RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 17 Mar All Shifts (in English)

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 17 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Exam Date 17/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Austinpatti
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1 Pari marked a toy at 65% above the cost price of ₹6,580. If she offers a discount of 25%
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on the marked price and customer pays ₹P for the toy, the value of P is:
Ans 1. ₹8,000

2. ₹8,142.75

3. ₹9,000

4. ₹7,966.50

Q.2 In covering a distance of 144 km, Pranshu takes 3 hours more than Chandu. If Pranshu
doubles his speed, then he would take 5 hour less than Chandu. Pranshu's speed is:
Ans 1. 4 km/h
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2. 3 km/h

3. 16 km/h
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4. 9 km/h
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Q.3 ag
The HCF of and is doubled when the first number is doubled and HCF is tripled
when the second number is tripled. The HCF of which two below given numbers is ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.4 If 96 : y :: y : 6, find the positive value of y.
Ans
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1. 30

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s e m
s e 3. 24
g l a
g l a 4. 27 a
a Q.5 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 52 minutes and 65 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 60 minutes?
Ans 1. 20 min

2. 5 min

3. 15 min

4. 4 min
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Q.6 The value of

Ans 1. 8.34

2. 6.12

3. 1.5

4. 15.88

Q.7 There is 2600 ml oil in a bottle. If the quantity of oil is increased by 22%, the bottle is
completely filled. Find the capacity of the bottle.
Ans 1. 3000 ml

2. 3136 ml

3. 3172 ml

4. 3096 ml

Q.8 A dealer buys an article for ₹2,200 and sells it for ₹4,000. If his overhead charges are
₹300, then what is his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 60%

2. 65%

3. 40%

4. 50%

Q.9 The average of first 128 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans 1. 129

2. 128.5

3. 128

4. 127.5

Q.10

Ans 1. d)

2. a)

3. c)

4. b)

Q.11 1% of 96% of a number is what percentage of that number?
Ans 1. 96

2. 0.096

3. 0.96

4. 97

Q.12 If the length of cuboid is 2 cm, breadth is 4 cm and the volume of cuboid is 1712 cm3,
then find the height of cuboid (in cm).
Ans 1. 206

2. 219

3. 214

4. 209

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Q.13 The monthly incomes of two friends Chetan and Vipul, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
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and each of them saves ₹96000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is

. co 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Chetan(in ₹).

s e m
m Ans 1. 224000
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se 2. 160000
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3. 161000

4. 159000

Q.14 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 59. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 28

2. 59

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3. 14

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4. 118

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Q.15
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The marked price of a pair of shoes is ₹2,500. A discount of 16% is offered. What is the
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amount of discount?
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Ans 1. ₹450

2. ₹300

3. ₹350

4. ₹400

Q.16 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹74 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹27 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹45.6 per kg, there is a profit of 14%?
Ans 1. 15 : 36

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2. 12 : 32

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3. 17 : 36

4. 13 : 34
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Q.17
Find the value of
a
Ans 1. 77

2. 85

3. 83

4. 67

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Q.18
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In what ratio should sugar costing ₹52 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹73 per kg so
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that by selling the mixture at ₹87.1 per kg, there is a profit of 30%?
Ans
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1. 13 : 5
s e
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g l a 3. 14 : 8 a
a 4. 14 : 4

Q.19 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹5040 after 4
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
1 year?
Ans 1. 720

2. 1440

3. 360
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4. 180

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Q.20 A sum of ₹4,000 is invested at 10% per annum, compounded annually. What will the
difference between the compound interest (in ₹) earned in the second year and the first
year be?
Ans 1. 50

2. 60

3. 46

4. 40

Q.21 Samrudh has a solid metal ball with a diameter of 9 cm. He melts it and uses the
material to make a solid cylinder. If the diameter of the cylinder is same as the ball, then
what would be the height of the cylinder?
Ans 1. 6 cm

2. 8 cm

3. 18 cm

4. 12 cm

Q.22 Salim borrows a sum of ₹60,000 from the bank for 18 months at R% per annum
compound interest (interest being calculated half yearly). The amount paid back by
Salim to the bank was ₹69,457.5. The value of R is:
Ans 1. 20%

2. 12%

3. 5%

4. 10%

Q.23 A retailer buys an electronic item for ₹175. His overhead expenses are ₹5. He sells the
electronic item for ₹360 and makes x%' profit. The value of x is:
Ans 1. 80

2. 90

3. 100

4. 120

Q.24 Ravi, Arvind and Vimal can complete a piece of work in 5 days, 6 days and 8 days,
respectively. In how many days can all the three together complete the work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 6?
Ans 1. 622

2. 584

3. 534

4. 608

Q.26 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds
of 100 km/h and 66 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 18 seconds. The
length of each train is:
Ans 1. 102 meters

2. 85 meters

3. 74 meters

4. 65 meters
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Q.27 Find the greatest number which will exactly divide 2610, 2900 and 3190.
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Ans 1. 145

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m 2. 580
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4. 305

Q.28
Ans 1. 23 hours

2. 44 hours

3. 27 hours

4. 28 hours
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Q.29 An Uber bike covers a distance of 304 km in 19 hours. What is its speed in km/h?

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Ans 1. 23

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2. 14

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3. 7

4. 16

Q.30 Find the area of a triangle, whose altitude and base are 28 cm and 12 cm, respectively.
Ans 1. 159 cm2

2. 156 cm2

3. 168 cm2

4. 164 cm2
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Q.31 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (15 - 7 ÷ 3 × 3)}]

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Ans 1. 20
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2. 23
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3. 25
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4. 18

Q.32 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 456 m in 152 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 76 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 4

2. 10

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3. 1

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4. 5

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Q.33 An amount of ₹741 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 2 : 14 : 10. The
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difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
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1. 401

2. 342

3. 323

4. 331

Q.34 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 126. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 205

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2. 204

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3. 186.5

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4. 187.5

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Q.35

Ans 1. 0.4579

2. 0.4379

3. 0.4679

4. 0.4479

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.
TU : UV : VW
AD : BE : CF
Ans 1. TR : US : VT

2. RE : SF : UG

3. UE : VF : FW

4. PW : QX : SZ

Q.37 In a certain code language, ‘PREY’ is coded as ‘4628’ and ‘RANK’ is coded as ‘5417’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 7

4. 5

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Q.38 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
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shown below.

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Ans

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1.

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2. ag

3.

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4.
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Q.39 Raman starts from Point A and drives 25 km towards the south. He then takes a right
turn, drives 26 km, turns right and drives 28 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 35
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 10 km to the west

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2. 9 km to the west

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3. 5 km to the east

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4. 1km to the east

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ag
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(Left) 9 % 1 2 & @ 3 # 7 & 8 Ω 6 $ 5 * 4 £ (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
number but not immediately followed by an even number?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three
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Q.41 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some ships are cars.
Some bikes are ships.
All cars are fans.
Conclusions:
I. All ships are fans.
II. Some fans are bikes.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.42 Each vowel in the word ENGLISH is changed to the letter immediately following it in the
English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately
preceding it in the English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will appear
exactly twice in the group of letters thus formed?
Ans 1. F

2. K

3. J

4. M

Q.43 In a certain code language, ‘HIDE’ is coded as ‘5691’ and ‘DICE’ is coded as ‘6715’. What
is the code for ‘C’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 5

4. 7

Q.44 Mr. W starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards the south. He then takes a left
turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 7 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 8
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A
again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 6 km towards the west

2. 2 km towards the south

3. 2 km towards the east

4. 5 km towards the north

Q.45 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate
left of E. C sits third to the left of F. E is an immediate neighbour of C. B sits second to
the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of B. Who sits at the extreme right end of the
line?
Ans 1. B

2. E

3. A

4. F

Q.46 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

132 185 238 ? 344 397
Ans 1. 284

2. 302

3. 275

4. 291

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 61

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Q.47
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Ans

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1.

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ag
2.

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s e
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3.

ag

4.

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Q.48

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In a certain code language,
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A + B means ‘A is the son of B’

s e A − B means ‘A is the brother of B’
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g l a A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ a
a Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P × Q + R − S ÷ T’?
Ans 1. Grand daughter

2. Sister

3. Mother

4. Daughter-in-law

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Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ZSV XQT VOR TMP ?
Ans 1. RLN

2. RKM

3. RKN

4. RLM

Q.50 In a certain code language,
A & B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A # B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A : B means ‘A is the son of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’

Based on the above, how is F related to V if 'F & G # H : U ÷ V’?
Ans 1. Son's wife's sister

2. Son's wife's mother

3. Brother's wife's brother

4. Bother's wife's father

Q.51 In a row of 21 students facing North, Samdup is 5th from the right end. If Jigmee is 9th to
the left of Samdup, what is Jigmee's position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 6th

2. 7th

3. 8th

4. 5th

Q.52 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

LIO - MJP
DFR - EGS
Ans 1. BHU - CJY

2. XUI - YVG

3. JMI - KNJ

4. SER - TFT

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

120 126 144 180 240 ?
Ans 1. 330

2. 340

3. 350

4. 320

Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

5 7 11 17 25 ?
Ans 1. 35

2. 39

3. 37

4. 36

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

. co AWN XBK UGH RLE ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. PQA
ag l
2. NPB

3. NRC

4. OQB

Q.56 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
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adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3

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and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 8, 15)
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(12, 17, 31)

s e l a
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Ans 1. (23, 31, 56)
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2. (19, 12, 75)

3. (24, 18, 35)

4. (16, 32, 64)

Q.57 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

ITK : NYP
BJL : GOQ
Ans 1. KHL : PNQ
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2. SAP : XFU
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3. SEP : YJT
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4. DIG : IOK
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Q.58
a
Each of D, E, T, A, I, L and S has an interview on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only three people have an interview
between T and S. S has an interview on the last day of the week. D has an interview on
the second day after A. I has an interview immediately the day before L. E doesn't have
an interview on Friday. How many people have an interview before E?
Ans 1. Zero

2. Two

3. One
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4. Three
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Q.59
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
s e m
s e given series to make it logically complete?
g l a
g l a TQ 30, AO 60, HM 120, OK 240, ? a
a Ans 1. UI 420

2. UI 480

3. VI 420

4. VI 480

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 61

Q.60 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LS-TY

2. EL-MV

3. OV-WF

4. CJ-KT

Q.61 What will be the value of the following expression, if the ‘−‘ and ‘÷’ signs are
interchanged?
12 − 6 × 4 ÷ 1 + 1 × 7 + 2 ÷ 8
Ans 1. 3

2. 11

3. 6

4. 8

Q.62 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 % 9 & # # 5 < 5 6 7 > 7 + 6 < % / % 6 \ (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One

4. Four

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘all teachers are God’ is written as ‘to th po in’ and ‘God is
everywhere’ is coded as 'tr tt th’. How is 'God’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. to

2. tt

3. th

4. tr

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No peanuts are sparrows.
All ants are sparrows.
All horses are sparrows.

Conclusions:
(I) Some horses are ants.
(II) No peanuts are ants.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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Q.65 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
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people sit to the left of Q. Only three people sit between Q and D. E sits second to the

. co right of Q. Only two people sit between E and C. R sits at some place to the right of S
but at some place to the left of P. How many people sit to the right of R?
s e m
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se Ans 1. Two

2. Three ag l
3. None

4. One

Q.66 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
5143786, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. None
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3. One
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4. Three

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Q.67 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
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alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ZFL

2. AGY

3. UAG

4. PVB

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Q.68 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

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(Left) 5 8 7 5 6 9 9 3 1 3 2 9 4 7 2 4 6 5 8 8 7 9 3 (Right) m
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How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd

Ans 1. Two
a
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?

2. Three

3. None

4. One

Q.69 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
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Statements:
Some apples are oranges.
e m
e mSome oranges are bananas.

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Conclusions:

l a (I): No banana is an orange.
ag
ag Ans
(II): Some apples are bananas.
1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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Q.70 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷‘
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?

6 − 9 ÷ 16 + 8 × 10 = ?
Ans 1. 42

2. 38

3. 46

4. 54

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 How many Technology Transfer Agreements (TTAs) were signed by ISRO, IN-SPACe,
and NSIL in September 2024 with non-governmental entities, enabling private
companies to access ISRO's technologies for commercial use in various sectors?
Ans 1. 50

2. 75

3. 85

4. 25

Q.72 Which is the largest river that flows through the Great Indian Desert?
Ans 1. Ken

2. Yamuna

3. Son

4. Luni

Q.73 As per the Calcutta High Court (Extension of Jurisdiction) Act, 1953, the jurisdiction of
the Calcutta High Court was extended to cover which of the following areas?
Ans 1. The state of Sikkim

2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu

3. Union Territory Lakshadweep and Puducherry

4. Chandannagar, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.74 Which of the following do NOT participate in the election of the President of India?
Ans 1. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry

2. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament and Members of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly

3. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

4. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of states

Q.75 When was the 20-year road plan introduced in Independent India?
Ans 1. 1952

2. 1975

3. 1961

4. 1965

Q.76 Who among the following appoints the Speaker Pro Tem of the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. The Speaker of the previous Lok Sabha

2. The Vice President

3. The Prime Minister

4. The President

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Q.77 The Eastern Ghats are part of which physical feature of the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
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Ans 1. Coastal Plains

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m 2. Plateau
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4. Desert Regions

Q.78 In September 2024, the Finance Minister of India launched which new pension scheme
designed specifically for minors?
Ans 1. Atal Pension Yojana

2. NPS Vatsalya

3. Sishu Pension Yojana

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4. PM Vaya Vandana Yojana

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Q.79
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A light wave has a wavelength of 300 nm in vacuum. What is the wavelength of the light

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as it travels through Benzene (refractive index = 1.50)?
s em
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ag
Ans 1. 450 nm

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2. 300 nm

3. 500 nm

4. 200 nm

Q.80 ‘A Meeting by the River’ is a music album by which Indian musician, for which he won
the Grammy for Best World Music Album in 1993?
Ans 1. Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt

2. Pandit Shivkumar Sharma

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3. Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia

4. Pandit Ravi Shankar

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Q.81
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The DPT vaccine is given to infants as part of their immunisation schedule. What is the

Ans
full form of DPT?
1. Diphtheria, Pneumonia and Tetanus ag
2. Diphtheria, Polio and Tetanus

3. Diphtheria, Pancreatitis and Tetanus

4. Diphtheria, Pertusis and Tetanus

Q.82 Which of the following is India's first atomic power station?
Ans 1. Tarapur

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2. Kudankulam
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3. Kakrapar

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4. Kaiga

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g l a Q.83 In Equestrian, who has become the first Indian rider to win a three-star Grand Prix event a
a Ans
held at Lipica, Slovenia in June 2024?
1. Shruti Vora

2. Fouaad Mirza

3. Anush Agarwalla

4. Imtiaz Anees

Q.84 Known as the 'Dakshin Ganga', which river is the largest river system in Peninsular
India?
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Ans 1. Kaveri

2. Krishna
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3. Mahanadi

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Q.85 Which crop was NOT a major cash crop cultivated in India at the time of independence?
Ans 1. Wheat

2. Sugarcane

3. Jute

4. Cotton

Q.86 In October 2024, the Union Cabinet (of India) approved an increase of _____ in Dearness
Allowance (DA) for central government employees and Dearness Relief (DR) for
pensioners, effective July 1, 2024.
Ans 1. 3%

2. 8%

3. 5%

4. 6%

Q.87 In the Nagara style of North India, it is common for an entire temple to be built on a
_____ platform with steps leading up to it.
Ans 1. bricks

2. stone

3. wood

4. iron

Q.88 Which Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the Finance Commission as a
constitutional body?
Ans 1. Article 275

2. Article 110

3. Article 324

4. Article 280

Q.89 Which of the following characteristics corresponding to plant functions is true for
angiosperms?
Ans 1. They lack vascular tissue for nutrient transport.

2. They produce seeds enclosed within fruits.

3. They reproduce using spores.

4. They predominantly rely on wind for pollination.

Q.90 Which of the following was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Spreading Western Civilisation

2. Doctrine of Lapse

3. Introduction of the Enfield Rifle

4. Introduction of Railways and Telegraph

Q.91 Which financial ins tu on received the 'Best Conduct of Business Regulator'
award in Asia-Pacific at the Asian Banker Awards in June 2024?
Ans 1. IFCI

2. SEBI

3. IIBI

4. IDBI

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 61

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Q.92 What is human development?
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Ans 1. Increasing population growth

. e m
m 2. Development of machines
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4. Industrial growth

Q.93 How many books does Abhidhamma Pitaka consist of?
Ans 1. Nine

2. Five

3. Eleven

4. Seven
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Q.94 The 14th Hockey India Junior Women National Championship was held in which place in
October 2024?
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Ans 1. Bhubaneswar
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2. Hyderabad
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3. Ranchi
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4. Cuttack

Q.95 In India’s parliamentary system of government, the Prime Minister is regarded as the:
Ans 1. Nominal executive authority

2. Ceremonial head of state

3. Head of the judiciary

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4. De facto executive authority

Q.96
e m
The Harappa site of the Indus Valley Civilisation was discovered in which year?
Ans 1. 1939
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2. 1921
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3. 1967

4. 1821

Q.97 What was the primary reason for the slow growth of the secondary sector in India
before 1991?
Ans 1. Lack of raw materials

2. Heavy government regulations and licensing policies

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3. Excessive private sector competition
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4. Limited demand for industrial goods

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Q.98 What was the purpose of declaring 14 April as World Quantum Day?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. To commemorate advancements in quantum mechanics and applications
a
a 2. To celebrate quantum breakthroughs in communication systems

3. To encourage international collaborations in quantum research

4. To promote global awareness of quantum science and technology

Q.99 What was the primary aim of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
Ans 1. To promote free trade

2. To prioritise the IT sector

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3. To establish a socialist pattern of society

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4. To increase private investment in all sectors

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Q.100 Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, a supporter of Hindu-Muslim unity, became the _____ in the
first cabinet of independent India.
Ans 1. Law Minister

2. Education Minister

3. Finance Minister

4. Defense Minister

Q.101 Who looked after markets and checked wrong practices in the Maurya empire?
Ans 1. Samsthadhyaksha

2. Annapala

3. Durgapala

4. Rajjukas

Q.102 From what period did the Congress become more openly associated with Hindu
religious nationalist groups, such as the Hindu Mahasabha?
Ans 1. Mid-1920s

2. Mid-1930s

3. Mid-1950s

4. Mid-1940s

Q.103 Which of the following statements about the resistivity of metals is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Resistivity is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the metal.

2. Resistivity is inversely proportional to the number density of electrons.

3. Resistivity is directly proportional to the mass of the electron.

4. Resistivity is inversely proportional to the relaxation time of the electrons.

Q.104 According to Section 22C(1) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Permanent Lok
Adalats DO NOT have jurisdiction over disputes related to:
Ans 1. civil disputes

2. non-compoundable offences

3. compoundable offenses

4. public utility services

Q.105 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts had added the Ninth Schedule to
the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Ninth Constitutional Amendment Act

2. Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act

3. Fourth Constitutional Amendment Act

4. First Constitutional Amendment Act

Q.106 What percentage of Earth's total land area does India occupy?
Ans 1. 4.2%

2. 2.4%

3. 1.2%

4. 3.6%

Q.107 In September 2024, who among the following became the first woman from Pakistan to
be nominated for the ICC International Panel of development umpires?
Ans 1. Kainat Imtiaz

2. Saleema Imtiaz

3. Diana Baig

4. Gull Feroza

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 61

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Q.108 What was the net profit reported by SBI for Q3 FY24?
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Ans 1. ₹14,330 crore

. e m
m 2. ₹14,205 crore
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se 3. ₹9,164 crore
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4. ₹7,100 crore

Q.109 State Bank of India raised ₹5,000 crore through additional tier-I (AT-I) bonds at a _____
coupon rate in October 2024.
Ans 1. 6.13%

2. 7.98%

3. 5.01%

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4. 9.45%

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Q.110 The National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY), a central

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sector scheme launched on 21st January 2015, was implemented in __________ cities.
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Ans 1. 12

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2. 10

3. 14

4. 20

Q.111 The Pradhan Mantri Grammen Sadak Yojana was launched in the year _____________.
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2010

3. 2000
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4. 1995

e m
supporting the youth?
las
Q.112 In July 2024, the Maharashtra government launched which stipend scheme aimed at

Ans 1. Bal Vikas Yojana
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2. Mukhyamantri Yuva Sahayta Yojana

3. Shiksha Kalyan Yojana

4. Ladka Bhau Yojana

Q.113 Which of the following debuted the first-ever generative AI-inspired trophy at the
Formula 1 Canadian Grand Prix 2024, in June 2024?
Ans 1. Restful Web Services
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2. Amazon Web Services
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3. Soap Web Services

m s e
s e 4. Reliance Web Services

g l a
g l a Q.114 What was the main slogan for the Extremists’ economic policy? a
a Ans 1. Swadeshi

2. Swaraj

3. Self-governance

4. Quit India

Q.115 The 'Toda' tribe is known for its distinct culture and is mainly found in which region?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

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2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra
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4. Odisha

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Q.116 The government allocated ₹1.48 lakh crore in the 2024 Budget for which purpose?
Ans 1. Education

2. Defense

3. Employment and skill development

4. Healthcare

Q.117 What was the main focus of the review meeting of the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in
New Delhi in August 2024?
Ans 1. To double the total number of RRBs by 2028

2. To accelerate the participation in stock market

3. To double the RRBs' employees by 2030

4. To upgrade digital technology services and foster business growth in MSME clusters

Q.118 The Agra Fort is primarily made of which of the following materials?
Ans 1. Red bricks

2. Red sandstone

3. White sandstone

4. White marble

Q.119 DNA is a molecule that holds the genetic information in the cells of living organisms.
DNA stands for _____.
Ans 1. Disulphate Nitric Acid

2. Deoxyribonucleic Acid

3. Dinitric Acid

4. Dioxide Nitrogen Acetate

Q.120 Which of the following events shook the foundation of British rule in India and led to the
end of the East India Company's rule?
Ans 1. The 1857 Revolt

2. Battel of Plassey

3. Battel of Banaras

4. Battel of Buxar

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 61

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Exam Date 17/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Unn
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
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Q.1 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹40 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹81 per kg so
l
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that by selling the mixture at ₹57.5 per kg, there is a profit of 25%?
Ans 1. 35 : 6

2. 8 : 36

3. 4 : 34

4. 5 : 33

Q.2 The average of first 123 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans 1. 124

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2. 123.5

3. 123

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4. 122.5

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Q.3
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Aman offers a discount scheme, such that on buying 12 rough copies, get x rough
copies for free. If the equivalent percentage discount is 25%, then what is the value of
x?
Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 4

4. 5

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Q.4 A money lender borrows a sum of ₹7,000 from market at compound interest at a rate of

m
5% per annum, compounded annually. The amount paid after two year will be:

.co m
Ans 1. ₹7,800

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s e 2. ₹7,717.50

g l a
g l a 3. ₹7,860.25
a
a 4. ₹7,900

Q.5 If a shopkeeper bears 25% loss, then which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement A: The cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 articles.
Statement B: The cost price of 12 articles is equal to the selling price of 17 articles.
Ans 1. Only Statement A is correct.

2. Both Statements A and B are correct.

3. Neither Statement A nor B is correct.
m .
4. Only Statement B is correct.

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Q.6 Amit can do a piece of work in 6 hours. Gopal can do it in 42 hours. With the assistance
of Akshay, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Akshay alone do
it?
Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 7

4. 9

Q.7 A girl goes to school at a speed of 21 km/hr. She comes back with a speed of 42 km/hr.
Find her average speed for the whole journey.
Ans 1. 26 km/h

2. 20 km/h

3. 30 km/h

4. 28 km/h

Q.8 If the price of an item increased from ₹3,135 to ₹4,389, what is the percentage change?
Ans 1. 40% decrease

2. 25% increase

3. 40% increase

4. 20% increase

Q.9 If 25% of a number is added to 78, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same
number is:
Ans 1. 113.2

2. 83.2

3. 53.2

4. 103.2

Q.10 Which of the following ratio is smallest?
Ans 1. 21 : 59

2. 12 : 33

3. 24 : 37

4. 26 : 52

Q.11 The dimensions of a rectangular solid are 8 cm × 4 cm × 1 cm. What is the length (in cm)
of its diagonal?
Ans 1. 9

2. 15

3. 10

4. 13

Q.12 A triangle has two equal sides of 13 cm each and third side of 10 cm. The area (in cm2)
of the triangle is:
Ans 1. 60

2. 45

3. 40

4. 50

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 61

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Q.13 The present cost of a house is ₹155120. After a year, its cost increased to ₹197932. The
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percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer) in the cost of the house is:

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Ans 1. 23
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2. 26

3. 28
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4. 25

Q.14 The LCM of two prime numbers K and P (where K > P) is 667. Find the value of 3P + K.
Ans 1. 108

2. 128

3. 98

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4. 88

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Q.15
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How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of

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side 20 metres, if he runs at a speed of 16 km/h?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 17

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2. 13

3. 18

4. 21

Q.16 The highest common factor of 363, 495, and 561 is N. The digit sum of N is:
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 5
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4. 4

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Q.17
s
In covering a distance of 192 km, Anmol takes 9 hours more than Nikhil. If Anmol

la
doubles his speed, then he would take 7 hour less than Nikhil. Anmol's speed is:
Ans 1. 15 km/h
ag
2. 6 km/h

3. 14 km/h

4. 3 km/h

Q.18 65% of 240 + ?% of 150 = 201
Ans 1. 30

2. 25
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3. 35
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m.co 4. 40
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.19
Ans
Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 12 ÷ 2) ÷ 3}]
a
a
1. 29

2. 28

3. 31

4. 30

Q.20 An amount of ₹440 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 7 : 17 : 16. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 110

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2. 84

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3. 114

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4. 127

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 61

Q.21 Anjani can do a certain piece of work in 30 days. Anjani and Khushbu can together do
the same work in 24 days, and Anjani, Khushbu and Sushmita can do the same work
together in 12 days. In how many days can Anjani and Sushmita do the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22
Find the value of 80 -2 ÷ 80 15 × 80 -10
Ans 1. 80 -20

2. 80 -19

3. 80 -26

4. 80 -27

Q.23 Alice can complete a task in 18 days, and Bob can complete the same task in 24 days. If
they work together, how long will it take for them to complete the task?

Ans
1. days

2. 8 days

3. 10 days

4. days

Q.24 Find the compound interest (in ₹, rounded off to the nearest integer) on
₹2,55,000 in 1.5 years at 8% per annum, the interest being compounded
half-yearly.
Ans 1. 34,180

2. 32,480

3. 31,840

4. 31,480

Q.25 How many times 0.25 is 2.5?
Ans 1. 12 times

2. 10 times

3. 1 time

4. 5 times

Q.26 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 121. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 190

2. 189

3. 199

4. 200

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 61

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Q.27 A store marks a washing machine at ₹25,000 and offers a series of two discounts: 10%
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and then 20% on the reduced price. What is the final price after both discounts?

. co s e m
m Ans 1. ₹18,500
a
se 2. ₹17,500
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3. ₹22,500

4. ₹18,000

Q.28 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 36 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radius are 1 cm and 2 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in kg) of the shell ?

( )

Ans
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1. 2.57

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2. 1.056

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3. 1.944

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4. 2.38

l as ag
Q.29
Ans
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The sum of 10 numbers is 372. Find their average.
1. 38.2

2. 36.2

3. 35.2

4. 37.2

Q.30 Mohan bought an article for ₹1,520 and sold it for ₹1,870. Find his profit percentage
(correct to two places of decimals).
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Ans 1. 22.78%

2. 23.03%
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3. 20.15%
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4. 21.36%
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Q.31

Ans
1.

2.

3.
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s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.32 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
a
a
number is 130. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 206

2. 188.5

3. 187.5

4. 205

Q.33 The digit in place of A that makes 25432A7 divisible by 9 is:
Ans 1. 3
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2. 0

m s e
3. 4

s e l a
4. 1

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Q.34 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹4560 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 760

2. 3040

3. 380

4. 1520

Q.35 An Uber auto covers a distance of 525 km in 21 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Ans 1. 26

2. 33

3. 25

4. 22

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only one
person sits between P and O when counted from the right of P. Only one person sits
between O and N. Only one person sits between P and Q. Only two people sit between R
and N. Only one person sits between L and Q. Who sits third to the right of M?
Ans 1. N

2. L

3. O

4. R

Q.37 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

UUU4, QQQ4, MMM4, III4, ?
Ans 1. EEE4

2. HHH4

3. FFF4

4. GGG4

Q.38 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All vans are utilities.
All trucks are utilities.

Conclusions:
(I) Some vans are trucks.
(II) Some utilities are trucks.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 10 18 30 46 ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 63

3. 66

4. 64

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 61

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Q.40 In a row of 17 students facing north, Giyanshi is 9th from the left end. If Uri is 5th to the
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right of Giyanshi, what is Uri's position from the right end of the line?

. Ans 1. 3
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se 2. 4

3. 2 ag l
4. 1

Q.41 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 15 23 33 45 ?
Ans 1. 58

2. 60

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3. 57
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4. 59

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Q.42
s e
AYOL is related to ONEC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
l a
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same way, EGAB is related to SVQS. To which of the given options is UZWA related,
ag
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following the same logic?
Ans 1. IOMR

2. IORM

3. MIOR

4. MORI

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a

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a

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Q.43 Identify the option that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 Ronak starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km to the west

2. 5 km to the east

3. 4 km to the east

4. 5 km to the west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 61

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Q.45 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
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se Statements:
All tables are beds.
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Some tables are pillows.
All pillows are curtains.

Conclusions:
(I) Some curtains are tables.
(II) Some pillows are beds.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

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Q.46
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What will be the value of the following expression, if the ‘−‘ and the ‘×’ signs are
l as
interchanged?

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18 × 2 + 5 − 9 ÷ 3 × 2 − 6 = ?
ag
Ans 1. 23

2. 12
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3. 8

4. 19

Q.47 In a certain code language,
A + B means 'A is the mother of B'
A − B means 'A is the father of B'
A X B means 'A is the sister of B'
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A / B means 'A is the brother of B'
A > B means 'A is the husband of B'
A * B means 'A is the wife of B'
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How is M related to B if M − N + T X B > K ?
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Ans 1. Mother
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2. Sister

3. Father's sister

4. Mother's father

Q.48 In a certain code language, ‘WITH’ is coded as ‘7894’ and ‘THIN’ is coded as ‘8745’. What
is the code for ‘W’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

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2. 8
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3. 9

m s e
s e
4. 7

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g l a Q.49 H, A, T, B, O, R, and D are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits to thea
a immediate right of A. T sits second to the left of A. O sits third to the left of T. Only one
person sits between O and B. Who sits to the immediate left of T?
Ans 1. H

2. B

3. O

4. R

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Q.50 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VAF

2. INS

3. DJN

4. LQV

Q.51 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–‘
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷′ are interchanged?
200 × 5 ÷ 14 − 41 + 18 = ?
Ans 1. 583

2. 590

3. 609

4. 612

Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘ROSE’ is coded as ‘2673’ and ‘HERO’ is coded as ‘7136’.
What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 7

4. 1

Q.53 Seven friends, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. Only one person sits between Q and W. Q sits immediately to the right of X.
Y sits immediately to the left of W. Only R sits between Q and T. How many people sit
between Q and Y when counted from the right of Y?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Q.54 All 43 people are standing in a row facing North. Munir is 11th from the right end while
Dilip is 24th from the left end. How many people are there between Munir and Dilip?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 5

4. 8

Q.55 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(13, 27, 41)
(44, 31, 18)
Ans 1. (15, 13, 14)

2. (19, 24, 21)

3. (21, 25, 28)

4. (18 ,16, 14)

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 61

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Q.56 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

. co BNM - CMN
s e m
m a
se l
EFT - FEU
Ans 1. WER - XFT
ag
2. UIO - VJP

3. SWE - TVF

4. LIN - MNO

Q.57 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 241 341 735 672 457 (Right)

m
.co
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

m
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

.co
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many
m s em
e
numbers will remain unchanged?

s l a
a ag
Ans 1. 3
l
2. 2

3. 1
ag
4. 4

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GNY
m
2. TAH
m .co
3. AHO
s e
4. ELS
g la
Q.59
a
In a certain code language, ‘MINE’ is coded as ‘3591’ and ‘IRKS’ is coded as ‘2436’. What
is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 6

4. 2

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 61

Q.60 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is
placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.61 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A < B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A ! B means ‘A is the son of B’
A : B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is S related to E if 'S : M < I + L ! E’?
Ans 1. Son's wife's father

2. Son's wife's brother

3. Son's wife's sister

4. Son's wife's mother

Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

13 138 263 327 391 418 ?
Ans 1. 434

2. 445

3. 427

4. 463

Q.63 In the following expression, what will be the final value calculated after interchanging all
the ‘1’s and ‘2’s?
4+2−1+1−2−1+3−4+2+1−6
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. −2

4. −4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 61

m
.co
Q.64 5P is related to 4O in a certain way. In the same way, 3N is related to 2M. To which of the
m
following is 1L related, following the same logic?

. co
Ans 1. 1K
s e m
m a
se l
2. 0K

3. 2K
ag
4. 0J

Q.65 Rohit starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns left and drives 7 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 3 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 16 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 8 km towards West

m
.co
2. 9 km towards South
m
.co m
3. 8 km towards East

m s e
4. 9 km towards North

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.66 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 372 196 388 198 329 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 16

2. 18

m
.co
3. 15

4. 17
e m
las
g
Q.67 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information

a
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All hats are roses.
Some drinks are hats.

Conclusions:
(I) All drinks are roses.
(II) Some roses are drinks.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
.co
m.co 3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
s e m
s e 4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
g l a
g l a a
a Q.68 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 430 284 491 231 487 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the
second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 12

m .
.co
4. 6

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 61

Q.69 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

ASG37, OEU78, CQI119, QCW160, ?
Ans 1. FOK201

2. EOK201

3. ECK201

4. EOK200

Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

VRL 21, BXR 32, HDX 43, NJD 54, TPJ 65, ?
Ans 1. IVP 76

2. ZVP 75

3. ZVP 76

4. ZXP 76

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 What is the percentage of urban population of India according to the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. 41.16%

2. 35.16%

3. 31.16%

4. 25.16%

Q.72 Provision for the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
is mentioned under which of the following schedules?
Ans 1. Fifth Schedule, Part A

2. Sixth Schedule, Part A

3. Sixth Schedule, Part B

4. Fifth Schedule, Part B

Q.73 Which of the following is the primary objective of the Boiler Act, 2024?
Ans 1. Promote renewable energy use in industries

2. Establish stricter safety standards for boiler operations

3. Provide subsidies for boiler manufacturing

4. Increase the export of boilers

Q.74 Which Five Year Plan is often associated with a 'Rolling Plan' concept due to political
changes?
Ans 1. Sixth Plan

2. Eighth Plan

3. Fifth Plan

4. Fourth Plan

Q.75 Which of the following countries won the maximum number of medals at Paris 2024
Olympics?
Ans 1. People's Republic of China

2. Great Britain

3. USA

4. France

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 61

m
.co
Q.76 Which body has the constitutional mandate to investigate all matters relating to the
m
safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution?

. co
Ans 1. National Commission for Minorities
s e m
m a
se l
2. National Human Rights Commission

3. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
ag
4. Election Commission of India

Q.77 Efficiency of Carnot engine can be increased by:
Ans 1. increasing the amount of working substance

2. decreasing the sink temperature

3. decreasing the amount of working substance

m
.co
4. increasing the sink temperature

m
Q.78
.co
In June 2024, the Indian Army opened the Khalubar War Memorial for tourists located in

m
which State or Union Territory?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Ladakh

l a
ag
2. Goa

3. Uttarakhand

4. Jammu and Kashmir

Q.79 By how much percentage did HDFC Bank's net profit grow year-on-year (Y-o-Y) in Q2
FY25?
Ans 1. 5.3%

2. 4%

m
.co
3. 10%

4. 15%

e m
Q.80
las
Vijay Kumar N was honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Yuva Puraskar (2008) for

Ans
his contribution to _________ dance.
1. Kathakali ag
2. Odissi

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Kathak

Q.81 Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option regarding their
correctness.

m
.co
Statement I: ‘Project Tiger’ is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of the Ministry of

m
Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

.co m
Statement II: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been fulfilling its

m
mandate of strengthening tiger conservation in the country within the ambit of the
s e
s e Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.

g l a
g l a Ans 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
a
a 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

3. Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.

4. Statement I is incorrect, while Statement II is correct.

Q.82 Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of recognised languages in
India?
Ans 1. Eighth Schedule

2. Eleventh Schedule

m .
.co m
3. Tenth Schedule

m s e
a
4. Ninth Schedule

s e l
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 61

Q.83 Ajanta, which is located in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, is famous for which of
the following monuments of Buddhist architecture?
Ans 1. Viharas

2. Stambhas

3. Caves

4. Stupas

Q.84 The establishment of how many Artificial Intelligence Centres of Excellence (AI-COEs)
(focused on health, agriculture, and sustainable cities) were announced by Union
Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan in October 2024?
Ans 1. Five

2. Three

3. Seven

4. Two

Q.85 Who was the king of Jagdishpur during the Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Tatya Tope

2. Hukum Singh

3. Kunwar Singh

4. Bahadur Shah Zafar

Q.86 The political landscape in India fundamentally changed as a result of the fourth general
election held in the year _____.
Ans 1. 1977

2. 1967

3. 1972

4. 1961

Q.87 Which economist's ideas had a strong influence on the agricultural and industrial focus
of the Second Five Year Plan?
Ans 1. PC Mahalanobis

2. Manmohan Singh

3. Amartya Sen

4. Jagdish Bhagwati

Q.88 The Deccan Plateau is mostly composed of:
Ans 1. limestone and sandstone

2. pumice and red soil

3. alluvial soil

4. granite and basalt

Q.89 Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution contains Articles 239 to 241 that
deals with union territories?
Ans 1. Part IX

2. Part X

3. Part VIII

4. Part VII

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 61

m
.co
Q.90 During winter months, dry continental winds from Central Asia primarily come in
m
contact with trade winds over which of the following regions of India?

. co
Ans 1. Northeastern India
s e m
m a
se l
2. Eastern India

3. Southern India
ag
4. Northwestern India

Q.91 As of October 2024, the highest GST collection of ₹2.10 lakh crore was recorded in
______________.
Ans 1. April 2024

2. October 2024

3. July 2024
m
4. August 2024
m .co
Q.92
m .co
In India, dryland farming is primarily practiced in regions with which of the following
s em
s e
annual rainfall levels?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Between 90 and 120 cm
ag
ag
2. Less than 75 cm

3. Between 75 and 90 cm

4. More than 120 cm

Q.93 The kinetic energy of a particle depends on which of the following?
Ans 1. Both mass and acceleration of the particle

2. Both mass and velocity of the particle

m
.co
3. Only velocity of the particle

4. Only mass of the particle

e m
Q.94 The charge of two H+ ions is ________.
las
Ans 1. + 1.6 × 10 −19
C
ag
2. +3.2 × 10−19 C

3. +3.2 × 10−10 C

4. −1.6 × 10−19 C

Q.95 What is the composition of a Lok Adalat?
Ans 1. A Lok Adalat consists of a judicial officer and two lawyers.

2. A Lok Adalat consists of a judge and a group of legal experts.
m
m
3. A Lok Adalat consists of a judicial officer, a lawyer and a social worker.
.co
m.co 4. A Lok Adalat consists of only the judicial officer.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.96 Which of the following is correct about Specific heat capacity of water?
a
a Ans 1. With rise in temperature from 0°C, it decreases.

2. With rise in temperature from 0°C, it increases.

3. The specific heat of water varies slightly with temperature.

4. The specific heat of water remains constant in the temperature range 0°C to 100°C.

Q.97 In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved giving the status of 'classical language' to
how many languages?
Ans 1. 7

m .
.co m
2. 3

3. 9
m s e
s e l a
a ag
4. 5

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 61

Q.98 To which of the following countries did Nana Saheb flee after being defeated in the
Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. China

2. Sri Lanka

3. Burma

4. Nepal

Q.99 Who was the ruler of Delhi when Babur invaded?
Ans 1. Mahmud Lodi

2. Daulat Khan Lodi

3. Sikandar Lodi

4. Ibrahim Lodi

Q.100 Which of the following changes was proposed in the 2024 Budget to benefit employees’
social security through the National Pension Scheme (NPS) as per Budget 2024?
Ans 1. Decrease employer contribution from 14% to 10%

2. Decrease employee contribution from 14% to 10%

3. Increase employee contribution from 10% to 14%

4. Increase employer contribution from 10% to 14%

Q.101 Which company launched Topaz BankingSLM and Topaz ITOpsSLM in October 2024,
using the NVIDIA AI Stack for enterprise AI?
Ans 1. Wipro

2. Mphasis Limited

3. Infosys

4. Tech Mahindra

Q.102 What is the maximum limit for a contactless payment transaction using a debit or credit
card in India as of 2024?
Ans 1. ₹1,000

2. ₹10,000

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹500

Q.103 The British response after the Indian Rebellion of 1857 was to:
Ans 1. community, caste, tribal and provincial loyalties were promoted in the army

2. all the princely states were annexed under British rule

3. immediately grant India self-rule

4. provide economic aid to Indian farmers

Q.104 Which Indian sand artist won the Golden Sand Master Award at the International Sand
Sculpture Championship held at St. Petersburg city of Russia in July 2024?
Ans 1. Manisha Swarnkar

2. Sudarsan Pattnaik

3. Rajat Kumar

4. Manas Kumar Sahoo

Q.105 During whose tenure as the Viceroy of India was the first session of the Indian National
Congress held?
Ans 1. Lord Ripon

2. Lord Curzon

3. Lord Dufferin

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 61

m
.co
Q.106 Tuzuk-i-Baburi was written in which language?
m
co
Ans 1. Sanskrit

. e m
m 2. Urdu
as
se 3. Hindi
ag l
4. Turkish

Q.107 The Vichitra Veena has about how many sympathetic strings of varying lengths which
run parallel to and under the main strings?
Ans 1. 16

2. 12

3. 14

m
.co
4. 10

m
.co
Q.108 Jamshedpur is an ideal location for which of the following types of industries?

m s em
Ans
e
1. Cotton Textile Industry

s l a
l a
2. Dairy Industry
ag
ag
3. Paper and Pulp Industry

4. Iron and Steel Industry

Q.109 ‘Providing early childhood care and education to all children until they complete the age
of 6 years’ belongs to which Section of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Legal responsibilities

3. Fundamental Duties
m
.co
4. Fundamental Rights

e m
Q.110 Where was the IBSF World Billiards Championship 2024 held?
Ans 1. Doha, Qatar
las
2. Amman, Jordan ag
3. Damascus, Syria

4. Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates

Q.111 Union Finance Minister, while presenting Union Budget for 2022-23, announced the
National Ropeways Development Programme, which is known as ______________.
Ans 1. Darshanmala

2. Parvatmala
m
m
3. Vishwamala
.co
m .co 4. Parikrammala
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.112 As per the 'State of Economy' report in the RBI bulletin, in H1 FY25, what fraction of the
gross FDI inflows was sourced from Singapore, Mauritius, the UAE, the Netherlands a
a Ans
and the US?
1. One-third

2. Three-fourths

3. Half

4. Two-thirds

Q.113 Consider an ideal gas system. For an exothermic reaction occurring at constant
pressure, how does the enthalpy change?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Negative

2. Path dependent
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. Zero

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 61

Q.114 __________ has the power to amend the Constitution of India.
Ans 1. The Parliament of India

2. The Election Commission of India

3. The President of India

4. The Prime Minister of India

Q.115 Within which dates of December every year, Konark experiences a surge of tourists and
art enthusiasts alike, to envision the biggest and the grandest of dance festivals in the
state of Odisha?
Ans 1. 1st to 5th

2. 10th to 15th

3. 15th to 20th

4. 6th to 10th

Q.116 Which of the following is a government scheme for rural employment in India?
Ans 1. Swachh Bharat Mission

2. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

3. Skill India

4. Ayushman Bharat

Q.117 Which of the following are the types of Rural Development Strategies?

1. Strategy based on collectivization of resources
2. Strategy based on regulated capitalist perspective
3. Strategy based on peasant agrarian perspective
Ans 1. Only 2 and 3

2. Only 1 and 3

3. Only 1 and 2

4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.118 Which sector is primarily involved in agriculture and natural resource extraction?
Ans 1. Quaternary

2. Tertiary

3. Primary

4. Secondary

Q.119 Who is the director of the Kannada film ‘Kantara’, which won the award for Best Popular
Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment at the 70th National Film Award 2024?
Ans 1. Rohit Shetty

2. Rakshit Shetty

3. Raj B Shetty

4. Rishab Shetty

Q.120 The coastal strip between Daman and Goa is called the:
Ans 1. Malabar Coast

2. Konkan Coast

3. Karnataka Coast

4. Coromandel Coast

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 61

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 17/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Arunoday a Nagar
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1
l
Ans 1. 43 ag
2. 13

3. 33

4. 23

Q.2 The smallest number which when diminished by 5, is divisible by 16, 18, 24 and 26 is
_____.
Ans 1. 1872
m
2. 1879

m .co
3. 1887
s e
4. 1877
g la
Q.3
a
A bike goes 46 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 160.1

2. 173.2

3. 176.4

4. 165.6

m
Q.4 A trader marks his goods at 55% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20%.

.co
What is his gain percentage?

m
.co
Ans 1. 24%

e m
e m
2. 34%

l as
l as 3. 35%
ag
ag 4. 25%

Q.5 The tax on petrol is increased by 5%, but its consumption is decreased by 5%. The
increase or decrease in the expenditure of money is:
Ans 1. No change

2. 0.25% decrease

3. 0.25% increase

4. 5% increase

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 61

Q.6 Anwar bought 52 books for Rs 1130 from one shop and 47 books for Rs 925 from
another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
Ans 1. 20.76

2. 21.76

3. 22.76

4. 23.76

Q.7 A chemist has two solutions of alcohol and water. Solution A contains 70% alcohol, and
solution B contains 30% alcohol. In what ratio should he mix them to get a solution
containing 50% alcohol?
Ans 1. 2 : 1

2. 1 : 1

3. 1 : 2

4. 1 : 3

Q.8

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 A man can row at the speed of 9.5 km/h in still water. He finds that it takes him twice as
much time to row up than to row down the same distance in the river. Find the speed (in
km/h) of the current.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 A seven-digit number is divisible by 77. If 91 is added to this number, the resulting
number is always divisible by which of the following numbers?
Ans 1. 7

2. 77

3. 13

4. 91

Q.11 A pipe can fill a cistern in 3 hours. Due to a leak at the bottom, it is filled in 5 hours.
When the cistern is full, in how much time will it be emptied by the leak?
Ans 1. 10 hours

2. 6 hours

3. 7.5 hours

4. 8.5 hours

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 61

m
.co
Q.12 A metal cylinder of diameter 24 cm and of length 168 cm is melted to form a cuboid
m
metal object of dimensions 9 cm × 11 cm × 1 cm. The number of cuboid metal objects

. co thus obtained are:

s e m
m a
se Ans
(Use π =

1. 768
)

ag l
2. 678

3. 657

4. 867

Q.13 Simplify

m
Ans
m .co
.co m
1.

m s e
s e l a
2.
l a ag
ag
3.

4.

Q.14 A bedsheet has a length of 148 inches and breadth of 104 inches. How much lace will be
required to complete the border of the bedsheet?
m
Ans 1. 548 inches

m .co
2. 495 inches
s e
3. 504 inches
g la
4. 480 inches
a
Q.15 Paul deposited ₹41,375 in a private bank offering 20% compound interest for three
years, compounding annually. What is the total interest (in ₹) received by Paul?
Ans 1. 30,121

2. 30,212

3. 29,291

4. 30,512
m
m .co
.co m
Q.16 A person can complete a journey in 28 hours. He covers the first one-third part of the

m
journey at the rate of 81 km/h and the remaining distance at the rate of 27 km/h. What is
s e
s e the total distance of his journey?

g l a
g l a Ans 1. 979
a
a 2. 982

3. 972

4. 981

Q.17 The present cost of a shopping complex is ₹124645. After a year, its cost increased to
₹141449. The percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer) in the cost of the
shopping complex is:
Ans 1. 13

2. 12
m .
3. 9

m .co s e m
4. 18
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 61

Q.18 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹4080 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 680

2. 1360

3. 2720

4. 340

Q.19 Successive discounts of 15% and 7% is equivalent to a single discount of:
Ans 1. 20.95%

2. 11%

3. 23.05%

4. 22%

Q.20 The monthly incomes of two friends Nirmal and Rakesh, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹90000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Nirmal(in ₹).
Ans 1. 210000

2. 149000

3. 151000

4. 150000

Q.21 The ratio of milk and water in a 77 litre mixture is 6 : 5. Find the quantity (in litres) of
water to be added to the mixture in order to make this ratio 1:1.
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 5

4. 17

Q.22 Mayank buys a refurbished laptop for ₹22,500 and spends ₹1,000 on its repairs. If he
sells it to his friend Mithun for ₹30,000, his gain percentage (rounded to two decimal
places) will be:
Ans 1. 26.85%

2. 27%

3. 25%

4. 27.66%

Q.23 The sum of 8 numbers is 876. Find their average.
Ans 1. 110.5

2. 108.5

3. 107.5

4. 109.5

Q.24

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 61

m
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Q.25 P sells an item to Q at 25% profit. Q sells the same item to R at 56% loss. If R paid ₹
m
2783 for the item, then at what price (in ₹) is the item purchased by P?

. co
Ans 1. 5057
s e m
m a
se l
2. 5059

3. 5060
ag
4. 5058

Q.26
Find the value of

Ans

m
1.

m .co
2.
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
3.
ag
4.

Q.27 If (x + y) : (y + z) : (z + x) = 3 : 5 : 4 and (x + y + z) = 8, then the value of z is _____.
Ans 1. 6

2. 4
m
3. 8
m .co
4. 5
s e
g la
Q.28
a
If the length of cuboid is 44 cm, breadth is 5 cm and the volume of cuboid is 1980 cm3,
then find the height of cuboid (in cm).
Ans 1. 2

2. 9

3. 14

4. 4

Q.29 A car travels 167 km in the first hour and 127 km in the second hour. What is the
m
.co
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?

m
.co
Ans 1. 146

e m
e m
2. 142

l as
l as 3. 145

ag
ag 4. 147

Q.30 4 men can complete a piece of work in 14 days while 4 women can do it in 10 days. In
how many days can 5 women and 7 men complete it?
Ans 1. 2 days

2. 4 days

3. 8 days

4. 3 days

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 61

Q.31 What is the difference between the compound interest on ₹10,000 for 1.5 years at 8%
per annum, compounded yearly and half-yearly?
Ans 1. ₹61.64

2. ₹16.64

3. ₹6.64

4. ₹10.06

Q.32 The average of first 137 even numbers is
Ans 1. 138

2. 137.5

3. 138.5

4. 139

Q.33 A pipe can fill a tank in 6 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 12 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be two-third filled, is:
Ans 1. 8

2. 24

3. 16

4. 32

Q.34 The value of

Ans 1. 8.18

2. 6.53

3. 11.08

4. 2.99

Q.35 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 6:2:9. They invested their capitals for
2 months, 10 months and 5 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 11:20:45

2. 12:20:45

3. 15:20:45

4. 13:20:45

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

9 - 11
3-5
Ans 1. 123 - 126

2. 53 - 55

3. 98 - 101

4. 72 - 74

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m
.co
Q.37 In a certain code language, 'shoes are big' is coded as 'tk jb zc' and 'are you going' is
m
coded as 'zc mb tk'. How is 'are' coded in the given language?

. co
Ans 1. mb
s e m
m a
se l
2. jb

3. tk
ag
4. zc

Q.38 If ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

25 ÷ 3 + 10 × 5 − 6 = ?
Ans 1. 50

2. 79
m
3. 75
m .co
4. 80

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.39 Ashok starts from Point M and drives 9 km towards the east. Then he takes a right turn
l
ag
and drives 11 km and then again he takes a right turn and drives 3 km. Again he turns
right and drives 7 km. At last, he turns left and drives 6 km and stops at point N. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point
M again?
Ans 1. 5 km towards the north

2. 4 km towards the north

3. 7 km towards the north

4. 4 km towards the south

m
.co
Q.40 Six students P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. T
sits to the immediate right of Q and immediate left of U. Only one person sits between U

m
and R. P sits to the immediate left of Q. Who sits to the immediate right of S?
Ans 1. R
s e
2. T
g la
3. Q a
4. U

Q.41 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 7 3 5 1 6 2 8 9 2 5 6 6 1 8 3 5 8 4 6 5 7 6 3 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
m
Ans
m
1. Two
.co
m.co 2. One
s e m
s e 3. None
g l a
g l a 4. Three a
a Q.42 Seven boxes D, E, F, H, I, J and K are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only K is kept above J. Only two boxes are kept between J and F. Only E is
kept below D. I is not kept immediately above F. How many boxes are kept between H
and E?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 61

Q.43 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is P related to T if ‘P – Q ÷ R + S × T’?
Ans 1. Wife's mother's brother

2. Wife's mother's father

3. Wife's father's brother

4. Wife's father's father

Q.44 Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing towards the
centre of the table. T is the immediate neighbour of both U and S. P sits second to the
right of R. S sits to the immediate left of R.
Who is sitting second to the right of P?
Ans 1. U

2. T

3. R

4. S

Q.45 In a certain code language,
'A : B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A < B' means ‘A is the father of B’ and
'A + B' means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is D related to H if 'D + E : F < G × H’?
Ans 1. Mother's daughter

2. Mother's son

3. Mother's brother

4. Mother's mother

Q.46 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. SVY

2. ACE

3. PSV

4. DGJ

Q.47 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All grapes are handles.
All grapes are pipes.
Some pipes are jars.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some jars are grapes.
(II) : Some pipes are handles.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 61

m
.co
Q.48 All 41 people are standing in a row facing north. Namita is 13th from the left end, while
m
co
Shivangi is 19th from the right end. How many people are there between Namita and

. Shivangi?
e m
m as
se l
Ans 1. 9

2. 7
ag
3. 8

4. 10

Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

TVN QSK NPH KME ?
Ans 1. HIB
m
m .co
2. HIC

3. HJC

m .co s em
4. HJB
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.50 In a certain code language, ‘TRUE’ is coded as ‘6713’ and ‘URGE’ is coded as ‘3746’.
What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 6

4. 3

Q.51 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the

m
question mark (?) in the following equation?

.co
108 ÷ 108 × 36 − 15 + 69 = ?
Ans 1. 82

e m
2. 84

las
3. 81

4. 83 ag
Q.52 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

ORV 53 XAE 46 GJN 39 PSW 32 ?
Ans 1. ZBF 24

2. ZCE 24

m
.co
3. YBF 25

m
.co m
4. YCE 25

m s e
s e
Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
g l a
g l a given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the a
a statements.
Statements:
All almonds are lemons.
All rabbits are lemons.
All mints are lemons.
Conclusions:
(I): Some mints are almonds.
(II): Some rabbits are mints.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

m .
.co m
3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

m
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 61

Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

27 29 35 45 59 ?
Ans 1. 80

2. 84

3. 77

4. 90

Q.55 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit around a circular table facing the centre. Only one person sits
between U and S when counted from the right of U. Only one person sits between S and
V. Only one person sits between U and P. Only two people sit between Q and V. Only
one person sits between T and P. How many people sit between V and S when counted
from the right of S?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

Q.56 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.
(Left) # $ 7 3 5 4 @ % & 6 8 Ω 9 1 * £ + 2 (Right)
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 5

Q.57 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 421 137 675 862 517 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how
many numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 0

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 50 of 61

m
.co
Q.58 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
m
will logically complete the series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
2.

m
m .co
s e
g la
3. a

m
m .co
m.co 4.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 61

Q.59 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.60 GBMK is related to RKXT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, YLEU is related to JUPD. To which of the given options is FMLV related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. QVWE

2. QWEV

3. QVEW

4. QWVE

Q.61 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

LT-OW-QS
NV-QY-SU
Ans 1. IR-MU-OR

2. IR-MV-OR

3. JR-MU-OQ

4. JR-MU-OR

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 61

m
.co
Q.62 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co LTO NQL PNI RKF ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. TIC

2. TIB ag l
3. THC

4. THB

Q.63 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

m
.co
Statements:
Some wings are fingers.
m
.co m
All spots are keys.
No fingers are spots.
m s e
s e l a
ag
Conclusions:

l a
(I) Some keys are not fingers.

ag
(II) Some wings are not spots.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.64 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that does NOT belong to that group?

m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

.co
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. BN - LW

e m
2. NS - XE

las
3. RD - BM

4. MY - WH ag
Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘all men are God’ is written as 'in it pi ri’ and ‘God lives
everywhere’ is coded as ‘ti it fi’. How is ‘God’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. it

2. ti

3. fi

m
.co
4. in

m
Q.66

m.co
Mayank starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards South. He then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He
s e m
s e takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
g l a
g l a towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degree turns only unless specified.) a
a Ans 1. 4 km to the west

2. 4 km to the east

3. 3 km to the east

4. 3 km to the west

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 53 of 61

Q.67 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

JL - MO - PR
EG - HJ - KM
Ans 1. EG - HI - LO

2. SU - VX - YA

3. TU - XY - AB

4. DE - FH - LM

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

80 83 89 98 110 ?
Ans 1. 123

2. 121

3. 125

4. 127

Q.69 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
63 × 7 + 9 ÷ 55 − 12 = ?
Ans 1. 680

2. 660

3. 670

4. 650

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

934 930 925 919 912 ?
Ans 1. 903

2. 905

3. 904

4. 906

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which Supreme Court case introduced the ‘basic structure’ doctrine in Indian
Constitutional law?
Ans 1. The Shankari Prasad case 1951

2. The Golaknath case 1967

3. Minerva Mills case 1980

4. Kesavananda Bharati case 1973

Q.72 In September 2024, National Health Authority signed MoU with which institute for the
development of digital public goods for AI in healthcare?
Ans 1. IIT Madras

2. IIT Delhi

3. IIT Kanpur

4. IIT Bombay

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 61

m
.co
Q.73 In 1968, late Indian composer Pandit Ravi Shankar became the very first Indian to win
m
the Grammy Award for which of the following music albums in the ‘Best Chamber Music

. co Performance’ category?

s e m
m Ans 1. The Living Room Sessions
a
se 2. West Meets East
ag l
3. The Concert for Bangladesh

4. Full Circle: Carnegie Hall 2000

Q.74 Who is known as the ‘Father of the Green Revolution’ in India?
Ans 1. Verghese Kurien

2. MS Swaminathan

3. Norman Borlaug
m
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
m .co
Q.75
m .co
The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2024, aimed to make
s em
s e
changes in the Scheduled Tribes of which state?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Andhra Pradesh
ag
ag
2. Telangana

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Odisha

Q.76 If velocity and magnetic field vectors are perpendicular to each other, then the path of
motion of particles is:
Ans 1. Helical

2. Straight
m
.co
3. Circular

4. Vortex
e m
las
Q.77
g
What was the primary focus of the economic policies adopted by the colonial
government in India?
a
Ans 1. Encouragement of indigenous entrepreneurship

2. Security and promotion of the economic interests of Britain

3. Estimating national and per capita income accurately

4. Development of agriculture and local industries

Q.78 What was HDFC Bank's net interest income (NII) in Q2 FY25?
Ans 1. ₹30,110 crore
m
m
2. ₹2,700 crore
.co
m.co 3. ₹3,310 crore
s e m
s e 4. ₹29,837 crore
g l a
g l a a
a Q.79 Where was the G20 Summit or the Group of 20 Leaders' Summit held from 18–19
November 2024?
Ans 1. Rio de Janeiro

2. New Delhi

3. Melbourne

4. Paris

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 61

Q.80 The Rigveda comprises a compilation of 1028 hymns that are categorised into how
many Mandalas?
Ans 1. 12

2. 15

3. 8

4. 10

Q.81 The first model of the structure of an atom was:
Ans 1. Rutherford’s planetary model of atom

2. Schrödinger wave model of atom

3. Bohr model of atom

4. Plum pudding model of atom by JJ Thomson

Q.82 Which of the following river regions in India has an ideal location to setup Jute
Industry?
Ans 1. Beas

2. Narmada

3. Chambal

4. Hooghly

Q.83 The Revolt of 1857 symbolically ended with the fall of which major city?
Ans 1. Bombay

2. Delhi

3. Madras

4. Calcutta

Q.84 Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the words "or the Supreme Court" in Article
217(3), thereby giving the President the power to consult the Chief Justice of India when
determining the age of a High Court judge?
Ans 1. 7th Amendment

2. 24th Amendment

3. 15th Amendment

4. 44th Amendment

Q.85 Under which Act is the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) constituted?
Ans 1. The Indian Companies Act, 1956

2. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969

3. The Companies Act, 2013

4. The Competition Act, 2002

Q.86 Due to which of the following one-time provisions did SBI witness a drop in its net profit
in Q3 FY24?
Ans 1. Loan loss provisions

2. CASA ratio decrease

3. Interest rate changes

4. Pension liabilities

Q.87 In which state is the wettest place on the earth 'Mawsynram' located?
Ans 1. Manipur

2. Meghalaya

3. Mizoram

4. Kerala

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 56 of 61

m
.co
Q.88 Current flows upward through a vertical wire. The direction of the magnetic field at a
m
point south of the wire will be:

. co
Ans 1. towards west
s e m
m a
se l
2. towards north

3. towards east
ag
4. downward

Q.89 Which of the following was NOT a goal of the Extremists concerning the freedom
struggle of India?
Ans 1. Political independence

2. Economic self-reliance

3. Direct negotiations with the British
m
4. Promotion of Indian culture
m .co
Q.90
m .co
Who was the first ruler who tried to take his message to the people through
s em
inscriptions?
s e l a
Ans
l a
1. Dasharatha Maurya
ag
2. Ashoka
ag
3. Samprati

4. Chandragupta Maurya

Q.91 Released in 2024, ‘The Scientist Entrepreneur: Empowering Millions of Women’ is the
autobiography of which Indian activist?
Ans 1. Manasi Pradhan

2. Sunitha Krishnan
m
.co
3. Swati Maliwal

4. Kalpana Sankar
e m
las
Q.92
g
The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to provide what type of guidelines for the
State?
a
Ans 1. Political

2. Religious

3. Legal

4. Social and Economic

Q.93 Who among the following was the British resistance at Gwalior during the Revolt of
1857?
m
.co
Ans 1. Henry Lawrence
m
.co m
2. Hugh Rose

m s e
s e 3. John Nicholson

g l a
g l a 4. William Taylor
a
a Q.94 As of March 2024, what were the Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) and Net Non-
Performing Assets (NNPA) ratios for Indian banks?
Ans 1. 2.8% and 0.6%

2. 3.1% and 1.2%

3. 4.5% and 1.8%

4. 5.0% and 2.5%

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 57 of 61

Q.95 Which of the following is highly rich in ascorbic acid?
Ans 1. Oranges

2. Vinegar

3. Milk

4. Spinach

Q.96 Who among the following was one of the personalities related to Meerut during the 1857
Revolt?
Ans 1. Nana Saheb

2. Kadam Singh

3. Man Singh

4. Kunwar Singh

Q.97 In the simple shikhara type of architecture, there is a _____ base and curved walls.
Ans 1. circular

2. square

3. octangonal

4. rectangular

Q.98 Which of the following buildings/architecture was used primarily for residential purpose
for Buddhist Priests?
Ans 1. Chaityas

2. Stupas

3. Viharas

4. Stambhas

Q.99 The northernmost point of India lies in which region?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Uttarakhand

3. Jammu

4. Ladakh

Q.100 Which of the following Acts had provided the establishment of a public service
commission for recruiting civil servants in British India?
Ans 1. Government of India Act, 1919

2. Government of India Act, 1929

3. Government of India Act, 1935

4. Government of India Act, 1909

Q.101 Who among the following was presented with the Olympic Order on 28 August 2024 by
International Olympic Committee (IOC)?
Ans 1. The President of France, Emmanuel Macron

2. The President of Austria, Dr. Alexander Van der Bellen

3. The President of Germany, Frank-Walter Steinmeier

4. The President of Spain, Pedro Sánchez

Q.102 Which of the following rivers is an antecedent river that originates north of Mount
Everest in Tibet, where its main stream, the Arun, rises?
Ans 1. Gandak

2. Kosi

3. Gomati

4. Son

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 61

m
.co
Q.103 In which period was the Civil Disobedience Movement carried out by the Congress
m
under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi?

. co
Ans 1. 1932-36
s e m
m a
se l
2. 1925-29

3. 1930-34
ag
4. 1929-33

Q.104 What role does gender equality play in human development?
Ans 1. Ensures equal access to resources improving overall societal progress

2. Reduces government expenditure

3. Reduces population growth rates

m
.co
4. Leads to higher industrial output

m
.co
Q.105 In which of the following Indian states is the primitive form of cultivation (slash and

m
burn agriculture) called ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

l a
ag
2. Karnataka

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.106 Which of the following options best describes India’s economic strategy between 1947
and 1991?
Ans 1. Liberalisation and Globalisation

2. Export Promotion

m
.co
3. Import Substitution Industrialisation

4. Free-market Economy

e m
las
Q.107 The National Extension scheme was initially launched for a period of _________ years.
Ans 1. five
ag
2. three

3. two

4. four

Q.108 The first scientific experiments on genetics and inheritance were conducted in the mid-
nineteenth century. Who performed these hybridisation experiments on garden peas?
Ans 1. Rosalind Franklin

m
.co
2. James Watson and Francis Crick
m
.co m
3. Dmitri Mendeleev

m s e
s e
4. Gregor Mendel

g l a
g l a Q.109 Who is the son of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin, appointed as the state’s Deputy a
a Ans
Chief Minister in September 2024?
1. Udhayanidhi Stalin

2. Dayanidhi Stalin

3. Vijayanidhi Stalin

4. Ramanidhi Stalin

Q.110 What reduction in import duty on gold was proposed to curb smuggling and stimulate
the organised jewellery sector by Budget 2024?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. From 10% to 5%

2. From 15% to 6%
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. From 15% to 10%

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 61