxide

D. Calcium hydroxide
m
m .co
.co m
Q.4 Which of the following activities CANNOT be taken as a defining characteristic of life?

m s e
s
Ans
e
A. Molecular movement within the cells

g l a
g l a B. Growth-related movement of plants
a
a C. Breathing and internal maintenance of cells

D. Visible movement like walking or running

Q.5 Molecules of compounds are formed by:
Ans A. Mixing ions without forming any chemical bonds

B. Different elements chemically bonded together

C. Metals joined with metals through metallic bonds

m
D. One type of atom only with identical properties
.
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 49

Q.6 Which of the following is a double displacement reaction?
Ans A. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

B. AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃

C. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

D. Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu

Q.7 In which part of the female reproductive system does fertilisation take place?
Ans A. Uterus

B. Ovary

C. Cervix

D. Oviduct (fallopian tube)

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT an isotope of hydrogen atom?
Ans A. Deuterium

B. Helium

C. Tritium

D. Protium

Q.9 A constant force acts on an object of mass 4 kg for a duration of 2 s. It increases the
object’s velocity from 2 m/s to 8 m/s. What is the magnitude of the applied force?
Ans A. 24 N

B. 10 N

C. 12 N

D. 8 N

Q.10 The law of refraction is valid for which range of the angle of incidence?
Ans A. i > 90°

B. 0° < i < 60°

C. 0° < i < 90°

D. 0° < i < 45°

Q.11 Which of the following devices works on the principle of force on a current-carrying
conductor in a magnetic field?
Ans A. Electric generator

B. Electric motor

C. Transformer

D. Resistor

Q.12 Isobars are the atoms with:
Ans A. same mass number but different atomic number

B. same refractive index but different melting point

C. same atomic number but different mass number

D. same melting point but different refractive index

Q.13 In blood, oxygen is transported by _______.
Ans A. Blood platelets

B. Lymph

C. White blood corpuscles

D. Red blood corpuscles

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

m
.co
Q.14 Match the following.
m
co
Column A Column B

. 1. Calyx a. Carpels
e m
m as
se l
2. Corolla b. Stamens
3.
Androecium
c. Petals
ag
4. d. Sepals
Gynoecium
Ans A. 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 – d

B. 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a

C. 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a

D. 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a

m
Q.15
m
What happens after fertilisation in a flowering plant?
.co
Ans
.co
A. The ovule becomes a fruit, and the ovary forms the seed.

m s em
e
B. The entire flower dries up and falls off without forming any new structures.
s l a
l a
C. The petals and stamens become the seed, and the ovary forms the embryo.
ag
ag
D. The ovule becomes the seed, and the ovary becomes the fruit.

Q.16 When OH⁻ ions are added to an acidic solution, the pH:
Ans A. becomes zero

B. increases

C. stays the same

D. decreases

m
Q.17 Which of the following is a molecule of a compound?

m .co
Ans A. H₂O
s e
B. O₂
g la
C. N₂ a
D. He

Q.18 What is a major disadvantage of connecting an electric bulb and an electric heater in
series, based on their required operating current?
Ans A. The total equivalent resistance would be zero

B. The total voltage would decrease to zero

C. The current through the heater would stop immediately
m
mD. They need currents of widely different values to operate properly
.co
m .co s e m
s e
Q.19 Which of the following structures acts as the basic filtration unit in the kidney?

g l a
g l a Ans A. Alveolus
a
a B. Tracheid

C. Villus

D. Nephron

Q.20 Which of the following is an example of uniform circular motion in daily life?
Ans A. A bus accelerating on a straight road

B. A ceiling fan rotating at constant speed

C. A ball rolling down an inclined plane
m .
.co
D. A person walking in a straight line

m s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 49

Q.21 Which of the following statements describes biological magnification?
Ans A. Energy increases as it flows from producers to consumers.

B. Pollutants are completely broken down by decomposers in the ecosystem.

C. Increase in concentration of harmful substances at higher trophic levels.

D. Progressive increase in biological activities.

Q.22 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ans A. Sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies

B. Frequency of vibration determines the pitch of sound

C. Amplitude of vibration affects loudness

D. Vibrations create compressions and rarefactions in air

Q.23 An object is dropped from a height. What is its initial velocity?
Ans A. 0 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. Can’t be determined

D. 9.8 m/s

Q.24 If the power of an engine is doubled while the time remains constant, the work done will
________.
Ans A. Remain the same

B. Be doubled

C. Be halved

D. Be quadrupled

Q.25 An object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens. The image formed is:
Ans A. at the focal point, highly diminished (point-sized)

B. between F and 2F, inverted

C. at infinity, highly magnified

D. at 2F, same size

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A man buys apples at ₹15 per apple and plans to sell them at a 13% profit. How many
apples must he sell to make a total profit of ₹195?
Ans A. 195

B. 110

C. 100

D. 95

Q.27 A sum of ₹33,600 is divided among X, Y and Z. X gets ₹4,000 more than Y and Z gets
₹8,000 more than Y. Find the ratio of the amount received by X, Y and Z.
Ans A. 13 : 11 : 18

B. 14 : 9 : 19

C. 14 : 10 : 17

D. 14 : 11 : 20

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

m
.co
Q.28 Find a number such that when 8 is subtracted from 4 times the number, the result is 6
m
co
more than thrice the number.

. e m
s
Ans A. 9
m a
se B. 14

C. 23 ag l
D. 18

Q.29 Find the mean proportional of 17 and 272?
Ans A. 68

B. 70

C. 71

m
.co
D. 67
m
Q.30
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans A. 6200

B. 6540

C. 6552

D. 5670

Q.31 Due to water crisis, 28% of the initial population left the village and 50% of the
remaining population left the village for pursuing jobs. If presently, 4450 people inhabit
the village, what is the ratio of the initial population to the present population?
Ans A. 25:9
m
.co
B. 107:87

C. 106:83
e m
D. 25:11
las
Q.32 ag
Three pipes A, B and C can fill an empty tank in 30 minutes, 40 minutes and 45 minutes,
respectively. All three pipes are opened at the same time to disperse liquid chemicals X,
Y and Z from pipes A, B and C respectively. After 5 minutes, what is the proportion of
chemical Y in the tank?
Ans
A.

B.

m
m
C.
.co
m .co s e m
s e D.

g l a
g l a a
a Q.33
Ans
Find the greatest number that exactly divides 46, 98 and 74.
A. 5

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 49

Q.34 Two trains of lengths 346 m and 319 m are running with speeds of 67 km/h and 59 km/h,
respectively, towards each other on parallel tracks. In how many seconds will they
cross each other?
Ans A. 12

B. 15

C. 19

D. 18

Q.35

Ans A. 82

B. 80

C. 76

D. 66

Q.36 A train, 150 m long, takes 30 seconds to cross a platform 350 m long. Find the speed (in
km/hr) of the train.
Ans A. 45

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

Q.37 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Manjit
borrowed an amount of ₹5,00,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Manjit after 2 years.
Ans A. 36,500

B. 35,000

C. 36,000

D. 34,500

Q.38 A father’s current age is three times his son’s age. Together, their ages add up to 48
years. How old is the son?
Ans A. 10 years

B. 14 years

C. 12 years

D. 16 years

Q.39 The area of a rectangle is 100.64 cm². If its breadth is 7.4 cm, find the perimeter of the
rectangle.
Ans A. 42 cm

B. 50.32 cm

C. 46 cm

D. 38.25 cm

Q.40 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 36 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill three-fourth of the same
cistern with water?1244
Ans A. 9

B. 10

C. 18

D. 19

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

m
.co
Q.41 A solid cylinder of base diameter 4 cm is taken to cast a hollow cylinder of external
m
co
diameter 12 cm, thickness 0.5 cm and height 15 cm. Find the height (in cm) of the solid

. cylinder (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 20.85

g l
B. 21.56

C. 18.65
a
D. 22.54

Q.42 The number of prime numbers between 445 and 456 is:
Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 0
m
m .co
.co
D. 1

em
Q.43
e m
A grocer marked his goods at 75% above their cost price and sold them at a discount of
l as
s
X%. If he gained 33% profit, then find the value of X.

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 27

B. 23

C. 24

D. 26

Q.44 An item with a marked price of ₹889 was sold for ₹278. What was the percentage of
discount given? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 70.88%

m
.co
B. 67.92%

C. 67.57%

e m
D. 68.73%

las
Q.45
ag
The average of 7 numbers is 23. If each number is increased by 4, what will the new
average be?
Ans A. 31

B. 7

C. 23

D. 27

Q.46 If 5x+y = 3125 and 33x−y = 2187, then the value of 41x − 32y is:
m
Ans
m
A. 55
.co
m .co B. 59
s e m
s e C. 53
g l a
g l a D. 57 a
a Q.47

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 49

Q.48 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 27.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 5 : 6, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 8°

B. 2°

C. 3°

D. 5°

Q.49 The arithmetic mean of the observations 17, 64, 55, 37, 65, 12, 51, 18 and 59 is:
Ans A. 37

B. 44

C. 51

D. 42

Q.50

Ans A. 81.67%

B. 76.67%

C. 133.33%

D. 66.67%

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

7 B 4 D 18 A 9 C 16 C 14 = ?
Ans A. 56

B. 55

C. 60

D. 58

Q.52 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 4 3 3 1 4 7 2 9 4 8 2 7 4 4 2 2 5 2 6 9 9 3 2 7 9 8 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 5

B. 3

C. 6

D. 4

Q.53 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 8 2 3 7 6 4 2 6 9 2 7 2 3 6 1 4 2 3 5 5 7 9 7 2 6 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 4

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

m
.co
Q.54 Hemant starts from point A and drives 62 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
m
co
drives 40 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 71 km. He

. takes a final left turn, drives 16 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
e m
m
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are
as
se l
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 33 km to the south
ag
B. 31 km to the north

C. 32 km to the south

D. 30 km to the north

Q.55 In a certain code language, ‘LEGS’ is coded as ‘5483’ and ‘ALES’ is coded as ‘2348’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 3
m
m .co
B. 4

C. 8

m .co s em
D. 2
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.56 Town D is to the west of Town A. Town C is to the south of Town A. Town B is to the
north of Town E. Town E is to the west of Town D. What is the position of Town B with
respect to Town C?
Ans A. North-west

B. East

C. South-west

D. North

Q.57
m
Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

.co
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 3 $ 8 % © 1 % 8 * 5 5 4 # £ & 5 5 £ € 5 € (Right)
e m
las
How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol

Ans
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A. 6 ag
B. 3

C. 5

D. 4

Q.58 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
m
.co
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
m
.co
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
e m
e m A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

l as
l as How is C related to E if ‘C – Q x Y % R – E’?
ag
ag Ans A. Mother’s brother

B. Wife’s brother

C. Sister’s son

D. Sister’s husband

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 49

Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:
All hats are trousers.
All trousers are pants.
No pant is a coat.

Conclusions:
(I): No hat is a coat.
(II): No trouser is a coat.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.60 Five people, V, W, X, Y and Z, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north. W is sitting
at the extreme left end of the row. There are only two people sitting between Z and W. V
is an immediate neighbour of Z. X is an immediate neighbour of V. Exactly how many
people are sitting between W and Y?
Ans A. One

B. None

C. Three

D. Two

Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(28, 56, 45)
(41, 82, 71)
Ans A. (89, 178, 167)

B. (77, 154, 142)

C. (97, 194, 182)

D. (54, 108, 99)

Q.62 Z ranked 21st from the bottom and 63rd from the top in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans A. 82

B. 83

C. 80

D. 81

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
Ans A. 44

B. 38

C. 40

D. 42

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

m
.co
Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
co
English alphabetical order?

. e m
m
HNE MRH RVK WZN ?
as
se Ans A. CER

B. BDQ ag l
C. ACP

D. BCR

Q.65 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

42 × 6 − 12 + 3 ÷ 5 = ?

m
.co
Ans A. 8

m
.co m
B. 4

C. 7
m s e
s e l a
a ag
D. 9
l
Q.66 ag
EKOV is related to WCGN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, YEIP is related to QWAH. To which of the following options is AGKR
related, following the same logic?
Ans A. SCJU

B. SYCJ

C. SCKP

D. SCDE

m
.co
Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

50 44 40 34 ? 24
e m
Ans A. 36
las
B. 38
ag
C. 28

D. 30

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 22 33 45 ? 721102
Ans A. 56

m
.co
B. 60

m
.co m
C. 58

m s e
a
D. 62

s e g l
g l a Q.69 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single a
a digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 6 3 9 8 9 9 8 1 3 3 7 9 9 9 4 1 4 1 1 7 1 8 8 8 7 6 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 7

B. 9

C. 8

m .
.co
D. 6

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 49

Q.70 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged
and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

231 ÷ 3 - 721 x 7 + 24 = ?
Ans A. 774

B. 772

C. 771

D. 773

Q.71 In a certain code language, ‘HELS’ is coded as ‘4695’ and ‘ALES’ is coded as ‘5749’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 9

B. 4

C. 7

D. 5

Q.72 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. OQ - JL

B. LN - GI

C. SU - NP

D. PR - KN

Q.73 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. JK−NO

B. AB−EF

C. NO−RS

D. XY−AE

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some bells are pots.
All pots are machines.

Conclusions:
(I): Some bells are machines.
(II): All machines are pots.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

m
.co
Q.75 MNPM is related to NOQN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
m
co
the same way, UVXU is related to VWYV. To which of the following is JKMJ related,

. following the same logic?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. KLMK

g l
B. KKMK

C. KMMQ
a
D. KLNK

Q.76 In a row of 48 people facing north, Pari is 13th from the right end. If Vivek sits 16th to the
left of Pari, what is Vivek’s position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 19th

B. 18th
m
m .co
C. 21st

D. 20th

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.77 EL 14 is related to BH 16 in a certain way. In the same way, PW 22 is related to MS 24. To
l
ag
which of the following is NU 27 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. KS 28

B. JS 29

C. JQ 28

D. KQ 29

Q.78 Seven friends, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only
three people sit between U and F. V sits to the immediate left of F. No one sits to the
right of X. Only two people sit between X and V. D sits to the immediate right of E. How
m
.co
many people sit between W and D?
Ans A. Two

e m
B. One

las
C. Four

D. Three ag
Q.79 Piku, Aman, Krishna, Deepa, and Shrusti are sitting at a circular table facing the centre.
Shrusti and Deepa are immediate neighbours. Piku is an immediate neighbour of both
Deepa and Krishna. Who are the immediate neighbours of Aman?
Ans A. Shrusti and Krishna

B. Piku and Shrusti

C. Shrusti and Deepa
m
m .co
D. Krishna and Deepa

Q.80
m .co
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
s e m
s e given series to make it logically complete?
g l a
g l a PRT 28 VXZ 21 BDF 14 HJL 7 ? a
a Ans A. NRW -1

B. NPR 0

C. NQQ 0

D. NOQ -1

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 49

Q.81 The BRICS Summit on 6–7 July 2025 was held in:
Ans A. Johannesburg, South Africa

B. New Delhi, India

C. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

D. Shanghai, China

Q.82 How much funding was allocated to the Khelo India programme for the financial year
2025-26?
Ans A. ₹100 crore

B. ₹500 crore

C. ₹1,000 crore

D. ₹10,000 crore

Q.83 Which of the following organisations formed a dedicated task force to support
displaced female Afghan athletes or players?
Ans A. International Hockey Federation

B. International Cricket Council

C. International Federation of Association Football

D. International Olympic Committee

Q.84 Which All‑India Financial Institution coordinates financing of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises (MSME) according to the Dept of Financial Services Annual Report 2024‑25
published in March 2025?
Ans A. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

B. Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

C. Export -Import Bank of India (Exim Bank)

D. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)

Q.85 Which of the following banks was fined ₹29.6 lakh by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
for violating regulations in June 2025?
Ans A. Canara Bank

B. City Union Bank

C. HDFC Bank

D. Fino Payments Bank

Q.86 At COP30 (November 2025), the “Baku–Belem Roadmap” aimed to scale climate
finance to what annual level by 2035?
Ans A. US$10 trillion

B. US$1.3 trillion

C. US$2.5 trillion

D. US$5.2 trillion

Q.87 Who presented India’s Third Voluntary National Review (VNR) Report on Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) in July 2025?
Ans A. Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog

B. Prime Minister of India

C. External Affairs Minister

D. Finance Minister

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

m
.co
Q.88 Which of the following dignitaries inaugurated Asia’s largest telecom, media and
m
co
technology event, the 9th edition of the India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2025, in New Delhi?

. e m
m
Ans A. CP Radhakrishnan

as
se B. Ashwini Vaishnaw

C. Narendra Modi ag l
D. Droupadi Murmu

Q.89 In October 2024, which minister from Andhra Pradesh met and invited Microsoft CEO
Satya Nadella to Andhra Pradesh and sought Microsoft’s cooperation in improving e-
governance and establishing IT hubs in the state?
Ans A. Vangalapudi Anitha

B. N Chandrababu Naidu
m
m .co
C. Kolusu Parthasarathy

D. Nara Lokesh

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.90 Manu Bhaker, who received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2025, is
l
ag
primarily known for her achievements in which sport?
Ans A. Para-Athletics

B. Badminton

C. Hockey

D. Shooting

Q.91 Which cyclonic storm in November 2025 caused widespread flooding and prompted
disaster relief responses in South India and Sri Lanka?
Ans A. Cyclone Amphan
m
B. Cyclone Ditwah

m .co
C. Cyclone Yaas
s e
D. Cyclone Tauktae
g la
Q.92
a
In July 2024, which Indian scientist was awarded with the Vikram Sarabhai Medal that
honours outstanding space science research in developing countries?
Ans A. Umesh Varshney

B. Anil Bhardwaj

C. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

D. Prahlad Chandra Agrawal

m
.co
Q.93 Rajasthan’s first Namo Biodiversity Park, inaugurated in October 2025, is located in
m
.co
which district?

e m
Ans

e m
A. Kota District

l as
l as B. Alwar District

ag
ag C. Jaipur District

D. Udaipur District

Q.94 According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), May 2025, what was India’s
overall unemployment rate reported by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MOSPI)?
Ans A. 5.1%

B. 8.5%

C. 6.6%
m .
D. 5.6%

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 49

Q.95 On which date was the 94th martyrdom day of Chandra Shekhar Azad observed in
2025?
Ans A. 27th February

B. 27th January

C. 26th February

D. 15th August

Q.96 Which company signed an MoU with the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)
during Aero India 2025, for the development of Flight Control Actuators for the AMCA
programme?
Ans A. Tata Advanced Systems

B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

C. Bharat Dynamics Limited

D. Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Company Limited

Q.97 The Income Tax Act, 2025, introduced a new concept to describe assets such as
cryptocurrencies and tokenized assets. What is this new concept called?
Ans A. E-Assets

B. Virtual Digital Assets

C. Digital Currencies

D. Crypto Tokens

Q.98 Which Gujarati children’s poet won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar for Tinchak in June 2025?
Ans A. Akhil P Dharmajan

B. Kirtida Brahmbhatt

C. Parvati Tirkey

D. Nandini Purandare

Q.99 According to the National Commission for Women data released in January 2025, which
Indian state reported the highest number of complaints of domestic violence in 2024?
Ans A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Rajasthan

C. Maharashtra

D. Bihar

Q.100 Who was named the 2025 Laureus World Sportsman of the Year for his pole-vaulting
record-breaking performances?
Ans A. Carlos Alcaraz

B. Leon Marchand

C. Max Verstappen

D. Armand Duplantis

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 03/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
m
.co
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 In multicellular organisms, why can't simple diffusion alone meet the requirements of
all cells?
Ans A. Because all cells are directly exposed to air

B. Because diffusion only transports oxygen

C. Because diffusion requires light

D. Because body size and complexity increase
m
Q.2 .co
A person shows high blood sugar levels even after eating small amounts of food. What
m
may be the cause?
s e
la
Ans A. Excess growth hormone

B. Lack of insulin
ag
C. Excess estrogen

D. Low thyroxine

Q.3 Which of the following is an example of negative work?
Ans A. Gravity acting on a falling ball

B. Lifting a bag upwards

C. Pushing a moving car forward.
m
m .co
.co
D. Friction acting on a moving object

e m
e
Q.4 mRead the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
l as
l as ag
g
Statement 1: Fleming’s left-hand rule is used to find the direction of force (motion) on

a a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
Statement 2: The force on the conductor acts perpendicular to both the current and
the magnetic field.
Ans A. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct.

B. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

C. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

D. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 49

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of epithelial tissue?
Ans A. Cells form a continuous sheet.

B. Cells have no intercellular spaces.

C. Skin, kidney tubules are made up of epithelial tissue.

D. Cells are loosely arranged.

Q.6 Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and select the correct option.

(A): Sound waves are transverse waves.
(R): Sound waves require a material medium for their propagation.
Ans A. Both assertion and reason are false.

B. Assertion is false and reason is true.

C. Assertion is true but reason is false.

D. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Q.7 In the absence of any external force, a moving body will _______.
Ans A. Continue to move with constant acceleration

B. Maintain a constant velocity in straight line

C. Slow down and change its path

D. Stop due to its inertia

Q.8 Which of the following increases the rate of evaporation?
Ans A. Low surface area and cold air temperature

B. Dense atmosphere and generally cool weather

C. High temperature and increased wind speed

D. High humidity and absence of wind movement

Q.9 Which of the following mixtures is a suspension?
Ans A. Milk

B. Salt water

C. Vinegar

D. Muddy water

Q.10 Which of the following factors increases the rate of evaporation?
Ans A. Increase in humidity

B. Decrease in wind speed

C. Decrease in temperature

D. Increase in surface area

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell wall?
Ans A. Synthesising proteins for the cell

B. Protecting the cell from mechanical damage

C. Helping in cell-to-cell interaction

D. Providing shape to the cell

Q.12 Which characteristic of parallel circuits makes them advantageous over series circuits
for connecting multiple electrical gadgets in a house?
Ans A. The potential difference across each gadget is unique.

B. The total resistance is increased, protecting appliances.

C. If one component fails, the entire circuit is broken.

D. The current is divided among the electric to operate independently.
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

m
.co
Q.13 Match the following pH change and its effect.
m
. co Column A (Change) Column B (Effect) s e m
m a
se A. pH ↓ from 7 to 4 1. Increase in acidity
ag l
B. pH ↑ from 7 to 10 2. Acid rain forms

C. pH = 7 3. Neutral solution

D. pH < 5.6 in rain 4. Increase in basicity

Ans A. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

B. A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

C. A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
m
D. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
m .co
m .co s em
Q.14 What do members of a homologous series differ from each other by?

s e l a
a ag
Ans A. Two hydrogen atoms
l
ag
B. One carbon atom

C. One oxygen atom

D. One carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms

Q.15 To accurately locate the image of an extended object formed by a spherical mirror
using a ray diagram, what is the minimum number of reflected rays that must intersect
(or appear to intersect)?
Ans A. Three rays

B. One ray
m
C. Four rays
m .co
D. Two rays
s e
g la
Q.16
Ans
a
Which element is necessary for the thyroid gland to secrete the thyroxine hormone?
A. Iodine

B. Chlorine

C. Fluorine

D. Bromine

Q.17 Which part of the flower protects the ovule and later transforms into the fruit?
Ans A. Petal
m
m .co
.co
B. Stigma

e m
e m
C. Sepal

l as
l as D. Ovary

ag
ag Q.18 Which of the following compounds would have the highest pH when dissolved in
water?
Ans A. Hydrogen chloride gas

B. Vinegar solution

C. Sodium hydroxide

D. Lemon juice

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 49

Q.19 What will be the acceleration due to gravity on a planet whose mass and radius are
double that of the Earth? (Take the acceleration due to gravity on Earth as g.)
Ans A. g/2

B. g

C. 2g

D. g/4

Q.20 For a convex mirror, where is the centre of curvature located?
Ans A. At the mirror's surface

B. At the focus

C. Behind the mirror

D. In front of the mirror

Q.21 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Vasectomy leads to loss of sexual drive in males.
Reason (R): It involves removal of the testes.
Ans A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are false

C. A is false, but R is true

D. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Q.22 If the velocity–time graph of an object is curved, it indicates ____________.
Ans A. Uniform motion

B. Non-uniform acceleration

C. Zero velocity

D. Constant speed

Q.23 Why is variation important in a population of organisms?
Ans A. It causes extinction of all organisms.

B. It helps some individuals survive if environmental conditions change.

C. It makes organisms identical.

D. It prevents reproduction.

Q.24 In the given reaction, which of the following reactants has undergone oxidation?

PbO + H2 → Pb + H2O

Ans A. H2O

B. Pb

C. PbO

D. H2

Q.25 The atomic number of an element is equal to which of the following?
Ans A. Number of protons

B. Number of neutrons

C. Number of neutrons + number of protons

D. Number of electrons

Section : Mathematics

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

m
.co
Q.26 If the radius of a sphere is 6 cm, then its surface area is:
m
co m
Ans A. 72 π cm2

m . s e
se
B. 144 π cm2

g l a
a
C. 288 π cm2

D. 36 π cm2

Q.27

Ans A. 60

B. 6000

C. 600
m
m .co
.co
D. 6

em
Q.28
e m
A cricketer has an average of 54 runs for 9 innings. In the 10th inning, he scores 191
l as
as
runs. By how many runs did his average increase? (Round off the answer to the
l ag
ag
nearest whole number.)
Ans A. 16

B. 17

C. 14

D. 5

Q.29 A and B can complete a job in 18 days and 24 days, respectively. They worked together
for 5 days, and then A left the job. In how many days will B finish the remaining work?
Ans
m
.co
A.

e m
B.

las
C. ag
D.

Q.30

Ans A. 98.33%

m
.co
B. 93.33%
m
.co m
C. 83.33%

m s e
s e
D. 166.67%

g l a
g l a Q.31 a
a
Ans A. 1

B. 5

C. 2

D. 0

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 49

Q.32 A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes.
A) Two successive discounts of 18% and 10%
B) Buy 2, get 8
C) Discount of 24%
D) Two successive discounts of 42% and 45%

Which scheme is best for customers?
Ans A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q.33 If the mean proportional of P and 169 is 104, then find the value of P.5765
Ans A. 67

B. 65

C. 66

D. 64

Q.34 In an election, there are three candidates: A, B, and C. Candidate A gets 40% of the total
valid votes, Candidate B gets 30%, and Candidate C gets the remaining votes. If 12% of
the total votes were declared invalid and the total number of voters was 25,000, find the
number of votes received by Candidate C.
Ans A. 8800

B. 5500

C. 4400

D. 6600

Q.35 A cylindrical water tank with an internal radius of 70 cm and a height of 1.5 m is
completely filled with water. Water is being pumped out at a rate of 5 litres per second.
How long will it take for the water level to drop by 50 cm?

Ans A. 176 seconds

B. 168 seconds

C. 154 seconds

D. 142 seconds

Q.36 The average age of 31 students of a class is 35 years. If the age of the teacher is also
included, the average age of the whole group becomes 36 years. The age (in years) of
the teacher is:
Ans A. 72

B. 67

C. 68

D. 69

Q.37 The sum of three numbers is 840. If the ratio of the second number to the first number
is 3 : 13 and that of the third number to the second number is 8 : 12, then find the
second number.
Ans A. 142

B. 141

C. 139

D. 140

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

m
.co
Q.38 The present age of Arman is four times the present age of his cousin, Riya. In 8 years,
m
co
Arman's age will be three times Riya’s age at that time. What is Arman’s current age?

. e m
s
Ans A. 72 years
m a
se B. 64 years

C. 48 years ag l
D. 56 years

Q.39 The cost of 3 apples and 5 bananas is ₹75. The cost of 4 apples and 2 bananas is ₹86.
Find the cost of a banana.
Ans A. ₹10

B. ₹3

C. ₹5
m
m .co
.co
D. ₹20

em
Q.40
e m
104 men have provisions for 12 weeks. They are joined by 52 men. How long (in weeks)
l as
s
will the provisions last?2673

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 6

B. 10

C. 8

D. 12

Q.41 The marked price of a toy truck is ₹3,050, and its selling price is ₹2,220. Find the
discount percentage. (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 26.88%

m
.co
B. 29.73%

C. 27.21%

e m
D. 25.98%

las
Q.42
ag
The amount on a sum of ₹2,800 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹4,032

B. ₹3,279

C. ₹4,341

D. ₹4,968

Q.43 Amit purchases an old scooter for ₹5,600. He spends ₹1,400 on its repairs and sells it to
m
.co
Sumit for ₹7,700. Find the profit percentage of Amit.
m
.co m
Ans A. 14%

m s e
a
B. 12%

s e g l
g l a C. 9%
a
a D. 10%

Q.44 The sides of a triangle are 80 cm, 44 cm, and 52 cm. What is the length of its altitude
corresponding to the side with a length of 44 cm?
Ans A. 49 cm

B. 94 cm

C. 48 cm

D. 61 cm

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 49

Q.45 Two trains started from station A to B with speeds of 68 km/h and 82 km/h on parallel
lines. Find the distance (in km) between the two trains after 2.5 hours.
Ans A. 15

B. 25

C. 35

D. 40

Q.46 Solve : 3 × (10 × (22)) ÷ 20 + 13 − 32858
Ans A. 13

B. 25

C. 16

D. 17

Q.47 Two trains, each 230 meters long, are running parallel to each other in the same
direction. The speed of the faster train is 102 km/h and the speed of the slower train is
66 km/h. How long will it take for the faster train to completely pass the slower train?
Ans A. 56 seconds

B. 42 seconds

C. 46 seconds

D. 36 seconds

Q.48 Simplify: [(3x + 4y)2 − (3x − 4y)2] ÷ (24xy)
Ans A. −2

B. −1

C. 1

D. 2

Q.49 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill three-fourth of the same
cistern with water?1243
Ans A. 55

B. 54

C. 28

D. 27

Q.50

Ans A. 7110

B. 10140

C. 7700

D. 7362

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

YAC−GIK
QSU−YAC
Ans A. JLN−QTU

B. JKL−QSU

C. JKL−RTV

D. JLN−RTV
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 49

m
.co
Q.52 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
co
given series to make it logically complete?

. e m
m
LKN 58 MLO 65 NMP 72 ONQ 79 ?6926
as
se Ans A. PNQ 85

B. PPQ 86 ag l
C. POR 86

D. PUA 85

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

PPR NQO LRL ? HTF
Ans A. NIJ
m
m .co
B. IHY

C. JSI

m .co s em
D. GHT
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.54 In a certain code language, ‘ride those horses’ is coded as ‘dq fn ta’ and ‘horses run
wild’ is coded as ‘vy dq si’. How is ‘horses’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. ta

B. dq

C. fn

D. vy

Q.55 Six people, A, B, C, X, Y and Z, are sitting around a circular table, facing towards the
centre of the table.
m
Z is sitting to the immediate left of A.
m .co
B is sitting second to the right of Z.
X is an immediate neighbour of both Y and C.
s e
Y is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
g la
a
What is the position of B with respect to Y?
Ans A. Immediate left

B. Second to the left

C. Immediate right

D. Second to the right

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

94 102 118 150 214 ?
m
Ans
m
A. 341
.co
m .co B. 343
s e m
s e C. 342
g l a
g l a D. 344 a
a Q.57 Currently, the minute hand of a watch is pointing towards the north and the hour hand
is pointing towards the east. After two and a half hours, which direction will the minute
hand point towards?
Ans A. South

B. West

C. North

D. East
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 49

Q.58 In a certain code language, QOEX is coded as 50 and WPIU is coded as 42. What is the
code for SANR in that language?
Ans A. 67

B. 55

C. 62

D. 59

Q.59 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 426 125 357 489 627 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Q.60 What should come in place of ? in the given series?
17 7 -6 -22 -41 ?6041
Ans A. -62

B. -61

C. -63

D. -64

Q.61 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 5 8 5 8 3 1 5 2 6 1 6 3 1 4 2 4 3 7 8 5 9 5 2 8 2 5 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

Q.62 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 582 128 563 183 592 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

Note: All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of lowest number?
Ans A. 3

B. 7

C. 4

D. 6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

m
.co
Q.63 Each of the digits in the number 24597831 is arranged in ascending order from left to
m
co
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in

. the original number?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. One

g l
B. None

C. Three
a
D. Two

Q.64 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 8 1 7 8 7 6 7 5 2 5 3 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
m
.co
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
m
.co m
Ans A. Three

m s e
B. One

s e l a
a ag
C. Two
l
D. Four
ag
Q.65 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following
a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic.

PAST - PSTA - ASPT
QUAD - QADU - UAQD
Ans A. TIDE - ITDE - IDET

B. USER - UERS - SURE

m
.co
C. IDEA - IEAD - DEIA

m
D. VAIN - VIAN - NIAV

s e
Q.66
la
Seven boxes A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
g
a
the same order. No box is kept above Q. Only three boxes are kept between Q and D.
Only one box is kept between C and B. B is kept immediately above D. Only four boxes
are kept between C and R. A is kept at some place above P.
Which box is kept second below A?
Ans A. B

B. D

C. P

D. R

m
.co
Q.67 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
.co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
e m statements.

l as
l as Statements:
ag
ag Some balls are hens.
All vans are hens.

Conclusions:
(I) Some balls are vans.
(II) All hens are vans.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (I) follows.

m
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
.
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 49

Q.68 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. QPS

B. HGI

C. VUW

D. YXZ

Q.69 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

STW−ZAD
PQT−WXA
Ans A. TUX−ABE

B. TTV−ABE

C. TTV−ZAD

D. TUX−ZBD

Q.70 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(90 Q 15) P 8 R 7 P 4 S (12 P 3) Q 2 = ?
Ans A. 52

B. 38

C. 44

D. 20

Q.71 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is K related to V if ‘KxT-R+Z&V’?
Ans A. Brother's daughter

B. Brother's wife

C. Sister

D. Mother

Q.72 All 18 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Charan is 11th from the
right end, while Prakash is 3rd from the left end. How many people stand between
Charan and Prakash?
Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49

m
.co
Q.73 A, B, C, D, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
m
co
Only two people sit to the left of N. Only three people sit between N and P. O sits

. second to the right of N. Only two people sit between O and D. C sits at some place to
e m
m
the right of B but at some place to the left of A.
as
se l
How many people sit to the right of C?
Ans A. Two
ag
B. Three

C. Four

D. One

Q.74 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to
the left of F. Only one person sits between D and E. F sits to the immediate left of D. A
sits to the immediate right of C. B sits third to the right of A. Who sits at the extreme left
end of the row?
m
Ans A. D
m .co
B. C

m .co s em
C. B
s e l a
l a ag
ag
D. A

Q.75 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

92 - 6 - 86
13 - 8 - 5
m
.co
Ans A. 4 - 1 - 2

B. 50 - 20 - 30
e m
C. 30 - 12 - 24
las
D. 12 - 5 - 6
ag
Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HK-FI

B. DG-BF

m
.co
C. FI-DH

m
.co m
D. JM-HL

m s e
s e
Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
g l a
g l a given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the a
a statements.

Statements:
All torches are keys.
All keys are locks.
Some locks are batteries.

Conclusions:
(I): All torches are locks.
(II): Some batteries are torches.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows
m .
B. Only conclusion (II) follows

m .co s e m
e
C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
s l a
l a
D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 49

Q.78 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ?
Ans A. 23

B. 26

C. 25

D. 24

Q.79 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7435681, then what will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third
from the right?
Ans A. 8

B. 14

C. 6

D. 10

Q.80 Mr. Pasto starts from point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a left turn,
drives 7 km, turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 21 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only, unless specified.) 473
Ans A. 14 km to the west

B. 13 km to the south

C. 11 km to the south

D. 12 km to the west

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Who won the Men’s Ballon d’Or, 2025?
Ans A. Cristiano Ronaldo

B. Ousmane Dembele

C. Kylian Mbappe

D. Lionel Messi

Q.82 Valueattics Reinsurance, India’s first private reinsurer, which received the nod of the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to commence
reinsurance business in India in March 2025 is promoted by which of the following
individuals/entities?
Ans A. Prem Watsa and Kamesh Goyal

B. Uday Kotak and LIC

C. Rakesh Jhunjhunwala and Axis Bank

D. Nandan Nilekani and SBI Life

Q.83 Which organisation developed Delhi's first Centre of Excellence for Sports in Dwarka's
Sector 8, inaugurated in May 2025?
Ans A. Indian Olympic Association (IOA)

B. Sports Authority of India (SAI)

C. Delhi Development Authority (DDA)

D. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

m
.co
Q.84 What were Suruchi Singh’s final two shot scores that clinched gold at the 2025
m
co
International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup in Munich?

. e m
s
Ans A. 10.6 and 9.6
m a
se B. 9.5 and 8.5

C. 10.5 and 9.5 ag l
D. 10.0 and 9.0

Q.85 As part of Tripura’s tech-driven disaster preparedness initiative launched in August
2025, how many automated weather stations and rain gauges are proposed to be
installed?
Ans A. 15

B. 26
m
.co
C. 14
m
.co em
D. 10

e m l as
Q.86
s
Which apex agricultural research body is associated with the Indian Institute of Soil

l a
Science that organised World Soil Day celebrations in December 2025?
ag
Ans
ag
A. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

B. Indian Council of Agricultural Research

C. Central Soil Salinity Research Institute

D. National Horticulture Board

Q.87 In June 2025, who was elected as the President of the International Institute of
Administrative Sciences (IIAS) for the 2025–2028 term from India?

m
Ans A. GC Murmu

B. KM Chandrasekhar

m .co
C. NV Subramanian
s e
D. V Srinivas
g la
Q.88
a
Where did Jeff Bezos and Lauren Sánchez hold their lavish wedding in June 2025?
Ans A. Venice, Italy

B. Santorini, Greece

C. Dubrovnik, Croatia

D. Cannes, France

Q.89 What was the name of the official mascot of the Khelo India Para Games 2025?
m
Ans
m
A. Shakti
.co
m .co B. Ujjwala
s e m
s e C. Veer
g l a
g l a D. Sparky
a
a Q.90 What was the Supreme Court's decision on April 28, 2025, regarding a new petition on
the Waqf (Amendment) Act?
Ans A. It referred the plea to the High Court.

B. It accepted the petition for immediate hearing.

C. It dismissed all pending cases.

D. It declined to entertain the fresh plea.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.91 In the 2025 Global Hunger Index (GHI), where does India rank among the 123 countries
assessed?
Ans A. 105th

B. 102nd

C. 10th

D. 85th

Q.92 Which organisation announced plans to develop a new indicator for measuring extreme
poverty in India in 2025?
Ans A. Ministry of Statistics

B. NITI Aayog

C. World Bank

D. Reserve Bank of India

Q.93 Who won the men’s javelin event at the Ostrava Golden Spike meet in June 2025 by
becoming the only athlete to throw beyond 85 metres, with a mark of 85.29 m?
Ans A. Neeraj Chopra

B. Julian Weber

C. Jakub Vadlejch

D. Anderson Peters

Q.94 A total of ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for the 'PM - One Nation One Subscription'
initiative. How many years cost does this amount cover?
Ans A. Five

B. Six

C. Two

D. Three

Q.95 What is significant about the CMS-03 satellite launch by Indian Space Research
Organisation in November 2025?
Ans A. It is India’s first Mars mission satellite.

B. It is the heaviest communication satellite launched by India.

C. It is the first navigation satellite mission from India.

D. It is the first private payload launched from India.

Q.96 According to the 2025 Sustainable Development Report, what is India’s Spillover
Score?
Ans A. 86.95

B. 99.95

C. 96.07

D. 90.07

Q.97 Which of the following major wildlife surveys did the Indian Prime Minister announce to
be conducted in 2025?
Ans A. National Elephant Census

B. Bengal Tiger Count

C. Great Indian Bustard Survey

D. 16th Asiatic Lion Population Estimation

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

m
.co
Q.98 Which of the following introduced NACH 3.0 in July 2025, bringing faster and more
m
co
secure bank transactions under the National Automated Clearing House (NACH)

. system?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. Reserve Bank of India

g l
B. National Securities Depository Limited

C. National Payments Corporation of India
a
D. Life Insurance corporation

Q.99 Which of the following states introduced the strengthening of the SHe‑Box portal in
May 2025?
Ans A. Maharashtra

B. Uttar Pradesh
m
.co
C. Punjab
m
D. Tamil Nadu

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.100 What happens to a Prime Minister, Chief Minister, or Minister if bail is not granted within

l
30 days under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill 2025?
Ans ag
A. Legal appeal

B. Temporary suspension

C. Automatic removal

D. Parliamentary review

"

m
m .co
s e
g la
a

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Test Date 03/02/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : General Science

Q.1 According to Rutherford's model of an atom, the radius of an atom in metre is about:
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.2 Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to
large molecules. This property is called:
Ans A. unification

B. addition

C. catenation

D. conjugation

Q.3 Which of the following methods of reproduction simply involves the splitting of the
parent cell into two daughter cells in the bacteria?
Ans A. Spore formation

B. Fragmentation

C. Budding

D. Binary fission

Q.4 Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Monoculture plantations often fail to meet the diverse needs of forest-
dependent villagers.
Reason (R): These plantations provide medicinal herbs, food and fuel for villagers.
Ans A. A is false, but R is true.

B. A is true, but R is false.

C. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

m
.co
Q.5 What is the main purpose of cell division in multicellular organisms?
m
co m
Ans A. Formation of vacuoles and maintenance of turgidity

m . s e
se
B. Absorption of nutrients and release of wastes

g l a
a
C. Growth, repair, and replacement of damaged or old cells

D. Transport of substances through the cell membrane

Q.6 Which of the following organelles is the first to divide during binary fission in Amoeba?
Ans A. Nucleus

B. Vacuole

C. Cell wall

D. Cytoplasm
m
m .co
.co m
Q.7 Which of the following statements about ions is correct?

m s e
a
Ans A. Sodium chloride consists of neutral sodium and chloride atoms.

s e l
a ag
B. A cation is a negatively charged species.
l
ag
C. Ions are formed only from non-metal atoms.

D. A group of atoms carrying a net charge is called a polyatomic ion.

Q.8 If the stigma of a flower is damaged, which process would most likely be affected?
Ans A. Fruit ripening

B. Seed dispersal

C. Formation of petals and sepals

D. Pollination and fertilisation
m
Q.9
m .co
Which of the following is a major environmental disadvantage of big dams?

s e
la
Ans A. Increased biodiversity

B. Submergence of forests
ag
C. Water conservation

D. Creation of recreational spaces

Q.10 Which of the following best explains why combination reactions are often exothermic?
Ans A. They involve the breaking of bonds only.

B. They require light to proceed.

C. They release energy due to stable product formation.
m
m
D. They involve formation of bonds, which absorb energy.
.co
m.co s e m
s e
Q.11 A body weighs 60 kg wt on the surface of the moon. What will be the mass and the
weight, respectively, of the body on the surface of the Earth?
g l a
g l a a
a Ans
(Take the value of g on Earth as 10 m/s2)
A. 600 kg and 360 kg wt

B. 360 kg and 360 kg wt

C. 60 kg and 36 kg wt

D. 36 kg and 360 kg wt

Q.12 If a body of mass m is raised to a height h in a gravitational field of acceleration g, its
potential energy depends on:

m .
.co m
Ans A. m only

B. h only
m s e
s e l a
a ag
C. g only

g l

D. m, g and h
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Q.13 Which of the statement(s) is/are NOT true about the phenomenon of scattering of light:
(i) The amount of scattering light undergoes is independent of the size of particles of
the medium through which light is passing.
(ii) The amount of scattering is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.
(iii) The colour of the sky appears blue as blue light undergoes more scattering as
compared to red light.
(iv) The colour of danger signal is red as red colour undergoes least amount of
scattering when passing through fog.
Ans A. Both (iii) and (iv)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Both (ii) and (iii)

D. Both (i) and (iii)

Q.14 An object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror. The image
formed will be now:
Ans A. Real, inverted, and magnified

B. Real, inverted, and diminished

C. Real, inverted, and same size

D. Virtual, erect, and magnified

Q.15 What effect does an unbalanced force have on a moving object?
Ans A. It increases the weight of the object.

B. It keeps the object at rest.

C. It causes a change in speed or direction of motion.

D. It stops the object immediately.

Q.16 A car slows down uniformly when brakes are applied, producing an acceleration of 8
m/s2 opposite to its motion. If the car comes to rest in 2s, what distance does it cover
before stopping?
Ans A. 12 m

B. 16 m

C. 20 m

D. 8 m

Q.17 Which of the following is a homologous series?
Ans A. Methane, Ethane, Ethene

B. Ethene, Ethyne, Ethane

C. Methane, Ethane, Propane

D. Methane, Methanol, Methanoic acid

Q.18 ___________ is/are NOT selectively re-absorbed from the filtrate in the nephron.
Ans A. Glucose

B. Urea

C. Amino acids

D. Salts

Q.19 What is the equivalent of 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) in joules?
Ans A. 1 kWh = 36 × 10-6 joules

B. 1 kWh = 360 joules

C. 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ joules

D. 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10³ joules

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

m
.co
Q.20 The main purpose of designing a hall with curved walls and ceilings is _______.
m
co m
Ans A. to make the hall look beautiful

m . s e
se
B. to reduce the speed of sound

g l a
a
C. to make the sound louder only near the stage

D. to ensure uniform sound distribution

Q.21 Ethanoic acid is commonly known as acetic acid and has:
Ans A. No effect on litmus or metals

B. A sharp, sour smell and taste

C. A basic pH and slippery feel

D. A strong fruity smell in water
m
m .co
.co m
Q.22 Which colour do silver articles attain when they get corroded and form a coating of
silver sulphide?
m s e
Ans A. White
s e l a
l a ag
ag
B. Reddish brown

C. Remains silver

D. Black

Q.23 If the length of a conductor and area is halved, keeping material same, then its
resistance will ________.
Ans A. Remain same

B. Be doubled

C. Be halved
m
D. Become four times
m .co
s e
Q.24
la
Which of the following statements best differentiates a mixture from a compound?

g
Ans
a
A. A compound shows the properties of its constituent elements.

B. A mixture retains the individual properties of its constituents.

C. A compound can be separated into its constituents by physical methods.

D. A mixture always contains elements in a fixed ratio.

Q.25 Through which of the following structures does urine go into the urinary bladder from
kidneys?
Ans A. Ureters
m
.co
B. Vena cava
m
m .co C. Vein

s e m
s e D. Artery

g l a
g l a a
a Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A brother is 2 years younger than his sister, and together their ages sum to 26 years.
How old is the sister?
Ans A. 18 years

B. 12 years

C. 16 years

D. 14 years

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 49

Q.27 What price should Amit mark on a pair of jeans which cost him ₹7,700, so as to gain
32% after allowing successive discounts of 16% and 20%?
Ans A. ₹14,997

B. ₹14,993

C. ₹15,125

D. ₹15,183

Q.28 Find the product of two numbers whose sum is 24 and whose difference is 8.
Ans A. 128

B. 132

C. 124

D. 118

Q.29

Ans A. 9

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

Q.30 From a solid cylinder of height 48 cm and radius 14 cm, a conical cavity of radius 7 cm
and height 24 cm is drilled out from one end of the cylinder. A hemisphere of radius 14
cm is scooped out from the other end. Find the total surface area (in cm2) of the
remaining solid.

Ans A. 6864

B. 6870

C. 6463

D. 6468

Q.31 Successive discounts of 20% and 29% are equivalent to a single discount of:
Ans A. 46.66%

B. 46.44%

C. 42.5%

D. 43.2%

Q.32 The monthly incomes of two friends, Vijay and Mohan, are in the ratio 5 : 9,
respectively, and each of them saves ₹4,2000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Vijay (in ₹).
Ans A. 2,10,000

B. 2,11,000

C. 2,09,000

D. 2,94,000

Q.33
Find the value of r, if 25(r – 1) + 100 = 5(2r – 1)
Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

m
.co
Q.34 The price of fuel decreases by 35%, 40% and 50% in three successive months, but
m
co
increases by 45% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the

. price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off your
e m
m
answer to two decimal places.)
as
se Ans A. Decreases by 71.73%

B. Decreases by 70.64% ag l
C. Increases by 77.27%

D. Increases by 76.37%

Q.35 A man buys a watch for ₹1,200 and sells it at a 10% loss. What is the selling price?
Ans A. ₹1,080

B. ₹1,220
m
.co
C. ₹1,240
m
.co em
D. ₹1,180

e m l as
Q.36

l as
In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠ A = 62° and ∠ B = 19°. The bisectors of ∠ C and ∠ D meet at O.
What is the measure of ∠ DOC?
ag
Ans A. 28.5°
ag
B. 50°

C. 34°

D. 40.5°

Q.37 For 10 innings, a cricketer has an average of 76 runs. In the 11th innings, he scores 193
runs. His average score increased by (rounded off to the nearest whole number):990
Ans A. 8
m
B. 6

m .co
C. 11
s e
D. 9
g la
Q.38
a
758
Ans A.

B.

C.

m
D.

m .co
.co m
Q.39 A vertical pole stands on level ground. From a point 20 metres (m) away from the base

m
of the pole, the angle of elevation to the top is 45°. What is the height of the pole?
s e
s e
Ans A. 15 m
g l a
g l a B. 10 m
a
a C. 25 m

D. 20 m

Q.40 If 54 : A :: A : 150, then find the positive value of A.
Ans A. 93

B. 87

C. 90

m .
.co m
D. 89

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q.41 The amount on a sum of ₹7,100 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years, will be:
Ans A. ₹8,468

B. ₹8,828

C. ₹8,591

D. ₹9,031

Q.42 The distance between points A and B is 964 km. Kamlesh travels from A to B at 48
km/hr and returns at 52 km/hr. Find his average speed for the entire journey.
Ans A. 51.85 km/hr

B. 48.86 km/hr

C. 49.92 km/hr

D. 50.69 km/hr

Q.43 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 8 and 24 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 4

B. 5

C. 12

D. 8

Q.44
The value of is:

2974
Ans A. 141669

B. 145214

C. 131325

D. 121966

Q.45 The length of each side of a rhombus is 20 cm, and the length of one of the diagonals is
24 cm. Find the area (in cm2) of the rhombus.
Ans A. 284

B. 268

C. 356

D. 384

Q.46 The arithmetic mean of the observations 18, 74, 33, 16, 35, 96, 40, 68 and 43 is:
Ans A. 47

B. 43

C. 41

D. 44

Q.47

Ans A. 666.67%

B. 343.33%

C. 333.33%

D. 348.33%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

m
.co
Q.48 Three taps, A, B and C, can fill a tank in 12 hours, 15 hours and 18 hours, respectively.
m
co
If tap A is open all the time and tap B and C are opened for one-one hour each

. alternately starting with tap B first, in how many hours will the tank be filled?
e m
m as
se
Ans
A.
g l
a
B.

C.

D.

m
.co
Q.49 What is the minimum value that must be assigned to A so that the 8-digit number
130A1568 is divisible by 8?
m
Ans A. 0

m .co s em
B. 5
s e l a
C. 2
l a ag
D. 3 ag
Q.50 The ratio of three numbers is 10 : 21 : 16. If 60 percent of the first number is 12, then
what would be 40 percent of the difference of third and second number? 5001
Ans A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 5
m
m .co
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
s e
Q.51
g la
Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
following series to make it logically complete?

YCG 18 HLP 23 QUY 28 ZDH 33 ?
a
Ans A. IRB 37

B. ILP 37

C. IMQ 38

D. INP 38

m
.co
Q.52 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number

m
31264759, then what will be the sum of the second digit from the left and the third digit

.co m
from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans
m A. 10
s e
s e g l a
a
B. 12

g l a
a
C. 8

D. 6

Q.53 A, B, C and D opened shopping complexes in the same city. The shopping complex of A
is 6 km west of the shopping complex of B. The shopping complex of C is 4 km north of
the shopping complex of B. The shopping complex of D is 6 km west of the shopping
complex of C. In which direction is the shopping complex of D from the shopping
complex of A?
Ans A. East

B. North
m .
C. West
m .co s e m
s e l a
ag
D. South

g l a
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.54 In a row of 52 people facing north, Dimple sits 17th from the left end. If only 15 people
sit to the right of Avni, then how many people sit between Dimple and Avni?
Ans A. 20

B. 21

C. 19

D. 18

Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. XB−ZD

B. PT−QX

C. HL−JN

D. MQ−OS

Q.56 Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. Only two people sit between A and G when counted from the left of G. B sits to
the immediate left of G. Only three people sit between C and B when counted from the
left of C. E sits to the immediate right of D. F is not an immediate neighbour of B. Who
sits second to the right of H?
Ans A. E

B. G

C. C

D. F

Q.57 KNKM is related to LOLN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, ILIK is related to JMJL. To which of the given options is OROQ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. PSPR

B. PROR

C. PSOR

D. PTOX

Q.58 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(57, 56.4, 58.4)
(49, 48.4, 50.4)2922
Ans A. (91, 89.4, 91.4)

B. (75, 74.4, 77.4)

C. (83, 82.4, 84.4)

D. (58, 57.4, 60.4)

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘rain hall pig’ is coded as ‘kq zz nl’ and ‘pig bean error’ is
coded as ‘hu mt zz’. How is ‘pig’ coded in that language?
Ans A. nl

B. hu

C. zz

D. kq

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

m
.co
Q.60 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
co
(Left) 128 945 371 539 276 (Right)

. (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
e m
m
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
as
se g l
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number.15166 a
Ans A. 9

B. 12

C. 8

D. 11

Q.61 Six people G, H, I, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing the north. No one is
seated to the left of R. Only three people are seated between R and G. Only three
m
.co
people are seated to the right of H. Q is seated to the immediate left of H. S is not an
m
.co
immediate neighbor of H. How many people are seated between S and I?

em
s
Ans A. Two

e m l a
B. One

l as ag
ag
C. Four

D. Three

Q.62 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

42 A 6 D 5 B 3 C 18 = ?
Ans A. 6

B. 10

m
.co
C. 13

m
D. 18

s e
Q.63
la
If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
g
a
3215674, which of the following digits will be first from the right?
Ans A. 1

B. 8

C. 4

D. 3

Q.64 BYRS is related to LIBC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PMFG is related to ZWPQ. To which of the given options is TQJK related,
following the same logic?
m
Ans
mA. DATU
.co
m .co B. DATB
s e m
s e C. DTRE
g l a
g l a D. DUTA a
a Q.65 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is P related to T if ‘P + Q – R ÷ S × T’?
Ans A. Father’s brother

B. Father’s father
m .
C. Mother’s brother

m .co s e m
D. Mother’s father
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.66 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HCU : LAY
PYC : TWG
Ans A. WGD : ABH

B. YCR : AYT

C. TKG : XHK

D. XUK : BSO

Q.67 In a certain code language, ‘light reveals truth’ is coded as ‘rn ea kw’ and ‘truth guides
paths’ is coded as ‘ib rn xu’. How is ‘truth’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. rn

B. kw

C. ea

D. ib

Q.68 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 1 8 6 9 1 8 4 8 2 6 9 7 2 6 5 9 8 4 7 1 9 1 6 9 6 5 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is
immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even
number?6621
Ans A. 5

B. 4

C. 6

D. 3

Q.69 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. B is seated third
from the right end. G is third to the left of D. E is seated to the right of B and at one of
the ends. Only two people are seated between F and E. A does not sit at any of the
extreme ends. Who is seated at the extreme left end?
Ans A. F

B. D

C. G

D. C

Q.70 Town A is to the east of Town B. Town C is to the south of Town A. Town D is to the
west of Town C. Town E is to the north of Town D. Town B is to the north-west of Town
E. What is the position of Town A with respect to Town E?
Ans A. South-east

B. North-west

C. North-east

D. South-west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

m
.co
Q.71 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
e m
m
statements.
as
se Statements:
All potatoes are bananas. ag l
All bananas are apples.

Conclusions:
(I) All potatoes are apples.
(II) Some apples are bananas.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

C. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m
D. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m .co
m .co s em
Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

s e l a
ag
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

l a
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

ag
statements.

Statements:
All bolts are screws.
All bolts are nuts.
All nuts are rivets.

Conclusions:
(I): All bolts are rivets.
(II): Some nuts are screws.
Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

m
.co
B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows
e m
D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
las
Q.73 ag
Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

XLD, AOG, DRJ, GUM, ?
Ans A. JYQ

B. JXQ

C. JYP

D. JXP
m
m .co
.co
Q.74 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
e m
e m that group?
l as
l as (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
ag
ag Ans A. EBC

B. WTU

C. LJJ

D. DAB

Q.75 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

168 181 196 209 224 ?
Ans A. 237
m .
B. 238
m .co s e m
s e l a
ag
C. 235

D. 239
g l a
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.76 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 562 428 653 154 749 (Right)
(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to
the third digit of the second lowest number?
Ans A. 12

B. 14

C. 13

D. 11

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

21 28 38 51 67 ?
Ans A. 84

B. 87

C. 86

D. 85

Q.78 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only three boxes are kept below W. Only two boxes are kept between W
and P. Only B is kept above D. T is kept at some place below E and at some place above
S. Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
Ans A. S

B. T

C. E

D. P

Q.79 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

808 818 829 841 854 ?
Ans A. 866

B. 862

C. 868

D. 864

Q.80 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 6 1 2 1 8 4 2 3 1 7 5 3 5 9 8 5 2 1 9 3 6 6 7 2 6 7 5 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there (from left to right), each of which is
immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd
number?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 3

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

m
.co
Q.81 In November 2025, 79 spotted deer were moved to which national park as part of
m
co
conservation efforts in India?

. e m
s
Ans A. Keoladeo National Park
m a
se B. Sultanpur National Park

C. Chandoli National Park ag l
D. Kaziranga National Park

Q.82 Which of the following bodies released the report titled ‘India’s Blue Economy: Strategy
for Harnessing Deep-Sea and Offshore Fisheries’ in October 2025?
Ans A. Indian Ocean Research Institute

B. Marine Products Export Development Authority

C. NITI Aayog
m
m .co
.co
D. National Fisheries Development Board

em
Q.83
e m
Which edition of the WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine will be held in New
l as
s
Delhi in December 2025?

l a ag
ag
Ans A. 3rd Edition

B. 2nd Edition

C. 1st Edition

D. 4th Edition

Q.84 On 13 September 2025, the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports announced the second
edition of which of the following events aimed at higher participation, new tracks, and
broader outreach?

m
Ans A. Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue – 2026

B. Viksit Bharat Youth Leadership Summit – 2026

m .co
C. Viksit Bharat Young Innovators Conference – 2026
s e
D. Viksit Bharat Youth Development Forum – 2026
g la
Q.85
a
Which classical Bharatanatyam talent aged 14 received the Nritya Kala Bhushan Bal
Puraskar in May 2025?
Ans A. Ravi Shankar

B. Sudha Chandran

C. Chetna V

D. Malavika Nair

m
.co
Q.86 The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India's (IRDAI) June 2025
m
advisory on the Air India AI‑171 crash was issued to which of the following

m .co
stakeholders?

s e m
s e
Ans A. All Banks and NBFCs

g l a
g l a B. All Insurers and Reinsurers
a
a C. Only General Insurers

D. Only Life Insurers

Q.87 According to reports released in May 2025, DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala), a genome-edited
rice variety developed by ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad, is a derivative of which of the
following rice varieties?
Ans A. MTU 1010

B. IR64

m .
.co
C. Swarna

e m
D. Samba Mahsuri

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.88 The U.S.–Turkey Nuclear Cooperation Agreement, signed in 2025, primarily focuses on
developing which category of advanced nuclear reactors?
Ans A. Molten Salt Reactors

B. Fast Breeder Reactors

C. Fusion Reactors

D. Small Modular Reactors

Q.89 What was the Reserve Bank of India's repo rate in April 2025 after the 54th meeting of
the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
Ans A. 7.00%

B. 6.50%

C. 6.00%

D. 6.75%

Q.90 As of June 2025, how many times has the Indian men’s junior hockey team won the
Junior Asia Cup?
Ans A. 7

B. 4

C. 5

D. 1

Q.91 Which level of school education had the best pupil-teacher ratio (PTR) according to the
UDISE+, 2024–25, report?
Ans A. Preparatory (Classes 6–8)

B. Secondary (Classes 9–12)

C. Middle (Classes 6–8)

D. Foundational (Classes 1–5)

Q.92 At which institution was India's first AI teacher introduced?
Ans A. St. Thomas College, Thrissur

B. Loyola College, Chennai

C. Government College of Teacher Education, Thiruvananthapuram

D. KTCT Higher Secondary School, Thiruvananthapuram

Q.93 When was the 130th Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in the Lok Sabha?
Ans A. July 2025

B. August 2025

C. April 2025

D. January 2025

Q.94 The ISSF World Cup is associated with which of the following sports?
Ans A. Squash

B. Swimming

C. Shooting

D. Skiing

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

m
.co
Q.95 In October 2025, which national park was in the news for launching India’s first-ever
m
co
cheetah safari for tourists?

. e m
s
Ans A. Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh
m a
se B. Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand

C. Ranthambore National Park, Rajasthan ag l
D. Kaziranga National Park, Assam

Q.96 Which city hosted WWE’s 'Night of Champions' on 28 June 2025?
Ans A. Cairo, Egypt

B. Istanbul, Turkey

C. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

m
.co
D. Dubai, UAE
m
Q.97 .co
Which of the following schemes is NOT converged into the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka
m s em
Samvardhan scheme?
s e l a
Ans
l a
A. Atal Pension Yojana
ag
ag
B. Hamari Dharohar

C. Seekho Aur Kamao

D. Nai Roshni

Q.98 Who defended the 100 m hurdles title and set a Championships record of 12.96 s at the
Asian Athletics Championships in May 2025?
Ans A. Pooja Singh

B. Jyothi Yarraji
m
.co
C. Anu Raghavan

D. Vithya Ramraj
e m
las
Q.99
g
Which city ranked first in Category-1 (population of over 10 lakh) in the Swachh Vayu
Sarvekshan Awards, 2025?
a
Ans A. Jabalpur

B. Indore

C. Surat

D. Agra

Q.100 At the Asian Para-Badminton Championship 2025 held in Thailand, how many total
medals did Indian shuttlers win?
m
Ans
m
A. 25
.co
m .co B. 30
s e m
s e C. 20
g l a
g l a D. 27
a
a
"

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 49