Goa Board Class 11 Sample Paper English Communications

2025

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ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS ( V4201)
MID - TERM SYLLABUS 2024- 2025
STD. XI (VOCATIONAL) MAX MARKS : 20

Sr. Topic / Unit Questions to be tested Marks
No.
1. Prose
 The Flying Sikh *Synonym (MCQ) VSA 1 mark
*Antonym(MCQ) VSA 1 mark
 Rainwater Harvesting
*SA-I (10 – 15 words 1 mark
answer)
(1 mark question)

*SA-II (25 – 30 words 2 marks
answer)
(2 marks question)

2. Poetry
 The Solitary Reaper 2 Reference questions 2 marks
1 SA-I (Direct question) 1 mark

3. Grammar
 Determiners 2 questions VSA 2 marks
 Tenses (1 mark each question)

4. Comprehension
( Passage should be of 175 – 200 words) *SA -I ( 4 questions – 1 4 marks
mark each)
*VSA - 1 question (MCQ) 1 mark
*VSA - 1 question (MCQ) 1 mark

5. Paragraph Writing ( 50 – 60 words) 4 marks
 Descriptive Paragraph

TOTAL 20 marks

ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS (V4201)
FIRST TERM SYLLABUS 2023 - 2024
STD. XI (VOCATIONAL) Duration: 2 ½ Hours MAX MARKS : 60

Sr. Topics / Units Questions to be tested Marks
No.
1. Prose
 The Flying Sikh * Synonym (MCQ) VSA 3 marks
*Antonym (MCQ) VSA 3 marks
 Rainwater Harvesting *Spelling (MCQ) VSA 2 marks
* Sentence Formation 2 marks
 India’s Vocational Future
(Vocabulary)(SA-l)
*3 SA-I (10 – 15 words 3 marks
answer)
(1 mark question)
4 marks
*2 SA-II (25 – 30 words
answer)
(2 marks each question)

2. Poetry *2 Reference Question(10- 15 2 marks
 The Solitary Reaper words answer)
(1 mark each question)
 The Happiest Man
*1 SA-II (25 – 30 words 2 marks
answer)
(2 marks question)

3. Supplementary *2 LA question (35 - 40 words) 6 marks
 How I Taught My Grandmother 3 marks each
To Read
NO CHOICE to be given

4. Grammar 6 marks
(All Units to be taught but any 6 to be *6 questions SA-I
tested) ( 1 mark each question)

 Use of ‘Unless’ / ‘If ’ MCQs
 Use of ‘so ..that’ / ‘too – to’
 Use of No sooner../ As soon
as
 Degrees of Comparison

 Modals
 Prepositions
 Determiners
 Tenses

5. Comprehension Passage *SA-I ( 4 questions) 4 marks
(Passage should be of 175 – 200 (1 mark each)
words)
*VSA – 2 questions (MCQ) 2 marks

*VSA – 2 questions (MCQ) 2 marks

6. Writing Skills 3 marks
Notice Writing (30 – 40words)

7. Paragraph Writing (50 -60 words) 4 marks

 Narrative Paragraph

8. Writing Skills 5 marks
Business Letter

 Letter of Enquiry

9. Essay Writing 7 marks
( To be written in 175 - 200 words in
minimum 4 paragraphs)

TOTAL 60 Marks

ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS ( V4201)
FINAL EXAMINATION SYLLABUS 2023 - 2024
STD. XI (VOCATIONAL) Duration: 2 ½ Hours MAX MARKS : 70

Sr. Topics / Units Questions to be tested Marks
No.
1. Prose
 My Vision For India * Synonym (MCQ) VSA 2 marks
*Antonym (MCQ) VSA 2 marks
 World of Photography *Spelling (MCQ) VSA 2 marks
* Sentence Formation 2 marks
 Parts and Functions of a Car
(Vocabulary)(SA-1)
*2 SA-I (10 – 15 words 2 marks
answer)
(1 mark question)
4 marks
*2 SA-II (25 – 30 words
answer)
(2 marks each question)

2. Poetry *2 Reference Question(10- 15 2 marks
 The Solitary Reaper words answer)
1 MCQ
 Freedom 1 SA I
(1 mark each question)

*1 SA-II (25 – 30 words 2 marks
answer)
(2 marks question)

3. Supplementary *2 LA question (35 - 40 words) 6 marks
 How I Taught My Grandmother 3 marks question (Any two
To Read questions out of four to be
answered)
 The Bull
CHOICE to be given

4. Grammar 6 marks
(All Units to be taught but any 6 to be *6 questions SA-I
tested) ( 1 mark each question)
 Determiners
 Active Passive Voice MCQs
 Tenses

 Question Tags
 Use of ‘Unless’ / ‘If ’
 Use of ‘so ..that’ / ‘too – to’
 Use of No sooner../ As soon
as
 Degrees of Comparison
 Modals
 Prepositions

5. Comprehension Passage *SA-I ( 4 questions) 4 marks
(Passage should be of 175 – 200 (1 mark each)
words)
*VSA – 2 questions MCQ 2 marks

*VSA – 2 questions MCQ 2 marks

6. Deciphering the Passage *VSA (Five Blanks, One mark 5 marks
(Passage should be of about 125 – each)
150 words)

7. Paragraph Writing (50 -60words) 4 marks

 Argumentative Paragraph

8. Writing Skills 3 marks
Notice Writing (30 – 40words)

9. Writing Skills 5 marks
Business Letter (Any one to be
tested)

 Letter of Enquiry
 Letter of Order

10. Job Application Letter with CV 7 marks

11. Essay Writing 8 marks
( To be written in 175 - 200 words in
minimum 4 paragraphs)

TOTAL 70 Marks

QUESTION PAPER PATTERN
MID TERM EXAMINATION 2024 - 2025
ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS (VOCATIONAL)

STD - XI Max Marks : 20
Duration : 1 hour

Instructions:
1. The Question Paper consists of questions from 1 to 16.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Figures to the right indicate full marks to each question.

From the alternatives given below, choose the most appropriate synonym for ( 01 )
the underlined word: (MCQ)
1. ______________





From the below provided alternatives, choose an appropriate antonym of the ( 01 )
underlined word: (MCQ)

2. ________________





3. Answer the following question in not more than 10 - 15 words: ( 01 )

4. Answer the following question in not more than 25 – 30 words: ( 02 )

Answer the following question in not more than 10 – 15 words: (poetry
Reference Question)
5. ( 01)

6. ( 01)
7. Direct question (SA1) poetry ( 01)

Rewrite each of the following sentences as per the instructions given in the
brackets.

8. GRAMMAR ( 01 )

9. GRAMMAR ( 01 )

Read the passage carefully:

On the basis of your reading and comprehending the above passage, answer
the following questions given below in complete sentences in 10 – 15 words:

10. ( 01)

11. ( 01 )

12. ( 01 )

13. ( 01 )

From the alternatives provided below, choose the most appropriate meaning of ( 01 )
the word given below: (MCQ)

14. _____________





The alternatives provided are words from the passage. Choose the correct ( 01 )
alternative that best matches the meaning given below: (MCQ)

15. ______________





16. Paragraph writing in 50 – 60 words ( 04 )
( Description)

QUESTION PAPER PATTERN
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS
STD: XI VOC. MAX.MARKS : 60 DURATION : 2 ½HRS

__________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The Question paper consists of questions from 1 to 35
2. All the questions are compulsory.
3. Figures to the right indicate full marks to each question .

From the alternatives given below choose the most appropriate synonym
for the underlined word.
1 __________ (01)




2 _____________ (01)




3 ______________ (01)




From the alternatives given below choose the most appropriate antonym
for the underlined word.
4. ______________________ (01)





5. __________________ (01)






(01)
6. _________________________




Choose the correct spelling from the following words provided.
7. (01)
_________________________




8. Choose the correct spelling from the following words provided. (01)
_________________________





Frame sentences based on the inputs provided: (02)
9.

10.
Answer the following questions in not more than 10-15 words each.
(Prose)
11. (01)

12. (01)

13. (01)

Answer the following questions in not more than 25-30 words each.

(Prose)
14. (02)

15. (02)

Answer each of the following questions with reference to the poem in
not more than 10-15 words. (Poetry)
16. (01)

17. (01)

Answer the following questions in not more than 25-30 words. (Poetry)
18. (02)

Answer the following questions in about 35-40 words each.
(Supplementary) No Choice
19. (03)

20. (03)

Each of the following sentences tests the usage of grammar. Read the
instruction given after every sentence carefully and select the correct
answer from the alternatives provided. (MCQ)
21. __________________ (01)





22. (01)





23. (01)





24. (01)





25. (01)

 .
 .
 .

26. (01)

 .
 .
 .


Read the passage given below carefully: (Comprehension) (200 words)

On the basis of your reading and comprehending the above passage,
answer the questions given below in complete sentences in 10-15 words:

27. (01)

28. (01)

29. (01)

30. (01)

Choose and rewrite the correct meaning of the words given below, from
the alternatives provided.
31. (01)






32. (01)






The alternatives provided are words from the passage. Choose the

alternative that best matches the meaning given below.

33. (01)





34. (01)





35. Notice Writing (30-40 words) 03

36. Paragraph writing (Narrative ) (about 60 words) 04

37. Business Letter. ( Enquiry) (Use Full Block Format) 05

38. The Essay (175- 200 words) 07
Minimum 4 paragraphs

QUESTION PAPER PATTERN
FINAL EXAMINATION 2024- 2025
ENGLISH COMMUNICATION SKILLS (4201)

STD: XI VOCATIONAL MAX. MARKS: 70 DURATION: 2 ½ hrs

INSTRUCTIONS:
i. The Question paper consists of questions from 1 to 41.
ii. All the questions are compulsory; however there is an internal choice in Q.
No. 16, 17 and 41.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks to each question.
____________________________________________________________________________________

From the alternatives given below, choose the most appropriate
synonym for the underlined word: (MCQ)
01. __________________ ( 01 )





02. ________________ ( 01 )





From the alternatives given below, choose the most appropriate
antonym for the underlined word: (MCQ) ( 01 )
03. _______________






04. ___________ ( 01 )





05. Choose the correct spelling from the following words provided. ( 01 )
_________________________



 ( 01 )
06. Choose the correct spelling from the following words provided.
_________________________




Frame sentences based on the inputs provided: ( 02 )
07.

08.
Answer each of the following questions in not more than 10-15
words each. (Prose)
09. ( 01 )

10. ( 01 )
Answer each of the following questions in not more than 25- 30
words each. (Prose)

11. ( 02 )
12. ( 02 )

13. Answer each of the following question with reference to the poem, ( 01 )
by selecting the appropriate alternative: (Poetry)





14. Answer each of the following question with reference to the poem ( 01 )
in not more than 10-15 words: (Poetry)

15. Answer each of the following questions in not more than 25 to 30 ( 02 )
words. (Poetry)

16. Answer the following question in about 35-40 words:
(Supplementary)
( 03 )

OR
16.
Answer the following question in about 35-40 words:
(Supplementary)

17. Answer the following question in about 35-40 words:
(Supplementary)
( 03 )
OR
17.
Answer the following question in about 35-40 words:
(Supplementary)

Each of the following sentences tests the usage of grammar. Read the
18. instruction given after every sentence carefully and select the correct
answer from the alternatives provided.

 ( 01)



19.  ( 01)




20.  ( 01 )




21.  ( 01 )



22. ( 01 )





23. ( 01 )





Read the passage given below carefully: (Comprehension)
(About 200 words)

On the basis of your reading and comprehending the above
passage, answer the questions given below in complete
sentences in 10-15 words:
24. ( 01 )

25. ( 01 )

26. ( 01 )

27. ( 01 )

Choose and rewrite the correct meaning of the words given below,
from the alternatives provided.

28. __________ ( 01 )
 .
 .
 .
 .

29. __________ ( 01 )
 .
 .
 .
 .

30. The alternatives provided are words from the passage. Choose the ( 01 )
alternative that best matches the meaning given below.
__________
 .
 .
 .
 .

31. __________ ( 01 )
 .
 .
 .
 .

Given below is an informative passage. Interpret it in order to
complete the flowchart in a single word or a phrase to bring out
the main topic and sub-topics in the passage: (Deciphering
Passage) about 150 – 175 words.
32. ( 01 )
33. ( 01 )
34. ( 01 )
35. ( 01 )
36. ( 01 )
37. Notice writing (30 to 40 words) ( 03 )

38. Paragraph Writing - Argumentative Paragraph ( 04 )

39. Business letter ( 05 )
Letter of Enquiry , Letter of Order (Any One to be tested)

40. Job Application Letter with CV ( 07 )

41. Essay Writing (175 -200 words). ( 08 )
Minimum four paragraphs

*********************************************************************

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