Kerala 3 Year LLB 2022 Question Paper with Answers

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Exam: THREE YEAR LLB 2022
Date of Test: 25-09-2022

Question1:-Read the following passage and answer the question

I can never forget that interview. He greeted me as a friend. He laughed away my pessimism. 'Do you think,' he said, 'that everyone must be a Pherozeshah Mehta?
Pherozeshahs and Badruddins are rare. Rest assured it takes no unusual skill to be an ordinary lawyer. Common honesty and industry are enough to enable him to
make a living. All cases are not complicated. Well, let me know the extent of your general reading.' When I acquainted him with my little stock of reading, he was, as I
could see, rather disappointed. But it was only for a moment. Soon his face beamed with a pleasing smile and he said, 'I understand your trouble. Your general reading is
meagre. You have no knowledge of the world, a sine qua non for a vakil. You have not even read the history of India. A vakil should know human nature. He should be
able to read a man's character from his face. And every Indian ought to know Indian history. This has no connection with the practice of law, but you ought to have that
knowledge. I see that you have not even read Kaye's and Malleson's history of the Mutiny of 1857. Get hold of that at once and also read two more books to understand
human nature.' These were Lavator's and Shemmelpennick's books on physiognomy. I was extremely grateful to this venerable friend. In his presence I found all my fear
gone, but as soon as I left him I began to worry again. 'To know a man from his face' was the question that haunted me, as I thought of the two books on my way home.
The next day I purchased Lavator's book. Shemmelpennick's was not available at the shop. I read Lavator's book and found it more difficult than Snell's Equity, and
scarcely interesting. I studied Shakespeare's physiognomy, but did not acquire the knack of finding out the Shakespeares walking up and down the streets of London.

According to the passage, what is the essential condition to become a successful lawyer?
A:-Having the knowledge in History
B:-Having the knowledge of the world
C:-To read Lavato’s book
D:-To read Kaye’s and Malleson’s history of the Mutiny of 1857
Question2:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

I can never forget that interview. He greeted me as a friend. He laughed away my pessimism. 'Do you think,' he said, 'that everyone must be a Pherozeshah Mehta?
Pherozeshahs and Badruddins are rare. Rest assured it takes no unusual skill to be an ordinary lawyer. Common honesty and industry are enough to enable him to
make a living. All cases are not complicated. Well, let me know the extent of your general reading. When I acquainted him with my little stock of reading, he was, as I
could see, rather disappointed. But it was only for a moment. Soon his face beamed with a pleasing smile and he said, 'I understand your trouble. Your general reading is
meagre. You have no knowledge of the world, a sine qua non for a vakil. You have not even read the history of India. A vakil should know human nature. He should be
able to read a man's character from his face. And every Indian ought to know Indian history. This has no connection with the practice of law, but you ought to have that
knowledge. I see that you have not even read Kaye's and Malleson's history of the Mutiny of 1857. Get hold of that at once and also read two more books to understand
human nature.' These were Lavator's and Shemmelpennick's books on physiognomy. I was extremely grateful to this venerable friend. In his presence I found all my fear
gone, but as soon as I left him I began to worry again. 'To know a man from his face' was the question that haunted me, as I thought of the two books on my way home.
The next day I purchased Lavator's book. Shemmelpennick's was not available at the shop. I read Lavator's book and found it more difficult than Snell's Equity, and
scarcely interesting. I studied Shakespeare's physiognomy, but did not acquire the knack of finding out the Shakespeares walking up and down the streets of London.

According to the passage, the author’s reading is……………………….
A:-Profound
B:-Sufficient
C:-Exiguous
D:-Insignificant
Question3:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

India's argument that the World Trade Organisation (WTO) should not negotiate rules on non-trade subjects like climate change is as old as it is flawed. That climate
change is emerging as the most important global challenge is something India clearly understands and reflects in other fora. It is no longer possible to insulate 'vanilla'
trade from sustainable trade. Rather than oppose, India must ensure that decisions in the WTO are compatible with multilateral climate agreements. . It must engage in
framing rules that take into account different economic and technical capabilities of countries, particularly developing countries, including itself. Sticking to a position
developed at a time when environmental and climate considerations were not central to economic activity puts India at a disadvantage. It also makes it sound guilty of not
preaching what it has started to practise. It is short-sighted to deny that climate change, pollution and biodiversity loss do not have trade dimensions. The biggest
economies have announced their intention to transition to a net-zero economy. Some like the EU are in the process of framing policies and regulations that will underpin
this transition. India, too, has set its goal by 2070. Which makes it sotto voce admit that trade can't be insulated from reducing greenhouse gas emissions in its economy.
At the same time, it must be acknowledged that developing countries will require more time and support to make the transition. Trade is central to growing economies,
improving lives and livelihoods. Trade should be synced to this purpose of making the transition to a circular economy. As a country that is extremely vulnerable to
climate change and focused on growing its economy, India, of all economies, must ensure that international trade rules facilitate - even accelerate - its transition. It must
ensure that the rules do not impede its growth and development in a sustainable manner. By playing the game, it must ensure that the rules are fair. It can't do that by
playing spoilsport.

Which one of the following statements is false as per the given passage.
A:-Trade is detrimental to growing economies
B:-Biggest economies are in the process of transition to net-zero economy
C:-India targets to become net-zero economy by 2070
D:-India is actively vouching for climate change initiatives other fora but not in WTO
Question4:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

India's argument that the World Trade Organisation (WTO) should not negotiate rules on non-trade subjects like climate change is as old as it is flawed. That climate
change is emerging as the most important global challenge is something India clearly understands and reflects in other fora. It is no longer possible to insulate 'vanilla'
trade from sustainable trade. Rather than oppose, India must ensure that decisions in the WTO are compatible with multilateral climate agreements. . It must engage in
framing rules that take into account different economic and technical capabilities of countries, particularly developing countries, including itself. Sticking to a position
developed at a time when environmental and climate considerations were not central to economic activity puts India at a disadvantage. It also makes it sound guilty of not
preaching what it has started to practise. It is short-sighted to deny that climate change, pollution and biodiversity loss do not have trade dimensions. The biggest
economies have announced their intention to transition to a net-zero economy. Some like the EU are in the process of framing policies and regulations that will underpin
this transition. India, too, has set its goal by 2070. Which makes it sotto voce admit that trade can't be insulated from reducing greenhouse gas emissions in its economy.
At the same time, it must be acknowledged that developing countries will require more time and support to make the transition. Trade is central to growing economies,
improving lives and livelihoods. Trade should be synced to this purpose of making the transition to a circular economy. As a country that is extremely vulnerable to
climate change and focused on growing its economy, India, of all economies, must ensure that international trade rules facilitate - even accelerate - its transition. It must
ensure that the rules do not impede its growth and development in a sustainable manner. By playing the game, it must ensure that the rules are fair. It can't do that by
playing spoilsport.

According to the passage, India’s strategy should be…………………
A:-India should desist from discussing the non-trade issues at WTO
B:-India should deliberate how to maximize the trade
C:-India should ensure trade rules are fair and helps in transition of circular economy
D:-India should not allow the developed countries to close their markets arbitrarily

Question5:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The grim images of the wreckage of a Tara Air de Havilland DHC-6-300 Twin Otter aircraft in Nepal have once again highlighted the complexities of ensuring aviation
safety in one of the most challenging environments in the world, and in regulating the mountain nation’s Short Take-off and Landing (STOL) flights that are a tourist draw.
The plane with 22 passengers, including an Indian family, was on an ‘air trek’ along the scenic yet aerially treacherous Pokhara to Jomsom route on Sunday when it lost
radar contact at around 13,000 feet. STOL operations call for well-honed piloting skills, and as 3-D terrain maps of the flight path show, danger lurks in every corner in the
form of jagged peaks, narrow passes and fickle weather. The small unpressurised craft used in this sector operate at a ceiling of 13,000 feet and are airborne for a short
duration — oxygen supplies are needed for all passengers if flights exceed over 30 minutes above 13,000 ft. Flights are characterised by manoeuvres of 90 degree turns
in valleys that have at times just wing length clearance. And as in any competitive tourism market crowded with various STOL operators, there are many pressures that
can tell on the crew: commercial stress points such as not having wasted fuel moments and ensuring passenger contentment by pushing the envelope of crucial visual
flight rules (VFR). Not following VFR is cited as the main cause of accidents in Nepal’s STOL operations. So, is Nepal pushing the boundaries in air safety? Data put out
by the Civil Aviation Authority of Nepal show domestic air travel having risen by 15.45% in 2018, though registering a dip in 2019-20 largely on account of travel
restrictions following the global COVID-19 pandemic. But, interestingly, country data over the past 10 years have shown a sharp drop in the accident rate in general, the
only blip being a rise in helicopter incidents with growing copter operations in logistics, relief and rescue, and tourism. In the same timeframe, the STOL sector has seen
a higher rate of accidents than trunk route air operations; of the 19 accidents, 16 were STOL aircraft. Accident analysis has shown Controlled Flight into Terrain, Runway
excursions and Loss of Control In-flight as the leading causes. A more realistic check lies in the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme of the International Civil
Aviation Organization monitoring safety oversight obligations by all 193 member-states (as of June 2020), in which Nepal’s scores — it last participated in the programme
in 2017 — dropped in ‘Organization’ and ‘Accident Investigation’. In an era of improving global air safety, Nepal needs to scale a crucial summit by working on pending
legislation that unbundles its civil aviation body into a regulator and service provider, paving the way for a full-fledged safety system, and in turn enabling safer STOL
operations.

What is the main cause of air accidents in Nepal?
A:-Rough terrain blocking visual ranges
B:-Flight crew fatigue
C:-Low level regulations
D:-Not adhering to visual flight rules by pilots
Question6:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The grim images of the wreckage of a Tara Air de Havilland DHC-6-300 Twin Otter aircraft in Nepal have once again highlighted the complexities of ensuring aviation
safety in one of the most challenging environments in the world, and in regulating the mountain nation’s Short Take-off and Landing (STOL) flights that are a tourist draw.
The plane with 22 passengers, including an Indian family, was on an ‘air trek’ along the scenic yet aerially treacherous Pokhara to Jomsom route on Sunday when it lost
radar contact at around 13,000 feet. STOL operations call for well-honed piloting skills, and as 3-D terrain maps of the flight path show, danger lurks in every corner in the
form of jagged peaks, narrow passes and fickle weather. The small unpressurised craft used in this sector operate at a ceiling of 13,000 feet and are airborne for a short
duration — oxygen supplies are needed for all passengers if flights exceed over 30 minutes above 13,000 ft. Flights are characterised by manoeuvres of 90 degree turns
in valleys that have at times just wing length clearance. And as in any competitive tourism market crowded with various STOL operators, there are many pressures that
can tell on the crew: commercial stress points such as not having wasted fuel moments and ensuring passenger contentment by pushing the envelope of crucial visual
flight rules (VFR). Not following VFR is cited as the main cause of accidents in Nepal’s STOL operations. So, is Nepal pushing the boundaries in air safety? Data put out
by the Civil Aviation Authority of Nepal show domestic air travel having risen by 15.45% in 2018, though registering a dip in 2019-20 largely on account of travel
restrictions following the global COVID-19 pandemic. But, interestingly, country data over the past 10 years have shown a sharp drop in the accident rate in general, the
only blip being a rise in helicopter incidents with growing copter operations in logistics, relief and rescue, and tourism. In the same timeframe, the STOL sector has seen
a higher rate of accidents than trunk route air operations; of the 19 accidents, 16 were STOL aircraft. Accident analysis has shown Controlled Flight into Terrain, Runway
excursions and Loss of Control In-flight as the leading causes. A more realistic check lies in the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme of the International Civil
Aviation Organization monitoring safety oversight obligations by all 193 member-states (as of June 2020), in which Nepal’s scores — it last participated in the programme
in 2017 — dropped in ‘Organization’ and ‘Accident Investigation’. In an era of improving global air safety, Nepal needs to scale a crucial summit by working on pending
legislation that unbundles its civil aviation body into a regulator and service provider, paving the way for a full-fledged safety system, and in turn enabling safer STOL
operations.

What is the crucial reform that Nepal has to do to improve air safety?
A:-Train the pilots to handle in short take-off and landing
B:-Decoupling regulatory function from service proving civil aviation body
C:-To purchase advanced helicopters
D:-To put automatic warning systems in helicopters
Question7:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The crash in the price of cryptocurrencies is a timely reminder to retail investors to stay far away from this highly speculative asset class. Bitcoin, the most popular
cryptocurrency, has lost over two-thirds of its value since its peak in November last year and has wiped out many retail investors. Other cryptocurrencies have witnessed
even larger losses with some (Luna) plunging to zero. The current crash was a long time in the making. Cryptocurrencies were initially touted to be alternatives to fiat
currencies. Since the supply of a lot of cryptocurrencies is limited by design, investing in them seemed like a good way to protect one’s wealth from inflation fuelled by
central banks. But as it became obvious that cryptocurrencies have had very little acceptance as money, crypto-enthusiasts began to argue a slightly different case.
Cryptocurrencies were now touted as an independent asset class like gold and silver that could serve as an effective hedge in times of crisis. The crash in the crypto
market amidst wider market correction has put to rest the argument that crypto, as an asset class, is as good a hedge as precious metals. There is little reason to believe
that cryptocurrencies possess any intrinsic value that can make them serve the role of widely accepted money or as a legitimate asset class such as precious metals.
The acceptability of cryptocurrencies in the wider economy has remained minuscule and there are no signs of their use for purposes other than wild speculation. But the
only tailwind that has kept cryptocurrencies rallying despite concerns about their fundamental or intrinsic value has been the climate of easy monetary policy adopted by
central banks. Easy money from central banks fuelled the rise of a get-rich-quick industry that depended on selling to a greater fool. Just as Internet stocks and tulip
bulbs were the hallmarks of liquidity-fuelled bubbles in the past, cryptocurrencies are the leading symbol of the current bubble in markets. But perhaps the biggest threat
to their prospects has been an existential one. Governments and their central banks have been largely unwilling to recognise cryptocurrencies as a legitimate investment
asset. They are also unlikely to recognise private cryptocurrencies as they infringe on the state’s fiscal and monetary authority. Moreover, this hostile attitude is at least
partly to blame for the shady nature of the crypto industry at large. Retail investors looking for quick market gains have had to plunge into an unregulated space marked
by scams and other pitfalls in the absence of a legal environment that can protect investor interests. So, regardless of the investment prospects of cryptocurrencies, a
proper regulatory framework may help in protecting retail investors, at least from outright scams.

Cryptocurrencies are……………………
A:-Legal
B:-Regulated
C:-Unregulated
D:-Best hedge against uncertainties
Question8:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The crash in the price of cryptocurrencies is a timely reminder to retail investors to stay far away from this highly speculative asset class. Bitcoin, the most popular
cryptocurrency, has lost over two-thirds of its value since its peak in November last year and has wiped out many retail investors. Other cryptocurrencies have witnessed
even larger losses with some (Luna) plunging to zero. The current crash was a long time in the making. Cryptocurrencies were initially touted to be alternatives to fiat
currencies. Since the supply of a lot of cryptocurrencies is limited by design, investing in them seemed like a good way to protect one’s wealth from inflation fuelled by
central banks. But as it became obvious that cryptocurrencies have had very little acceptance as money, crypto-enthusiasts began to argue a slightly different case.
Cryptocurrencies were now touted as an independent asset class like gold and silver that could serve as an effective hedge in times of crisis. The crash in the crypto
market amidst wider market correction has put to rest the argument that crypto, as an asset class, is as good a hedge as precious metals. There is little reason to believe
that cryptocurrencies possess any intrinsic value that can make them serve the role of widely accepted money or as a legitimate asset class such as precious metals.
The acceptability of cryptocurrencies in the wider economy has remained minuscule and there are no signs of their use for purposes other than wild speculation. But the
only tailwind that has kept cryptocurrencies rallying despite concerns about their fundamental or intrinsic value has been the climate of easy monetary policy adopted by
central banks. Easy money from central banks fuelled the rise of a get-rich-quick industry that depended on selling to a greater fool. Just as Internet stocks and tulip

bulbs were the hallmarks of liquidity-fuelled bubbles in the past, cryptocurrencies are the leading symbol of the current bubble in markets. But perhaps the biggest threat
to their prospects has been an existential one. Governments and their central banks have been largely unwilling to recognise cryptocurrencies as a legitimate investment
asset. They are also unlikely to recognise private cryptocurrencies as they infringe on the state’s fiscal and monetary authority. Moreover, this hostile attitude is at least
partly to blame for the shady nature of the crypto industry at large. Retail investors looking for quick market gains have had to plunge into an unregulated space marked
by scams and other pitfalls in the absence of a legal environment that can protect investor interests. So, regardless of the investment prospects of cryptocurrencies, a
proper regulatory framework may help in protecting retail investors, at least from outright scams.

According to the passage, the Government may not place any regulatory mechanism to control cryptocurrencies because…………………
A:-Cryptocurrencies are big scams
B:-Cryptocurrencies are known to give poor returns
C:-Cryptocurrencies are invading the regulatory sphere of the Government
D:-Cryptocurrencies are impossible to regulate
Question9:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

Buoyed by increasing demand, growing exports and government initiatives, “Made in India” smartphones have been gaining momentum. According to the latest research
from Counterpoint’s Make in India service, smartphone shipments increased 7 per cent year-on-year in Q1 2022 to reach over 48 million units. According to the report,
despite global component shortages, the local smartphone manufacturing ecosystem has remained resilient. As per Senior Research Analyst Prachir Singh,
“Smartphone manufacturing is increasing in India. In 2021, the shipments of ‘Made in India’ smartphones crossed 190 million units. The increasing smartphone demand,
as well as increasing exports, are the major reasons for the continued growth.” “Support has also come from the Indian government’s initiatives to increase local
manufacturing.” However, Singh added that the manufacture of feature phones declined 41 per cent YoY in Q1 2022 due to falling demand in the past few quarters.
Third-party EMS (electronic manufacturing services) providers captured a 42 per cent share of local manufacturing in the smartphone segment, recording a 4 per cent
YoY growth in terms of shipments. Bharat FIH was the top EMS provider in Q1 2022, followed by Dixon Technologies. “However, in-house manufacturing capabilities
have also grown. In-house smartphone manufacturing share crossed 58 per cent during the quarter,” Singh said. Oppo led ‘Made in India’ smartphone shipments with a
22 per cent share, followed by Samsung at 21 per cent. Vivo, Bharat FIH and Dixon rounded out the top five, with 11.7 per cent, 11.3 per cent and an 8.6 per cent share,
respectively. In the feature phone segment, however, EMS’s share crossed 68 percent in Q1 2022. Lava led the “Made in India” feature phone shipments with a 21 per
cent share. “Among the third-party EMS providers, Flex, Bharat FIH and Dixon Technologies led the feature phone segment,” Singh said. According to Research Analyst
Priya Joseph, “The government’s focus has been to make India a manufacturing hub. It has taken a lot of initiatives in this direction. The Production Linked Incentive
(PLI) scheme for mobile handsets proved to be an accelerator for local manufacturing.” “Similar PLI schemes have been introduced by the government in other strategic
sectors such as solar, semiconductors, automotives, and electronic products. In times of uncertainty triggered by the pandemic, war, and other factors, the government
feels it is important to have a resilient economy that can sustain such shocks. Signing up for the recent Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is one
such example of the government’s intention to make clear its goal of becoming the next tech hub,” added Joseph. Moving forward, India’s handset manufacturing is
expected to grow by 4 per cent YoY in 2022, the report said. “Also, the increasing local value addition will drive the idea of “Aatmanirbhar Bharat”,” the report further
added.

What is the main reason for increased growth of smartphone manufacturing in India?
A:-Government schemes
B:-Increasing demand
C:-Reduced imports
D:-Reduced cost
Question10:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

Buoyed by increasing demand, growing exports and government initiatives, “Made in India” smartphones have been gaining momentum. According to the latest research
from Counterpoint’s Make in India service, smartphone shipments increased 7 per cent year-on-year in Q1 2022 to reach over 48 million units. According to the report,
despite global component shortages, the local smartphone manufacturing ecosystem has remained resilient. As per Senior Research Analyst Prachir Singh,
“Smartphone manufacturing is increasing in India. In 2021, the shipments of ‘Made in India’ smartphones crossed 190 million units. The increasing smartphone demand,
as well as increasing exports, are the major reasons for the continued growth.” “Support has also come from the Indian government’s initiatives to increase local
manufacturing.” However, Singh added that the manufacture of feature phones declined 41 per cent YoY in Q1 2022 due to falling demand in the past few quarters.
Third-party EMS (electronic manufacturing services) providers captured a 42 per cent share of local manufacturing in the smartphone segment, recording a 4 per cent
YoY growth in terms of shipments. Bharat FIH was the top EMS provider in Q1 2022, followed by Dixon Technologies. “However, in-house manufacturing capabilities
have also grown. In-house smartphone manufacturing share crossed 58 per cent during the quarter,” Singh said. Oppo led ‘Made in India’ smartphone shipments with a
22 per cent share, followed by Samsung at 21 per cent. Vivo, Bharat FIH and Dixon rounded out the top five, with 11.7 per cent, 11.3 per cent and an 8.6 per cent share,
respectively. In the feature phone segment, however, EMS’s share crossed 68 percent in Q1 2022. Lava led the “Made in India” feature phone shipments with a 21 per
cent share. “Among the third-party EMS providers, Flex, Bharat FIH and Dixon Technologies led the feature phone segment,” Singh said. According to Research Analyst
Priya Joseph, “The government’s focus has been to make India a manufacturing hub. It has taken a lot of initiatives in this direction. The Production Linked Incentive
(PLI) scheme for mobile handsets proved to be an accelerator for local manufacturing.” “Similar PLI schemes have been introduced by the government in other strategic
sectors such as solar, semiconductors, automotives, and electronic products. In times of uncertainty triggered by the pandemic, war, and other factors, the government
feels it is important to have a resilient economy that can sustain such shocks. Signing up for the recent Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is one
such example of the government’s intention to make clear its goal of becoming the next tech hub,” added Joseph. Moving forward, India’s handset manufacturing is
expected to grow by 4 per cent YoY in 2022, the report said. “Also, the increasing local value addition will drive the idea of “Aatmanirbhar Bharat”,” the report further
added.

Which company has highest share in domestic smartphone shipments in Q1 of 2022?
A:-Lava
B:-Oppo
C:-Vivo
D:-Dixon
Question11:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

A common thread links many of our contemporary anxieties about the future, from authoritarian backsliding in Russia to corruption in India, to failed states in the
developing world, to entrenched interest groups in contemporary American politics. It concerns the difficulties of creating and maintaining effective political institutions,
governments that are simultaneously powerful, rule bound, and accountable. This might seem like an obvious point that any fourth grader would acknowledge, and yet on
further reflection it is a truth that many intelligent people fail to understand. Let's begin with the question of the receding of the third wave and the democratic recession
that has taken place around the world in the 2000s. The reasons for our disappointments in the failure of democracy to spread do not lie, I would argue, on the level of
ideas at the present moment. Ideas are extremely important to political order; it is the perceived legitimacy of the government that binds populations together and makes
them willing to accept its authority. The fall of the Berlin Wall marked the collapse of one of democracy's great competitors, communism, and the rapid spread of liberal
democracy as the most widely accepted form of government. This is true up to the present, where democracy, in Amartya Sen's words, remains the "default" political
condition: "While democracy is not yet universally practiced, nor indeed universally accepted, in the general climate of world opinion democratic governance has
achieved the status of being taken to be generally right: Very few people around the world openly profess to admire Vladimir Putin's petronationalism, or Hugo Chavez's
"twenty-first-century socialism;' or Mahmoud Ahmadinejad's Islamic Republic. No important international institution endorses anything but democracy as the basis for just
governance. China's rapid growth incites envy and interest, but its exact model of authoritarian capitalism is not one that is easily described, much less emulated, by
other developing countries. Such is the prestige of modern liberal democracy that today's would-be authoritarians all have to stage elections and manipulate the media
from behind the scenes to legitimate themselves. Not only has totalitarianism virtually disappeared from the world; authoritarians pay a compliment to democracy by
pretending to be democrats. Democracy's failure, then, lies less in concept than in execution: most people around the world would strongly prefer to live in a society in
which their government was accountable and effective, where it delivered the sorts of services demanded by citizens in a timely and cost -effective way. But few
governments are actually able to do both, because institutions are weak, corrupt, lacking capacity, or in some cases absent altogether. The passion of protesters and
democracy advocates around the world, from South Africa to Korea to Romania to Ukraine, might be sufficient to bring about "regime change" from authoritarian to
democratic government, but the latter will not succeed without a long, costly, laborious, and difficult process of institution building.

What is the prerequisite for the success of the democratic government?
A:-Resources
B:-People

C:-Political will
D:-Institutions
Question12:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

A common thread links many of our contemporary anxieties about the future, from authoritarian backsliding in Russia to corruption in India, to failed states in the
developing world, to entrenched interest groups in contemporary American politics. It concerns the difficulties of creating and maintaining effective political institutions,
governments that are simultaneously powerful, rule bound, and accountable. This might seem like an obvious point that any fourth grader would acknowledge, and yet on
further reflection it is a truth that many intelligent people fail to understand. Let's begin with the question of the receding of the third wave and the democratic recession
that has taken place around the world in the 2000s. The reasons for our disappointments in the failure of democracy to spread do not lie, I would argue, on the level of
ideas at the present moment. Ideas are extremely important to political order; it is the perceived legitimacy of the government that binds populations together and makes
them willing to accept its authority. The fall of the Berlin Wall marked the collapse of one of democracy's great competitors, communism, and the rapid spread of liberal
democracy as the most widely accepted form of government. This is true up to the present, where democracy, in Amartya Sen's words, remains the "default" political
condition: "While democracy is not yet universally practiced, nor indeed universally accepted, in the general climate of world opinion democratic governance has
achieved the status of being taken to be generally right: Very few people around the world openly profess to admire Vladimir Putin's petronationalism, or Hugo Chavez's
"twenty-first-century socialism;' or Mahmoud Ahmadinejad's Islamic Republic. No important international institution endorses anything but democracy as the basis for just
governance. China's rapid growth incites envy and interest, but its exact model of authoritarian capitalism is not one that is easily described, much less emulated, by
other developing countries. Such is the prestige of modern liberal democracy that today's would-be authoritarians all have to stage elections and manipulate the media
from behind the scenes to legitimate themselves. Not only has to-talitarianism virtually disappeared from the world; authoritarians pay a compliment to democracy by
pretending to be democrats. Democracy's failure, then, lies less in concept than in execution: most people around the world would strongly prefer to live in a society in
which their government was accountable and effective, where it delivered the sorts of services demanded by citizens in a timely and cost -effective way. But few
governments are actually able to do both, because institutions are weak, corrupt, lacking capacity, or in some cases absent altogether. The passion of protesters and
democracy advocates around the world, from South Africa to Korea to Romania to Ukraine, might be sufficient to bring about "regime change" from authoritarian to
democratic government, but the latter will not succeed without a long, costly, laborious, and difficult process of institution building.

According to the passage, which form of the Government is considered as default political condition?
A:-Authoritarianism
B:-Democracy
C:-Communism
D:-Feudalism
Question13:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The main religion in Okinawa is known as Ryukyu Shinto. Ryukyu is the original name of the Okinawa archipelago, and Shinto means “the path of the gods.” 1 Ryukyu
Shinto combines elements of Chinese Taoism, Confucianism, Buddhism, and Shintoism with shamanistic and animistic elements. According to this ancient faith, the
world is populated by an infinite number of spirits divided into several types: spirits of the home, of the forest, of the trees, and of the mountains. It is important to appease
these spirits through rituals and festivals, and by consecrating sacred grounds. Okinawa is full of sacred jungles and forests, where many of the two main kinds of
temples are found: the utaki and the uganju. We visited an uganju, or small, open-air temple adorned with incense and coins, next to a waterfall in Ogimi. The utaki is a
collection of stones where people go to pray and where, supposedly, spirits gather. In Okinawa’s religious practice, women are considered spiritually superior to men,
whereas the opposite is true of traditional Shintoism in the rest of Japan. Yuta are women chosen as mediums by their communities to make contact with the spirit realm
through traditional rites. Ancestor worship is another important feature of spiritual practice in Okinawa, and in Japan in general. The home of each generation’s firstborn
usually contains a butsudan, or small altar, used to pray for and make offerings to the family’s ancestors.

Okinawans communicate with the sprits through………………..
A:-Shaman
B:-Yuta
C:-Uganju
D:-Water
Question14:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

The main religion in Okinawa is known as Ryukyu Shinto. Ryukyu is the original name of the Okinawa archipelago, and Shinto means “the path of the gods.” Ryukyu
Shinto combines elements of Chinese Taoism, Confucianism, Buddhism, and Shintoism with shamanistic and animistic elements. According to this ancient faith, the
world is populated by an infinite number of spirits divided into several types: spirits of the home, of the forest, of the trees, and of the mountains. It is important to appease
these spirits through rituals and festivals, and by consecrating sacred grounds. Okinawa is full of sacred jungles and forests, where many of the two main kinds of
temples are found: the utaki and the uganju. We visited an uganju, or small, open-air temple adorned with incense and coins, next to a waterfall in Ogimi. The utaki is a
collection of stones where people go to pray and where, supposedly, spirits gather. In Okinawa’s religious practice, women are considered spiritually superior to men,
whereas the opposite is true of traditional Shintoism in the rest of Japan. Yuta are women chosen as mediums by their communities to make contact with the spirit realm
through traditional rites. Ancestor worship is another important feature of spiritual practice in Okinawa, and in Japan in general. The home of each generation’s firstborn
usually contains a butsudan, or small altar, used to pray for and make offerings to the family’s ancestors.

According to the passage, which religion considers men to be spiritually superior to women?
A:-Ruyukyu Shinto
B:-Shintoism
C:-Utaki
D:-Ogimi
Question15:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

A slice of moon glided between bare tree branches, and brittle tufts of brown grass crunched beneath her feet as Laura Reed crossed the Village Green. Tiny white
Christmas lights were still suspended in the trees. By next week the diligent Cape Christian Parks Department would have them all down, but for now they were a
twinkling reminder of the holiday just passed. Laura shoved her hands deep into her coat pockets and shivered. She was used to tramping around town in her parka, a
heavy sweater, and boots in this weather. But she and her husband, Jimmy, had plans for a New Year’s Eve dinner, so she was wearing stockings and heels, a silk
blouse, and a skirt under her good wool coat. The December chill seemed to cut right through her. Despite the cold, she loved to walk through town. Cape Christian, a
little jewel of preserved Victoriana perched on the southern tip of the New Jersey shore, was picturesque at any time of year. The branches of huge shade tree sarched
over the quiet streets and screened the rows of old homes that were fastidiously maintained and festooned with intricately carved gingerbread. From almost any corner
on Main Street you could catch a glimpse of the ocean, just visible beyond the promenade that formed the eastern border of the town. In the summertime huge crowds of
tourists flocked here to drink in the quaint atmosphere of another century while they vacationed at the beach. Jimmy Reed had been born and raised in this town, and
when he’d brought Laura back here, he’d promised her she would soon grow to love it. He was right. She did love Cape Christian at any time of year, but, like a native,
she loved it most in the dead of winter, when the streets were deserted and the town was steeped in silence beside the beating heart of the sea.

Which of the following statements is true as per the above passage.
A:-Laura loved Cape Christian the most when huge crowds of tourists flocked here for vacation
B:-Cape Christian was picturesque only during winter
C:-Village green had flush green grass at the time of winter diligently maintained by the Parks Department
D:-The Parks Department is a very meticulous regulatory body
Question16:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

A slice of moon glided between bare tree branches, and brittle tufts of brown grass crunched beneath her feet as Laura Reed crossed the Village Green. Tiny white
Christmas lights were still suspended in the trees. By next week the diligent Cape Christian Parks Department would have them all down, but for now they were a
twinkling reminder of the holiday just passed. Laura shoved her hands deep into her coat pockets and shivered. She was used to tramping around town in her parka, a
heavy sweater, and boots in this weather. But she and her husband, Jimmy, had plans for a New Year’s Eve dinner, so she was wearing stockings and heels, a silk
blouse, and a skirt under her good wool coat. The December chill seemed to cut right through her. Despite the cold, she loved to walk through town. Cape Christian, a

little jewel of preserved Victoriana perched on the southern tip of the New Jersey shore, was picturesque at any time of year. The branches of huge shade tree sarched
over the quiet streets and screened the rows of old homes that were fastidiously maintained and festooned with intricately carved gingerbread. From almost any corner
on Main Street you could catch a glimpse of the ocean, just visible beyond the promenade that formed the eastern border of the town. In the summertime huge crowds of
tourists flocked here to drink in the quaint atmosphere of another century while they vacationed at the beach. Jimmy Reed had been born and raised in this town, and
when he’d brought Laura back here, he’d promised her she would soon grow to love it. He was right. She did love Cape Christian at any time of year, but, like a native,
she loved it most in the dead of winter, when the streets were deserted and the town was steeped in silence beside the beating heart of the sea.

The author narrates the events as they occur…………………..
A:-During Christmas
B:-After Christmas
C:-Before Christmas
D:-After New Year
Question17:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

In 2004 The New York Times interviewed Stephen Hawking, the scientist whose incurable motor-neuron disease left him paralyzed and unable to talk at age 21.Through
his computer, Hawking told the interviewer how excited he was to sell books to lay people. “Are you always this cheerful?” the Times asked. “My expectations were
reduced to zero when I was 21. Everything since then has been a bonus,” he replied. Expecting things to be great means a best-case scenario that feels flat. Pessimism
reduces expectations, narrowing the gap between possible outcomes and outcomes you feel great about. Maybe that’s why it’s so seductive. Expecting things to be bad
is the best way to be pleasantly surprised when they’re not. Which, ironically, is something to be optimistic about.

According to the passage, life would be……………………..
A:-Pleasant when pessimistic
B:-Pleasant when optimistic
C:-Sad when pessimistic
D:-None of the above
Question18:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

In his book on 1930s America, Frederick Lewis Allen wrote that the Great Depression “marked millions of Americans—inwardly—for the rest of their lives.” But there was
a range of experiences. Twenty-five years later, as he was running for president, John F. Kennedy was asked by a reporter what he remembered from the Depression.
He remarked: I have no first-hand knowledge of the Depression. My family had one of the great fortunes of the world and it was worth more than ever then. We had
bigger houses, more servants, we traveled more. About the only thing that I saw directly was when my father hired some extra gardeners just to give them a job so they
could eat. I really did not learn about the Depression until I read about it at Harvard. This was a major point in the 1960 election. How, people thought, could someone
with no understanding of the biggest economic story of the last generation be put in charge of the economy? It was, in many ways, overcome only by JFK’s experience in
World War II. That was the other most widespread emotional experience of the previous generation, and something his primary opponent, Hubert Humphrey, didn’t have.
The challenge for us is that no amount of studying or open-mindedness can genuinely recreate the power of fear and uncertainty. I can read about what it was like to lose
everything during the Great Depression. But I don’t have the emotional scars of those who actually experienced it. And the person who lived through it can’t fathom why
someone like me could come across as complacent about things like owning stocks.

The above passage best supports the statement ……………………….
A:-Rich get richer poor get poorer
B:-All that glitters is not gold
C:-Familiarity breeds contempt
D:-We see the world through a different lens
Question19:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

"It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was
the season of Light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we had nothing before us, we
were all going direct to Heaven, we were all going direct the other way--in short, the period was so far like the present period that some of its noisiest authorities insisted
on its being received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree of comparison only.

The statement refers an age of…………………taking place at the same time.
A:-Renaissance
B:-Colonialism
C:-Radical opposites
D:-Revolution
Question20:-Read the following passage and answer the question.

During the discussions on seditions at Constitution Assembly, Shri M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar said: If we find that the government for the time being has a knack of
entrenching itself, however bad its administration might be it must be the fundamental right of every citizen in the country to overthrow that government without violence,
by persuading the people, by exposing its faults in the administration, its method of working and so on. The word 'sedition' has become obnoxious in the previous regime.
We had therefore approved of the amendment that the word 'sedition' ought to be removed, except in cases where the entire state itself is sought to be overthrown or
undermined by force or otherwise, leading to public disorder; but any attack on the government itself ought not to be made an offence under the law. We have gained that
freedom and we have ensured that no government could possibly entrench itself, unless the speeches lead to an overthrow of the State altogether.

What is the main message of the above given passage?
A:-Sedition provision was rampantly being used
B:-Sedition should cover all aspects of expressing dissent against administration
C:-Sedition should be very narrowly defined to include only issues leading to public disorder
D:-Sedition provision should be abolished
Question21:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: one natural way to look at the law is to see it as a
Q: what is required, prohibited and permitted
R: that tell us in more or less concrete terms what we should do,
S: collection of rules laid down by a competent authority
A:-PQRS
B:-QPRS
C:-QSRP
D:-PSRQ
Question22:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: disputes by force, and it
Q: a state must refrain from settling international
R: must respect the human rights
S: of persons within its jurisdiction
A:-RSPQ

B:-QRSP
C:-QPRS
D:-RQSP
Question23:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: legal instruments may be copied, but political practice, political parties, political culture, customs
Q: and the interplay with other legal and constitutional agents, and (legal) education are a lot more difficult,
R: if not impossible to copy, and yet these other aspects codetermine
S: the success or failure rate of a constitutional model
A:-PQRS
B:-PQSR
C:-SRQP
D:-SRPQ
Question24:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: in the real life of the modern world
Q: national constitutional systems, but in reality it may
R: also become something of a fiction
S: sovereignty is an important concept that underpins
A:-SPQR
B:-SRQP
C:-SPRQ
D:-SQRP
Question25:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: alternative Dispute Resolution system
Q: refers to the use of
R: non-adversarial techniques of
S: adjudication of legal disputes
A:-RSPQ
B:-SRPQ
C:-QSRP
D:-PQRS
Question26:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: upheld by the Constitution
Q: to act under the consideration of principles
R: the administrative officials are required
S: and not to act with prejudice
A:-RQPS
B:-RPQS
C:-SPQR
D:-QRSP
Question27:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: basic structure means those basic characters/attributes
Q: which are enshrined in the heart of the Constitution
R: replaced by any Parliament
S: and which cannot be repealed or
A:-PQRS
B:-PQSR
C:-PRSQ
D:-PSQR
Question28:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: dignity of individuals
Q: to protect the freedom and
R: rule of law is an essential tool
S: against organized powers
A:-QPSR
B:-QRSP
C:-RQPS
D:-PQRS
Question29:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: the commission of an offence by him
Q: which is sought to be proved against him in
R: criminal proceeding to establish
S: confession is a statement made by an accused person
A:-SPRQ
B:-SPQR
C:-SQRP
D:-SRQP
Question30:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (P,Q,R,S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

P: according to the principle of
Q: doctrine of Election a party to the transfer cannot
R: accept as well as reject
S: in a single transaction
A:-SRQP
B:-QSPR

C:-PQRS
D:-QRPS
Question31:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-As a boy he had never been at school,
B:-and therefore he had no opportunity
C:-of learning to read or write
D:-No Error
Question32:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-The lion told the fox
B:-That he was very weak, that his teeth had fell out
C:-And that he had no appetite
D:-No Error
Question33:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-He advised his sons
B:-not to quarrel between themselves,
C:-When he was dead but to remain united.
D:-No Error
Question34:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-In every country people imagine that
B:-they are the best and the cleverest and the
C:-others is not so good as they are.
D:-No error
Question35:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-Trees gives shades for the benefit of others
B:-and while they themselves stand in the sun and endure scorching heat,
C:-they produce the fruit by which others profit.
D:-No Error.
Question36:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-The men endured all the horrors
B:-of the campaign without
C:-one of them making any complaint.
D:-No Error.
Question37:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-He has squandered his fortune,
B:-estranged his friends and ruined his health
C:-by his recklessness and extravagance.
D:-No Error.
Question38:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-As soon as the sun touches
B:-the horizon darkness begin
C:-to settle upon the scene.
D:-No error
Question39:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-Contract law is such an integral part of present society
B:-that it is almost impossible to
C:-imagine society without it.
D:-No error
Question40:-The following question has a sentence with three parts marked as (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence part to determine whether there is any error in any part
and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
A:-Little good work can be
B:-expected from men
C:-who are great boasters
D:-No error
Question41:-The following idiom is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.

YEOMAN SERVICE
A:-Very bad service
B:-Highly paid service
C:-Free and generous help
D:-Illegal service
Question42:-The following idiom is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.

PELL-MELL
A:-Abuse
B:-Excited
C:-Disorder
D:-Severely condemn

Question43:-The following idiom is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.

A COCK AND BULL STORY
A:-Smart story
B:-True story
C:-Crime story
D:-Implausible story
Question44:-The following idiom is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.

SWANSONG
A:-Melodious sound created by birds especially in the early morning
B:-A kind of Flirt
C:-A person’s last piece of work
D:-Magnum opus
Question45:-The following idiom is followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.

ADAM’S ALE
A:-Apple
B:-Earth
C:-Gold
D:-Water
Question46:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

I spoke plainly so that…………………………………..
A:-You would have been to understand
B:-You might understand
C:-You had been to understand
D:-You may be understand
Question47:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

However clever you may be,…………………………………….
A:-You cannot succeed without hard work
B:-You must not succeeded without hard work
C:-You had succeeded without hard work
D:-You might not succeeded without hard work
Question48:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

In Rome we must behave as……………………..
A:-As the Romans does
B:-As the Romans had
C:-As the Romans do
D:-As the Romans might
Question49:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

The ship was steered so skillfully that it……………………………………
A:-Reach the harbour safely
B:-Been had reached the harbour safely
C:-Reached the harbour safely
D:-May reached the harbour safely
Question50:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.

Once upon a time a man owned a hen which…………………………….
A:-Lay everyday a golden egg
B:-Laid everyday a golden egg
C:-Was lay everyday a golden egg
D:-Is lay everyday a golden egg
Question51:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

……….. eye for an eye only ends ……………making the whole world blind
A:-A, at
B:-An, to
C:-An, all
D:-An, up
Question52:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

………….. legacy is so rich ………….. honesty
A:-Some, at
B:-No, as
C:-Great, well
D:-No, and
Question53:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

…………….. the world's a stage, and all the men and women ……………… players
A:-All, all
B:-All, merely
C:-Entire, act
D:-Entire, all

Question54:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

……….. we are true to ourselves, we ………….. be false to anyone
A:-Until, will
B:-Until, should
C:-If, ought
D:-If, cannot
Question55:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

All we …………….. to decide is what to do with the time that is ……………….. us
A:-Have, gave
B:-Have, given
C:-Has, given
D:-Have, had gave
Question56:-1. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

It ……………….not what someone is born, but what they …………….to be
A:-Matter, grow
B:-Matter, has grew
C:-Matters, grow
D:-Matters, has grown
Question57:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

It is a far, far better thing that I do, ……………… I have ever done; it is a far, far better rest I go to than I have ever …………………..
A:-With, know
B:-With, had known
C:-Than, known
D:-Far, known
Question58:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

……………….. happy families are alike; ……………. unhappy family is unhappy in its own way
A:-Some, some
B:-Some, all
C:-All, each
D:-One, each
Question59:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Honesty ………….. the first chapter in the book ………………..wisdom.
A:-Is, of
B:-Are, of
C:-May be, with
D:-Is, among
Question60:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

If the freedom of speech is …….. away then dumb and silent we may be led, like sheep ……….the slaughter.
A:-Take, with
B:-Taken, with
C:-Taken, to
D:-Take, to
Question61:-Name the two countries which have simmering dispute over the control of Formosa Strait?
A:-China and Philippines
B:-China and Japan
C:-China and Vietnam
D:-China and Taiwan
Question62:-Name the country which has launched world’s first fleet of hydrogen powered passenger trains recently.
A:-France
B:-Germany
C:-Italy
D:-China
Question63:-Who was known as ‘Devanampriya Priyadarshi’?
A:-Chandragupta Maurya
B:-Chanakya
C:-Akbar
D:-Ashoka Maurya
Question64:-Name the Indus valley site which is distinguished by its unique fire altars and ‘world’s earliest attested ploughed field’.
A:-Kalibangan
B:-Lothal
C:-Harappa
D:-Mohanjadaro
Question65:-In which country did Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose established provincial Government of Free India?
A:-Japan
B:-Indonesia
C:-Singapore
D:-Malaysia
Question66:-Name the agreement which officially ended First World War and forced Germany to accept blame for the war.
A:-Treaty of Versailles

B:-Treaty of Paris
C:-Treaty of Vienna
D:-Treaty of Salbai
Question67:-Name the language which was replaced by English as the official language for the Government of India in 1835.
A:-Urdu
B:-Persian
C:-Hindi
D:-Arabic
Question68:-Which among the following is the largest living coral barrier in the world?
A:-Florida key reef
B:-Red sea coral reef
C:-Saya Del Malha
D:-Great Barrier Reef
Question69:-Cloudbursts are very common in……………..
A:-Islands
B:-Coastal areas
C:-Deserts
D:-Mountains
Question70:-Why most of the world’s tropical deserts located on the western margins of the continent?
A:-Because of absence of vegetation
B:-Because of offshore trade winds
C:-Because of warm ocean currents
D:-Because of high pressure in the atmosphere
Question71:-Which among the following is not a cold ocean current?
A:-Labrador
B:-Gulf stream
C:-Canary
D:-California
Question72:-Which among the following capital city does not have Mediterranean type climate?
A:-Rome
B:-Lisbon
C:-Tashkent
D:-Mexico City
Question73:-Which among the following river is the longest river in South India?
A:-Periyar
B:-Kaveri
C:-Godavari
D:-Vaigai
Question74:- ………………………..is the low lying area that is composed of marshy land found in the Himalayan Region.
A:-Bhabar
B:-Terai
C:-Bhangar
D:-Khadar
Question75:-India’s southern most point called Indira Point located at……………..
A:-Kanyakumari
B:-Great Nicobar Island
C:-Andaman Island
D:-Havelock
Question76:-The only active volcano of India is found at……………….
A:-Havelock Island
B:-Rutland Island
C:-Port Blair
D:-Barren Island
Question77:-In which state Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are located?
A:-Assam
B:-Meghalaya
C:-Mizoram
D:-Nagaland
Question78:-The meterological phenomenon Rainbow caused by……………….
A:-Reflection of light
B:-Refraction of light
C:-Dispersion of light
D:-All the above
Question79:-Rickets disease is caused by the deficiency of……………
A:-Vitamin K
B:-Vitamin E
C:-Vitamin D
D:-Vitamin A
Question80:-Which of the following gas in known as ‘Happy Gas’?
A:-Nitric Oxide
B:-Nitrogen Oxide
C:-Nitrous Oxide
D:-Nitrogen
Question81:-Which cell organelle is called as ‘Suicidal Bags’?
A:-Mitochondria

B:-Ribosomes
C:-Lysosomes
D:-Nucleus
Question82:-The animal cells do not have……………..
A:-Cell membranes
B:-Cell wall
C:-Chromosomes
D:-Mitochondria
Question83:-Who is the captain of India women’s Cricket team?
A:-Mithali Raj
B:-Harmanpreet Kaur
C:-Poonam Yadav
D:-Rajeshwari Gayakwad
Question84:-What is the Olympics Motto?
A:-Faster, Higher, Stronger
B:-Faster, Higher, Stronger - Together
C:-Faster, Higher, Stronger - Ever
D:-Faster, Higher, Stronger - Unity
Question85:-An Ironman Triathlon is one of the series of long distance triathlon race organized by World Triathlon Corporation consist of………………
A:-Swimming, Bicycle Ride, Marathon
B:-Swimming, Motorcycle Ride, Walking
C:-Swimming, Bicycle Ride, Paragliding
D:-Riverrafting, Bunjee Jumping, Marathon
Question86:-The terms ‘Silly Point’ and ‘Dead Ball’ are associated with which sport?
A:-Hockey
B:-Baseball
C:-Cricket
D:-Volley Ball
Question87:-Name the fottball player who had won the highest number of Ballon d’Or award presented by French News magazine France Football.
A:-Lionel Messi
B:-Crostiano Ronaldo
C:-Ronaldo
D:-Zinedine Zidane
Question88:-Ceravac is India’s first quadrivalent human pappiloma virus vaccine and intended to protect women against cervical cancer. Name the institute which
produces the vaccine.
A:-Biocon
B:-Dr Reddys
C:-Cipla
D:-Serum Institute of India
Question89:-……………………is the genetic modification of plants to make them sterile seeds.
A:-Suicide technology
B:-Terra farming
C:-Terminator technology
D:-Tissue culture
Question90:-Python is a……………….
A:-Data base
B:-Cheap hardware making company
C:-Programming language
D:-Operating system
Question91:-………………….is a type of malicious software program which attempts to disguise itself at appear useful.
A:-Malware
B:-Ransomware
C:-Trojan Horse
D:-Dark web
Question92:-Radio cabon dating is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radio carbon, a radio
active…………………….of carbon.
A:-Isotope
B:-Isomer
C:-Isotone
D:-Isobar
Question93:-Which Indian state has come up with the Citizen Constitution Literacy Campaign?
A:-Kerala
B:-Tamil Nadu
C:-Uttar Pradesh
D:-Gujarat
Question94:-Which state is the largest producer of Rice in India in 2021?
A:-Andhra Pradesh
B:-Odisha
C:-Tamil Nadu
D:-West Bengal
Question95:-Which one of the following is the highest level of economic integration?
A:-Free Trade Area
B:-Preferred Trade Area
C:-Common Market
D:-Monetary Union

Question96:-………………….are the norms issued to regulate international banking systems.
A:-Basel norms
B:-Vienna Norms
C:-Geneva norms
D:-Paris norms
Question97:-Which country has world’s largest known lithium reserves?
A:-Chile
B:-Australia
C:-Afghanistan
D:-Uganda
Question98:-The blood sugar level is regulated by………………
A:-Hypothalamus
B:-Thyroid
C:-Pancreas
D:-Pituitary
Question99:-Which bird is called as ‘Farmer’s of Forest’?
A:-Cattle Egrets
B:-Woodpecker
C:-Humming bird
D:-Hornbills
Question100:-Hugen Langlon is an Indian martial are from………………..
A:-Nagaland
B:-Manipur
C:-Mizoram
D:-Assam
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question101:-Recently with which country India has signed a MoU to regulate the withdrawal of water from Kushiyara River?
A:-Pakistan
B:-Nepal
C:-Bangladesh
D:-Myanmaar
Question102:-Rabies disease is caused by ………………….
A:-Bacteria
B:-Virus
C:-Fungi
D:-Protozoa
Question103:-Name the first Indian to win a Diamond League event.
A:-P T Usha
B:-Ram Singh Yadav
C:-Neeraj Chopra
D:-Anju Bobby George
Question104:-According to NCRB report, which state has registered highest number of sedition cases in 2021?
A:-Uttar Pradesh
B:-Andhra Pradesh
C:-Madhya Pradesh
D:-Bihar
Question105:-Who is the executive Chairman of National Legal Services Authority?
A:-Justice D Y Chandrachud
B:-Justice U U Lalit
C:-Justice N V Ramana
D:-Justice K G Balakrishnan
Question106:-In a 1000 meters race, P can give Q 100 meters and R 280 meters. In a same race Q can give R………
A:-100 meters
B:-150 meters
C:-180 meters
D:-200 meters
Question107:-A hall is 250 m long and 120 meter wide and 6 meter height. Find out the cost of painting it’s walls and ceiling at 80 paise per square meter.
A:-27500
B:-27552
C:-27560
D:-27562
Question108:-In a 100 m race, X covers the distance in 30 seconds and Y covers in 40 seconds. In this race X beats Y by…………..meters
A:-20
B:-25
C:-30
D:-35
Question109:-There are two clocks located in the two different locations, both set to show 6 AM on day 1. One clock gains 5 mins in a hour and other clock loses 10 mins
in an hour. Then by how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 6.00 AM on the next day?
A:-320 mins
B:-370 mins
C:-350 mins
D:-340 mins
Question110:-Rakesh sold two apartments located in the same building for 2.5 crore each. On selling apartment number 1 he gains 35 % profit but on selling apartment
number 2 he loses 35 %. What is the total gain/loss in the entire transaction?
A:-10.25 % loss
B:-10.25 % gain
C:-12.25 % loss

D:-12.25 % gain
Question111:-An engineer wants to measure the height of the building. He is 1.5 meter height and his distance from the building is 30 meters. The angle of elevation
from his eye to the top of the building is 30 degree . What is the height of the tower?
A:-31.9 m
B:-31.2 m
C:-31.5 m
D:-31.7 m
Question112:-A news magazine is published weekly. One copy has 15 pages. Every week 13415 copies are printed. How many total pages are printed in a year?
A:-10866155
B:-10867155
C:-10867255
D:-10866785
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question113:-A restaurant charges twenty rupees for one coffee and x rupees for one candy. Assume Mr Y takes one coffee and one candy every day. If he spends 120
rupees in five days, what is the charge of one candy?
A:-2 rupees
B:-4 rupees
C:-10 rupees
D:-9 rupees
Question114:-There are two trees, one on each bank of the river, just opposite to each other. One tree’s height is 30 meters high. From the top of this tree, the angle of
depression of the top and foot of the other tree are 30 degree and 60 degree respectively. Find the width of the river and the height of the other tree.
A:-17.3 m, 10 m
B:-17.5 m, 5 m
C:-17.3 m, 5 m
D:-17.5 m, 10 m
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question115:-The banker’s gain on a sum due two years hence at 10 % per annum is 200 rupees. Calculate the banker’s discount.
A:-1000
B:-1100
C:-1200
D:-1500
Question116:-A box contains twenty mobile phones, out of which four are defective. Two mobiles are chosen at random from this box. The probability that at least one of
them defective, is………
A:-7/20
B:-7/19
C:-7/21
D:-7/18
Question117:-In how many different ways can the letter of the word SELDOM be arranged?
A:-120
B:-720
C:-1020
D:-3040
Question118:-Mr Rajeev invested 1000 rupees in a stock at 100 to obtain an income of fifty rupees. The dividend from the stock is…………….
A:-10 %
B:-8 %
C:-6 %
D:-5%
Question119:-The inner circumference of a circular race track, 10 m wide, is 440 meters. Find the radius of the outer circle.
A:-70 m
B:-80 m
C:-90 m
D:-100 m
Question120:-Rajan invested an amount of rupees 25250 for seven years. At what rate of simple interest will be obtain the total of rupees 32320 at the end of the seven
years?
A:-2 %
B:-4 %
C:-6 %
D:-10 %
Question121:-An amount invested by Ramya gives the total amount of 108054 rupees at the annual simple interest rate of 6.5 % in 10 year period. What is the principal
amount invested?
A:-65387
B:-64387
C:-65487
D:-64587
Question122:-A 150 m long train is running with a speed of 70 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 10 kmph in the same direction in which the train is
going?
A:-10 sec
B:-9 sec
C:-8 sec
D:-3 sec
Question123:-Find the 100th term in the following arithmetic sequence.

4, 14, 24, 34,….
A:-996
B:-994
C:-998
D:-1020
Question124:-Ramesh can do a work in three days and Rameela can do the work in two days. Both of them finish the work together and get 1000 rupees. What is the
share of Ramesh?

A:-200
B:-600
C:-400
D:-500
Question125:-A furniture is bought of rupees 67545 and sold at the profit percentage of 11.111 %. Find its selling price.
A:-75050
B:-75500
C:-75650
D:-75800
Question126:-If log3 x = -3, then x is equal to ?
A:-1/9
B:-1/27
C:-Infinity
D:-Cannot be determined
Question127:-Find out the missing number in the following series.

7, 60, 207, 496, 975, 1692, 2695, 4032, ?
A:-5751
B:-5745
C:-5750
D:-5746
Question128:-Find out the missing number in the following series.

2, 5, 8, 5, 8, 11, ?, 11, 14
A:-10
B:-8
C:-7
D:-6
Question129:-Find out the wrong number in the following series.

-1, 3, 15, 35, 63, 100, 143, 195
A:-63
B:-100
C:-143
D:-195
Question130:-Find out the wrong number in the following series.

0, 8, 24, 48, 80, 120, 165, 224
A:-48
B:-120
C:-165
D:-224
Question131:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the situation and provision.

Legal Provision: No barrister, attorney, pleader or vakil shall at any time be permitted, unless with his client’s express consent, to disclose any communication made to
him in the course and for the purpose of his employment as such barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil, by or on behalf of his client, or to state the contents or condition of
any document with which he has become acquainted in the course and for the purpose of his professional employment, or to disclose any advice given by him to his
client in the course and for the purpose of such employment: Provided that nothing in this section shall protect from disclosure— (1) Any such communication made in
furtherance of any illegal purpose; (2) Any fact observed by any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil, in the course of his employment as such, showing that any crime or
fraud has been committed since the commencement of his employment. It is immaterial whether the attention of such barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil was or was not
directed to such fact by or on behalf of his client. Explanation.—The obligation stated in this section continues after the employment has ceased.

Situation: Rishinath, a client, says to Rameela, an attorney—“I wish to obtain possession of property by the use of a forged deed on which I request you to sue”.

This communication is……………….
A:-Protected from disclosure
B:-Partly protected from disclosure
C:-Not protected from disclosure
D:-Conditionally protected from disclosure
Question132:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: Every suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction- (a) the defendant, or each of the defendants where there are more than
one, at the time of the commencement of the suit, actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain; or (b) any of the defendants,
where there are more than one, at the time of the commencement of the suit actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain,
provided that in such case either the leave of the Court is given, or the defendants who do not reside, or carry on business, or personally work for gain, as aforesaid,
acquiesce in such institution; or (c) the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.

Situation: Chetan Agarwal is a tradesman in Mumbai, Ranjan Singh carries on business in Delhi. Ranjan Singh, by his agent in Mumbai, buys goods of Chetan Agarwal
and requests Chetan Agarwal to deliver them to the ABC Company. Chetan Agarwal delivers the goods accordingly in Mumbai.

Now where can Chetan Agarwal sue Ranjan Singh for the dispute in the price of the goods?
A:-Delhi
B:-Mumbai
C:-Either in Delhi or in Mumbai
D:-Some middle place between which is nearest to both of them
Question133:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: Confession otherwise relevant not to become irrelevant because of promise of secrecy, etc.—If such a confession is otherwise relevant, it does not
become irrelevant merely because it was made under a promise of secrecy, or in consequence of a deception practised on the accused person for the purpose of
obtaining it, or when he was drunk, or because it was made in answer to questions which he need not have answered, whatever may have been the form of those
questions, or because he was not warned that he was not bound to make such confession, and that evidence of it might be given against him.

Situation: Raja along with his friends in a bar, after drinking two glass of gin, proudly says that he is forcing his father-in-law to provide one crore rupees as dowry to
restart his business. This was recorded by one of his friends in the group and sent to Raja’s wife Ramya through whatsapp.

Raja’s confession is………….
A:-Irrelevant
B:-Not relevant
C:-Relevant
D:-Not to be taken as evidence
Question134:-Choose the best answer considering the following situation.

Rhea sells and conveys an estate to John. Rhea, knowing that in consequence of such sale she has no right to the property, sells or mortgages the same to Sham,
without disclosing the fact of the previous sale and conveyance to John, and receives the purchase or mortgage money from Sham.

Rhea commits………….
A:-Criminal Breach of Trust
B:-Cheating
C:-Mischief
D:-None of the above
Question135:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: In all robbery there is either theft or extortion. When theft is robbery.—Theft is “robbery” if, in order to the committing of the theft, or in committing the
theft, or in carrying away or attempting to carry away property obtained by the theft, the offender, for that end, voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death
or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death or of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint. When extortion is robbery.—Extortion is “robbery” if the offend¬er, at
the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, of instant hurt, or
of instant wrongful restraint to that person or to some other person, and, by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing
extorted. Explanation.—The offender is said to be present if he is sufficiently near to put the other person in fear of instant death, of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful
restraint.

Situation: Rama meets Lavanya and her child on the high road. Rama takes the child and threatens to fling it down a precipice, unless Lavanya delivers his purse.
Lavanya, in consequence delivers his purse.

Rama has committed ………………. on Lavanya
A:-Theft
B:-Extortion
C:-Criminal Breach of Trust
D:-Robbery
Question136:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: Whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine. Explanation.—For the purpose of this section, “cruelty” means— (a) any wilful conduct which is of such a
nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman; or (b)
harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable
security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Situation: Rajan always criticizes his wife Reeta in front of her relatives for not bringing enough gold at the time of marriage. But Rajan’s mother severely opposed this
and warned Rajan not to repeat. However, it was then compensated by presenting a car at the time of festival. Rajan’s wife leaves some social media messages to her
mother regarding some heated arguments and requests to take her back to home. But mother consoles her and assures that the matter will be taken up with Rajan after
the festival. On the next day morning Reeta’s mother receiving a call from Rajan that Reeta has committed suicide.

Who is guilty in this case?
A:-Reeta’s mother as she did not heed to the complaints raised by Reeta on a right time.
B:-Rajan is not guilty as he just followed the social customs existed in his community by taking presents during festivals
C:-Rajan is guilty of causing cruelty to his wife
D:-Rajan’s mother as she is the elder in the family and not inculcated enough values to Rajan and responsible for his actions.
Question137:-The following question has a legal provision and a question. Choose the best answer.

Legal Provision: Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both

Question: Which one of the following is NOT an element required for MEDICAL NEGLIGENCE?
A:-Duty
B:-Breach of Duty
C:-Damages
D:-Mens Rea
Question138:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to “commit an affray”.

Situation: Husband and wife are quarrelling in a Sunday market. However, no one has any complaint against this considering this as a personal issue between the
couple. But the area Police Inspector take note of this and books a case under Section 160 of IPC.

The action of Police Officer is…………
A:-Condemnable
B:-Not Justified
C:-Proper
D:-As per the legal principles
Question139:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the legal provision and the situation.

Legal Provision: Whoever, wages war against the Government of X Country, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with
death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.

Situation: Ramu joins an insurrection against the Government of X Country.

Ramu has……………...
A:-Not committed the offence as there is no actus reus
B:-Not committed the offence as there is no mens rea
C:-Committed the offence as he has abetted the waging of war
D:-Committed the offence as he has joined the insurrection

Question140:-The following question has a legal provision and a question. Choose the best answer considering the legal proision.

Legal Provision: Any executive Magistrate or officer in charge of a police station or, in the absence of such officer in charge, any police officer, not below the rank of a
sub- inspector, may command any unlawful assembly, or any assembly of five or more persons likely to cause a disturbance of the public peace, to disperse; and it shall
thereupon be the duty of the members of such assembly to disperse accordingly.

Question: Who among the following officers has the power to disburse an unlawful assembly?
A:-Police Constable
B:-Civil Police Officer
C:-Sub Inspector
D:-Home Guard
Question141:-The following question has a legal provision and a situation. Choose the best answer considering the situation and the legal provision.

Legal Provision: Public when to assist Magistrates and police. Every person is bound to assist a Magistrate or police officer reasonably demanding his aid- (a) in the
taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such Magistrate or police officer is authorised to arrest; or (b) in the prevention or suppression of a breach of
the peace; or (c) in the prevention of any injury attempted to be committed to any railway, canal, telegraph or public property.

Situation: The Police Sub Inspector is chasing a criminal and on the way he asks for help (asks about the direction in which the criminal got escaped) from an MSc final
year college going student.

The college going student ……………
A:-is not required to help the Police Officer as it may be dangerous to chase a criminal
B:-is to help the Police Officer compulsorily
C:-cannot help as he is a student
D:-None of the above applies to the situation
Question142:-………………………are human made laws that oblige or specify an action.
A:-Positive law
B:-Negative law
C:-Natural law
D:-Negative rights
Question143:-Tribal laws are……………….
A:-Natural laws
B:-Social laws
C:-Customary laws
D:-Self-Codified laws
Question144:-Who was a Praetor in ancient Rome?
A:-Justice
B:-Vakil
C:-Barrister
D:-None of the above
Question145:-…………………………is the philosophy that there has to be a strict separation of powers between legislation, administration and judiciary.
A:-Westphalian Duo
B:-Trias Politica
C:-Philosophia politica
D:-Principia politica
Question146:-……................rule means that the newer rule prevails over the older one.
A:-Lex Superior
B:-Lex Specialis
C:-Lex Posterior
D:-Lex Talionis
Question147:-The rule of Stare Decisis is valid under……………..law tradition.
A:-Civil
B:-Common
C:-Natural
D:-Customary
Question148:-Mr X presses the ‘Subscribe’ button of Mr Y’s Youtube Channel to receive notifications regarding videos uploaded by Mr Y. In this case Mr X
gives…………………..permission to Mr Y.
A:-Implicit
B:-Explicit
C:-Prohibition
D:-Conditional
Question149:- ………………..are relations between the right holder and the object on which the right rests.
A:-Rights in personam
B:-Rights in Rem
C:-Rights in re propria
D:-Rights in re Aliena
Question150:- A contract by a minor is………………….
A:-Voidable
B:-Void
C:-Valid
D:-Enforceable by Court
Question151:-Rule of law concept was developed by Albert Venn Dicey in his book called…………………
A:-The law of the Constitution
B:-Comparative Constitutionalism
C:-Letters on unionist delusions
D:-A leap in the dark, or Our New Constitution
Question152:-Which of the following state system mandates a written constitution?
A:-Autocratic
B:-Monarchy
C:-Unitary

D:-Federal
Question153:-As per the intelligence reports of Country X, handful of Government functionaries are known to spread hatred in the social media. In response to that
Government has decided to record all the phone calls, severely curtailing their liberty and freedom.

This act would be against the principle of………………..
A:-Doctrine of necessity
B:-Doctrine of pleasure
C:-Doctrine of estoppel
D:-Doctrine of proportionality
Question154:-…………………..means that a defendant may not be convicted by the court when doubts about their guilt remain.
A:-Rule of lenity
B:-In dubio pro reo
C:-Actus dei Nemini Injuriam
D:-Actori incumbit onus probandi
Question155:- …………………is a legal doctrine that allows a person to acquire ownership of an immovable property that belonged to someone else.
A:-Nemo dat rule
B:-Adverse possession
C:-Animus possidendi
D:-Corpus possessionis
Question156:-Droit de suite is…………….
A:-Right against unlawful arrest
B:-Right to follow
C:-Right against slavery
D:-Right against exploitation
Question157:-……………………rights are enforceable against anybody infringing that right.
A:-Erga Omnes
B:-Jus Cogens
C:-Inter partus
D:-de facto
Question158:-A professional document writer mistakenly mentions a parcel of land in a survey number as Garden land. Actually the land was a notified wetland comes
under a bird sanctuary of Forest department.

The document writer has committed…………….
A:-Fraud
B:-Criminal breach of trust
C:-Mischief
D:-Misrepresentation
Question159:-Firoze executes a deed of settlement to give away 10 cents of his land to his daughter and daughter’s husband on account of marriage.

Now…
A:-The Village Officer can do the mutation as it is a valid contract
B:-The village Officer can’t do the mutation as the document does not mention any consideration
C:-The Village Officer can’t do the mutation as the document is not valid as it was executed with a non-blood relative.
D:-Village Officer can only register on getting direction from Court in this case.
Question160:-Mr Aman has invited Mr Amal to his home for a lavish dinner. Mr Aman has spent money and time to prepare a lavish dinner. But Mr Amal did not turn up
for the dinner thus causing little waste of money for Mr Aman.

Now can Mr Aman seek compensation for the waste of food from Mr Amal?
A:-Yes, because Mr Amal has promised
B:-Yes, because Mr Amal caused financial loss
C:-No, this is mere a social agreement
D:-No, because Mr Amal has not requested Mr Aman to arrange the dinner.
Question161:-Raman charged with having murdered Rajan. Raman pleads guilty.

Which one of the following is not a fact in issue in this case?
A:-That Rajan died
B:-It was a homicidal death
C:-Raman caused Rajan’s death
D:-No mens rea
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question162:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-A confession must be voluntary
B:-A confession can be only by the accused
C:-Confession is self-harming
D:-A confession of the co-accused can’t be taken into consideration against the other co-accused.
Question163:-Indian Evidence Act is applicable to……….
A:-Departmental Disciplinary Proceedings
B:-Domestic Tribunals
C:-Proceedings before Court Martials
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question164:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-Hearsay evidence is not admissible
B:-Facts admitted need not be proved
C:-Even judicially noticeable facts to be proved
D:-Oral evidence must be direct
Question165:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-Rioting require at least four persons
B:-Rioting may be committed everywhere
C:-Persons involve in riots have common object

D:-In a riot, every person of unlawful assembly is punishable.
Question166:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-A summon can be converted into a warrant case
B:-In a warrant case there is an express provision for discharge of accused
C:-A summon case relates to an offence punishable with imprisonment for 1 year and less than one year
D:-In a warrant case the charge must be formal and in writing
Question167:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-Investigation is conducted by a police officer
B:-Investigation is a non-judicial proceedings
C:-Oath can be administered to person examined in investigation
D:-Main object of investigation is to collect evidence for trial
Question168:-Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
A:-Exparte orders can be issued in Trial proceedings
B:-Inquiry can be judicial or non-judicial proceedings
C:-Oath can be administered to persons examined in investigation
D:-Trial ends judgment of conviction or acquittal
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question169:-Which magistrate is NOT competent to pass order under 144 Cr PC?
A:-District Magistrate
B:-Sub Divisional Magistrate
C:-Tashildar and Executive Magistrate
D:-Chief Judicial Magistrate
Question170:-Which of the following acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta comprising one Chief Justice and three other judges?
A:-Regulating Act 1773
B:-Pitt’s India Act of 1784
C:-Charter Act of 1793
D:-Charter Act of 1813
Question171:-Which of the following acts provided for the establishment of a Federal Court?
A:-Indian Independence Act of 1947
B:-Indian Councils Act of 1892
C:-Government of India Act of 1919
D:-Government of India Act of 1935
Question172:-Who was the Chairman of Union Constitution Committee?
A:-Dr B R Ambedkar
B:-Jawaharlal Nehru
C:-Dr Rajendra Prasad
D:-Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Question173:-Which constitutional amendment also called as ‘Mini Constitution’ due to the important and large number of changes made by it in various parts of the
Constitution?
A:-1st
B:-42nd
C:-44th
D:-100th
Question174:-In which case the Supreme Court of India held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and
the Directive Principles’?
A:-Keshavananda Bharati case
B:-Minerva Mills case
C:-A K Gobalan case
D:-Golaknath case
Question175:-Which part of the Constitution is described as Magna Carta of India?
A:-Part I
B:-Part II
C:-Part III
D:-Part IV
Question176:-The concept of equal protection of laws has been taken from ……………………Constitution.
A:-British
B:-American
C:-Irish
D:-Canadian
Question177:-Article 312 of the Constitution authorises the Parliament to create new All Indian Services on the basis of a……………….resolution to that effect.
A:-Loksabha
B:-Rajyasabha
C:-Presidential
D:-More than half of the states
Question178:-Presidential suspensive veto is overridden by a re-passage of the bill by the Parliament by ……………….majority.
A:-Special
B:-Ordinary
C:-Special majority with half of the State’s ratification
D:-Simple majority with half of the Stat’s ratification
Question179:-……………………..is the pardoning power of the President which implies reducing the period of sentence without changing it’s character.
A:-Commutation
B:-Remission
C:-Respite
D:-Reprieve
Question180:-National Commission for Scheduled Caste submits an annual report to the…………..
A:-Parliament

B:-President
C:-Prime Minister
D:-Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice
Question181:-Who acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the Goods and Service Tax Council?
A:-Union Finance Minister
B:-Union Finance Secretary
C:-Union Revenue Secretary
D:-Person nominated by GST Council
Question182:-The constitution of India envisages the ……………………………as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
A:-Planning Commission
B:-NITI Ayog
C:-Finance Commission
D:-Election Commission
Question183:-Which among the following is NOT a constitutional body?
A:-Joint State Public Service Commission
B:-State Public Service Commission
C:-Union Public Service Commission
D:-National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Question184:-The Constitution visualises the………………..to be the ‘watch dog of merit system’ in India.
A:-Supreme Court of India
B:-Election Commission of India
C:-Union Public Service Commission
D:-Comptroller and Auditor General
Question185:-…………………..was the first state to establish Panchayat Raj.
A:-Kerala
B:-West Bengal
C:-Tamil Nadu
D:-Rajasthan
Question186:-Who appoints District Judges in a State?
A:-Chief Minister
B:-Chief Justice of High Court
C:-Governor
D:-State Law Minister
Question187:-Which among the following is NOT as special power of Rajya Sabha?
A:-To authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List
B:-To authorise the Parliament to create new All India Services
C:-To initiate removal of Vice President
D:-To pass no-confidence motion to remove Council of Ministers
Question188:-Which of the following statements is TRUE for Money bills?
A:-It can be introduced by any Member of Parliament
B:-It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President
C:-Its defeat does not lead to the resignation of the Government
D:-It can be amended or rejected by the Rajyasabha
Question189:- ………………………is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter like impeachment of the President.
A:-Substitute Motion
B:-Subsidiary Motion
C:-Substantive Motion
D:-Ancillary Motion
Question190:-Who summons from time to time each house of the Parliament to meet?
A:-President
B:-Prime Minister
C:-Secretary of Loksabha
D:-Secretary of Rajyasabha
Question191:-The Speaker Pro Tem has……………..
A:-All the powers of the Speaker
B:-Some of the powers of the Speaker
C:-Limited power of the Speaker
D:-No power at all
Question192:-Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which is a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the
world?
A:-Secretary Loksabha
B:-Loksabha Speaker
C:-Deputy Chairman of Rajyasabha
D:-President
Question193:-Which one of the following is NOT a qualification to be chosen a Member of Parliament in Loksabha?
A:-He must be a citizen of India
B:-He must not less than 25 years
C:-He must be belonging to one registered political party
D:-He must be registered as an elector for a Parliamentary Constituency
Question194:-The President nominates………………members to the Rajyasabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature,
science and social service.
A:-6
B:-12
C:-10
D:-15

Question195:-On what ground the Vice President can be removed from office as per the Constitution?
A:-Incapacity
B:-Misbehavior
C:-Violation of Constitution
D:-None of the above
Question196:-The list of languages recognized by the Constitution are given in the ……………………….schedule.
A:-Ninth
B:-Tenth
C:-Eighth
D:-Sixth
Question197:-Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)’s were first used in the State of ……………………in 2013.
A:-Kerala
B:-Andhra Pradesh
C:-Assam
D:-Nagaland
Question198:-Which of the following cases are not handled by Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
A:-Corruption
B:-Economic Offences
C:-Terrorism
D:-Cybercrimes
Question199:-What is the age of retirement of Chief Justice of Supreme Court?
A:-62
B:-65
C:-67
D:-60
Question200:-Who is the present Chief Justice of Supreme Court?
A:-Justice N V Ramana
B:-Justice U U Lalit
C:-Justice D Y Chandrachud
D:-Justice Manikumar