AISSEE 2021 Question Paper Class 6 Paper 1 Set D Tamil

Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code

TM/LABIHE/6/21

MEDIUM : TAMIL + ENGLISH
D
AÔÄÖzuÀPÒ
INSTRUCTIONS
1. CÆÂÚõzuõÒ |õßS £SvPøÍU öPõshx. £Sv ‘‘A’’ : Pou®
50 ÂÚõUPøÍ öPõshx. JÆöÁõ¸ ÂÚõÂØS® 3 ©v¨ö£sPÒ.
£Sv ‘‘B’’ : ö£õx AÔÄ, £Sv ‘‘C’’ ö©õÈ, £Sv ‘‘D’’ : AÔÄzvÓß.
JÆöÁõ¸ £Sv²® 25 ÂÚõUPøÍ öPõsi¸US®. JÆöÁõ¸ ÂÚõÂØS®
2 ©v¨ö£sPÒ. ö©õzu©õP CÆÂÚõzuõÒ 125 ÂÚõUPøÍ öPõshx.
ö©õzu ©v¨ö£sPÒ 300. AøÚzx ÂÚõUPÐUS® Âøh¯ÎUP.
This Question Paper Booklet contains four Sections. Section ‘‘A’’ Mathematics
contains 50 questions of 3 marks each. Section ‘‘B’’ General Knowledge, Section ‘‘C’’
Language and Section ‘‘D’’ Intelligence contain 25 questions of 2 marks per question.
In all, the paper consists of 125 questions for a total of 300 marks. Answer all
questions.

2. £Sv ‘‘C’’ & SÔ¨¤mh ö©õÈ \õº¢ux. ©õnÁºPÒ C¨£Svø¯ uõß
÷uº¢öukzu ö©õÈ°À Âøh¯ÎUP ÷Ásk®. (©õnÁºPÒ B[Q»,
uªÌ, ©ø»¯õÍ®, öu¾[S, PßÚh®, ©µõzv, Sáµõzv, î¢v, E¸x,
J›¯õ, Aìéõª, £g\õ¤, ©ØÖ® ö£[Põ¼ BQ¯ 13 ö©õÈPÎÀ
JßøÓ ÷uºÄ ö\´v¸¨¥ºPÒ.
Section ‘‘C’’ is language specific and is to be attempted in the chosen language.
(Candidates were required to choose any of the following 13 languages : English,
Tamil, Malayalam, Telugu, Kannada, Marathi, Gujarati, Hindi, Urdu, Odiya,
Assamese, Punjabi and Bengali.)
3. Cz÷uºÂß ÷uºÄ ÷|µ® 2 ©o 30 {ªh[PÒ (150 {ªh[PÒ).
The test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes) duration.
4. ©ØÓ HuõÁx SÔ¨¤mh ö©õÈø¯ ÷uºÄö\´uÁ›ß ÂÚõzuõÒ AÁº
÷uºÂØS Âsn¨¤zu ö©õÈ ©ØÖ® Amªm Põºi¾®, B[Q»zv¾®
SÔUP¨£kQÓx C¸US®. ö©õȨ £Svz uµ ©ØÓ ÂÚõUPÎß
ö©õÈö£¯º¨¦/ÂÚõ Aø©¨¤À HuõÁx öuÎÂßø© C¸¨¤ß AÁØÔß
B[Q» Aø©¨÷£ CÖv¯õÚx.
The Question Paper Booklet for those who opted for any of the specified languages
would be in the language opted and indicated on the Admit Card and in English. In case
of any ambiguity in translation/construction of a question in the exam, its English
version (except for the Language section questions) shall be treated as final.

TM/LABIHE/6/21 1–D

5. CÆÂÚõzuõÒ ¦zuP® 32 £UP[PøÍU öPõshx. ©õnÁºPÒ u[PÒ
ÂÚõzuõÒ AøÚzx £UP[PøͲ® •Êø©¯õP öPõskÒÍuõ ? GÚ
EÖv£kzvU öPõÒЮ£i AÔÁÖzu¨£kQÓõºPÒ.
The Question Paper Booklet is of 32 pages. Please check and ensure that the Question
Paper Booklet is complete and contains all the pages.

6. AøÚzx ÂÚõUPÐUS® ©õnÁºPÒ OMR ÂøhzuõÎÀ ©mk÷©
Âøh¯ÎUP ÷Ásk®.
Answer all questions in the OMR Answer Sheet only.

7. ÂÚõzuõÎß EÒ÷Í OMR ÂøhzuõÒ C¸US®. ÂÚõzuõøÍ uõ[PÒ
vÓUP AÝ©vzuÄhß OMR ÂøhzuõÎß £SvPÎÀ ÷uøÁ¯õÚ
ÂÁµ[PøÍ PÁÚ©õP Fuõ AÀ»x P¸¨¦ {Ó ø© öPõsh £¢x •øÚ
÷£Úõ ©mk÷© £¯ß£kzv {µ¨£ ÷Ásk®.
The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Paper Booklet. When you are directed
to open the Question Paper Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill the
particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

8. JÆöÁõ¸ ÂÚõÂØS® E[PÒ £v»õP J÷µ J¸ ÁmhzvÀ ©mk® ø©
wmhÄ®. }[PÒ J÷µ ÂÚõÂØS JßÔØS ÷©Ø£mh Ámh[PÎÀ ø©
wmiÚõÀ E[PÒ £vÀ uÁÓõÚ Âøh¯õP P¸u¨£k®.
Darken only one circle as your answer for each question. If you darken more than one
circle for the same question, your answer will be treated as wrong.

9. Cz÷uºÂÀ uÁÓõÚ ÂøhUS ©v¨ö£s SøÓUP¨£h ©õmhõx.
There is no negative marking for a wrong answer.

10. OMR ÂøhzuõÎÀ ÷uøÁ¯ØÓ SÔ±kPÒ ö\´¯UThõx ÷©¾® AuøÚ
©hUP÷Áõ, P\UP÷Áõ ö\´uõÀ OMR AÆÂøhzuõÒ ©v¨¥k ö\´¯¨£h
©õmhõx.
Do not make unnecessary marks on the OMR Answer Sheet or fold or attempt to
deface it. If you do so, your OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.

11. ÂÁµ[PøÍ £vÂhÄ®, Âøh¯ÎUPÄ® Fuõ / P¸¨¦ ø© öPõsh
£¢x•øÚ ÷£ÚõøÁ ©mk÷© £¯ß£kzuÄ® ö£ß]À £¯ß£kzuU
Thõx.

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page and for writing
answers. Do not use pencil.

TM/LABIHE/6/21 2–D

12. ©õv› ö\´•øÓPÒ (Rough work) AuØPõP ÂÚõzuõÎÀ JxUP¨£mh
ChzvÀ ©mk÷© ö\´¯ ÷Ásk®. OMR uõÎøÚ £¯ß£kzu TShõx.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Question Paper
Booklet only and not on the OMR Answer Sheet.

13. ÷uºÄ •i¢uÄhß OMR ÂøhzuõÎøÍ ÷uºÄ |hzx£Á›h®
\©º¤zu¨¤ß ÷uºÄ AøÓø¯ Âmk öÁÎ÷¯ÓÄ®.
On completion of the test, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall.

14. uõ[PÒ ÂÚõzuõøÍ u[PÐhß Gkzxa ö\À»»õ®.
You are allowed to take away this Question Paper Booklet with you.

15. ÂÚõzuõÎß SÔ±k D. u[PÐUS ÁÇ[P¨£mh OMR ÂÚõzuõξ® J÷µ
CODE EÒÍuõ GÚ EÖv ö\´x öPõÒÍÄ®. HuõÁx ©õØÓ® C¸¨¤ß
÷uºÄ |hzx£Á›h® EhÚi¯õP öu›Âzx ©õØÖ OMR ÂÚõzuõÒ ©ØÖ®
ÂøhzuõøÍ ö£ØÖUöPõÒÍÄ®.
The CODE for this Booklet is D. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR
Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Question Paper Booklet. In case of
discrepancy, report the matter immediately to the Invigilator for replacement of both
the Question Paper Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet.

16. SÔ¨¤mh Chzøu uµ ÂÚõzuõÒ /OMR ÂøhzuõÎß G¢u £Sv°¾®
u[PÍx £vÄ Gsøn GÊuU Thõx.
Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Question
Paper Booklet/OMR Answer Sheet.

17. OMR ÂøhzuõÎÀ uÁÖPøÍ \›ö\´¯ £¯ß£kzu¨£k® öÁÒøÍ
vµÁzøu £¯ß£kzuU Thõx..
Do not use white fluid for carrying out any correction on the OMR Answer Sheet.

TM/LABIHE/6/21 3–D

¤›Ä A / SECTION A
Pou¯À / MATHEMATICS

1. HÖÁ›ø\°À Á›ø\¨£kzu¨£mh ¤ßÚ[PøÍ G¢u ¸¨£z
öu›Ä PõmkQÓx?
5 7 3 13 5 7 13 3
(1) < < < (2) < < <
8 12 4 16 8 12 16 4
5 3 13 7 7 5 3 13
(3) < < < (4) < < <
8 4 16 12 12 8 4 16

Which option shows fractions arranged in ascending order ?
5 7 3 13 5 7 13 3
(1) < < < (2) < < <
8 12 4 16 8 12 16 4
5 3 13 7 7 5 3 13
(3) < < < (4) < < <
8 4 16 12 12 8 4 16

2. 945·341 – 1042·792 + 875·435 + 31·025 ©v¨¦ GßÚ?

(1) 908·004 (2) 810·008

(3) 795·659 (4) 809·009

What is the value of 945·341 – 1042·792 + 875·435 + 31·025 ?

(1) 908·004 (2) 810·008

(3) 795·659 (4) 809·009

3. 15ö\.«. }Í•®, 12 ö\.«. AP»•® ©ØÖ® 8 ö\.«. E¯µ•®
öPõsh J¸ ö\ÆÁP ÁiÁz öuõmi •ÊÁx® uspº
{µ¨£¨£mkÒÍx öuõmi°À EÒÍ }›ß PÚAÍøÁU
PshԯĮ.
(1) 180 cm3 (2) 1200 cm3

(3) 440 cm3 (4) 1440 cm3

A rectangular tank 15 cm long, 12 cm wide and 8 cm high was completely filled with
water. Find the volume of water in the tank.

(1) 180 cm3 (2) 1200 cm3

(3) 440 cm3 (4) 1440 cm3

TM/LABIHE/6/21 4–D

4. ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u ÷µõ©ß Gs uÁÓõÚx?
(1) LXII (2) XCI (3) LC (4) XLIV
Which of the following numbers in Roman Numerals is incorrect ?
(1) LXII (2) XCI (3) LC (4) XLIV
5. _ØÖ»õ ö\ßÓ J¸ |£º •u¼À 160 Q.«. yµzøu 64 Q.«./©o ÷|µ®
GÚÄ® AuØPkzu 160 Q.«. yµzøu 80 Q.«./©o ÷|µ® GßÓ
÷ÁPzv¾® PhUQÓõº, GÛÀ _ØÖ»õÂß •uÀ 320 Q.«. yµzvß
\µõ\› ÷ÁP® GßÚ
(1) 35·55 Q.«./©o ÷|µ® (2) 36 Q.«./©o ÷|µ®
(3) 71·11 Q.«./©o ÷|µ® (4) 71 Q.«./©o ÷|µ®
A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The
average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is
(1) 35·55 km/hr (2) 36 km/hr
(3) 71·11 km/hr (4) 71 km/hr
6. N GßÓ 3 C»UP GsnõÀ 2272 ©ØÖ® 875 BQ¯ GsPøÍ ÁSUS®
÷£õx J÷µ «v ©v¨¦ QøhUQÓx. N Gsoß C»UP[PÎß
Tku»õÚx
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder.
The sum of the digits of N is
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

7. áý¼¯õÂØS xoPøÍz xøÁUP •i°øÚ A»[P›UP, Eøh
©õØÓ 1 ©o ÷|µ•® ©ØÖ® Põø» EnÄ \õ¨¤h 1 ©o ÷|µ•®
2 4
GkUQÓx. GÛÀ áý¼¯õ £ÒÎU Th® ö\À»z u¯õµõÁuØS
GÆÁÍÄ ÷|µ® GkUS®?
3
(1) ©o ÷|µ® (2) 1 ©o ÷|µ®
4
2 5
(3) ©o ÷|µ® (4) ©o ÷|µ®
4 4
1 1
It takes Julia hour to wash, comb her hair and put on her clothes and hour to
2 4
have her breakfast. How much time does it take Julia to be ready for school ?
3
(1) hour (2) 1 hour
4
2 5
(3) hour (4) hour
4 4

TM/LABIHE/6/21 5–D

8. GÀ»õz vø\Pξ® •iÂÀ»õ©À ›Áøh²® J¸ uÍ ÷©Ø£µ¨¦
CÆÁõÖ AøÇUP¨£kQÓx.
(1) \©uÍ® (2) ÷|º÷Põk
(3) ÷Põmkz xsk (4) ¦ÒÎ

A flat surface which extends indefinitely in all directions is called a
(1) Plane (2) Line
(3) Line segment (4) Point

9. Cµsk {µ¨¦ ÷Põn[PÐUS Cøh÷¯¯õÚ ÷ÁÖ£õk 10. GÛÀ
Cµsk ÷Põn[PÎß ©v¨¦PøÍU PnUQkP.
(1) 55, 45 (2) 40, 50
(3) 50, 60 (4) 100, 90

The difference between two complementary angles is 10. Calculate the values of both
the angles.
(1) 55, 45 (2) 40, 50
(3) 50, 60 (4) 100, 90

10. Pzu›UPõ´, öÁsøhUPõ´ ©ØÖ® öÁ[Põ¯® BQ¯ÁØÔß ö©õzu
Gøh 48.057 Q÷»õ Qµõ®. Pzu›UPõ´ ©ØÖ® öÁsøhUPõ´
BQ¯ÁØÔß Gøh 5.35 Q÷»õ Qµõ® ©ØÖ® 24.52 Q÷»õ Qµõ©õP
C¸¢uõÀ, öÁ[Põ¯zvß Gøh°øÚU PshԯĮ.
(1) 17·187 Q÷»õ Qµõ® (2) 18·187 Q÷»õ Qµõ®
(3) 17·180 Q÷»õ Qµõ® (4) 18·180 Q÷»õ Qµõ®

The total weight of brinjal, lady-finger and onion is 48·057 kg. If brinjal and
lady-finger weigh 5·35 kg and 24·52 kg respectively, find the weight of onion.
(1) 17·187 kg (2) 18·187 kg
(3) 17·180 kg (4) 18·180 kg

11. J¸ PÚ\xµzvÀ GzuøÚ £UP[PÒ EÒÍÚ?
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4

How many faces are there in a cuboid ?
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4

TM/LABIHE/6/21 6–D

12. 1 ªÀ¼¯ÛØS¨ ¤ßÚº
(1) 2 ªÀ¼¯ß (2) 1000001 (3) 100001 (4) 10001
The successor of 1 million is
(1) 2 million (2) 1000001 (3) 100001 (4) 10001

13. Gs ÷PõmiÀ \©z öuõø»ÂÀ O, U, S, V, R, X, W, T, P, Q ©ØÖ® Y
¦ÒÎPÒ Aø©¢xÒÍÚ. }Í® OP SÔUS® ¤ßÚ©õÚx

1 7 4 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
The points O, U, S, V, R, X, W, T, P, Q and Y on the number line are equidistant. The
fraction represented by length OP is

1 7 4 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5

14. G¢u Cµsk Akzukzu •Ê GsPÐUQøh÷¯ ¤ßÚ® 5
7
Aø©¢xÒÍx ?
(1) 0 ©ØÖ® 1 (2) 5 ©ØÖ® 7 (3) 5 ©ØÖ® 6 (4) 6 ©ØÖ® 7
5
The two consecutive integers, between which the fraction lies, are
7
(1) 0 and 1 (2) 5 and 7 (3) 5 and 6 (4) 6 and 7

15. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÖÒ Gx ]Ô¯ ¤ßÚ®?
4 5 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 6 2
Which of the following is the smallest fraction ?
4 5 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 6 2

16. •Ê GsPÒ G¢ua ö\¯À•øÓ°ß RÌ ‰h¨£mi¸US®?
(1) PÈzuÀ (2) ÁSzuÀ
(3) ö£¸UPÀ (4) CøÁ AøÚzv¾®
Whole numbers are closed under which operation ?
(1) Subtraction (2) Division
(3) Multiplication (4) All of these
TM/LABIHE/6/21 7–D

17. 37, 56, 93 BQ¯ GsPøÍ ÁS¨£uõÀ •øÓ÷¯ 1, 2 ©ØÖ® 3 GÚ
«v°øÚ AÎUPU Ti¯ ªP¨ ö£›¯ GsønU PshÔP.
(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 15 (4) 12

Find the greatest number that will divide 37, 56, 93 leaving remainder 1, 2 and 3
respectively.
(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 15 (4) 12
18. Cµsk GsPÎß «.ö£.Á. ©ØÖ® «.].©. ©v¨¦PÒ •øÓ÷¯
6 ©ØÖ® 864 BS®. AvÀ J¸ Gs 96 GÛÀ, ©ØöÓõ¸ GsønU
Psk¤iUPÄ®.
(1) 84 (2) 45 (3) 54 (4) 24
The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 6 and 864 respectively. If one number is 96,
find the other number.
(1) 84 (2) 45 (3) 54 (4) 24
19. Cµsk GsPÎß «.ö£.Á. 12 ©ØÖ® AÆöÁsPÎß ÷ÁÖ£õk 12.
¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÖÒ GøÁ AÆöÁsPÍõP C¸UP •i²®?
(1) 84, 96 (2) 66, 78 (3) 70, 82 (4) 62, 78

The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their difference is 12. Which of the following can
be the numbers ?

(1) 84, 96 (2) 66, 78 (3) 70, 82 (4) 62, 78
20. 9, 12 ©ØÖ® 15 BQ¯ JÆöÁõßÓõ¾® ÁS£hU Ti¯ ªPa ]Ô¯
GsønU PshÔP.
(1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 180
Find the smallest number that is divisible by each one of 9, 12 and 15.

(1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 180
21. J¸ SÔ¨¤mh ¤µõsm ÷\õ¨&£Ähº J¸ £õUöPm < 15 US
ÂØP¨£kQÓx. J¸ háÛß (£ßÛµsk) Âø» < 144. 8 háß
£õUöPmkPÎÀ C»õ£a \uÃu® GßÚ?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 24 (4) 36
A certain brand of soap-powder is sold at < 15 per packet. It costs < 144 a dozen.
What is the profit in percent on 8 dozen packets ?

(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 24 (4) 36

TM/LABIHE/6/21 8–D

22. x : y = 3 : 5 GÛÀ, 3x + 4y : 8x + 5y&Cß ÂQuzøuU PshÔP.

(1) 39 : 49 (2) 29 : 50

(3) 29 : 49 (4) 39 : 50

If x : y = 3 : 5, find the ratio 3x + 4y : 8x + 5y.

(1) 39 : 49 (2) 29 : 50

(3) 29 : 49 (4) 39 : 50
23. 10BsPÒ J¸ £o°øÚ 4 |õmPÎÀ ö\´¯ •i¢uõÀ, A÷u
÷Áø»°øÚ 5 |õmPÎÀ ö\´x •iUP GzuøÚ BsPÒ
÷uøÁ¨£kÁõºPÒ?
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 40 (4) 12

If 10 men can do a piece of work in 4 days, how many men will be required to get the
same work done in 5 days ?

(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 40 (4) 12

24. 21 BkPÍõÀ 15 ©õkPÎß AÍÂØSa \õ¨¤h •i²®. 35 ©õkPÎß
AÍÂØS GzuøÚ BkPÍõÀ \õ¨¤h •i²®?
(1) 38 (2) 49 (3) 37 (4) 41

21 goats eat as much as 15 cows. How many goats eat as much as 35 cows ?

(1) 38 (2) 49 (3) 37 (4) 41

25. 9 PõºPÒ ‰»® J¸ ö©UPõÛU < 36,000 \®£õvUQÓõº. J¸ ÷ÁøÍ
J¸ |õÐUS 27 PõºPÒ Á¢uõÀ, 1 |õÎÀ AÁº GÆÁÍÄ Á¸©õÚ®
DmkÁõº?
(1) < 1,08,000 (2) < 1,80,000

(3) < 1,00,800 (4) < 1,00,080

A mechanic earns < 36,000 on 9 cars. How much will he earn in 1 day, if in a day he
receives 27 cars ?
(1) < 1,08,000 (2) < 1,80,000

(3) < 1,00,800 (4) < 1,00,080

TM/LABIHE/6/21 9–D

26. J¸Áº J¸ J¼ö£¸UQ°øÚ < 7,500&US 20% »õ£® öPõsk®
©ØöÓõ¸ J¼ö£¸UQ°øÚ < 8,100&US 10% |èh® øÁzx®
ÂØ£øÚ ö\´QÓõº. AÁ›ß ö©õzu |èh® AÀ»x C»õ£zøuU
PshÔP.
(1) |èh® = < 300 (2) |èh® = < 350
(3) »õ£® = < 300 (4) »õ£® = < 350
A man sells one speaker for < 7,500 at a profit of 20% and another speaker for
< 8,100 at a loss of 10%. Find his total loss or profit.
(1) Loss = < 300 (2) Loss = < 350
(3) Profit = < 300 (4) Profit = < 350

27. 3, 18, m, 42 BQ¯øÁ ÂQu\©® GÛÀ m Cß ©v¨ø£U PshÔP
(1) 6 (2) 54
(3) 7 (4) 252
Find the value of m, if 3, 18, m, 42 are in proportion.
(1) 6 (2) 54
(3) 7 (4) 252

28. J¸ NCC •PõªÀ 1200 £°Ø]¯õͺPÒ £[÷PØQßÓÚº. AvÀ
900 £°Ø]¯õͺPÒ Si¯µ_ vÚ •PõªØSz
÷uº¢öukUP¨£mkÒÍÚº. ÷uº¢öukUP¨£mh ©ØÖ®
÷uº¢öukUP¨£hõu |£ºPÎß GsoUøPUQøh÷¯¯õÚ ÂQu®
GßÚ?
(1) 300 : 120 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 120 : 130
In an NCC Camp, 1200 trainees are participating out of which 900 are selected for
Republic Day Camp. What is the ratio between the number of selected and
non-selected cadets ?
(1) 300 : 120 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 120 : 130

29. J¸ ø£¯ß < 450 US J¸ ¦zuPzøu ÂØÓõÀ, AÁß 10% |èhzøu
AøhQÓõß. 10% C»õ£® ö£Ó, ÂØ£øÚ Âø» GßÚÁõP C¸UP
÷Ásk®?
(1) < 500 (2) < 600 (3) < 550 (4) < 525
If a boy sells a book for < 450, he makes a loss of 10%. To gain 10%, what should be
the selling price ?
(1) < 500 (2) < 600 (3) < 550 (4) < 525

TM/LABIHE/6/21 10 – D

30. J¸ SÊÂÀ EÒÍ 7 ©õnÁºPÒ ö£ØÓ ©v¨ö£sPÎß
\µõ\›¯õÚx 226. AvÀ BÖ ÷£º Gkzu ©v¨ö£sPÍõÚx
•øÓ÷¯ 340, 180, 260, 56, 275 ©ØÖ® 307 GÛÀ, HÇõÁx ©õnÁß
Gkzu ©v¨ö£sønU PshÔP.
(1) 160 (2) 162 (3) 163 (4) 164

The average marks obtained by 7 students in a group is 226. If the marks obtained by
six of them are 340, 180, 260, 56, 275 and 307 respectively, find the marks obtained
by the seventh student.
(1) 160 (2) 162 (3) 163 (4) 164

31. _¸USP (8 + 4 – 2)  (17 – 12)  10 – 89 = _________ .
(1) 3950 (2) 411 (3) 412 (4) 3949

Simplify (8 + 4 – 2)  (17 – 12)  10 – 89 = _________ .

(1) 3950 (2) 411 (3) 412 (4) 3949

32. _¸USP 0·05 + 1·5  5  10  0·5 = _________ .
(1) 4·25 (2) 42·5 (3) 0·425 (4) 0·42

Simplify 0·05 + 1·5  5  10  0·5 = _________ .

(1) 4·25 (2) 42·5 (3) 0·425 (4) 0·42

33. _¸USP 7 + 5 – 2  (7 + 89) – 94  2 + (33  3 + 9  2 – 7)  11 = _________ .
(1) 254 (2) – 225 (3) – 235 (4) 245

Simplify 7 + 5 – 2  (7 + 89) – 94  2 + (33  3 + 9  2 – 7)  11 = _________ .

(1) 254 (2) – 225 (3) – 235 (4) 245

34. J¸ ÁS¨£øÓ°À EÒÍ 20 ©õnÁºPÎß \µõ\› Gøh 160 Q÷»õ
©ØÖ® «u•ÒÍ 5 ©õnÁºPÎß Gøh 50 Q÷»õ, GÛÀ
ÁS¨£øÓ°À EÒÍ ö©õzu ©õnÁºPÎß \µõ\› Gøh°øÚU
PshÔP.
(1) 138 Q÷»õ (2) 183 Q÷»õ (3) 140 Q÷»õ (4) 150 Q÷»õ

The average weight of 20 boys in a class is 160 kg and that of the remaining 5 boys is
50 kg. Find the average weight of all the boys in the class.

(1) 138 kg (2) 183 kg (3) 140 kg (4) 150 kg

TM/LABIHE/6/21 11 – D

35. J¸ Gsoß I¢vÀ CµsiÀ, ‰ßÔÀ J¸ £[QÀ |õßQÀ J¸
£[PõÚx 15. AÆöÁsoß 40%&Cß ©v¨¦ GßÚ?
(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 180 (4) 200
One-fourth of one-third of two-fifth of a number is 15. What will be 40% of that
number ?
(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 180 (4) 200

36. Kº ¡»PzvØS bõ°ØÖU QÇø© AßÖ 510 £õºøÁ¯õͺPЮ ¤Ó
|õmPÎÀ 240 £õºøÁ¯õͺPЮ Á¸øP u¸QßÓÚº. bõ°ØÖU
QÇø©°øÚ ©õuz öuõhUP©õPÄ® 30 |õmPøͲ® Eøh¯ J¸
©õuzvÀ Á¸® \µõ\› £õºøÁ¯õͺPÒ GßÚÁõP C¸US®
(1) 280 (2) 285 (3) 290 (4) 295

A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors in a month of 30 days starting with Sunday is
(1) 280 (2) 285 (3) 290 (4) 295

37. J¸ ÷£mì÷©ß 17 Áx ÷£õmi°À 87 µßPÒ Gkzuõº, Cuß ‰»®
AÁµx \µõ\› 3 AvP›UQÓx. 17 Áx ÷£õmi°ß ¤ßÚº AÁµx
\µõ\›ø¯U PshÔP.
(1) 36 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39

A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th match and thus increases his average
by 3. Find his average after the 17th match.
(1) 36 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39

38. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 BQ¯ÁØÔß \µõ\›
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 7·5 (4) 8·5
Average of 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 is
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 7·5 (4) 8·5

39. y Cß x% BÚx 100 ©ØÖ® z Cß y% BÚx 200, GÛÀ x ©ØÖ® z
BQ¯ÁØÖUS Cøh÷¯¯õÚ öuõhº¤øÚU PshÔP.
(1) z=x (2) 2z = x
(3) z = 2x (4) z = 3x
If x% of y is 100 and y% of z is 200, then find the relation between x and z.
(1) z=x (2) 2z = x
(3) z = 2x (4) z = 3x
TM/LABIHE/6/21 12 – D

40. PiPõµzvß ÷|µ® CµÄ 7·15 BP C¸US® ÷£õx HØ£kzx®
÷Põnzvß ö£¯øµU SÔ¨¤kP.
(1) SÖ[÷Põn® (2) ö\[÷Põn®
(3) ›÷Põn® (4) ÷|ºU÷Põn®

Write the name of the angle formed when the clock time is 7·15 pm.
(1) Acute angle (2) Right angle
(3) Obtuse angle (4) Straight angle

41. 40 CÀ 15% ß©v¨¦ J¸ Gsoß 25% I Âh 2 Gs AvP©õP
C¸¢uõÀ, A¢u GsnõÚx
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20
If 15% of 40 is greater than 25% of a number by 2, then the number is
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20

42. J¸ ö\ÆÁP Âøͯõmk ø©uõÚzvß }Ízøua ö\.«. ©v¨¤À
PshԯĮ, Auß £µ¨£ÍÄ 700 \xµ «mhº ©ØÖ® AP»® 25 «.
(1) 28 (2) 280
(3) 2800 (4) 2500
Find the length of a rectangular playground in cm whose area is 700 sq.m and
breadth is 25 m.
(1) 28 (2) 280
(3) 2800 (4) 2500

43. Gί Ámi ÂQuzvÀ Ámi ÂQuzvß ©v¨ø£¨ ÷£õßÓ
Á¸h[PÐUS < 1,200 PhøÚ ŸÚõ Áõ[Q²ÒÍõº. AÁº < 432
Ámi¯õPU Phß Põ»zvß CÖv°À ö\¾zv°¸¢uõÀ, Ámi Ãu®
GßÚ?
(1) 3·6 (2) 6
(3) 18 (4) 10
Reena took a loan of < 1,200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of
interest. If she paid < 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate
of interest ?
(1) 3·6 (2) 6
(3) 18 (4) 10

TM/LABIHE/6/21 13 – D

44. Põø» ÷ÁøÍ öÁ¨£{ø»¯õÚx – 10C ©ØÖ® Cx ©õø» ÷|µzvÀ
3 iQ› AÍÂØSU SøÓ¢x Âmhx. GÛÀ ©õø» ÷|µ öÁ¨£{ø»
GßÚ?
(1) – 7C (2) – 23C (3) – 13C (4) – 12C
In the morning, the temperature was – 10C and it decreased 3 degrees by the
evening. What was the temperature in the evening ?
(1) – 7C (2) – 23C (3) – 13C (4) – 12C
45. J¸ ö\ÆÁPz ÷uõmhzvß }Í® 185 «. ©ØÖ® AP»® 220 «.
÷uõmhzvß ø©¯zvÀ Cµsk \õø»PÒ ^µõÚ 4 « AP»zvÀ,
JßÖ }ÍzvØS Cøn¯õPÄ® ©ØöÓõßÖ AP»zvØS
Cøn¯õPÄ® ÷£õh¨£mkÒÍx \õø»PøÍ J¸ \xµ «mh¸US
< 1·25 GßÓ ©v¨¤À ^º ö\´x \©ß£kzxÁuØPõÚ ö\»ÂøÚU
PshÔP
(1) < 3,900 (2) < 3,010 (3) < 4,010 (4) < 2,005
A rectangular garden is 185 m long and 220 m wide. It has two roads in its centre of
uniform width of 4 m, one parallel to its length and the other parallel to its breadth.
Find the cost of levelling the roads at < 1·25 per sq.m.
(1) < 3,900 (2) < 3,010 (3) < 4,010 (4) < 2,005
46. R÷Ç öPõkUP¨£mkÒÍ AmhÁøn Ph¢u BsiÀ {³¯õºU
|Pµzvß AvP£m\ öÁ¨£{ø»°øÚU PõmkQÓx. C¢u
AmhÁøn°À EÒÍ uPÁÀPøͨ £¯ß£kzv¨ ¤ßÁ¸®
÷PÒÂPÐUS¨ £v»ÎUPÄ® :
{³¯õºU |PµzvÀ Ph¢u Á¸h ÷©, áýø» ©ØÖ® ö\¨h®£º BQ¯
‰ßÖ ©õu[PÎß \µõ\› AvP£m\ (Cµsk u\©¨ ¦ÒÎPÒ)
öÁ¨£{ø» GßÚ?
©õu® áÚÁ› ©õºa ÷© áýø» ö\¨h®£º |Á®£º
AvP£m\
öÁ¨£{ø»,
ö\À]¯ì 3 9 21 29 24 11
AÍÂÀ
(1) 21·65C (2) 24·66C (3) 25·52C (4) 26·23C
The table below shows the maximum temperatures in New York City last year. Use
the information in this table and answer the following :
What was the average maximum temperature (upto 2 decimal places) of three months
May, July and September last year in New York City ?
Month Jan. Mar. May Jul. Sept. Nov.
Maximum
3 9 21 29 24 11
temperature, in C
(1) 21·65C (2) 24·66C (3) 25·52C (4) 26·23C
TM/LABIHE/6/21 14 – D

47. ÷µõ©ß GÊzxPÎÀ, J¸ SÔ±k v¸®£¨ £¯ß£kzu¨£mhõÀ,
Auß ©v¨¦ GÆÁÍÄ •øÓ Á¢uõ¾® ö£¸UP¨£h ©õmhõx.
(1) \› (2) uÁÖ
(3) ö\õÀ» •i¯õx (4) Cµsk® \©®

In Roman numeration, if a symbol is repeated, its value is not multiplied as many
times as it occurs.
(1) True (2) False
(3) Cannot say (4) Both are equal

48. J¸ AøµÁmhzvß ÂmhzuõÀ J¸ Ámhzvß G¢uöÁõ¸
¦Òΰ¾® HØ£kzu¨£k® ÷Põn©õÚx
(1) 45 (2) 180
(3) 90 (4) 60

The angle subtended by the diameter of a semicircle on any point on the circle is
(1) 45 (2) 180
(3) 90 (4) 60

49. J¸ ªP¨ ö£›¯ PÚa \xµzvß £UP[PÒ 44 ö\.«. AUPÚa
\xµzv¼¸¢x 4 ö\.«. öPõsh ]Ô¯ PÚa \xµ[PÒ öÁmi
GkUP¨£kQßÓÚ. GÛÀ SøÓ¢u£m\® J¸ PÚ\xµzuõÀ
`Ǩ£mh GzuøÚ ]Ô¯ PÚa \xµ[PøÍ E¸ÁõUP •i²®?
(1) 888 (2) 729
(3) 164 (4) 33

A big cube has each portion of 44 cm. Tiny cubes of 4 cm portion each are cut from
that. Then how many tiny cubes will be formed that are surrounded by at least one
cube ?
(1) 888 (2) 729
(3) 164 (4) 33

50. J¸ öh]«mhº Gߣx CuØSa \©®
(1) 1  10–1 m (2) 1  10–2 m
(3) 1  102 m (4) 1  103 m

One decimeter is equal to
(1) 1  10–1 m (2) 1  10–2 m
(3) 1  102 m (4) 1  103 m

TM/LABIHE/6/21 15 – D

¤›Ä B / SECTION B
ö£õx AÔÄ / GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
51. IUQ¯ |õkPÒ ö£õxa \ø£USz uø»ø© ÁQzu •uÀ C¢v¯º
¯õº?
(1) |mÁº ][ (2) V.K. Q¸èn ÷©Úß
(3) v¸©v. Âᯠ»m_ª £sim (4) v¸©v. C¢vµõ Põ¢v
Who was the first Indian to be the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(1) Natwar Singh (2) V.K. Krishna Menon
(3) Smt. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (4) Smt. Indira Gandhi
52. ©Ûu Eh¼ß ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u¨ £õPzvÀ ¯ºøÁ _µ¨¤PÒ
CÀø»?
(1) uø»°ß ÷©À ÷uõÀ (2) AUSÒ
(3) EukPÒ (4) EÒÍ[øPPÒ
In which of the following parts of the human body are sweat glands absent ?
(1) Scalp (2) Armpits
(3) Lips (4) Palms
53. P[Põ¸Âß CÍ[Smi°øÚ GßÚöÁßÖ AøÇUQ÷Óõ®?
(1) L÷£õÀ (2) ÷PõÀm
(3) ÷áõ´ (4) P¨
What do we call the young one of a Kangaroo ?
(1) Foal (2) Colt
(3) Joey (4) Cub
54. ÷©P[PÒ ö£¸®£õ¾® CuÚõÀ BÚøÁ
(1) £Û (2) y]
(3) }º vÁø»PÒ (4) £Û¨¦øP
Clouds are mostly made of
(1) snow (2) dust
(3) water droplets (4) smog
55. ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u¨ £øh¨¤ØS Áõì÷uÆ ÷©õî AÁºPÐUS 29 Áx
\µìÁv \®©ß ¸x ÁÇ[P¨£mhx?
(1) »õìm ]Àmµß Bº]Æ (2) ö\U¦U
(3) v ìm÷µg\º øhŸì (4) H \õ[ L£õº G {³ ÷h
For which of the following works has Vasdev Mohi been awarded the 29th Saraswati
Samman ?
(1) Lost Children Archive (2) Chequebook
(3) The Stranger Diaries (4) A Song for a New Day

TM/LABIHE/6/21 16 – D

56. C¢v¯õ G¢u {øÚÄa ]ßÚzv¼¸¢x uÚx ÷u]¯a ]ßÚzøu
HØÖU öPõskÒÍx?
(1) P¤»Áìx (2) íìvÚõ§º
(3) \õµ|õz (4) £õÛ£m
From which monument did India adopt its National Emblem ?
(1) Kapilavastu (2) Hastinapur
(3) Sarnath (4) Panipat

57. ¤ßÁ¸® G¢u |hÚzvß £õo°À G¨÷£õx® ©Põ£õµu® ©ØÖ®
µõ©õ¯nzv¼¸¢x Pøu / P¸zx¸ GkUP¨£k®?
(1) ÷©õQÛ¯õmh® (2) Jiê
(3) £µu|õmi¯® (4) Sa]¦i
In which of the following styles of dance is the story/theme always taken from
Mahabharata and Ramayana ?
(1) Mohiniattam (2) Odissi
(3) Bharatanatyam (4) Kuchipudi

58. |® ÷u]¯ |õmPõmiø¯ (\õPõ \Põ¨u®) Ai¨£øh¯õPU öPõsh
©õu[PøÍa \›¯õÚ Á›ø\°À Á›ø\¨£kzuÄ® — a&ø\zµõ
b&øÁåõPõ c&öá°ìuõ d&Båõuõ:
(1) abcd (2) bcda (3) dacb (4) cdab
Arrange the months based on our National Calendar (Saka Era) in correct serial
order — a-Chaitra b-Vaishakha c-Jyaishtha d-Aashada :
(1) abcd (2) bcda (3) dacb (4) cdab

59. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ Gx ÷£õº ©õÚ®?
(1) ÷uáõì (2) x¸Æ
(3) ÷£õ°[ C-17 S÷Íõ¨©õìhº (4) ÷\mhU
Which one of the following is a combat aircraft ?
(1) Tejas (2) Dhruv
(3) Boeing C-17 Globemaster (4) Chetak

60. ÁõPÚzvß ÷ÁPzvøÚ AÍÂh¨ £¯ß£k® \õuÚ® Gx?
(1) Uµõ÷Áõ«mhº (2) ÷ÁP©õÛ
(3) _ÇÀ÷ÁP©õÛ (4) Q÷»õ«mhº
Which device is used to measure the speed of vehicles ?
(1) Gravometer (2) Speedometer
(3) Gyroscope (4) Kilometer

TM/LABIHE/6/21 17 – D

61. ______________ |õÂøÚ ‰i, EnÂÀ EÒÍ µ\õ¯Ú[PÐhß
ÂøÚ¯õØÖQÓx.
(1) _øÁ ö©õmkPÒ (2) _¸USzuø\
(3) £À (4) ÷uõÀ
The ___________ cover the tongue and react to chemicals in food.
(1) Taste Buds (2) Sphincters
(3) Teeth (4) Skin
62. EnÄPøͨ £u¨£kzx® ÷£õx EøÓ£Û GßÚ ö\´QÓx?
(1) EnÂøÚ CÖUP©õP øÁUQÓx
(2) EnÂß _øÁ°øÚ¨ ¦zxnºÄhß øÁUQÓx
(3) ~sq°›PÎß Áͺa]ø¯
(4) ÷©ØPshøÁ GxĪÀø» {ÖzxQÓx
What does freezing do when preserving foods ?
(1) Keeps the food product hard
(2) Keeps the flavours of the food fresh
(3) Stops growth of micro-organisms
(4) None of the above
63. ¤ßÁ¸® G¢uU ÷Põ¨ø£ / iµõ¤ PõÀ£¢xhß öuõhº¦øh¯x?
(1) ÷hÂì ÷Põ¨ø£ (2) \õ®¤¯ßì iµõ¤
(3) \¢÷uõè iµõ¤ (4) v÷¯õuº iµõ¤
Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with football ?
(1) Davis Cup (2) Champions Trophy
(3) Santosh Trophy (4) Deodhar Trophy
64. GÖ®¦PÒ u[PÒ Sʼ¸US® GÖ®¦PøÍ GÆÁõÖ Aøh¯õÍ®
Psk öPõÒЮ?
(1) {Ózvß ‰»® (2) •Pzvß ‰»®
(3) ©nzvß ‰»® (4) E¯µzvß ‰»®
How do ants recognize ants from their group ?
(1) By colour (2) By face
(3) By smell (4) By height
65. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ £ÓøÁ Áͺ¨¦ £sønPÎÀ ÁͺUP¨£kÁx
Gx?
(1) öÁÒÍõk (2) ö\®©Ô¯õk
(3) ÷PõÈ (4) SvøµPÒ
Which of the following is domesticated in poultry farms ?
(1) Goat (2) Sheep
(3) Hen (4) Horses

TM/LABIHE/6/21 18 – D

66. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ Gx usp›À Pøµ¢xÂk®?
(1) ©s (2) _snõ®¦ yÒ
(3) \ºUPøµ (4) Gsön´
Which of the following will dissolve in water ?
(1) Soil (2) Chalk Powder
(3) Sugar (4) Oil
67. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ Gx öuõØÖ ÷|õ´?
(1) }›ÈÄ ÷|õ´ (2) A®ø© ÷|õ´
(3) AÀø\©º (4) ¦ØÖ÷|õ´
Which of the following is a communicable disease ?
(1) Diabetes (2) Chicken pox
(3) Alzheimer’s (4) Cancer
68. ©ø» HÖ® ÷£õx, |õ® ö\´¯ ÷Ási¯x
(1) •ß÷ÚõUQ Áøͯ ÷Ásk®
(2) ¤ß÷ÚõUQ Áøͯ ÷Ásk®
(3) ÷|µõP |hUP ÷Ásk®
(4) £UPÁõmiÀ |hUP ÷Ásk®
To climb the mountains, we have to
(1) Bend forward
(2) Bend backwards
(3) Walk straight
(4) Walk sideways
69. •¸[øPUPõ´ ©ØÖ® ÷©¨¤Ò ÂøuPÒ PõØÔÚõÀ }sh
yµzvØSU öPõsk ö\À»¨£kÁuØSU Põµn® AÁØÔß
(1) ]ÓSPÒ öPõsh ÂøuPÒ
(2) ö£›¯ ©ØÖ® •i°øÇPÒ {øÓ¢u ÂøuPÒ
(3) }sh ©ØÖ® ÷©hõÚ £Ç[PÒ
(4) _ÇÀ ÂøuPÒ
Seeds of drumstick and maple are carried over long distances by wind because they
possess
(1) winged seeds.
(2) large and hairy seeds.
(3) long and ridged fruits.
(4) spiny seeds.
70. _____ Gߣx µõáìuõÛß £õµ®£›¯ ©øÇ}º ÷\P›¨¦ ~m£©õS®.
(1) hõ[Põ (2) Põvß (3) £õÁi (4) SAß
__________ is a traditional rainwater harvesting technique of Rajasthan.
(1) Taanka (2) Khadin (3) Bavadi (4) Kuan

TM/LABIHE/6/21 19 – D

71. µ\SÀ»õ ___________ Cß ¤µ£»©õÚ CÛ¨¦.
(1) ÷©ØS Á[P® (2) £g\õ¨
(3) ÷PµÍõ (4) C©õa\» ¤µ÷u\®
Rasgulla is a popular sweet of ___________ .
(1) West Bengal (2) Punjab
(3) Kerala (4) Himachal Pradesh
72. ¤ßÁ¸ÁÚÁØÔÀ C¢v¯õÂß £Ç[Si \‰P® Gx?
(1) £siuºPÒ (2) áõm
(3) ¤À (4) £g\õ¤
Which of the following is a tribal community of India ?
(1) Pandits (2) Jaat
(3) Bhil (4) Punjabi
73. 18 B® ¡ØÓõsiÀ µõáìuõÛß µõä¦z ©ßÚº \Áõ´ öá´ ][
GߣÁµõÀ Pmh¨£mh ÁõÛ¯À Tº÷|õUS {ø»¯zvß ö£¯º
GßÚ
(1) ö\[÷Põmøh (2) Sx¨ªÚõº
(3) á¢uº ©¢uº (4) uõä ©íõÀ
Name an astronomical observatory built in the 18th century by Rajput King Sawai Jai
Singh of Rajasthan.
(1) Red Fort (2) Qutub Minar
(3) Jantar Mantar (4) Taj Mahal
74. _____________ EÒ £õøÓPÒ, uõxUPÒ ÷£õßÓÁØøÓ EÒÍhUQ¯x.
(1) ÁÎ ©sh»® (2) E°›U÷PõÍ®
(3) AøµU÷PõÍ® (4) ¦ÂU÷PõÍ®
_____________ includes internal rocks, minerals, etc.
(1) Atmosphere (2) Biosphere
(3) Hemisphere (4) Geosphere
75. £» »m\UPnUPõÚ BskPÐUS •ß¦ ¦øuUP¨£mh uõÁµ[PÒ
©ØÖ® »[SPÎß Ga\[PÒ CÆÁõÖ AÔ¯¨£kQßÓÚ
(1) \õzv¯©õÚ C¸¨¦PÒ (2) ¦øu£iÁ G›ö£õ¸ÒPÒ
(3) E°º G›ö£õ¸Ò (4) E°¹mk BØÓÀ
The remains of plants and animals that were buried millions of years ago are known
as
(1) potential reserves (2) fossil fuels
(3) biomass fuel (4) animate power

TM/LABIHE/6/21 20 – D

¤›Ä C / SECTION C
ö©õȨ£õh® / LANGUAGE
(uªÌ ö©õÈ°øÚz ÷uº¢öukzuÁºPÐUS ©mk®)
RÌPsh £Svø¯ £izx ÂÚõUPÒ 76 to 80 Âøh u¸P.
J¸ Ahº¢u PõmiÀ J¸ E¯µ©õÚ, £µ¢x ›¢u ©µ® C¸¢ux AvÀ
£À÷ÁÖ £ÓøÁPÒ TkPmi ÁõÌ¢uÚ. A¨£ÓøÁ TmhzvÀ J¸ Á¯uõÚ
AÔÁõΨ £ÓøÁ C¸¢ux. Ax ©µzvß Ai°À J¸ ]Ö öPõi ÁͺÁøu
£õºzx ©ØÓ £ÓøÁPÎh® |õ® C¨÷£õ÷u Cøu ¤k[Q Âk÷Áõ®,
CÀø»ø¯ÛÀ Ax ö£›uõP Áͺ¢u ¤ß Auß«x HÔ ÷ÁmøhUPõµºPÒ Á¢x
|®ø© ¤izx öPõßÖ ÂkÁõºPÒ GÚU TÔ¯x. BÚõÀ, ©ØÓ £ÓøÁPÒ Cøu
ö£›uõP GkzxP öPõÒÍÂÀø». ]» Põ»® ö\ßÓx A¢u ]Ô¯öPõi Áͺ¢x
©µEa] Áøµ Á¢xÂmhx. A[Q¸¢u ÷ÁmøhUPõµß, öPõi ÁͺÁøu²®
©µzvÀ £ÓøÁPÒ TkPmi ÁõÌÁøuÄ® PÁÛzxU öPõs÷h C¸¢uõß. J¸
|õÒ uUP \©¯® £õºzx £ÓøÁPøÍ ¤iUP, öPõiø¯ ¤izx ©µzvÀ HÔ Áø»
›zuõß. CuøÚ AÔ¯õu £ÓøÁPÒ Áø»°À ]UQU öPõskU uÂzuÚ.
AÔÁõίõÚ ‰zu £ÓøÁ ö\õßÚøu ÷PmPõuvØPõP Á¸¢vÚ. AÔÁõÎ
£ÓøÁ ©ØÓ £ÓøÁPÎß AÁ»U Sµø»U ÷Pmk J¸ ÷¯õ\øÚø¯ TÔ¯x
÷Áhß |õøÍ Põø» |®ø© ¤iUP Á¸Áõß AÁß CÓ¢u £ÓøÁPøÍ
¸®£©õmhõß GÚ÷Á, |õ® AÁß Á¸® ÷£õx CÓ¢uøu ÷£õÀ |i¨÷£õ®.
AÁß |õ® CÓ¢x Âm÷hõ® GÚ Gso R÷Ç GÔ¢x ÂkÁõß. Pøh] £ÓøÁ
R÷Ç ÂÊ¢ux® |õ® AøÚÁ¸® £Ó¢xÂk÷Áõ® GßÓx ©ØÓ £ÓøÁPß
CuøÒ HØÖ A¨£i÷¯ ö\´uÚ. Pøh] £ÓøÁø¯ ÷Áhß R÷Ç GÔ¢ux®
AøÚzx £ÓøÁPЮ ¸möhÚ £Ó¢x u¨¤a ö\ßÓÚ.

76. ÷ÁmøhUPõµß Áø»°À C¸¢u £ÓøÁPøÍ Hß R÷Ç GÔ¢uõß ?
(1) AøÁ CÓ¢x ÂmhÚ GÚ {øÚzx
(2) AÁØÓõÀ £¯ÛÀø» GÚ {øÚzx
(3) AøÁ ©¯UPzvÀ EÒÍuõP {øÚzx
(4) AøÁ u®ø© uõUQ Âk÷©õ GÚ £¯¢x

77. ©µzvß Ai°À Áͺ¢u öPõiø¯ ¤izx ©µzvÀ Áø»ø¯ ›zux ¯õº ?
(1) ÷ÁmøhUPõµß (2) ÷PõmøhUPõµß
(3) ÷Áø»UPõµß (4) Põmk ©Ûuß

78. Á¯vÀ ‰zu¨ £ÓøÁ GzuøP¯x ?
(1) ÷\õ®÷£Ô (2) AÔÁõÎ
(3) ÷£õµõÎ (4) H©õÎ

TM/LABIHE/6/21 21 – D

79. ÷ÁmøhUPõµß, Guß ÁȯõP ©µzvß Ea]US ö\ßÖ Áø» ›zuõß
(1) ©µzvß QøÍPøͨ ¤izx
(2) ©µzvß Ai°À Áͺ¢u öPõi°øÚ¨ ¤izx
(3) ©µzvÀ J¸ P°ØÔøÚ Pmi
(4) ©µzvß Ai°¼¸¢x uõÂa ö\ßÖ
80. Áø»°À ]UQ¯ £ÓøÁPÎß AÁ»USµø» ÷Pmh AÔÁõΨ £ÓøÁ
GßÚ TÔ¯x ?
(1) £øÓÁPøÍ CÓ¢ux ÷£õÀ |iUPa ö\õßÚx
(2) £ÓøÁPÒ AøÚzøu²® Áø»²hß £ÓUPa ö\õßÚx
(3) £ÓøÁPøÍ ¤iUP Á¸® ÷ÁmøhUPõµøÚ uõUPa ö\õßÚx
(4) £ÓøÁPÒ AøÚzx® ÷ÁhÛh® C¸¢x u¨£•i¯õx GÚU TÔ¯x
¤ßÁ¸® ö\õØöÓõhºPøÍ ö£õ¸Ò £k®£i Ch® ©õØÔ Aø©UPÄ®.
81. £µõ©›zuõÀ / _ØÖ `Çø» y´ø©¯õP / uºUP»õ® / öuõØÖ ÷|õ´PøÍz
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) BADC (2) DCAB (3) ABCD (4) DBAC
82. 10.00 ©oUS / ö\À» EÒ÷Íß / |õß CßÖ Põø» / Á[QUS
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) CDBA (2) CADB (3) BCDA (4) DBAC
83. Hx® / Dk Cøn / CÀø» / PiÚ EøǨ¤ØS
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) DBAC (2) BDCA (3) CBAD (4) DCAB
84. C[S _____________ ©øÇ ö£´QÓx.
(1) ÷|ØÔ¼¸¢x (2) |õøÍUS
(3) ÷|ØÖhß (4) |õøÍ°¼¸¢x
85. Aøh¨¦USÔ°À TÔ²ÒÍx ÷£õÀ ö\´P.
AÁÒ GßÝøh¯ _______________ u[øP.
(\›¯õÚ £s¦¨ ö£¯øµ £¯ß£kzxP)
(1) E¯º¢u (2) AvP (3) CøÚ¯ (4) {øÓ¯
86. ÷Põimh Chzøu {µ¨¦P.
P¸®¤À C¸¢x öÁÀ»® ____________ PõQu® u¯õ›UP¨£kQÓx.
(1) ©mk® (2) ÷©¾® (3) AÀ»x (4) ©ØÖ®
87. BÌ¢x _________________ AvP ©v¨ö£s GkUP»õ®.
(1) £izuuõÀ (2) £izuõÀ (3) £izuvÚõÀ (4) £izuvÀ
88. CÛ¨¦ _øÁ _________________ ªPÄ® ¤iUS®.
(1) AÁÎh® (2) AÁÒ (3) AÁÐUS (4) AÁÐhß
TM/LABIHE/6/21 22 – D

89. ‘‘BÚ¢u®’’ GÚ¨ ö£õ¸Ò£k® ö\õÀ Gx ?
(1) ¸¨£® (2) ÷\õP® (3) Á¸zu® (4) ©QÌa]
90. Pkø©¯õP EøǨ£Áøµ G[ÁõÖ AøÇUQ÷Óõ® ?
(1) ÷£õµõÎ (2) £õmhõÎ (3) ¯õ£õ› (4) §\õ›
91. ©õÚ ÷£õUSÁµzx CßÖ {Ózu¨£mhx ______________ £Û¨ö£õÈÄ
AvP©õP C¸¢ux.
(1) HöÚÛÀ (2) BøP¯õÀ (3) GuØS (4) G¨£i

92. ________________ }Í® uõsku¼À •uÀ £›_¨ ö£ØÓÁº.
(1) AÁº (2) AÁºPÒ (3) Ax (4) AøÁPÒ
93. AÁº ©¸zxÁ® ________________
(1) £izuuõ ? (2) £izu÷uõ ?
(3) £izuÁµõ ? (4) £izuÁºPÍõ ?
94. »[SPÒ \µnõ»¯zvÀ ______________ »[SPÒ EÒÍÚ.
(\›¯õÚ J¸ø© / £ßø© £¯ß£kzxP)
(1) ]» (2) J¸ (3) ]Ø]» (4) £»

95. ÷|ØÖ ©õø» ©øÇ _____________ . (\›¯õÚ ÂøÚa ö\õÀø» £¯ß£kzxP)
(1) ö£´ux (2) ö£´²®
(3) ö£´QÓx (4) CvÀ HxªÀø»

96. ªP¨ ö£õ¸zu©õÚ Âøhø¯ ÷uº¢öuk ‘‘ªuªg]¯’’ GßÓ ö£õ¸Ò£k®
ö\õÀ.
(1) SøÓÁõÚ (2) ÷£õx©õÚ
(3) AÍÁõÚ (4) ªPÄ® AvP©õÚ

97. ‘‘PiÚ©õÚ’’ GßÓ ö\õÀ¼ß Gvºaö\õÀ Gx ?
(1) {øÓÁõÚ (2) GÎuõÚ (3) E¯ºÁõÚ (4) ªøP¯õÚ
98. £À÷ÁÖ Â»[SPøͨ £µõ©›US® Ch® Gx ?
(1) A¸[Põm]¯P® (2) \µnõ»¯®
(3) |¢uÁÚ® (4) §[PõÁÚ®

99. ‘‘PnÁß’’ Gߣuß ö£s£õÀ Gx ?
(1) Azøu (2) u[øP (3) AUPõ (4) ©øÚÂ
100. ‘‘ªøP¯õÚ’’ Gߣuß Gvºaö\õÀ Gx ?
(1) SøÓÁõÚ (2) uõÌÁõÚ (3) GÎuõÚ (4) E¯ºÁõÚ
TM/LABIHE/6/21 23 – D

¤›Ä D / SECTION D
~snÔÄzvÓß / INTELLIGENCE
101. C¢uz öuõhøµU Põq[PÒ : 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ...

Akzx Áµ ÷Ási¯ Gs Gx?
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/8 (3) 2/8 (4) 1/16
Look at this series : 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ...
What number should come next ?
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/8 (3) 2/8 (4) 1/16

102. J÷µ öuõhºø£U öPõsh \›¯õÚ ©õØÖ £vø»z ÷uºÄ ö\´P.
SCD, TEF, UGH, _________, WKL
(1) CMN (2) UJI (3) VIJ (4) IJT
Choose the correct alternative that has the same relation.
SCD, TEF, UGH, _________, WKL
(1) CMN (2) UJI (3) VIJ (4) IJT

103. ‘WAY’ Gߣx 679 BPÄ®, ‘MAY’ Gߣx 579 BPÄ® SÔ¯õUP®
ö\´¯¨£mhõÀ, ‘YAW’ Gߣx GßÚÁõPU SÔ¯õUP® ö\´¯¨£k®
(1) 976 (2) 769 (3) 679 (4) 579
If ‘WAY’ is coded as 679, ‘MAY’ is coded as 579, then ‘YAW’ will be coded as
(1) 976 (2) 769 (3) 679 (4) 579

104. 45 ©õnÁºPøÍU öPõsh ÁS¨¤À, öuõhUP ©v¨¤¼¸¢x
A«›ß uµÁ›ø\ 16 Áx ChzvÀ EÒÍx. A÷\õU A«¸US
6 Ch[PÒ R÷Ç EÒÍõº. A÷\õUQß uµÁ›ø\ Rȸ¢x G¢u
ChzvÀ C¸US®?
(1) 23 Áx (2) 32 Áx (3) 24 Áx (4) 30 Áx
In a class of 45 students, Amir’s rank from the top is 16th. Ashok is 6 ranks below
Amir. What is Ashok’s rank from the bottom ?
(1) 23rd (2) 32nd (3) 24th (4) 30th

105. öPõkUP¨£mhGÊzx öuõh›ß CøhöÁÎPÎÀ öuõhºa]¯õP
øÁUP¨£k® G¢u J¸ GÊzx öuõhº AuøÚ¨ §ºzv ö\´²®?
_ ab _ b _ aba _ _ abab.
(1) abbaa (2) bbaab (3) abaab (4) aaaba
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series
shall complete it ?
_ ab _ b _ aba _ _ abab.
(1) abbaa (2) bbaab (3) abaab (4) aaaba

TM/LABIHE/6/21 24 – D

106. \›¨£kzx : øu¯À :: v¸zx : _________
(1) ö\¨£Ûk (2) £Êx£õº
(3) øPö¯Êzx (4) ©õØÔa ö\´
mend : sewing : : edit : _________
(1) darn (2) repair
(3) manuscript (4) makeshift

107. ÷Põimh Ch[PøÍ {µ¨¦P.

PiÁõÍ® : Svøµ :: Pmk¨£õmk SÊ : _________
(1) ©õÚ Kmk|º (2) PiÁõÍ®
(3) \©uÍ® (4) Kmk|º
Fill in the blank.
rein : horse : : control panel : _________
(1) pilot (2) bit
(3) plane (4) rider

108. SÊÂÀ EÒÍ ö\õØPÎÀ ö£õ¸zu® SøÓÁõP EÒÍ
Áõºzøuø¯z ÷uºÄ ö\´P.
(1) MS ö£°sm (2) L÷£ì¦U
(3) Áõméõ¨ (4) iÂmhº
Choose the word which is least like the words in the group.
(1) MS Paint (2) Facebook
(3) WhatsApp (4) Twitter

109. ‘+’GßÓõÀ ""PÈzuÀ'', ‘–’ GßÓõÀ ""ö£¸UPÀ'', ‘’ GßÓõÀ
""TmhÀ'' GßÓõÀ, ¤ßÁ¸Áuß ©v¨¦ GßÚ
10  5 + 3 – 2 ?
(1) 24 (2) 52 (3) 9 (4) 10
If ‘+’ means ‘‘Minus’’, ‘–’ means ‘‘Multiply’’, ‘’ means ‘‘Add’’, then what is the value of
10  5 + 3 – 2 ?
(1) 24 (2) 52 (3) 9 (4) 10

TM/LABIHE/6/21 25 – D

110.

ö£õ¸zu©õÚ ©õØÖ £vø»z ÷uº¢öuk¨£uß ‰»® CµshõÁx
÷áõiø¯¨ §ºzv ö\´¯Ä®.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Complete the second pair by selecting the appropriate alternative.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

111. J¸ ©Ûuß 6 Q.«. öuØ÷P |h¢x, Chx¦Ó® v¸®¤ 4 Q.«. yµ®

|h¢x, «sk® Chx £UP® v¸®¤ 5 Q.«. |hUQÓõº. AÁº
C¨÷£õx G¢uz vø\°À ö\ÀQÓõº?
(1) öuØS (2) ÁhUS (3) QÇUS (4) ÷©ØS
A man walks 6 km south, turns left and walks 4 km, again turns left and walks 5 km.
Which direction is he facing now ?
(1) South (2) North (3) East (4) West

112. AiU÷Põimh Áõºzøu°ß AÁ]¯©õÚ £Sv¯õP EÒÍ
Áõºzøuø¯z ÷uºÄö\´P.
Qmhõº
(1) Cø\USÊ (2) B]›¯º (3) £õhÀPÒ (4) \µ[PÒ
Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.
Guitar
(1) Band (2) Teacher (3) Songs (4) Strings
TM/LABIHE/6/21 26 – D

113. G¢u GÊzx ÷PÒÂUSÔ EÒÍ ChzvÀ ÁµU Tk®?

(1) N (2) O

(3) P (4) M

Which letter replaces the question mark ?

(1) N (2) O

(3) P (4) M

114. B»¯a ÷\ÁPº £Uu›h®, ‘‘45 {ªh CøhöÁΰÀ ©o
J¼UQÓx. Pøh]¯õP ©o 5 {ªh[PÐUS •ß¦ J¼zux.
Akzu ©o Põø» 7:45 ©oUS J¼UP EÒÍx.’’ GÚU TÔÚõº
GÛÀ G¢u ÷|µzvÀ AÁº uPÁø»¨ £Uu¸US ÁÇ[QÚõº?
(1) Põø» 6:55 ©o (2) Põø» 7:00 ©o

(3) Põø» 7:05 ©o (4) Põø» 7:40 ©o

The priest told the devotee, ‘‘The bell rings at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The
last bell rang 5 minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7:45 am.’’ At what time
did the priest give this information to the devotee ?

(1) 6:55 am (2) 7:00 am

(3) 7:05 am (4) 7:40 am

TM/LABIHE/6/21 27 – D

115. R÷Ç öPõkUP¨£mkÒÍ £hzvÀ GzuøÚ •U÷Põn[PÒ EÒÍÚ?

(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 10

How many triangles are there in the figure given below ?

(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 10

116. J¸ SÔ¯õUP ö©õÈ°À, ‘BOMBAY’ "Gߣx ‘CNNABX’ GÚU
SÔ°h¨£mkÒÍx, GÛÀ ‘DELHI’ Gߣx GßÚÁõPU SÔ¯õUP®
ö\´¯¨£mi¸US®?
(1) EDMJG (2) GMDEJ
(3) DEGMJ (4) EDMGJ

In a code, ‘BOMBAY’ is coded as ‘CNNABX’, then what will be the code of ‘DELHI’ ?
(1) EDMJG (2) GMDEJ
(3) DEGMJ (4) EDMGJ

117. ÷Põimh Ch[PøÍ {µ¨¦P.

¤›zuÀ : JßÔønzuÀ :: £Êx : _________
(1) AqSuÀ (2) uÒÐ

(3) £õv¨¦ (4) ^µõUS

Fill in the blank.

segregate : unify : : repair : _________
(1) approach (2) push

(3) damage (4) outwit

TM/LABIHE/6/21 28 – D

118. µõSÀ ÷|µõPU QÇUS ÷|õUQ |hUP Bµ®¤zuõº. AÁº J¸
SÔ¨¤mh yµ® |h¢x ¤ßÚº uÚx Á»x £UP® v¸®¤ «sk®
|hUQÓõº. AÁº C¨÷£õx G¢uz vø\°À ö\ÀQÓõº?
(1) ÁhUS (2) QÇUS (3) öuØS (4) ÷©ØS

Rahul started walking straight towards East. He walks a certain distance and then
turns towards his right and walks again. In which direction is he heading now ?
(1) North (2) East (3) South (4) West

119. öPõkUP¨£mh ¸¨£[Pμ¸¢x, ö£õ¸¢uõu JßøÓz ÷uºÄ
ö\´P.
(1) £[PÍõ÷uè : hõUPõ (2) ¤÷µ]À : ›¯À
(3) ø\¨µì : hõ»º (4) Dµõß : ›¯õÀ
From the given options, choose the odd one out.
(1) Bangladesh : Taka (2) Brazil : Real
(3) Cyprus : Dollar (4) Iran : Rial

120. uõ߯õ GߣÁº G›U GߣÁøµ Âh Á¯uõÚÁº.
QÎL¨ GߣÁº uõ߯õøÁ Âh Á¯uõÚÁº.
G›U GߣÁº QÎL¨ø£ Âh Á¯uõÚÁº.
•uÀ Cµsk TØÖPÒ Esø©¯õP C¸¢uõÀ, ‰ßÓõÁx TØÓõÚx
(1) \› (2) uÁÖ
(3) {a\¯©ØÓx (4) CÁØÔÀ HxªÀø»
Tanya is older than Eric.
Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(1) True (2) False
(3) Uncertain (4) None of these

121. öPõkUP¨£mh öuõh›À Akzux GßÚ?
A, C, F, H, K, M, .......
(1) N (2) Y (3) P (4) M
What comes next in the given series ?
A, C, F, H, K, M, .......
(1) N (2) Y (3) P (4) M

TM/LABIHE/6/21 29 – D

122. B Cß \÷Põu› A. B Cß uõ´ C. C Cß u¢øu D. E Gߣx D Cß uõ´. D
Ehß A °ß EÓÄ•øÓ GßÚ?
(1) uõzuõ (2) £õmi
(3) ©PÒ (4) ÷£zv
A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related
to D ?
(1) Grandfather (2) Grandmother
(3) Daughter (4) Grand-daughter

123. J¸SÔ¨¤mh SÔ±mk ö©õÈ°À, COMPUTER Gߣx RFUVQNPC
GÚ GÊu¨£mkÒÍx. AUSÔ±mk ö©õÈ°À MEDICINE Gߣx
GÆÁõÖ GÊu¨£k®?
(1) MFEDJJOE (2) EOJDEJFM
(3) MFEJDJOE (4) EOJDJEFM
In a certain code language, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will
MEDICINE be written in that code language ?
(1) MFEDJJOE (2) EOJDEJFM
(3) MFEJDJOE (4) EOJDJEFM

124. öußQÇUS ÁhUPõPÄ®, ÁhQÇUS ÷©ØPõPÄ® ©õÔÚõÀ, ÷©ØS
GßÚÁõS®?
(1) ÁhQÇUS (2) Áh÷©ØS
(3) öußQÇUS (4) öuß÷©ØS
If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West
become ?
(1) North-East (2) North-West
(3) South-East (4) South-West

125. ÷PÒÂUSÔ°h¨£mh ChzvÀ GßÚ Á¸®?
10, 100, 200, 310, ?
(1) 420 (2) 410 (3) 430 (4) 400
What will come at the place of the question mark ?
10, 100, 200, 310, ?
(1) 420 (2) 410 (3) 430 (4) 400

TM/LABIHE/6/21 30 – D

µL¨ öÁõºU ö\´²® Ch®
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

TM/LABIHE/6/21 31 – D

µL¨ öÁõºU ö\´²® Ch®
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

TM/LABIHE/6/21 32 – D