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RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 12 Mar All Shifts (in English)

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Page 1

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 12 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 12/03/2025
a
Centre Name ION Digital Zone IDZ KIOT-Campus
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 A gift in the form of a cube, whose side measures 10 cm, has to be wrapped with gift
l
ag
paper, which costs ₹0.05 per cm2. Find the cost of the gift wrap.
Ans 1. ₹60

2. ₹300

3. ₹600

4. ₹30

Q.2 A and B together can do a piece of work in 13 days and A alone can do it in 18 days. In
how many days can B alone do it?

m
Ans

.co
1.

e m
s
2.

g la
3.
a
4.

Q.3 A chair is listed at ₹600 and a discount of 8% is given. The selling price is:
Ans 1. ₹592

2. ₹584

3. ₹552
m
m .co
.co
4. ₹600

e m
e
Q.4 m
A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3780. The number is:
l as
l asAns 1. 5400
ag
ag 2. 8100

3. 1350

4. 2700

Q.5
Find the value of

Ans 1. 7202

m .
.co m
2. 7195

m s e
3. 7197

s e l a
a ag
4. 7211

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 61

Page 3

Q.6 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 123. Find the average of theremaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 191

2. 198

3. 199

4. 192

Q.7 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 13 minutes and 39 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 27 minutes?
Ans 1. 7 min

2. 10 min

3. 4 min

4. 5 min

Q.8 The perimeter of a square is 14 cm. If each side of the square is increased by x cm, its
area increases by 120 cm2. What is the value of x?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.9 After 58 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 1% empty.
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 59.59

2. 57.59

3. 58.59

4. 59

Q.10 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Mukund
borrowed an amount of ₹440000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Mukund after 4 years.
Ans 1. 43500

2. 44000

3. 45500

4. 45000

Q.11 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 118. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 197

2. 190.5

3. 196

4. 191.5

Q.12 The amount that ₹4,375 computes in 2 years at annual compound interest, if the rates
for the successive years be 8% and 12% per annum, respectively, is:
Ans 1. ₹4,417

2. ₹5,292

3. ₹4,812

4. ₹5,250

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 61

Page 4

m
.co
Q.13
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans ag l
1.

2.

3.

m
m .co
4.

m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.14 There are 2822 students in a school and the ratio of boys to girls in the school is 36 : 47,
then find the number of boys in school.
Ans 1. 1224

2. 1207

3. 1226

4. 1218

Q.15 The difference between a discount of 30% on ₹2,200 and two successive discounts of
25% and 5% on the same amount is:
m
.co
Ans 1. ₹28.5

2. ₹26.5
e m
3. ₹25.5
las
4. ₹27.5
ag
Q.16
Simplify 103 − 33 − 23/102 + 102 × 35 ÷ 7.
Ans 1. 1472.29

2. 1427.92

3. 1427.29

4. 1472.92

m
m .co
Q.17 What is the largest four-digit number which is exactly divisible by 92?

.co m
Ans 1. 9,944

m s e
s e
2. 9,996

g l a
g l a 3. 9,984
a
a 4. 9,936

Q.18 The sum of 10 numbers is 324. Find their average.
Ans 1. 32.4

2. 33.4

3. 31.4

4. 30.4

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 61

Page 5

Q.19 An amount of ₹20,000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 10%, compounded
annually. What will be the compound interest earned after 3 years?
Ans 1. ₹6,620

2. ₹5,625

3. ₹6,777

4. ₹6,430

Q.20 The average of first 116 even numbers is
Ans 1. 117

2. 116.5

3. 117.5

4. 118

Q.21 A person buys a toy for ₹70 and sells it for ₹91. What will be his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 40%

Q.22 A bike goes 23 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 80.3

2. 82.8

3. 75.5

4. 84.9

Q.23

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 A man rows down a river of length 24 km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 8
hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
Ans 1. 9.4 km/h

2. 4.5 km/h

3. 6.3 km/h

4. 5.4 km/h

Q.25 P sells an item to Q at 54% profit. Q sells the same item to R at 60% loss. If R paid ₹
5467 for the item, then at what price (in ₹) is the item purchased by P?
Ans 1. 8876

2. 8875

3. 8873

4. 8872
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 61

Page 6

m
.co
Q.26
m
. co
Ans 1.

s e m
m a
se l
2.

3.
ag
4.

Q.27 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹78 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹14 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹73.5 per kg, there is a profit of 47%?
Ans 1. 34 : 27

2. 36 : 28

3. 35 : 30

m
.co
4. 37 : 26
m
Q.28 .co
A car travels 243 km in the first hour and 225 km in the second hour. What is the
m s em
e
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
s l a
Ans 1. 234
l a ag
2. 240

3. 238
ag
4. 243

Q.29 The HCF of 36, 48 and 172 is _______.
Ans 1. 4

2. 12

3. 8
m
4. 6

m .co
s e
la
Q.30 Find the value of 7.56 + 3.48 − 8.52 + 2.78 − 3.14.
Ans 1. 2.16

2. 3.85 ag
3. 3.25

4. 2.01

Q.31 The HCF of 218−1 and 220−1 is _____.
Ans 1. 15

m
2. 3

m
3. 65
.co
m.co 4. 7
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.32 There are 380 members in a club; 25% more persons joined the club. What is the new
strength of the club? a
a Ans 1. 425

2. 475

3. 405

4. 450

Q.33 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 32% and its height is
increased by 168%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?

m .
.co
Ans 1. 24%

e m
2. 6%

e m l as
3. 23%
l as ag

4. 46%
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 61

Page 7

Q.34 6 men can complete a piece of work in 10 days while 3 women can do it in 14 days. In
how many days can 7 women and 5 men complete it?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 4 days

3. 7 days

4. 8 days

Q.35 A 214 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 5.7 km/h in the opposite
direction in 9 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 79.9

2. 82.8

3. 83.7

4. 84.3

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

62, 71, 89, 116, ?, 197
Ans 1. 152

2. 142

3. 162

4. 123

Q.37 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6721584, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans 1. 10

2. 13

3. 14

4. 12

Q.38 Satish starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 12 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km.
He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 10 km towards North

2. 11 km towards West

3. 11 km towards East

4. 12 km towards South

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

74 75 67 94 30 ?
Ans 1. 165

2. 246

3. 155

4. 264

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 61

Page 8

m
.co
Q.40 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

. co RJD : NNZ
s e m
m a
se l
IKA : EOW
Ans 1. MRC : IVX
ag
2. SNG : ORK

3. HPK : DTG

4. SFT : OBP

Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘SINE’ is coded as ‘2893’ and ‘NOSE’ is coded as ‘1293’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

m
.co
2. 9
m
.co m
3. 2

m s e
4. 3

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.42 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
18 B 3 D 16 A 4 C 11 = ?
Ans 1. 61

2. 59

3. 69

4. 41

Q.43 Shivam starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
m
.co
drives 8 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)

m
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
s e
la
Ans 1. 3 km to the west

2. 4 km to the east
ag
3. 3 km to the east

4. 4 km to the west

Q.44 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 7 9 8 9 4 8 5 6 8 7 2 2 6 7 1 7 8 4 8 2 5 5 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
m
.co
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
m
.co m
Ans 1. Two

m s e
s e
2. None

g l a
g l a 3. One
a
a 4. Three

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 61

Page 9

Q.45 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some coats are elephants.
All elephants are stories.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some coats are stories.
(II) : Some stories are elephants.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.46 In a certain code language,

'A ÷ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,
'A # B' means ‘A is the father of B’,
'A ! B' means ‘ A is the brother of B’ and
'A @ B' means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is T related to Z if 'T @ U ! W # X ÷ Z'?
Ans 1. Wife's father's son

2. Wife's father's sister

3. Wife's father's brother

4. Wife's father's daughter

Q.47 E, F, G, H, I, and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. F sits second to
the left of J. I is an immediate neighbour of F. Only H sits between I and E. How many
people sit between G and H when counted from the right of G?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. None

Q.48 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RT - XZ

2. PR - VX

3. GI - MO

4. MJ - RV

Q.49 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, L, M and N are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
N is kept immediately above L. M is kept immediately above B. Only A is kept above C.
Only two boxes are kept above N. M is not kept at the third position from the bottom.
How many boxes are kept between D and A?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 61

Page 10

m
.co
Q.50 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 436 147 325 594 672 (Right)

s e m
m a
se l
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
ag
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position of how many number(s)
will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

m
.co
Q.51 In a certain code language, ‘HIDE’ is coded as ‘2453’ and ‘HELD’ is coded as ‘5314’.

m
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

m .co s em
2. 5
s e l a
3. 4
l a ag
4. 1
ag
Q.52 Six friends R, S, T, X, Y, and Z are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people
sit to the left of X. S sits second to the right of X. Only one person sits between X and T.
Only two persons sit to the right of Z. Y is not an immediate neighbour of X. How many
people sit between Y and R?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three
m
4. One

m .co
s e
la
Q.53 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of

g
the following sets.

a
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 14, 21)
(7, 18, 25)
Ans 1. (8, 20, 27)

2. (10, 29, 36)

3. (6, 15, 22)
m
m
4. (9, 14, 21)
.co
Q.54
m.co
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans
782 780 776 770 762 ?
a
a
1. 752

2. 756

3. 750

4. 754

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 61

Page 11

Q.55 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

Some shoes are crocs.

All crocs are formals.

Some crocs are blankets.

Conclusions:

I. Some shoes are blankets.

II. At least some blankets are formals.
Ans 1. Neither I nor II follows

2. Both I and II follow

3. Only II follows

4. Only I follows

Q.56 In a certain code language,
A # B means ‘ A is the brother of B’
A ! B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A ~ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to T if 'L # I ! G ~ H + T’?
Ans 1. Mother's sister's son

2. Mother's mother's brother

3. Mother's daughter's son

4. Mother's mother's father

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ULX RJU OHR LFO ?
Ans 1. JDL

2. ICL

3. IDL

4. IDK

Q.58 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

IK – LN – OQ
GC – JF – MI
Ans 1. AM – DP – GS

2. NF – RJ – TL

3. CH – GK – JO

4. DP – GS – JU

Q.59 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. E sits to the
immediate right of G. C sits third to the left of E. F is the immediate neighbour of B and
D. A sits third to the left of D.
How many people sit between E and B when counted from the left of B?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Five

4. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 61

Page 12

m
.co
Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co UBIP DKRY MTAH VCJQ ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. SLZE

2. ELSZ ag l
3. ELZS

4. SLEZ

Q.61 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
m
.co
All books are guides.
No guide is a reference.
m
.co m
No guide is a novel.
Conclusions:
m s e
e
(I): No book is a reference.

s l a
ag
(II): Some novels are references.

l a
ag
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.62 Each of the digits in the number 6315428 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?
Ans 1. None
m
.co
2. Three

3. One
e m
4. Two
las
Q.63 ag
In a certain code language, ‘7029’ is coded as ‘RYXQ’ and ‘2069’ is coded as
‘QSXY’.What is the code for ‘6’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. Y

2. X

3. S

4. Q

Q.64 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
m
m .co
the following series.

.co
UY21 TX29 SW37 RV45 ?

e m
Ans

e m
1. QU53

l as
l as 2. QU54

ag
ag 3. QV54

4. QV53

Q.65 AXVJ is related to MIFS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, WPJT is related to IATC. To which of the given options is GWNU related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. SXDH

2. SXHD

3. SHDX
m .
.co m
4. SHXD

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 61

Page 13

Q.66 Each of D, I, R, E, C, T and S has holidays on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only S has a holiday after T. Only
three people have holidays between C and T. Only three people have holidays between
D and S. E has a holiday on some day before I and on some day after R. How many
people have a holiday before D?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. Zero

4. One

Q.67 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 61

Page 14

m
.co
Q.68 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
m
shown below.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

m
m .co
1.

m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
2.
ag

3.

m
4.

m .co
s e
g la
Q.69
a
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. OL-SQ

2. UR-YW

3. MJ-QO

4. HE-LI
m
Q.70
o m
This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
c m.co
m . 421 731 375 762 547 (Right) s e
s e (Left)
l a
a (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)ag
g l
a (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how
many numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 0

4. 3

m .
Section : General Awareness
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 61

Page 15

Q.71 Which countries have participated in Maritime Exercise Malabar 2024 in Visakhapatnam
with host nation India?
Ans 1. Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh

2. Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Malaysia

3. Germany, France, England

4. Australia, Japan, USA

Q.72 Who is the director of the film 'To Kill a Tiger', which was nominated in the ‘Best Feature
Documentary’ category for the Oscars 2024?
Ans 1. Anshuman Vichare

2. Nisha Pahuja

3. Kartiki Gonsalves

4. Supriyo Sen

Q.73 Which of the following rivers is known for creating a rift valley in the Deccan Plateau
and flows from Central India to the Arabian Sea?
Ans 1. Narmada

2. Krishna

3. Godavari

4. Mahi

Q.74 In September 2024, the Supreme Court held that viewing, storing and possessing ‘child
pornography’ is punishable under the POCSO Act. What does 'P' stand for in POCSO?
Ans 1. Prevention

2. Prohibition

3. Provision

4. Protection

Q.75 During which of the following periods will Phase IV of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yojana be implemented?
Ans 1. FY 2024-25 to FY 2027-28

2. FY 2024-25 to FY 2028-29

3. FY 2024-25 to FY 2025-26

4. FY 2024-25 to FY 2026-27

Q.76 What is the phenomenon called when two or more compounds with the same molecular
formula display different physical or chemical properties?
Ans 1. Polymerization

2. Homomorphism

3. Isotopes

4. Isomerism

Q.77 How many Atal Tinkering Labs have been established across India as of October 2024?
Ans 1. 10,000

2. 12,000

3. 5,000

4. 8,000

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Q.78 Which of the following banks announced in June 2024 that it would increase its equity
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stake in Max Life Insurance by acquiring additional shares worth ₹336 crore?

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Ans 1. HDFC Bank
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2. Kotak Mahindra Bank

3. Axis Bank
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4. ICICI Bank

Q.79 What is the primary purpose of pedigree analysis in the context of genetics?
Ans 1. To measure the physical traits of individuals in a population

2. To track the inheritance of specific traits across generations within a family

3. To analyse the nutritional requirements of different organisms

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4. To study the ecological interactions between species in an environment

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Q.80
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On which of the following days did the Congress Party make a public announcement,

m
urging Indians to celebrate it as 'Independence Day'?
s em
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Ans 1. 26 January 1928

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2. 26 January 1929

3. 26 January 1932

4. 26 January 1930

Q.81 Which of the following classes of elements are used in transistors?
Ans 1. Metals

2. Lanthanoids

3. Metalloids
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4. Nonmetals

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Q.82
s
Which of the following countries' Senate approved a controversial judicial reform in

la
September 2024 under which judges will be elected by popular vote?
Ans 1. Sweden
ag
2. Mexico

3. New Zealand

4. Spain

Q.83 Who among the following propagated the motto 'Back to the Vedas'?
Ans 1. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
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3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
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m.co 4. Swami Vivekananda
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.84 At which of the following places was the 'Servants of India Society' founded by Gopal
Krishna Gokhale in 1905? a
a Ans 1. Pune

2. Raigad

3. Nagpur

4. Amravati

Q.85 SBI's Gross NPA ratio at the end of Q3 FY24 was reduced to how much percentage?
Ans 1. 74.17%

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2. 2.42%

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3. 13.05%

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4. 0.64%

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Q.86 As per the RBI’s April 2024 Monetary Policy Committee, which new entity will be allowed
to distribute Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) in India?
Ans 1. Stock brokers

2. Foreign exchange agencies

3. Commercial banks only

4. Non-bank payment system operators

Q.87 Name the author who wrote the book Tajul-Ma'asir, considered as the first official
history of the Delhi Sultanate.
Ans 1. Ibn Battuta

2. Abdur Razzaq

3. Hasan Nizami

4. Abul Fazl

Q.88 Which of the following was the unique feature of Dholavira’s city layout during the
Indus Valley Civilisation?
Ans 1. It was divided into three distinct parts.

2. It was a single unique tomb.

3. It was divided into eight parts.

4. It was divided into two distinct parts.

Q.89 Under the sports category, who among the following won the Pradhan Mantri
Rashtriya Bal Puraskar (PMRBP), 2024?
Ans 1. Suhani Chauhan

2. Ishfaq Hamid

3. Aryan Singh

4. Charvi A

Q.90 RBI retained which monetary policy instrument at 3.35% on 9 October 2024?
Ans 1. Bank rate

2. Standing deposit facility rate

3. Marginal standing facility rate

4. Reverse repo rate

Q.91 The Rajya Sabha is to the Union Government as the ________ is to the State
Government.
Ans 1. Chief Minister's Office

2. State Legislative Council

3. Governor's Office

4. State Legislative Assembly

Q.92 What is the name of the blockchain framework launched by the Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology, Government of India in September 2024?
Ans 1. Krishi-Blockchain Technology Stack

2. Bharat-Blockchain Technology Stack

3. Vikram-Blockchain Technology Stack

4. Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack

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Q.93 Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years in
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India?

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Ans 1. 73rd Amendment
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se 2. 52nd Amendment

3. 61st Amendment ag l
4. 44th Amendment

Q.94 Which initiative in the 1960s marked the beginning of technological advancement in
agriculture in India?
Ans 1. Land Reforms

2. New Industrial Policy

3. Industrial Licensing
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4. Green Revolution
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Q.95
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The radioactive elements radium and polonium were discovered by:
s em
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Ans 1. John Dalton

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2. Avogadro

3. Irène Joliot-Curie

4. Marie Curie

Q.96 The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was borrowed from which of the
following countries?
Ans 1. Canada

2. United States of America

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3. Australia

4. United Kingdom

e m
Q.97 Which of the following is the largest lagoon in India?
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Ans 1. Pulicat Lake
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2. Vembanad Lake

3. Kolleru Lake

4. Chilika Lake

Q.98 Which sector of the economy involves industries and manufacturing?
Ans 1. Secondary

2. Tertiary
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3. Informal
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m.co 4. Primary
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s e g l a
g l a Q.99 Which of the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to
the members of the armed forces in India? a
a Ans 1. Armed forces

2. Supreme Court

3. Parliament of India

4. President of India

Q.100 Who among the following leaders strongly supported the idea of self-reliance and was
an extremist?

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Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

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3. Feroz Shah Mehta
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4. Surendranath Banerjee
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Q.101 In which year did India discontinue the Five Year Plan model?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2017

3. 2012

4. 2015

Q.102 Which of the following states was NOT part of the Phase-7 polling for the Indian Lok
Sabha elections conducted in June 2024?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. Karnataka

4. Bihar

Q.103 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body under which
Article of the Indian Constitution, and what is its primary responsibility?
Ans 1. Article 310; Responsible for conducting state elections

2. Article 315; Responsible for recruitment and examinations for All India Services

3. Article 356; Responsible for appointing Governors in states

4. Article 325; Responsible for appointing Chief Ministers in states

Q.104 After the 1991 reforms, foreign direct investment (FDI) was allowed in:
Ans 1. all sectors without restrictions

2. selected sectors with limitations

3. agriculture only

4. education only

Q.105 A raga must have at least how many of the notes of M, M′ and P (to serve as an
additional reference for the upper tetrachord)?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Not necessary to have any one

Q.106 The Lakshadweep Islands lie close to the which coastal plain of India?
Ans 1. Coromandel Coast

2. Northern Circar Coast

3. Malabar Coast

4. Kathiawar Coast

Q.107 According to Basic Road Statistics in India-2018-19, which state has the largest network
of National Highways?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Maharashtra

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.108 Which of the following Indus Valley sites was discovered by Rakhal Das Bannerjee?
Ans 1. Harappa

2. Mohenjo-Daro

3. Surkotada

4. Kalibangan

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Q.109 Which of the following is the cheapest and most suitable mode of transport for carrying
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heavy and bulky material?

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Ans 1. Roadways
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2. Railways

3. Airways
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4. Waterways

Q.110 Which of the following best describes the purpose of the industrial licensing system
introduced by the Indian government in the 1950s?
Ans 1. To control the expansion and activities of private enterprises, ensuring alignment with the national planners’ goals and limiting
competition from foreign industries
2. To dismantle trade protection and encourage a free-market approach, reducing government intervention in the private sector

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3. To allow private firms the freedom to expand capacity and change input mixes freely, promoting rapid industrial growth

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4. To create a competitive environment by encouraging private enterprises to compete with efficient foreign producers

e m
Q.111
e m
On which day was Delhi declared captured by the British during the suppression of the
l as
Revolt of 1857?
l as ag
ag
Ans 1. 21 July

2. 30 August

3. 21 September

4. 30 June

Q.112 Which of the following musical forms in Carnatic classical music DOES NOT have a
counterpart in Hindustani music?
Ans 1. Kirtanam

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2. Pada

3. Varnam

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4. Gitam

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ag
Q.113 Which Constitutional Amendment Act added Article 371A, granting special status to
Nagaland?
Ans 1. 13th Amendment

2. 10th Amendment

3. 14th Amendment

4. 12th Amendment

Q.114 Which of the following teams won the Women's T20 World Cup 2024?
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Ans 1. England
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2. New Zealand

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3. Australia

g l a
g l a 4. South Africa
a
a Q.115 Who is credited with starting the rumour about cartridges coated with cow and pig fat,
which resulted in the outbreak of the First War of Independence in India in 1857?
Ans 1. A Brahmin priest

2. A low-caste khalasi working in Dum Dum

3. A British officer

4. A sepoy commander

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Q.116 Which of the following activities is included in the service sector?
Ans 1. Construction

2. Mining

3. Banking

4. Farming

Q.117 In the Thar Desert, inselbergs are:
Ans 1. flat desert plains formed by wind erosion

2. isolated rock hills rising sharply from the surrounding plain

3. sand dunes shaped by monsoon winds

4. riverbeds that are periodically dry

Q.118 Consider the following.

At a constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount of gas is inversely
proportional to its volume. This gas law is known as:
Ans 1. Charles's law

2. Gay-Lussac's law

3. Avogadro's law

4. Boyle's law

Q.119 Which of the following is the fastest supercomputer of India as on 1 November 2024,
which ranked 75th among Global Top 500 supercomputers in 2023?
Ans 1. Mihir (Cray XC40)

2. PARAM Siddhi-AI

3. Pratyush (Cray XC40)

4. Airawat PSAI

Q.120 ‘The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment’ is a Directive
Principle of State Policy inserted by the _____ of the Indian Constitution.
Ans 1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

2. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

4. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act

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Exam Date 12/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Old Alwal
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 Hemant and Irfan can complete a certain piece of work in 9 and 14 days, respectively,
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They started to work together, and after 3 days, Irfan left. In how many days will Hemant
complete the remaining work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

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4.
s e
g la
Q.2 Evaluate:
a

Ans 1. 5

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2. 8

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3. 4

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e m 4. 3

l as
l as Q.3 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 67. If the marks of each student
ag
ag Ans
are doubled, find the new average?
1. 67

2. 14

3. 134

4. 28

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Q.4 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 7?

a) 171
b) 119
c) 701
d) 387
Ans 1. b

2. c

3. a

4. d

Q.5 Train 1 travelling at a speed of 80 km/hr leaves station A at 6:00 a.m., and train 2
travelling at 105 km/hr starts from station A at 8:30 a.m. in the same direction on a
parallel track. At what distance (in km) from station A will train 2 meet train 1?
Ans 1. 920

2. 840

3. 780

4. 860

Q.6 If y is the length of the median of an equilateral triangle, then find its area.
Ans
1.

2. 2y

3.

4.

Q.7 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 86 minutes and 43 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 42 minutes?
Ans 1. 20 min

2. 15 min

3. 5 min

4. 2 min

Q.8 The average of first 141 even numbers is
Ans 1. 142.5

2. 142

3. 143

4. 141.5

Q.9 1% of 93% of a number is what percentage of that number?
Ans 1. 0.093

2. 94

3. 0.93

4. 93

Q.10 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 101. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 199

2. 179

3. 180

4. 200

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Q.11 Find HCF of 1826 and 2486.
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Ans 1. 22

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m 2. 44
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se 3. 33
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4. 11

Q.12 The cost price of an article is 64% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percentage
after allowing a discount of 12%.
Ans 1. 32.5%

2. 47.2%

3. 37.5%

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4. 45.7%

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Q.13
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The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 76 and the third

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number is 108. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
s em
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ag
Ans 1. 184

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2. 198.5

3. 197.5

4. 185

Q.14 A car travels 209 km in the first hour and 157 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 179

2. 174

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3. 183

4. 193

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Q.15
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A water tank is in the shape of a cone with a radius of 5 m and a height of 12 m. How

Ans 1. 424 m3 ag
much water can the tank hold when full? (Use π ≈ 3.14).

2. 345 m3

3. 327 m3

4. 314 m3

Q.16 A bike goes 32 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 105.3

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2. 115.2
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3. 117.4

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s e
4. 113.8

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g l a Q.17 The average of X and Y is 40, that of Y and Z is 38, and that of Z and X is 42. Find the a
a Ans
average of X, Y and Z.
1. 120

2. 40

3. 38

4. 42

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Q.18 Which of the following is the greatest number which divides 1658 and 2041 leaving
remainders 7 and 9, respectively?

Ans 1. 127

2. 135

3. 235

4. 129

Q.19 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹2160 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
1 year?
Ans 1. 360

2. 720

3. 180

4. 90

Q.20
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Mohan purchased a table for ₹2,025 and due to some scratches on its top, he had to sell
it for ₹1,675. Find his loss percentage (correct to two places of decimals).
Ans 1. 16.85%

2. 17.28%

3. 17.91%

4. 16.31%

Q.22
Find the value of 64 -12 ÷ 64 14 × 64 -16
Ans 1.
64 -42
2.
64 -45
3.
-50
64
4.
64 -37

Q.23 The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and simple
interest on a sum of money for two years at 11% per annum is ₹242. Find the sum.
Ans 1. ₹20,500

2. ₹21,000

3. ₹20,000

4. ₹21,800

Q.24 A store sells a product with an original price of ₹45,520. Calculate the total amount of
discount provided if 10% trade discount and 5% scheme discount is applied on the
transaction.
Ans 1. ₹3,300.40

2. ₹4,400.40

3. ₹5,500.40

4. ₹6,600.40

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Q.25 If 162 : y :: y : 128, find the positive value of y.
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Ans 1. 142

. e m
m 2. 144
as
se 3. 153
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4. 140

Q.26 Find the value of given expression.

Ans 1. 0.1

2. 4
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3. 10
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.co em
4. 1

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Q.27
s
Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds

l a
of 112 km/h and 46 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 12 seconds. The
ag
ag
length of each train is:
Ans 1. 110 meters

2. 113 meters

3. 122 meters

4. 103 meters

Q.28 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 21 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radius are 16 cm and 17 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in kg) of the shell ?

m
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( )

Ans 1. 73.56
e m
2. 71.896
las
3. 68.896 ag
4. 73.66

Q.29 Gursimar was given an increment of 15% on her salary. If her new salary is ₹84,180,
what was her salary before the increment?
Ans 1. ₹72,300

2. ₹73,200

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3. ₹73,050

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4. ₹72,750
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m.co s e m
a
Q.30 Two pipes can fill a cistern separately in 40 minutes and 60 minutes, respectively. They

s e can together fill the cistern in:
g l
g l a Ans 1. 24 minutes
a
a 2. 23 minutes

3. 25 minutes

4. 20 minutes

Q.31 A merchant buys 150 books for ₹200 each and sells them at ₹250 each. Calculate the
profit percentage.
Ans 1. 25%

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2. 15%

3. 25.5%

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4. 35%
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Q.32
Find the value of 34 -10 ÷ 34 7 × 34 -11
Ans 1.
34 -37
2.
34 -28
3.
34 -34
4.
34 -33

Q.33 Find the value of 2.035 − 20.35 + 28.56 × 0.8 + 13.02 − 3.65 − 8.05.
Ans 1. 4.905

2. 5.263

3. 4.582

4. 5.853

Q.34 The monthly incomes of two friends David and Ajay, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
and each of them saves ₹78000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
1 : 4, find the monthly income of David(in ₹).
Ans 1. 91000

2. 90000

3. 126000

4. 89000

Q.35 The rate of interest is 8% per annum and the interest is compounded semi-annually. The
equivalent rate of interest per annum in a time period of one year is ____%.
Ans 1. 8.00

2. 8.16

3. 8.25

4. 8.20

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

3-1
111 - 109
Ans 1. 44 - 41

2. 134 - 131

3. 165 - 162

4. 51 - 49

Q.37 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RVS

2. UYW

3. OSP

4. LPM

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Q.38 Sam starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards north. He then takes a left turn, drives
m
9 km, turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km. He takes a

. co final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90
s e m
m a
se l
degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 1 km to the east
ag
2. 2 km to the east

3. 2 km to the west

4. 3 km to the east

Q.39 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 468 429 517 371 386 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
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NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

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What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is multiplied with the
second digit of the lowest number?
m s e
Ans 1. 6
s e l a
2. 7
l a ag
3. 9 ag
4. 4

Q.40 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
1672548, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

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3. 4

4. 6
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g
Q.41 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

OP - ST - WX
a
HI - LM - PQ
Ans 1. EF - IJ - MN

2. WX - ZA - EF

3. BC - EF - HI

4. QR - VW - CD

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Q.42 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

e m
e mETU LAB SHI ZOP ?

l as
l asAns 1. GUW

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ag 2. GVU

3. GWV

4. GVW

Q.43 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

SCE : ELS
HGM : MPH

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Ans 1. THA : AQT

2. SRI : IRS

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3. HUN : NFH
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4. SRY : YIS
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Q.44 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the center
of the table. Only two people sit between P and D when counted from the right of P. C
sits third to the left of Q. S sits to the immediate right of Q. S sits second to the left of P.
R is not an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit between E and S when
counted form the right of E?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.45 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some diaries are laptops.
All computers are laptops.

Conclusions:
(I) Some diaries are computers.
(II) All laptops are computers.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.46 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All kiwis are fruits.
All tomatoes are fruits.
All cherries are fruits.
Conclusions:
(I): Some cherries are kiwis.
(II): Some tomatoes are cherries.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.47 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P x Q ÷ R – S + T’?
Ans 1. Father’s mother

2. Sister

3. Mother’s mother

4. Wife’s mother

Q.48 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two
people sit between V and R when counted from the right of V. Only two people sit
between R and T. Only three people sit between V and U. Q sits to the immediate left of
S. How many people sit between Q and T when counted from the right of Q?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1
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Page 30

m
.co
Q.49 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
m
. co (Left) 897 687 819 623 832 (Right)

s e m
m a
se l
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
ag
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 11

4. 12

m
.co
Q.50 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given

m
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

GTJ : IXG
m .co s em
LUR : NYO

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. IKS : KPP
l
ag
2. LPS : NTQ

3. GGY : IKV

4. FGL : HKJ

Q.51 What should come in place of the ques on mark (?) in the given series?

3 9 16 35 68 ?
Ans 1. 133

2. 139
m
3. 138
m .co
4. 140
s e
g la
Q.52
a
All 61 people are standing in a row facing North. Dheeru is 37th from the left end while
Carl is 19th from the right end. How many people are there between Dheeru and Carl?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 6

m
Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

.co
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

m
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the

.co m
statements.

m s e
s e Statements:

g l a
a
Some balls are stumps.

g l All stumps are gloves.
a
a Some gloves are helmets.

Conclusions:
(I) All helmets are stumps.
(II) All gloves are balls.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 61

Page 31

Q.54 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HB-XP

2. EY-UM

3. PJ-FZ

4. YS-OG

Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 16 27 39 52 ?
Ans 1. 66

2. 67

3. 65

4. 64

Q.56 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one sits
to the left of C. Only two people sit between C and S. D sits to second to the right of S.
Q sits to the immediate left of E. P is an immediate neighbour of S. How many people sit
between P and R?
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. One

4. Four

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 61

Page 32

m
.co
Q.57 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
m
shown below.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans
m
m .co
1.

m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
2.

3.
m
m .co
s e
g la
4. a

Q.58 Each of A, B, C, S, W, Y and Z has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. C has the exam on Friday. Only two
people have the exam between Y and C. Only four people have the exam between W and
Y. B has the exam immediately after Z. S doesn’t have the exam on Monday. How many
people have the exam before S and after A?

m
.co
Ans 1. One

m
.co m
2. Four

m s e
a
3. Two

s e g l
g l a 4. Three
a
a Q.59 In a certain code language,
A + B means 'A is the mother of B'
A – B means 'A is the father of B'
A X B means 'A is the sister of B'
A / B means 'A is the brother of B'
A > B means 'A is the husband of B'
A * B means 'A is the wife of B'

How is L related to A if A * K – Q X L > T?
Ans 1. Son

m .
.co
2. Sister

e m
3. Mother

e m l as
4. Daughter
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 61

Page 33

Q.60 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 138 436 253 173 752 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is added
to the second digit of the highest number?
Ans 1. 10

2. 11

3. 13

4. 12

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘GRIL’ is coded as ‘9463’ and ‘RING’ is coded as ‘6974’. What
is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 9

4. 4

Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘FORM’ is coded as ‘6541’ and ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘1674’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 4

4. 7

Q.63 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

1019, 1025, 1042, 1071, 1113, ?
Ans 1. 1196

2. 1169

3. 1153

4. 1186

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

IJX GIW EHV CGU ?
Ans 1. AST

2. AFT

3. AFS

4. AGS

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 61

Page 34

m
.co
Q.65 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
m
to logically complete the following series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
2.
ag

3.

m
m .co
s e
g la
4. a

Q.66 If ‘<’ stands for ‘−’, ‘>’ stands for ‘+’, ‘=’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘$’ stands for ‘÷’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
31 > 81 $ 9 < 7 = ?

m
Ans 1. 36

m
2. 33
.co
m.co 3. 32
s e m
s e 4. 37
g l a
g l a a
a Q.67 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.

AEZU ZDYT YCXS XBWR ?
Ans 1. WAVQ

2. WATV

3. WAVT

4. WAQV

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
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Page 35

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘IDEA’ is coded as ‘5823’ and ‘DIET’ is coded as ‘3482’. What
is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

Q.69 Sanjay starts from Point Y and drives 43 km towards north. He then takes a left turn,
drives 67 km, turns left and drives 94 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 22 km. He
takes a left turn, drives 68 km. He then turns right, drives 31 km, turns right and drives
17 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 19 km towards north

2. 14 km towards east

3. 18 km towards north

4. 24 km towards west

Q.70 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
35 B 4 C 6 D 84 A 14 = ?
Ans 1. 141

2. 140

3. 137

4. 138

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 What is the RBI’s target inflation rate in 2024?
Ans 1. 3%

2. 4%

3. 6%

4. 5%

Q.72 In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?
Ans 1. 1955

2. 1920

3. 1949

4. 1935

Q.73 Rukmini Devi Arundale was a trailblazer in the world of _____.
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Manipuri

3. Kathak

4. Bharatnatyam

Q.74 The Revolt of 1857 ended with the British victory in:
Ans 1. 1860

2. 1867

3. 1877

4. 1858

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 61

Page 36

m
.co
Q.75 The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) and the Rural Landless
m
Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) were merged in April 1989 with the

. co __________ scheme.

s e m
m Ans 1. Indira Gandhi Swarojgar Yojana
a
se 2. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
ag l
3. Swaran Jyanti Gram Swayamrozgar Yojana

4. Indira Awas Yojna (IAY

Q.76 Which of the following is true for a free-falling body of mass m under gravity from a
height h from the surface of ground?
Ans 1. Total energy of the body at all the positions is 'mgh'.

2. At the top, kinetic energy is 'mgh' and potential energy is zero.

m
.co
3. At the middle, total energy of the body is 'mgh/2'.

m
.co m
4. At the surface of ground, kinetic energy is zero.

m s e
Q.77
s e
The Law of Conservation of Mass states that:
l a
Ans
l a
1. the total mass of reactants does not equal the total mass of products in a chemical reaction
ag
ag
2. energy is conserved and cannot be created or destroyed

3. the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature

4. matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction

Q.78 On 17 September 2024, Kenya signed an arrangement with which country to exchange
technical information and cooperate on nuclear safety matters?
Ans 1. Canada

2. United States
m
.co
3. France

4. Russia
e m
las
Q.79
g
When was a special session of the Indian National Congress held, specifically to pass
a
the resolution of the non-cooperation movement with the demand of Swaraj?
Ans 1. May 1920

2. June 1919

3. December 1919

4. September 1920

Q.80 In November 2024, which of the following banks launched e-Bank Guarantee (e-BG)
facility in partnership with NeSL, replacing the physical documentation usually
m
.co
associated with issuing BG?

m
.co
Ans 1. Syndicate Bank

e m
e m
2. Punjab and Sind Bank

l as
l as 3. Indian Overseas Bank
ag
ag 4. UCO Bank

Q.81 Which of the following Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) has transferred a first-of-its-
kind vaccine technology to BioMed Pvt. Ltd, in March 2024?
Ans 1. IIT Goa

2. IIT Indore

3. IIT Guwahati

4. IIT Roorkee

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 61

Page 37

Q.82 'Zero tillage' farming, a technique that minimises soil disturbance, is primarily practiced
in the cultivation of which crop in India?
Ans 1. Cotton

2. Wheat

3. Tea

4. Banana

Q.83 Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals of United Nations deals with
'reduced inequalities'?
Ans 1. Goal 11

2. Goal 10

3. Goal 9

4. Goal 8

Q.84 How many variants are there in Hindustani music that makes in all twelve notes to a
saptak?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 2

4. 6

Q.85 Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution outlines the powers and
procedures of the Parliament?
Ans 1. Part IX

2. Part V

3. Part IV

4. Part VII

Q.86 What was the weighted average call rate (WACR) during the period from 16 September
to 17 October 2024?
Ans 1. 6.52%

2. 6.50%

3. 6.48%

4. 6.75%

Q.87 PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP), launched on 13 October 2021, is a
transformative approach for economic growth and sustainable development. The
approach is driven by _____ engines.
Ans 1. five

2. eleven

3. nine

4. seven

Q.88 Who founded the Gupta empire?
Ans 1. Babur

2. Akbar

3. Chandragupta I

4. Ashoka

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 61

Page 38

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.co
Q.89 Jannik Sinner became the first _____ man to win the US Open, defeating Taylor Fritz in
m
September 2024.

. co
Ans 1. German
s e m
m a
se l
2. Spanish

3. Italian
ag
4. French

Q.90 In which state is the Hugli Industrial Region located?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. West Bengal

3. Maharashtra

m
.co
4. Odisha

m
Q.91
.co
Which of the following qualifications is NOT required for a person to be appointed as a
district judge in a state?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. The candidate should not already be in the service of the Central or state government.

l a
ag
2. The candidate should be recommended by the High Court for the appointment.

3. The candidate should have been an advocate or a pleader for at least seven years.

4. The candidate should have prior experience as a judge in the subordinate courts.

Q.92 Which sector contributed the most to India's GDP growth after 1991?
Ans 1. Industry

2. Mining

3. Services
m
.co
4. Agriculture

e m
Q.93
s
Which is the Indian light tank whose initial automotive trials were conducted by Defense

la
Research and Development Organization (DRDO) on 13 September 2024?
Ans 1. Zorawar
ag
2. Bhishma

3. Atharva

4. Ajeya

Q.94 When did Akbar become the emperor of Delhi?
Ans 1. 1566

2. 1556
m
m
3. 1568
.co
m.co 4. 1540
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.95
Ans
Which of the following powers does the Governor NOT possess?
a
a
1. Legislative powers

2. Diplomatic powers

3. Financial powers

4. Executive powers

Q.96 The idea of a 'welfare state' is promoted by which of the following with respect to the
Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Directive Principles of State Policy

m .
.co
2. Fundamental Rights

e m
3. Fundamental Duties

e m l as
4. Preamble

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 61

Page 39

Q.97 If a body of mass is m, linear momentum is p and kinetic energy is K, then which of the
following expressions is true?
Ans 1. K= 2m/p2
2. p= 2Km

3. p=
4. K= p/2m

Q.98 Who mobilised the headmen and cultivators of chaurasee des, moving at night from
village to village, urging people to rebel against the British during the Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

2. Gonoo

3. Shah Mal

4. Maulvi Liaqat Ali

Q.99 The southwest monsoon is believed to engulf the entire subcontinent by mid ________.
Ans 1. May

2. June

3. August

4. July

Q.100 In June 2024, which city in Kerala was declared India’s first UNESCO ‘City of
Literature’?
Ans 1. Kochi

2. Kannur

3. Kozhikode

4. Thiruvananthapuram

Q.101 By how much percentage did SBI's net interest income (NII) increase year-over-year in
Q3 FY24?
Ans 1. 15.28%

2. 3.69%

3. 10.75%

4. 4.59%

Q.102 When did the sepoys in the cantonment of Meerut break out in mutiny?
Ans 1. 10 June 1858

2. 10 July 1859

3. 10 May 1857

4. 8 May 1856

Q.103 Which of the following statements regarding rolling and sliding friction is correct?
Ans 1. Sliding friction is typically larger than rolling friction.

2. Rolling friction is typically larger than sliding friction.

3. Rolling friction is an integer multiple of sliding friction.

4. Rolling friction and sliding friction are equal in magnitude.

Q.104 Dibang and Lohit rivers are part of which river basin?
Ans 1. Ganga

2. Narmada

3. Krishna

4. Brahmaputra

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 61

Page 40

m
.co
Q.105 Which of the following fundamental rights is mentioned from Article 25 to Article 28 of
m
the Indian Constitution?

. co
Ans 1. Right to Freedom
s e m
m a
se l
2. Right against Exploitation

3. Right to Equality
ag
4. Right to Freedom of Religion

Q.106 Which of the following is NOT a genre of Carnatic classical music?
Ans 1. Tillana

2. Tanam

3. Javali

m
.co
4. Tappa

m
.co
Q.107 Which two banks were involved in the ₹25 crore Credit Default Swap (CDS) trade in
2024?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Axis Bank and Bank of Baroda

l a
ag
2. Punjab National Bank and Yes Bank

3. State Bank of India and Standard Chartered Bank

4. HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank

Q.108 The National Green Tribunals has been established for the enforcement for
environmental rights emanating from which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 23

2. Article 21

m
.co
3. Article 22

4. Article 20

e m
las
Q.109 Which of the following are important oil fields of the Brahmaputra Valley?
Ans 1. Lunej and Ankhleshwar
ag
2. Naharkhatia and Moran

3. Badarpur and Masimpur

4. Digboi and Kilboi

Q.110 Which of the following was a direct consequence of the Foreign Exchange Regulation
Act (FERA) of 1973 on India’s industrial sector?
Ans 1. Restrictions on foreign ownership in Indian companies

m
.co
2. Increased foreign investment in manufacturing
m
.co m
3. Promotion of agricultural exports

m s e
s e
4. Encouragement of export-oriented industries

g l a
g l a Q.111 Indian shuttlers won how many gold medals at the Japan Para Badminton International a
a Ans
2024?
1. Six

2. Eight

3. Nine

4. Four

Q.112 In October 2024, the Supreme Court by what majority upheld constitutional validity of
Section 6A of the Citizenship Act?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 3 : 2

2. 4 : 1
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. 8 : 1

g l
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Page 41

Q.113 As a rule of Indian classical music, a Raga must have at least _____ notes.
Ans 1. six

2. four

3. five

4. three

Q.114 All of the following were extremist leaders, EXCEPT _____.
Ans 1. Bipin Chandra Pal

2. Surendranath Banerjee

3. Aurobindo Ghosh

4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.115 Which of the following is true about subordinate courts in India?
Ans 1. They have independent authority without any oversight from the High Court.

2. They are directly under the authority of the Supreme Court of India.

3. They come under the authority of the High Court of the respective state.

4. They are part of the central judicial system.

Q.116 Which edition of Fit India Swachhata Freedom Run was organised in October 2024 with
an aim to indulge people in fitness activities?
Ans 1. Third

2. Fourth

3. Sixth

4. Fifth

Q.117 The only tribal group in the Andaman Islands still living in isolation is:
Ans 1. Sentinelese

2. Onge

3. Nicobarese

4. Jarawa

Q.118 The reflecting telescope was invented by which of the following physicists?
Ans 1. Christiaan Huygens

2. Isaac Newton

3. Galileo Galilei

4. Johannes Kepler

Q.119 What is the total geographical area of India?
Ans 1. 2.5 million sq. km

2. 2.9 million sq. km

3. 4.1 million sq. km

4. 3.28 million sq. km

Q.120 In July 2024, India's first sunken museum was inaugurated at which location?
Ans 1. Qutub Minar, Delhi

2. Red Fort, Delhi

3. Humayun's Tomb Complex, Delhi

4. India Gate, Delhi

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Page 42

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 12/03/2025
a
Centre Name Sarthak Educational Trust
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 The sum of 8 numbers is 948. Find their average.
l
ag
Ans 1. 116.5

2. 118.5

3. 117.5

4. 119.5

Q.2 The average of first 124 even numbers is
Ans 1. 126

2. 125
m
.co
3. 124.5

4. 125.5
e m
las
Q.3
g
What will be the compound interest (in ₹) on a sum of ₹30,000 after two years at a rate
of 16% per annum compounded annually?
a
Ans 1. 10,386

2. 10,638

3. 10,368

4. 10,683

Q.4 The monthly incomes of two friends Kiran and Mahesh, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
and each of them saves ₹78000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
m
.co
1 : 3, find the monthly income of Kiran(in ₹).
Ans
m
1. 98500

m.co 2. 97500
s e m
s e 3. 96500
g l a
g l a 4. 136500 a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 61

Page 43

Q.5 Simplify the given expression.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 A bus travelling at 100 km/h completes a journey in 17 hours. At what speed will it have
to cover the same distance in 5 hours?
Ans 1. 344 km/h

2. 332 km/h

3. 347 km/h

4. 340 km/h

Q.7 The marked price of a juicer is ₹7,500. The store offers a 15% discount. What is the
price (in ₹) after the discount?
Ans 1. 6,335

2. 6,357

3. 6,735

4. 6,375

Q.8 Find the value of 2.54 × 0.4 − 0.58 × 5.64 + 2.85 × 3.14 − 0.84 + 4.8 × 3.8 − 7.0938.
Ans 1. 21.58

2. 19

3. 17

4. 23.67

Q.9 The perimeter of one face of a cube is 36 cm. What is its volume?
Ans 1. 314 cm3

2. 243 cm3

3. 942 cm3

4. 729 cm3

Q.10

Ans 1. 36436

2. 32654

3. 34663

4. 35456

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Page 44

m
.co
Q.11 The value of
m
. co s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 983
ag l
2. 984

3. 981

4. 982

Q.12 Which of the following ratio is smallest?
Ans 1. 17 : 40

2. 26 : 53
m
3. 15 : 60
m .co
4. 11 : 34

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.13 Shifa can do a certain piece of work in 18 days. Shifa and Afiya can together do the
l
ag
same work in 14 days, and Shifa, Afiya and Mariyam can do the same work together in 9
days. In how many days can Shifa and Mariyam do the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

m
m .co
4.

s e
g la
Q.14
a
A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do it in 20 days. With the assistance of C,
they completed the work in 3 days. C alone can do it in ______________days.
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Q.15 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹2880 after 2
m
.co
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in

m
1 year?
Ans

m.co 1. 960

s e m
s e 2. 240

g l a
g l a 3. 480
a
a 4. 120

Q.16 The price of edible oil is increased by 30%. To maintain the budget, Reena reduces the
consumption of this oil by 18%. Find the increased percentage in expenditure due to
this edible oil.
Ans 1. 6.9%

2. 6.6%

3. 6.3%

m .
.co
4. 6.1%

e m
e m l as
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Page 45

Q.17 A dealer purchased a washing machine for ₹15,700. He allows a discount of 16% on its
marked price and still makes a profit of 20%. Find the marked price (nearest in ₹) of the
washing machine.
Ans 1. ₹22,249

2. ₹22,942

3. ₹22,492

4. ₹22,429

Q.18 Shaurya has to reach Indore which is 652 km away in 18 hours. His starting speed for 3
hours was 73 km/hr. For the next 134 km his speed was 67km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Indore in decided time of 18hours?
Ans 1. 23 km/hr

2. 26 km/hr

3. 18 km/hr

4. 20 km/hr

Q.19 The present cost of a apartment is ₹152629. After a year, its cost increased to ₹186783.
The percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer) in the cost of the
apartment is:
Ans 1. 22

2. 26

3. 19

4. 18

Q.20 A car travels 272 km in the first hour and 294 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 293

2. 289

3. 283

4. 277

Q.21 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹41 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹69 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹73.5 per kg, there is a profit of 50%?
Ans 1. 20 : 8

2. 9 : 22

3. 6 : 21

4. 10 : 22

Q.22 Find the value of 91 -2 ÷ 91 7 × 91 -17
Ans 1. 91 -26

2. 91 -27

3. 91 -30

4. 91 -25

Q.23 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹17 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹72 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹41.3 per kg, there is a profit of 18%?
Ans 1. 20 : 38

2. 16 : 39

3. 37 : 18

4. 16 : 38

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Page 46

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Q.24 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds
m
of 101 km/h and 29 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 21 seconds. The

. co length of each train is:

s e m
m Ans 1. 210 meters
a
se 2. 209 meters
ag l
3. 208 meters

4. 202 meters

Q.25
Ans 1. ₹120

2. ₹125.70

m
3. ₹127.54

4. ₹130
m .co
m .co s em
a
Q.26 If the HCF of two numbers is 23 and their sum is 161, the possible numbers CANNOT
be:
s e l
Ans 1. (46, 115)
l a ag
ag
2. (23, 138)

3. (69, 92)

4. (61, 100)

Q.27 A bank offers 10% per annum compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A
customer deposits ₹3,60,000 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of
the year, find the amount he would have gained by way of interest.
Ans 1. ₹3,24,900

m
.co
2. ₹3,75,600

3. ₹54,900
e m
4. ₹4,33,800
las
Q.28 ag
The ages of Himani and Pushpraj are in the ratio of 9 : 7 respectively. After 6 years the
ratio of their ages will be 5 : 4. What is the difference in their present ages?
Ans 1. 13

2. 31

3. 12

4. 22

Q.29
m
m .co
.co m
Ans

m
1.
s e
s e g l a
g l a a
a
2.

3.

4.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 61

Page 47

Q.30 On selling an item for ₹180, a shopkeeper earns 20% profit. To earn only a 5% profit, the
selling price of the item should have been ₹________.
Ans 1. 152.50

2. 160

3. 155

4. 157.50

Q.31 Find the greatest number which when divided by 1124 and 1868, leaves remainders 17
and 23, respectively.
Ans 1. 82

2. 41

3. 143

4. 369

Q.32 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 111. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 194

2. 189

3. 190

4. 195

Q.33 The number divisible by 35 is:
Ans 1. 38885

2. 16630

3. 34972

4. 29300

Q.34 The length of the base of a triangle is 1 cm more than the corresponding
height. If the area of the triangle is 45 cm2, find the length of the base of the
triangle.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (15 - 8 ÷ 3 × 3)}]
Ans 1. 24

2. 26

3. 19

4. 21

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

PTE : SWH
ICS : LFV
Ans 1. UGD : RDB

2. THR : WEU

3. LOW : ORZ

4. DRN : GUK

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Page 48

m
.co
Q.37 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
m
the following series.

. co BAD 1, FEH 3, JIL 9, NMP 27, ?

s e m
m Ans 1. RQT 81
a
se 2. QRT 243
ag l
3. RQT 243

4. QRT 81

Q.38 Seven students, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
three people sit to the right of R. Only one person sits to the left of T. X sits immediately
to the right of W. Only four people sit between X and T. S sits at some place to the left of
Q but some place to the right of Y. How many people sit between Y and X?
Ans 1. Two
m
2. Three
m .co
3. Four
m .co s em
4. Five
s e l a
l a ag
Q.39
ag
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All plants are trees.
Some trees are herbs.
Conclusions:
(I): All herbs are plants.
(II): No herb is a tree.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

m
.co
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
e m
4. Only conclusion (I) follows.
las
Q.40 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

175 160 140 115 85 ?
Ans 1. 40

2. 45

3. 50

4. 55

m
.co
Q.41 Arihant starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards the south. He then takes a right
m
.co
turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 10
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
e m
e mdistance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

l as
s
(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)

l a Ans 1. 3 km to the east
ag
ag 2. 4 km to the west

3. 3 km to the west

4. 4 km to the east

Q.42 Each digit in the number 8152346 is arranged in the descending order from left to right.
How many digits have changed their position as compared to that in the original
number?
Ans 1. Four

m .
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2. One

e m
3. Two

e m l as
4. Three

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 61

Page 49

Q.43 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
114 117 122 129 138 ?
Ans 1. 249

2. 149

3. 148

4. 248

Q.45 VS21 is related to CZ11 in a certain way. In the same way, LI39 is related to SP29. To
which of the given options is BY25 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IG15

2. JF20

3. IF17

4. IF15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 61

Page 50

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Q.46 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
m
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

. co (Left) 1 4 9 9 5 8 1 9 1 3 9 7 3 5 7 1 6 8 4 1 3 3 8 (Right)
s e m
m a
se How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
ag l
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. Two

4. One

Q.47 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people
sit to the right of D. Only two people sit between D and E. Only two people sit between A
m
.co
and B. B sits to the immediate left of D. F sits to the immediate right of C. How many
people sit to the right of C?
m
Ans 1. 4

m .co s em
2. 1
s e l a
3. 2
l a ag
4. 3
ag
Q.48 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

IFP 30, LHN 26, OJL 22, RLJ 18, ?
Ans 1. UHN 20

2. SMH 14

3. UNH 14
m
4. TNN 14

m .co
s e
la
Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

Ans
27 ? 63 99 147 207
1. 51
ag
2. 39

3. 46

4. 42

Q.50 A, F, J, K, P and Q live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. Only two people live between F and Q. Only two people live
m
.co
between K and P. No one lives above K. Q lives below P but above A. How many people
m
.co
live below J?

e m
s
Ans 1. Zero

e m l a
l as 2. One

ag
ag 3. Three

4. Two

Q.51 In a certain code language,
'A : B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A < B' means ‘A is the father of B’ and
'A + B' means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is A related to Z if 'A + B < C × Y : Z’?

m .
Ans 1. Wife's father's brother

2. Wife's father's mother

m .co s e m
e
3. Wife's brother's mother
s l a
l a
4. Wife's mother's brother
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 61

Page 51

Q.52 If ‘+’ means ‘−‘, ‘−‘ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following equation?
31 − 5 ÷ 21 + 114 × 6 =?
Ans 1. 161

2. 152

3. 157

4. 144

Q.53 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
Ans 1. SK – MO

2. QI – KN

3. OG – IL

4. ME – GJ

Q.54 If we replace the letters ‘D’, ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’ with the corresponding mathematical
symbols ‘+’, ‘−’, ‘×’, and ‘÷’, respectively, what is the value of the following expression?
21 D 3 A 20 C 5
Ans 1. 24

2. 26

3. 18

4. 20

Q.55 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, U, V and W are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only D is kept above W. Only C is kept between W and V. Only A is kept
below U. How many boxes are kept between B and A?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘ROPE’ is coded as ‘2637’ and ‘PEAR’ is coded as ‘7238’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 2

3. 3

4. 7

Q.57 OEUB is related to NFSE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, KIMN is related to JJKQ. To which of the following is HLGW related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. GMEZ

2. POSK

3. CMZE

4. MESJ

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Q.58 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All chairs are beds.
ag l
Some chairs are pillows.
All pillows are blankets.

Conclusions:
(I) Some blankets are chairs.
(II) Some pillows are beds.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
m
m .co
.co
4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

em
Q.59
e m
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only three
l as
l as
people sit between Q and V when counted from the left of Q. Only three people sit
between S and P when counted from the right of P. U sits to the immediate right of S. T
ag
ag
is an immediate neighbour of P as well as V. How many people sit between R and T
when counted from the right of T?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 4

4. 1

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘nothing can stop’ is coded as ‘io ij hy’ and ‘we all can’ is
coded as ‘jh jn ij’. How is ‘can’ coded in the given language?
m
.co
Ans 1. io

2. ij
e m
3. hy
las
4. jn
ag
Q.61 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some ants are bees.
No goats are bees.
All ants are crows.
m
m
Conclusions:
.co
.co m
(I) Some crows are bees.

m
(II) Some ants are not goats.
s e
s e
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
g l a
g l a 2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
a
a 3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 61

Page 53

Q.62 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘ A is the father of B’.

How is E related to R if ‘D – E – P × Q ÷ R’?
Ans 1. Father

2. Wife's brother

3. Mother's brother

4. Brother

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘2059’ is coded as 'WSLP’ and ‘0562’ is coded as
‘SLIP’.What is the code for ‘6’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. S

2. L

3. I

4. P

Q.64 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GD-BH

2. NK-IP

3. RO-MT

4. JG-EL

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

GBV LGA QLF VQK ?
Ans 1. AVP

2. APO

3. AVI

4. APV

Q.66 A person walked 3 km and then turned right and walked 1 km. After that, he again
turned to the left and walked for 5 km. In the end, he found that he was moving towards
the East. In which direction did he start his journey?
Ans 1. South

2. North

3. West

4. East

Q.67 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 435 748 326 254 672 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 13

2. 9

3. 11

4. 8

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Page 54

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Q.68 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by
m
the given pair of numbers.

. co (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
s e m
m a
se l
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
ag
10, 33
15, 48
Ans 1. 12, 39

2. 17, 53

3. 9, 31

4. 12, 38

m
.co
Q.69 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

m
.co m
(Left) 453 148 236 754 672 (Right)

m s e
e
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

s l a
ag
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

l a
ag
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 8

2. 11

3. 9

4. 10

m
m .co
s e
g la
a

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 53 of 61

Page 55

Q.70 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 What defines the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) during the monsoon season in
India?
Ans 1. A cold front over the Himalayas

2. A high-pressure zone over the Indian Ocean

3. A high-pressure zone at the Equator

4. A low-pressure zone over the Gangetic plains

Q.72 What was the approximate total production of rice during the year 2023-24 in India?
Ans 1. 5120.25 LMT

2. 8953.25 LMT

3. 1378.25 LMT

4. 527.25 LMT

Q.73 Considering a stone is rotated with uniform speed in a horizontal plane by means of a
string, select the correct option.
Ans 1. The velocity of the stone is fixed.

2. The magnitude of momentum is fixed.

3. The direction of momentum changes but not the velocity.

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Q.74 Why is investment in education considered to be a part of social infrastructure?
m
co
Ans 1. It enhances industrial output.

. e m
m 2. It promotes trade.
as
se 3. It improves the skills and productivity of the workforce.
ag l
4. It reduces government revenue.

Q.75 In August 2024, the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha.
This Bill proposes changes to which of the following Acts?
Ans 1. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

3. Government Securities Regulations, 2007

m
.co
4. Public Debt Act, 1944 / Government Securities Act, 2006

m
Q.76
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Which factor does the Economic Survey 2024 identify as crucial for sustaining
economic recovery in India?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Expanded public sector hiring

l a
ag
2. Increased foreign trade

3. Enhanced domestic efforts

4. Reduced global trade tensions

Q.77 Tabla is what type of musical instrument?
Ans 1. Wind

2. Stringed

3. Percussion
m
.co
4. Bowed

e m
Q.78
s
What was the primary economic focus of India’s development since the 1991 reforms,
as highlighted by Dr. Manmohan Singh?
la
Ans
ag
1. Achieving significant growth in services and manufacturing sectors

2. Maintaining an agrarian economy with limited industrial growth

3. Reducing dependency on the information technology sector

4. Eliminating foreign trade to boost domestic production

Q.79 As part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, in 2015, all United Nations
member countries adopted 17 goals and ______ targets.
Ans 1. 170

m
.co
2. 210
m
.co m
3. 169

m s e
s e
4. 218

g l a
g l a Q.80 When was Awadh annexed under the Subsidiary Alliance system? a
a Ans 1. 1856 AD

2. 1855 AD

3. 1851 AD

4. 1853 AD

Q.81 Which of the following statements is correct about Avani Lekhara with respect to her
performance at the 2024 Paris Paralympic games?

m .
Ans 1. She claimed her third gold medal.

.co
2. She set a new Paralympic record of 259.6 points.

m s e m
e
3. She claimed her second bronze medal.
s l a
l a
4. She set a new Paralympic record of 249.7 points.
g ag
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Page 57

Q.82 Which of the following is NOT the social cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Forced conversions

2. Decline of traditional industries

3. Influence of missionaries

4. Religious interference

Q.83 Which of the following Mauryan rulers is known for his support of Buddhism and
spreading its teachings?
Ans 1. Bindusara

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Brihadratha

Q.84 Unemployment that arises when people are between jobs is known as:
Ans 1. seasonal unemployment

2. underemployment

3. frictional unemployment

4. structural unemployment

Q.85 Which of the following is a man-made island in India?
Ans 1. Amwaj Islands

2. Willingdon Island

3. Minicoy Island

4. Jurong Island

Q.86 Which of the following Governor Generals of British India abolished the Doctrine of
Lapse?
Ans 1. Lord William Bentinck

2. Lord Canning

3. Lord Hardinge

4. Lord Ellenborough

Q.87 India's total land boundary length is approximately:
Ans 1. 7,000 km

2. 18,000 km

3. 15,200 km

4. 10,000 km

Q.88 In August 2024, the 10th edition of the Joint Military Exercise MITRA SHAKTI was held
between India and which country?
Ans 1. Nepal

2. Sri Lanka

3. Bangladesh

4. Bhutan

Q.89 In 2024, which Bollywood actress wrote a book called ‘Ed Finds a Home’?
Ans 1. Janhvi Kapoor

2. Kiara Advani

3. Sonam Kapoor

4. Alia Bhatt

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Q.90 How much FDI did India attract between April 2014 and March 2024 as a result of
m
initiatives like 'Make in India'?

. co
Ans 1. $784.23 billion
s e m
m a
se l
2. $720.98 billion

3. $667.41 billion
ag
4. $600.50 billion

Q.91 What is a key goal for India's development by 2047 as per the Economic Survey 2024?
Ans 1. Achieving status as a developed nation (Viksit Bharat)

2. Complete rural electrification

3. Doubling per capita income

m
.co
4. Reaching zero poverty

m
Q.92
.co
The Constitution (20th Amendment) Act, 1966, was enacted primarily to address which

m s em
issue?

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. The validation of appointments and judicial acts of certain district judges

l
ag
2. The establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions

3. The reorganisation of states based on linguistic lines

4. The abolition of the privy purses of erstwhile princely states

Q.93 How many Fundamental Duties were inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act?
Ans 1. 0

2. 10

m
.co
3. 8

4. 11
e m
Q.94
las
Select the correct statement with respect to the Finance Commission of India.
Ans
ag
1. It is constituted by the Prime Minister of India.

2. It is constituted by the President of India.

3. It is constituted by the Leader of Opposition.

4. It is constituted by the Finance Minister.

Q.95 Which city has been officially confirmed as the host city for the 2026 Commonwealth
Games?
Ans 1. Glasgow
m
m .co
2. Edinburgh

m.co 3. New Delhi

s e m
s e 4. Aberdeen

g l a
g l a Q.96 Jabro dance is a nomadic dance of ___________. a
a Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Assam

3. Ladakh

4. Puducherry

Q.97 Which of the following tribes was included in the list of Scheduled Tribes in Andhra
Pradesh under the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2024?
Ans 1. Momba
m .
2. Galong
m .co s e m
s e l a
ag
3. Abor

4. Bondo Porja
g l a
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Page 59

Q.98 Who among the following formed the Satyashodhak Samaj to uplift the lower caste
people and untouchables?
Ans 1. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

2. Ramaswamy Naiker Periyar

3. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

4. Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Q.99 Which of the following processes used in food processing kills harmful
microorganisms?
Ans 1. Fermentation

2. Culturing

3. Pasteurisation

4. Maturation

Q.100 Who was the Governor-General of India during the First War of Independence of 1857?
Ans 1. Lord Hardinge I

2. Lord Auckland

3. Lord William Bentinck

4. Charles Canning

Q.101 Among the major systems of human physiology, to which organ system does blood
belong?
Ans 1. Endocrine system

2. Digestive system

3. Circulatory system

4. Nervous system

Q.102 Which of the following States has the highest number of Khelo India Athletes (KIAs)
who benefited under Khelo India Scheme for the year 2024-25?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Kerala

4. Haryana

Q.103 Which of the following is a major crop grown during the Zaid season in India?
Ans 1. Wheat

2. Vegetables

3. Maize

4. Mustard

Q.104 Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
Ans 1. He is eligible for reappointment.

2. He is appointed by the Finance Minister of India.

3. He is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

4. He is appointed by the President of India.

Q.105 Which of the following was the primary form of resistance used by the rebels during the
Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Political negotiations

2. Armed revolt

3. Mass migrations

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Q.106 Right to Education is given in _____ of the Indian Constitution.
m
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Ans 1. Article 19A

. e m
m 2. Article 21A
as
se 3. Article 24
ag l
4. Article 21

Q.107 How many PARAM Rudra supercomputers were launched by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi on September 26, 2024, developed under the National Supercomputing Mission
with a total investment of ₹850 crore?
Ans 1. Five

2. Seven

3. Three
m
4. Two
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Q.108 The Green Revolution, which began in the 1960s, primarily focused on which of the
s em
following crops?
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Ans
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1. Cotton and Sugarcane
ag
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2. Fruits and Vegetables

3. Maize and Millet

4. Wheat and Rice

Q.109 What were the class of people who performed various rituals in the Vedic period?
Ans 1. Vaishyas

2. Shudras

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3. Kshatriyas

4. Brahmins

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Q.110 Which of the following measures helped India integrate with the global economy in

Ans
1991?
1. Withdrawal from global trade agreements ag
2. Liberalisation of foreign trade policies

3. Increasing restrictions on foreign investment

4. Introduction of trade barriers

Q.111 According to Article 46, the State shall promote the educational and economic interests
of:
Ans 1. only women
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2. weaker sections, particularly Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
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m .co 3. all citizens
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s e 4. urban populations
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a Q.112 Liquids and solids are difficult to compress due to which type of intermolecular forces?
Ans 1. Repulsive force

2. Van der Waals force

3. London force

4. Dispersion force

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 61

Document Details

Board / OrgRailway
ExamRailway Protection Force Constable
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages62
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026