Karnataka SSLC Question Paper April 2019 Political Science English Medium – Text
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Page 1
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Total No. of Questions : 47 ]
CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
CCE RR
REVISED & UNREVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 97-E Code No. : 97-E
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Subject : POLITICAL SCIENCE
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TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER
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¶´¤MO⁄ : 02. 04. 2019 ] [ Date : 02. 04. 2019
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Æ⁄¡⁄»⁄·¤»⁄© @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions to the Candidate :
1. This Question Paper consists of 47 objective and subjective types of
questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to
cut on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement
of the examination. Check whether all the pages of the question
paper are intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question
paper.
Tear here
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I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /
incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate.
Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with
its letter of alphabet. 10 × 1 = 10
1. The Reform Act that was brought into force in the year 1909, is
(A) Marley-Minto
(B) Montague-Chelmsford
(C) Government of India Act
(D) Regulating Act.
2. The Preamble of our Constitution is described as
(A) soul of the constitution
(B) jewel of the constitution
(C) horoscope of the constitution
(D) engine of the constitution.
3. Article 19 has been the life line of the people, because it
(A) prohibits discrimination
(B) guaranties equality
(C) contains 6 freedoms
(D) abolishes untouchability.
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4. State emergency is declared when a state government
(A) introduces new laws
(B) rejects changes in concurrent list
(C) refuses to conduct elections for the President
(D) fails to act constitutionally.
5. No-confidence motion is very important because it
(A) prevents decline of democracy
(B) is a powerful tool to opposition party
(C) can be used to remove government official
(D) projects the rights of people.
6. The headquarters of Supreme Court is in
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Mumbai (D) Chennai.
7. The Article 171 of the constitution is related to
(A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha
(C) Vidhan Parishad (D) Vidhan Sabha.
8. The chief justice of the High Court should take an oath of office
by the
(A) Prime Minister (B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister (D) President.
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9. The primary unit of rural self rule is
(A) Gram Panchayat (B) Zilla Panchayat
(C) Gram Sabha (D) Taluk Panchayat.
10. State Public Service Commission is under the control of the state
cabinet because
(A) Chairman and members are appointed on its advice
(B) it appoints the Chairman and members
(C) salary and other allowances are paid by it
(D) the members are former employees of state government.
II. 11. Match list ‘A’ with list ‘B’ and write it : 5×1=5
A B
a) India i) Diet
b) America ii) Tsegdu
c) Bangladesh iii) Parliament
d) Japan iv) Congress
e) Nepal v) Jatiyo Shangsad
vi) National Panchayat
vii) National Assembly
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III. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 15 × 1 = 15
12. The 1858 declaration by Queen Victoria is described as the ‘Magna
Carta of India’. Why ?
13. Why does the country provide fundamental rights to its citizen
through constitution ?
14. When does India become a heaven on the earth according to
M. C. Chawla ?
15. From which country’s constitution are the directive principles of
state policy borrowed ?
16. Rajya Sabha has very less powers on financial matters compared
to Lok Sabha. Why ?
17. How does the Supreme Court safeguard our constitution ?
18. Article 32 has been considered as a judicial tool of social
transformation. Why ?
19. Who administers the oath of office to the judges of the Supreme
Court ?
20. How are the judges of the High Court appointed ?
21. When was the Consumer Protection Act passed ?
22. Why did Nehru introduce community development programme ?
23. Name the masterpiece of Kautilya.
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24. Where is the headquarters of the Karnataka Public Service
Commission located ?
25. How are the members of State Public Service Commission removed
from the power ?
26. What is the significance of Article, 315 of our constitution ?
IV. Answer the following questions in about two to four sentences each :
14 × 2 = 28
27. India has federal government with unitary spirit. How ?
28. India has common policy towards all religions based on equality.
Justify.
29. How can the social justice and political justice be provided ?
30. Why is the Right to Information Act passed ?
31. How does Habeas Corpus protect liberty of people ?
32. Mention any two Gandhian principles.
33. What are the programmes implemented to achieve social and
economic progress based on Directive Principles of State Policy ?
34. Mention the military powers of the President.
35. The Supreme Court is court of records. Why ?
36. What are the qualifications required to become judges of the
Supreme Court ?
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37. State Council of Ministers are controlled by the Chief Minister of
the State. Justify.
38. List out the executive powers of Vidhan Parishad.
39. Explain the electoral powers of Vidhan Sabha.
40. Explain the functions of the Union Public Service Commission.
V. Answer the following questions in about three to six sentences each :
6 × 3 = 18
41. What are the important provisions of Government of India Act
of 1935 ?
42. Explain the differences between Directive Principles of State Policy
and Fundamental Rights.
43. List out the powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
44. What are the functions performed by the State Council of
Ministers ?
45. Name the important Revenue Courts.
46. Mention any six functions of Gram Panchayat.
VI. Answer the following question in about eight to ten sentences : 1×4=4
47. Explain the functions and powers of the Lok Sabha Speaker.
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